Đề thi và đáp án thi HSG tỉnh Thanh Hóa môn Tiếng Anh năm 2018

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
THANH HĨA
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Số báo danh

.....................

KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
NĂM HỌC 2017-2018
Mơn thi: Tiếng Anh 11- THPT
Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi: 09/ 3/ 2018
Đề thi có 08 trang

SECTION A: LISTENING (15 pts)
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
• Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau khoảng 15 giây, mở
đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu.
• Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 3 phút để hồn chỉnh bài trước
tín hiệu nhạc kết thúc bài nghe.
• Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.
PART I. You will hear a radio announcer giving information about the competition. Listen
carefully and fill in the missing information in the numbered space. NO MORE THAN
THREE WORDS NEEDED. (5pts)
Competition
1. Take a photograph showing (1) _______________ .
2. First prize: Holiday at (2) _______________ Bay, Jamaica.
3. Second prize: (3) _______________ worth £500.
4. Closing date: (4) _______________.
5. Age must be: (5) _______________.
PART II. Listen to Elisa, a rock star talking about her activities in the morning and decide

whether each of the following statements is True (T) or False (F).(5 pts)
6. The first thing Elisa does every day is she checks her email messages.
T/F
7. Elisa writes a couple of replies to the music journalists.
T/F
8. After eating a pastry with coffee, Elisa reads newspapers and magazines.
T/F
9. Elisa’s car arrives to take her to the studio at about 11.00.
T/F
10. Elisa drinks a cup of coffee and talks about the ideas with her fans in the studio.
T/F
PART III. You will hear Peter Walsh being interviewed for a job. Listen and choose the correct
answer for each question.(5pts)
11. How long has he been in his present job?
A. Since 2005
B. For three months
C. For about three years.
D. For three weeks
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12. Why does he want a new job?
A. For a change
C. To see new friends
13. What does he like most about his job?
A. The right to take actions and make decisions
C. Working conditions
14. What kind of person are they looking for?
A. Someone prepares to work overtime
C. Someone who wants to get on

15. What qualifications does Peter have?
A. A certificate of law
C. A postgraduate diploma

B. To get promotion
D. To earn more money
B. His colleagues
D. High salary
B. Someone who is punctual
D. Someone who is helpful
B. A school leaving certificate
D. A degree

SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 pts)
Question I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in
the same line. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (3pts)
16. A. complete
B. command
C. common
D. community
17. A. clothes
B. breaths
C. mouths
D. youths
18. A. leader
B. measles
C. great
D. teacher
Question II. Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words
in each question. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (2pts)

19. A. inform

B. polite

C. police

D. politics

20. A. history

B. mathematics

C. literature

D. physics

SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)
Question I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. Write the
answers on your answer sheet. (10 pts)
21. Far _______being poor, he is a millionaire.
A. away
B. of
C. but
D. from
22. Various societies define _______ in many rather complex ways.
A. that is successful
B. what success is
C. that success is
D. what is success
23. Her father is a _______ drinker. He is always drinking.

A. strong
B. addictive
C. heavy
D. capable
24. Scott’s tunes were a_______ of classical European and African beat.
A. mixture
B. combine
C. mix
D. combination
25. We all have to follow the rules, and none of us is________ the law.
A. beyond
B. over
C. above
D. onto
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26. I accidentally broke the________ by stepping on it. I apologized to them for my
carelessness.
A. child’s toys
B. children’s toy
C. child’s toy
D. children’s toys
27. You should consider the _______ carefully before you make a decision.
A. pros and cons
B. safe and sound
C. spick and span
D. adds and ends
28. _______ one of the most beautiful forms of performance art, ballet is a combination of
dance and mime performed to music.

A. Being considering
B. Considering
C. Considered
D. To consider
29. “Who was the man with you yesterday?”
- “He was _______.”
A. the next door man
B. the man next to the door
C. the man next by the door
D. the man next door
30. Of the two new secretaries, one is competent and ______ is not.
A. the second
B. the other
C. another
D. other
Question II. Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. Write the answers on your
answer sheet .(8 pts)
31. I don’t know why you always (talk) ______ in class, boys?
32. Tom will never forget (send)_________ to a boarding school when he was just 8 years old.
33. There were some people (row) _________ on the river.
34. It was our fault to keep Mary waiting so long. She (inform) ______ in advance.
35. He has been writing a letter to his family for half an hour. Now he (post) ______ it.
36. If television had been invented in the eighteenth century, George Washington (interview)
________ regularly on the evening news.
37. Bi Rain, together with 58 members of the South Korean National Military Symphony
Orchestra and 17 traditional musicians, (come) ______ to Vietnam since yesterday.
38. Sam (not receive) _______ the parcel the last time I spoke to him.
Question III. Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. Write the answers on your
answer sheet. (7pts)
39. His busy schedule made him completely ______ to his students.

(ACCESS)
40. Rescue team held out little hope of finding other ______.
(SURVIVE)
41. I really believe that it would be a major mistake to _____ any drugs
(CRIME)
that are currently illegal.
42. My lazy brother is ______________ about the history of Vietnam.
(KNOW)
43. The comedian joked about a plane crash and some in the audience thought
he was being ________.
44. The shark’s ________ is somewhat unfair as fatal attacks are

(RESPECT)
(NOTORIOUS)

extremely rare.
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45. Everyone thinks Ben is a weatherman, but he’s actually a _______,

(CLIMATE)

who is far more advanced.
Question IV. The passage below contains 5 mistakes ( from 46 to 50 ). Recognise the mistakes
and write their correct forms in your answer sheet. (5 pts)
Line
1
2
3

4
5
6
7
8
9
10

Language is considered a significant means for communication in international
relations. People in modern world have no longer been bound to their own countries.
Moreover, in keeping informed with speedily scientific developments nowadays, they
must widen their cooperative relations with those highly developing nations in other
parts of the world. Due to the fact that no one is able to communicate with any natives
in the world, it is necessary for people to choose to learn a foreign language as a
world-widely common means of communication. That is why English has been
chosen by almost people to be a foreign language to master. More and more people
use English and the number of those who learn English as a foreign language has
been increased so rapidly that it is the highest nowadays.

Example: Line 1: for→ of
SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
Question I. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the text below. Write the
answers on your answer sheet. (10 points)
In the age of alternative sources of energy, solar energy has come to the forefront. To
harness energy from the sun, or solar energy, one must receive it (51) _____directly from the
Sun or through very brief intermediate processes. An example of the (52) _____is when crops
which were grown using solar input are then used as fuel or biomass. Solar energy has many
(53) _____, from heating cool buildings to racing cars. It can also be converted directly into
electricity. Importantly, it is generally considered (54) _____for the environment, since it
produces almost no known hazards.

However, there are many criticisms of solar energy. It is often not a (5) _____ or viable
alternative in cold climates or places (56) _____go without seeing the sun for long periods of
time. It is also very difficult to transport. Power towers may be used to store solar energy for a
limited period of time, so when there is little or no (57) _____in certain regions, this source of
power can not be utilized.
Thus, though many environmentalists and other (58) ____strongly advocate solar energy
as a prime source of power, harvesting it and using it on a long-term basis are (59) _____. Until
more of these basic problems have been ironed out, there seems to be little hope that this will
(60) ______into a major source of energy for our communities.
Question II. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for
each space. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (10pts)
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INFLUENCES OF TELEVISION
Television has changed the (61)____of people in every industrialized country in the
world. In the United States, where sociologists have studied the effects, some interesting
(62)____ have been made.
TV, although not essential, has become an integral part of most people’s lives. It has
become a baby- sitter, an initiator of conversations, a major (63)______of culture, and a keeper
of traditions. (64)______when what can be seen on TV in one day is critically analyzed, it
becomes evident that TV is not a teacher but a sustainer. The poor quality of programs does not
elevate people (65)______ greater understanding, but rather maintains and encourages the status
quo.
The primary reason for the lack of quality in American TV is related to both the history
of TV development and the (66)______of TV. TV in American began with the radio companies
and their sponsors first experimented with TV. Therefore, the close relationship, which the
advertisers had with radio programs improved, and (67) ______ actually produced the programs.
Thus, coming from the capitalistic, profit - oriented sector of American society, TV is primarily
(68) ______ reflecting and attracting society rather than innovating and experimenting with new

ideas. Advertisers want to attract the largest viewing audience possible; to do so (69)______ that
the programs be entertaining rather than challenging.
TV in America today remains, to a large extent, with the same organization and standards
(70) ______ it had thirty years ago. The hope for some evolution and true achievement toward
improving society will require a change in the entire system.
61. A. habit
B. hobby
62. A. experiments
B. observations
63. A. transmitter
B. transporter
64. A. Yet
B. Nevertherless
65. A. with
B. for
66. A. economy
B. economics
67. A. much
B. a few
68. A. concerned with
B. related to
69. A. expects
B. requires
70. A. since
B. because
Question III. Read the passage and choose the
answers on your answer sheet. (10 pts)

C. lifestyle
D. interest

C. surveys
D. interviews
C. transistor
D. transformer
C. Moreover
D. If
C. towards
D. into
C. economical
D. economist
C. few
D. many
C. responsible for
D. keen on
C. thinks
D. suggests
C. as
D. although
best answers to questions below. Write the

In the early days of the United States, postal charges were paid by the recipients and
charges varied with the distance carried. In 1825, the United States Congress permitted local
postmasters to give letters to mail carriers for home delivery, but these carriers received no
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government salary and their entire compensation depended on what they were paid by the
recipients of individual letters.
In 1847 the United States Post Office Department adopted the idea of a postage stamp,
which of course simplified the payment for postal service but caused grumbling by those who

did not like to prepay. Besides, the stamp covered only delivery to the post office and did not
include carrying it to a private address. In Philadelphia, for example, with a population of
150.000, people still had to go to the post office to get their mail. The confusion and congestion
of individual citizens looking for their letters was itself enough to discourage use of the mail. It
is no wonder that, during the years of these cumbersome arrangements, private letter - carrying
and express businesses developed. Although their activities were only semi-legal, they thrived,
and actually advertised that between Boston and Philadelphia they were a half - day speedier
than the government mail. The government postal service lost volume to private competition
and was not able to handle efficiently even the business it had.
Finally, in 1863, Congress provided that the mail carriers who delivered the mail from the
post offices to private addresses should receive a government salary, and that there should be no
extra charge for that delivery. But this delivery service was at first confined to cities, and free
home delivery became a mark of urbanism. As late as 1887, a town had to have 10.000 people to
be eligible for free home delivery. In 1890, of the 75 million people in the United States, fewer
than 20 million had mail delivered free to their doors. The rest, nearly three-quarters of the
population, still received no mail unless they went to their post office.
71. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The increased use of private mail services.
B. The development of a government postal system.
C. A comparison of urban and rural postal services .
D. The history of postage stamps .
72. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that in the United States in the early 19 th
century______.
A. the recipient had to pay to receive the letters
B. the recipient paid the same for all kinds of letters
C. postage stamps for letters came into use
D. the mail carriers earned a lot of money from the government
73. Which of the following was seen as a disadvantage of the postage stamp?
A. It had to be purchased by the sender in advance.
B. It increased the cost of mail delivery.

C. It was difficult to affix to letters.
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D. It was easy to counterfeit.
74. Why does the author mention the city to Philadelphia?
A. It was the site of the first post office in the United States.
B. Its postal service was inadequate for its population.
C. It was the largest city in the United States in 1847.
D. It was commemorated by the first United States postage stamp.
75. The private postal services of the 19 th century claimed that they could do which of the
following better than the government?
A. Deliver a higher volume of mail.
B. Deliver mail more cheaply.
C. Deliver mail faster.
D. Deliver mail to rural areas.
76. The word “they” in the second paragraph refers to ________.
A. Boston and Philadelphia

B. businesses

C. arrangements

D. letters

77. The word “cumbersome” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to______.
A. quick and safe

B. slow but safe

C. slow and complicated

D. safe and efficient

78. In 1863 the United States government began providing which of the following to mail
carriers?
A. salary

B. housing

C. transportation

D. free postage stamps

79. The word “confined” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to______.
A. granted

B. scheduled

C. recommended

D. limited

80. All of the following statements are true of the American postal service in the second half of
the 19th century EXCEPT________.
A. Delivery service distinguishes cities from the countryside.
B. People paid more to get their letters delivered to their home.
C. Small towns did not provide delivery service.
D. About 55 million people had to get to the post office to receive their mail.

SECTION E: WRITING (20 pts)
Question I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as
possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. Write the answers on your answer sheet.
(5 pts)
81. The only thing that kept us out of prison was the way he spoke the local dialect.
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 But for ______________________________________________________ .
82. You are under no obligation to accept their offer.
You can please _________________________________________________.
83. Martin may not be very well but he still manages to enjoy life.
 Martin's poor __________________________________________________.
84. I regret not going to the airport to say goodbye to him.
 I wish _______________________________________________________.
85. Mick thought that we were married.
 Mick was _____________________________________________________.
Question II. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as
possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it but using the word given. Do not change
the form of the given word. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (5pts)
86. In the end, I felt I had been right to leave the club.
(REGRETS)
____________________________________________________.
87. Don’t worry. There will be another chance.


(KEEP)
.

88. His choice always followed what his wife decided.

(STEP)

____________________________________________________.
89. We missed the beginning of the concert because we had overslept.
____________________________________________________.
90. The fridge is completely empty.
____________________________________________________.

(CONSEQUENCE)
(LEFT)

Question III. Essay writing (10 pts)
It is said that young people should do volunteer work while studying. Do you agree or disagree?
Write an essay of about 200 - 250 words to support your opinion.
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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
THANH HĨA

KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
NĂM HỌC 2017-2018
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh 11 - THPT

ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HD CHẤM
( HDC gồm 04 trang)

Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi: 09/ 3/ 2018

SECTION A: LISTENING (15 pts)
PART I. You will hear a radio announcer giving information about the competition. Listen
carefully and fill in the missing information in the numbered space. (5pts)

1. family life

2. Silver Sand

3. camera

4. 31, August

5. over 18

PART II. Listen to Elisa, a rock star talking about her activities in the morning and decide
whether each of the following statements is True (T) or False (F).(5 pts)
6. T

7. F

8. F

9. T

10. F

PART III. You will hear Peter Walsh being interviewed for a job. Listen and choose the correct

answer for each question.(5pts)
11. C

12. B

13. A

14. A

15. D

SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 pts)
Question I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in
the same line. Write the answers on your answer sheet (3pts)
16.C

17.B

18.C

ơ

Question II. Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three
words in each question. Write the answers on your answer sheet (2pts)
19.D

20.B

SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)
Question I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10 pts)

21.D
26.B

22.B
27.A

23.C
28.C

24.A
29.D

25.C
30.B

ơ

Question II. Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. Write the answers on your
answer sheet .(8 pts)
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31. are always talking

35. is going to post

32. being sent

36. would have been interviewed

33. rowing

37. has come

34. should have been informed

38. hadn’t received

Question III. Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. Write the answers on your
answer sheet. (7pts)
39. inaccessible

43. disrespectful

40. survivors

44. notoriety

41. decriminalize

45. climatologist

42. unknowledgeable
Question IV. The passage below contains 5 mistakes ( from 31 to 36 ). Recognise the mistakes
and write their correct forms in your answer sheet. (5 pts)
46. Line 3: speedily

→ speedy

47. Line 4: developing

→ developed

48. Line 7: world- widely → world- wide
49. Line 8: almost

→ most

50. Line 10: increased

→ increasing

SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
Question I. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the text below. Write the
answers on your answer sheet. (10 pts)
51. either
56. that/ which

52. latter
57. sunlight

53. purposes
58. proponents/supporters

54. safe
59. problematic

55. practical
60. turn

Question II. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for
each space. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (10pts)
61. C
62. B
63. A
64. A
65. D
66. B
67. D
68. A
69. B
70. C
Question III. Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. Write the
answers on your answer sheet. (10 pts)
71. B
76. B

72. A
77. C

73. A
78. A

74. B
79. D

75. C
80. B
10

SECTION E: WRITING (20 pts)
Question I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as
possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5 pts)
81. But for his command of the local dialect, we could have been put into prison / jail.
82. You can please yourself (yourselves) about whether you accept their offer or not.
83. Martin's poor health doesn't stop ( prevent ) him from enjoying life.
84. I wish I had gone to the airport to say goodbye to him.
85. Mick was under the impression that we were married.
Question II. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as
possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it but using the word given. Do not change
the form of the given word. (5pts)
86. I had no regrets about/on/ over leaving/ having the club in the end.
87. Keep your end up, there will be another chance.
88. His choice was always in step with his wife’s decision/ what his wife decided.
89. We missed the beginning of the concert as a consequence of oversleeping.
90. There is nothing left in the fridge.
Question III. Essay writing (10 pts)
Marking scheme: The impression mark should be based on the following scheme
1. Format: 2 pts ( coherence, cohesion , style )
The essay should include 3 parts:
a. Introduction: should be put in one paragraph in which students’ points of view are expressed
clearly
b. Body: should consist of from two to three paragraphs. Each paragraph must have a topic
sentence, reasonings and examples.
c. Conclusion (summary of the main reasons, students’ comment)
2. Content : 5pts
A provision of main ideas and details as appropriate to support the argument.
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Note:
- Students can totally agree/ disagree or partly agree.
- Students can give their opinion right in the introduction or discuss the issue and give his or her
own opinion in the conclusion.
3. Language : 3pts (grammatical accuracy, a wide range of vocabulary and structures )
B- HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM:
- Tổng điểm toàn bài : 100 điểm
- Thang điểm:

20
Tổng số điểm các câu làm đúng

Điểm bài thi

=
5

- Điểm bài thi được làm tròn đến 0,25
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