ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC MÔN NGOẠI NGỮ ĐỢT 2(2013-2014) TRƯỜNG THPT LƯƠNG THẾ VINH - HÀ NỘI

SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO
TRƯỜNG THPT LƯƠNG THẾ VINH-HÀ
NỘI
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC ĐỢT 2 (2013-2014)
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh (Khối D/A1)
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút;
(80 câu trắc nghiệm)
Mã đề thi
831
(Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu)
Họ, tên thí sinh: Số báo danh:
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is correct and
closest in meaning to each of the following sentences from 1 to 5.
Question 1: Choosing a suitable job is really important to adolescents.
A. It is really important to choose a suitable job for adolescents.
B. It is of great importance for adolescents to choose a suitable job.
C. Choosing a suitable job for adolescents is a really important affair.
D. The choice of a suitable job for adolescents is really important.
Question 2: That will put the cat among the pigeons.
A. That will cause a lot of trouble.
B. The cat will have to stay outside the house today.
C. Then we shall have as many cats as we have pigeons.
D. The cat will play with the pigeons.
Question 3: Transportation has been made much easier thanks to the invention of cars, but cars are
the greatest contributor of air pollution.
A. It is cars that are the greatest contributor of air pollution although the invention of cars has
made transportation much easier.
B. The invention of cars has made transportation much easier, but cars are among the greatest
contributors of air pollution.
C. Although the invention of cars has made transportation much easier, people use cars to

contribute to the pollution of air.
D. However easier the invention of cars has made transportation, it is cars that are among the
greatest contributors of air pollution.
Question 4: The purpose of any invention is to make our lives better, so good or bad, it depends on
the way by which we use these inventions.
A. We can use either good or bad inventions to make our lives better.
B. Whether an invention is good or bad depends on the way by which we use it because the
purpose of any invention is to make our lives better.
C. The purpose of any invention, whether good or bad, is to make our lives better. This depends
on the way by which we use these inventions.
D. Good or bad as they are, all inventions have the same purpose: to make our lives better.
Question 5: It is acknowledged that Vietnam had a complete control over SARS from a very early
stage of the epidemic.
A. Vietnam is acknowledged to have completely controlled SARS from a very early stage of the
epidemic.
B. Vietnam is acknowledged to have controlled SARS from a very early stage of the epidemic.
C. Vietnam was acknowledged to have had a complete control over SARS from a very early
stage of the epidemic.
D. Vietnam is acknowledged to have a complete control over SARS from a very early stage of
the epidemic.
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose
the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 6 to 15.
ENGLISH SPELLING
Why does English spelling have a reputation for being difficult? English was first written down
when Christian monks came to England in Anglo-Saxon (6) _________. They used the 23 letters of
Latin to write down the sounds of Anglo-Saxon (7) _________ as they heard it. However, English
has a (8) __________ range of basic sounds (over 40) than Latin. The alphabet was too small, and
so combinations of letters were needed to (9) ________ the different sounds. Inevitably, there were
inconsistencies in the way that letters were combined.

With the Norman invasion of England, the English language was put at risk. English survived,
but the spelling of many English words changed to follow French (10) __________, and many
French words were introduced into the language. The result was more irregularity.
When the printing press was (11) __________ in the fifteenth century, many early printers of
English texts spoke other first languages. They made little effort to respect English spelling.
Although one of the short-term (12) __________ of printing was to produce a number of variant
spellings, in the long term it created fixed spellings. People became used to seeing words spelt in the
same way. Rules were (13) __________, and dictionaries were put together which printers and
writers could refer to. However, spoken English was not fixed and continued to change slowly- just
as it still does now. Letters that were sounded in the Anglo-Saxon period, like the ‘k’ in ‘knife’, now
became (14) ___________. Also, the pronunciation of vowels then had little in common with how
they sound now, but the way they are spelt hasn’t changed. No (15) __________, then, that it is
often difficult to see the link between sound and spelling.
Question 6: A. centuries B. times C. ages D. years
Question 7: A. chat B. communication C. speech D. discussion
Question 8: A. longer B. deeper C. thicker D. wider
Question 9: A. tell B. express C. explain D. perform
Question 10: A. types B. guides C. plans D. patterns
Question 11: A. discovered B. made up C. taken in D. invented
Question 12: A. conclusions B. actions C. meanings D. effects
Question 13: A. filled in B. drawn up C. handed out D. got across
Question 14: A. silent B. dumb C. quiet D. speechless
Question 15: A. problem B. mention C. wonder D. idea
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet that is best made from the given prompts in
the following sentences from 16 to 20.
Question 16: appearance/ steamboats and railroads/ reduce/ transportation cost/ and have effects/
conditions/ workers.
A. Appearance of the steamboats and the railroads have reduced transportation cost and had
effects in conditions of workers.
B. The appearance of the steamboats and railroads have reduced transportation cost and had

effects on conditions of workers.
C. The appearance of steamboats and railroads had reduced transportation cost and had effects on
conditions of workers.
D. The appearance of steamboats and railroads reduced transportation cost and had effects on the
conditions of workers.
Question 17: He/ like/ nothing/ better/ sit/ read/ science books/ father’s/ library.
A. He liked nothing better than to sit to read science books in his father’s library.
B. He liked nothing better than to sit and read science books in his father’s library.
C. He liked nothing better than to sit and read science books in father’s library.
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D. He liked nothing better than sitting and read science books in his father’s library.
Question 18: new/machinery/ put in/ this year/ with a view/ increase output.
A. New machinery have been put in this year with a view to increase output.
B. New machinery has put in this year with a view to increasing output.
C. New machinery has been put in this year with a view to increase output.
D. New machinery has been put in this year with a view to increasing output.
Question 19: James Watt/ invention/ steam/ engine/ famous/ world/ Scottish scientist.
A. James Watt whose invention of the steam engine is famous throughout the world was Scottish
scientist.
B. James Watt, whose invention of the steam engine is famous throughout the world, was a
Scottish scientist.
C. James Watt whose invention of the steam engine is famous round the world was a Scottish
scientist.
D. James Watt, whose invention of the steam engine is famous all the world, is a Scottish
scientist.
Question 20: scientists/ proved/ there/ close link/ smoking/ lung diseases/ such as/ cough/
tuberculosis/ and/ worst/ all/ fatal cancer.
A. Scientists have proved that there is a close link between smoking and lung diseases, such as
cough and tuberculosis and the worst of all is fatal cancer.
B. Scientists have proved that there has been a close link of smoking with lung diseases, such as

cough and tuberculosis and the worst of all, fatal cancer.
C. Scientists proved that there has been a close link from smoking to lung diseases, such as from
cough to tuberculosis and worst of all, fatal cancer.
D. Scientists have been proving that there is a close link between smoking and lung diseases,
such as cough and tuberculosis and worst of all is fatal cancer.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase closest in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 21 to 23.
Question 21: Although the staff did expand somewhat, for the first century of its existence, the
entire teaching staff consisted of the president and three or four tutors.
A. back and forth B. to and fro C. more or less D. side by side
Question 22: Every time he opens his mouth, he immediately regrets what he said. He’s always
putting his foot in his mouth.
A. speaking indirectly B. making a mistake
C. doing things in the wrong order D. saying embarrassing things
Question 23: To remedy this situation, the Constitution of the United States, approved in 1789,
allowed Congress to issue money.
A. resolve B. medicate C. understand D. renew
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 24: In 1864, twelve nations signed the first Geneva Convention, __________ down rules
for the treatment and protection of the wounded.
A. lying B. lied C. laying D. laid
Question 25: I can’t see us beating them at tennis this year. We are so out of _________.
A. step B. practice C. fitness D. breath
Question 26: I was talking to my aunt when suddenly my cousin George ________ in on our
conversation.
A. went B. interrupted C. intervened D. broke
Question 27: We wish that you __________ such a lot of work, because we know that you would
have enjoyed the party.
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A. hadn’t B. wouldn’t have C. didn’t have D. hadn’t had
Question 28: He trained his muscles by __________ weightlifting and bodybuilding.
A. doing B. playing C. going D. taking
Question 29: I was glad when he said that his car was__________.
A. for me use B. at my use C. for my use D. at my disposal
Question 30: It’s no use getting __________ him. He won’t change his mind.
A. on B. across C. off D. around
Question 31: “Would you bother if I had a look at your paper?” – “ __________.”
A. Well, actually I’d rather you didn’t B. That’s a good idea
C. You’re welcome D. Oh, I didn’t realize it
Question 32: You must obey the speed limits on public roads. They are designed to keep you safe.
You shouldn’t exceed the speed limit __________ you are an experienced race car driver.
A. only if B. even if C. provided that D. if
Question 33: The City Planning Department proposed that the new highway__________ in the
fiscal year 2015.
A. would be built B. be built C. is to be built D. will be built
Question 34: “I’m going for an interview for a job this afternoon” - “Good luck! I’ll keep my
_______crossed for you.”
A. fingers B. legs C. arms D. hands
Question 35: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is stressed
differently from the others.
A. overlook B. influential C. furniture D. oceanic
Question 36: He blamed __________ me __________not explaining the lesson __________her
carefully.
A. on/for/to B. ø/ about/ for C. for/ on/ for D. ø/ for/ to
Question 37: “Haven’t you put an ad in the paper yet?” – “__________ .”
A. I can get a paper for you B. I’m not sure
C. I’m with you there D. I will, first thing in the morning
Question 38: __________, we missed our plane.
A. As the train being late B. The train was late

C. The train being late D. To be late
Question 39: Beyond the mountains ___________ where you will live.
A. does the town lie B. lies the town C. which the town lies D. the town lies
Question 40: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that does not
contain a silent letter.
A. rhino B. trade C. protect D. receipt
Question 41: Many citizens say that they are __________ of the political policies of the candidates
in a local election.
A. ignoring B. ignorance C. ignorant D. ignorantly
Question 42: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is
primarily stressed on the third syllable.
A. cooperation B. supervise C. reinforce D. committee
Question 43: __________ you give the answer, ___________.
A. The quicker – the better you can get marks
B. The more quickly – the better marks you can get
C. More quickly – better marks you can get
D. The quickest – the best marks you can get
Question 44: Tony and Nancy always kiss and make __________ after their argument.
A. up with B. clear C. up D. out
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Question 45: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is not
stressed on the first syllable.
A. purchase B. ignorant C. tuition D. vigorous
Question 46: The player was ejected after committing 5 personal __________.
A. faults B. mistakes C. errors D. fouls
Question 47: “Do you think it’s bad to keep all the candy to yourself?”
– “___________ .”
A. I’m sorry. Sometimes I’m too aggressive
B. You’re right. I’m a bit jealous
C. You are absolutely right.I’m crazy about candy

D. I’m sorry. I should not be so selfish
Question 48: Which of the following words is not an acronym?
A. CANCER B. CARE C. LASER D. AIDS
Question 49: At the end of the nineteenth century, Alfred Binet developed a test for measuring
intelligence ________ served as the basis of modern IQ tests.
A. it has B. has C. which has D. and
Question 50: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that contains a
consonant /θ/.
A. diphthong B. southern C. breathing D. smooth
Question 51: Hundreds came to __________ their last respects to the dead president.
A. pay B. express C. have D. indicate
Question 52: International Games themselves can help to solve the problem of ___________
among countries.
A. takeoffs B. kickoffs C. standoffs D. warm-ups
Question 53: One of the conservation efforts is the development of wildlife__________.
A. reserves B. reverses C. conserves D. reservoirs
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) opposite in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 54 to 55.
Question 54: Some vegetables are grown without soil and artificial light.
A. real B. natural C. true D. genuine
Question 55: Mutualism is a type of symbiosis that occurs when two unlike organisms live
together in a state that is mutually beneficial.
A. alike B. likely C. similar D. dislike
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the answer to each of the questions from 56 to 65.
DESERTIFICATION
Desertification is the degradation of once-productive land into unproductive or poorly
productive land. Since the first great urban-agricultural centers in Mesopotamia nearly 6,000 years
ago, human activity has had a destructive impact on soil quality, leading to gradual desertification in
virtually every area of the world.

It is a common misconception that desertification is caused by droughts. Although drought
does make land more vulnerable, well-managed land can survive droughts and recover, even in arid
regions. Another mistaken belief is that the process occurs only along the edges of deserts. In fact, it
may take place in any arid or semiarid region, especially where poor land management is practised.
Most vulnerable, however, are the transitional zones between deserts and arable land; wherever
human activity leads to land abuse in these fragile marginal areas, soil destruction is inevitable.
[1] Agriculture and overgrazing are the two major sources of desertification. [2] Large-scale
farming requires extensive irrigation, which ultimately destroys lands by depleting its nutrients and
leaching minerals into the topsoil. [3] Grazing is especially destructive to land because , in addition
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to depleting cover vegetation, herds of grazing mammals also trample the fine organic particles of
the topsoil, leading to soil compaction and erosion. [4] It takes about 500 years for the earth to
build up 3 centimeters of topsoil. However, cattle ranching and agriculture can deplete as much as 2
to 3 centimeters of topsoil every 25 years- 60 to 80 times faster than it can be replaced by nature.
Salination is a type of land degradation that involves an increase in the salt content of the
soil. This usually occurs as a result of improper irrigation practices. The greatest Mesopotamian
empires- Sumer, Akkad and Babylon- were built on the surplus of the enormously productive soil of
the ancient Tigris-Euphrates alluvial plain. After nearly a thousand years of intensive cultivation,
land quality was in evident decline. In response, around 2800 BC the Sumerians began digging the
huge Tigris-Euphrates canal system to irrigate the exhausted soil. A temporary gain in crop yield
was achieved in this way, but over-irrigation was to have serious and unforeseen consequences.
From as early as 2400 BC we find Sumerian documents referring to salinization as a soil problem. It
is believed that the fall of the Akkadian Empire around 2150 BC may have been due to a
catastrophic failure in land productivity; the soil was literally turned into salt. Even today, four
thousand years later, vast tracks of salinized land between the Tigris and Euphrates rivers still
resemble rock-hard fields of snow.
Soil erosion is another form of desertification. It is a self-reinforcing process; once the cycle
of degradation begins, conditions are set for continual deterioration. As the vegetative cover begins
to disappear, soil becomes more vulnerable to raindrop impact. Water runs off instead of soaking in
to provide moisture for plans. This further diminishes plan cover by leaching away nutrients from

the soil. As soil quality declines and runoff is increased, floods become more frequent and more
severe. Flooding washes away topsoil, the thin, rich, uppermost layer of the earth’s soil, and leaves
finer underlying particles more vulnerable to wind erosion. Topsoil contains the earth’s greatest
concentration of organic matter and microorganisms, and is where most of the earth’s land-based
biological activity occurs. Without this fragile coat of nutrient-laden material, plan life cannot exist.
An extreme case of its erosion is found in the Sahel, a transitional zone between the Sahara Desert
and the tropical African rain forests; home to some 56 million people. Overpopulation and
overgrazing have opened the hyperarid land to wind erosion, which is stripping away the protective
margin of the Sahel, and causing the desert to grow at an alarming rate. Between 1950 and 1975, the
Sahara Desert spread 100 kilometers southward through the Sahel.
Question 56: Which of the following statements is true about desertification?
A. It has a history as long as that of civilization.
B. It was just as serious in the past as it is today.
C. It is a fairly recent problem.
D. Ancient societies managed the problem well.
Question 57: The word “arable” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. cultivatable B. dry C. settled D. populated
Question 58: According to the passage, many people’s understanding of desertification is incorrect
because
A. they do not think of it as a serious problem
B. they see it as being reversible
C. they do not see it as being caused by human activity
D. they think of it as a very slow process
Question 59: Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the
highlighted sentence in the passage? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or
leave out essential information.
A. Most of the vulnerable areas are in transition from desert to arable land; a process that because
of human activity and the delicate nature of these areas, always leads to soil loss.
B. Human activity in the transition areas is vulnerable because of the fragile nature of these areas
that are neither desert nor arable land because they have suffered damage to the soil

C. Soil loss in the transitional zones is especially severe where human activity is damaging the
environment through agriculture which is causing the loss of soil.
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D. It is the areas that exist between the deserts and the land that is usable for agriculture that are
most at risk because they are susceptible to poor land management methods from human activity
which will always result in the loss of soil.
Question 60: The word “compaction” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. fragmentation B. depletion C. disruption D. compression
Question 61: According to the passage, agriculture furthers desertification through which of the
following activities
A. The repetitive planting of the same crops B. Irrigation
C. The stripping away of native vegetation D. Over fertilization
Question 62: The word “degradation” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. rejuvenation B. deterioration C. contribution D. consumption
Question 63: Paragraph 4 of the passage serves mainly to do which of the following?
A. Show the progress of desertification down through history
B. Propose a method for dealing with the desertification problem.
C. Describe one process that leads to desertification
D. Describe the main cause of desertification in one particular area
Question 64: The word “leaching” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to
A. washing B. depositing C. concentrating D. dispersing
Question 65: Look at numbers [1], [2], [3], [4] in paragraph 3 of the passage. Where would the
following sentence best fit?
Each furthers the process dramatically, but they act in quite different ways
A. [1] B. [2] C. [4] D. [3]
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the answer to each of the questions from 66 to 75.
Though Edmund Halley was most famous because of his achievements as an astronomer, he was
a scientist of diverse interests and great skill. In addition to studying the skies, Halley was also
deeply interested in exploring the unknown depths of the oceans. One of his lesser-known

accomplishments that were quite remarkable was his design for a diving bell that facilitated
exploration of the watery depths.
The diving bell that Halley designed had a major advantage over the diving bells that were in use
prior to his. Earlier diving bells could only make use of the air contained within the bell itself, so
divers had to surface when the air inside the bell ran low. Halley’s bell was an improvement in that
its design allowed for an additional supply of fresh air that enabled a crew of divers to remain
underwater for several hours.
The diving contraption that Halley designed was in the shape of a bell that measured three feet
across the top and five feet across the bottom and could hold several divers comfortably; it was open
at the bottom so that divers could swim in and out at will. The bell was built of wood, which was
first heavily tarred to make it water repellent and was then covered with a half-ton sheet of lead to
make the bell heavy enough to sink in water. The bell shape held air inside for the divers to breathe
as the bell sank to the bottom.
The air inside the bell was not the only source of air for the divers to breathe, and it was this
improvement that made Halley’s bell superior to its predecessors. In addition to the air already in
the bell, air was also supplied to the divers from a lead barrel that was lowered to the ocean floor
close to the bell itself. Air flowed through a leather pipe from the lead barrel on the ocean floor to
the bell. The diver could breathe the air from a position inside the bell, or he could move around
outside the bell wearing a diving suit that consisted of a lead bell-shaped helmet with a glass
viewing window and a leather body suit, with a leather pipe carrying fresh air from the diving bell
to the helmet.
Question 66: The subject of the preceding passage was most likely Halley’s
A. childhood B. work as an astronomer
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C. invention of the diving bell D. many different interests
Question 67: Halley’s bell was better than its predecessors because it
A. was bigger B. provided more air
C. weighed less D. could rise more quickly
Question 68: The expression “ran low” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. sank to the bottom B. was almost exhausted

C. had been replenished D. move slowly
Question 69: How long could divers stay underwater in Halley’s bell?
A. Just a few seconds B. Only a few minutes
C. For days on end D. For hours at a time
Question 70: It is NOT stated in the passage that Halley’s bell
A. was completely enclosed B. was wider at the top than at the bottom
C. could hold more than one diver D. was made of tarred wood
Question 71: The expression “at will” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by
A. in the future B. upside down C. as they wanted D. with great speed
Question 72: It can be inferred from the passage that, were Halley’s bell not covered with lead, it
would
A. float B. get wet
C. trap the divers D. suffocate the divers
Question 73: Where in the passage does the author indicate how air traveled from the barrel to the
bell?
A. Lines 8-10 B. Lines 11-13 C. Lines 17-18 D. line 20
Question 74: In which paragraph does the author describe the diving bells that preceded Halley’s?
A. The first paragraph B. The second paragraph
C. The third paragraph D. The fourth paragraph
Question 75: This passage would most likely be assigned reading in a course on
A. astronomy B. physiology C. oceanography D. recreation
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions from 76 to 80.
Question 76: One another surprising method of forest conservation is controlled cutting of trees.
A. surprising B. conservation is C. controlled cutting D. One another
Question 77: There are many frequently mentioned reasons why one out of four arrests involve a
juvenile.
A. frequently B. mentioned C. involve D. four arrests
Question 78: Perhaps the most welcoming and friendly of the park’s wild places is the live oak
forest that surrounds the district’s alone visitors’ center in Gulf Breeze.

A. alone B. welcoming C. friendly D. live
Question 79: On June 30, 1992, international timekeepers in Paris were added an extra second to
the day.
A. on B. second C. were added D. the day
Question 80: In 1863 and 1864, the U.S. Congress passed the National Banks Acts, which set up a
system of privately owned banks chartered by a federal government.
A. chartered B. privately owned banks
C. a federal government D. the National Banks Acts

THE END
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SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO
TRƯỜNG THPT LƯƠNG THẾ VINH-HÀ
NỘI
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC ĐỢT 2 (2013-
2014)
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh (Khối D/A1)
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút;
(80 câu trắc nghiệm)
Mã đề
thi 832
(Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu)
Họ, tên thí sinh: Số báo danh:
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 1: Tony and Nancy always kiss and make __________ after their argument.
A. up B. up with C. clear D. out
Question 2: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that contains a
consonant /θ/.

A. diphthong B. smooth C. breathing D. southern
Question 3: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is stressed
differently from the others.
A. influential B. furniture C. oceanic D. overlook
Question 4: It’s no use getting __________ him. He won’t change his mind.
A. off B. around C. on D. across
Question 5: “Haven’t you put an ad in the paper yet?” – “__________ .”
A. I can get a paper for you B. I’m not sure
C. I’m with you there D. I will, first thing in the morning
Question 6: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that does not
contain a silent letter.
A. rhino B. trade C. protect D. receipt
Question 7: In 1864, twelve nations signed the first Geneva Convention, __________ down rules
for the treatment and protection of the wounded.
A. laying B. laid C. lied D. lying
Question 8: One of the conservation efforts is the development of wildlife__________.
A. reserves B. reservoirs C. conserves D. reverses
Question 9: At the end of the nineteenth century, Alfred Binet developed a test for measuring
intelligence ________ served as the basis of modern IQ tests.
A. has B. it has C. which has D. and
Question 10: I can’t see us beating them at tennis this year. We are so out of _________.
A. step B. fitness C. practice D. breath
Question 11: The City Planning Department proposed that the new highway__________ in the
fiscal year 2015.
A. be built B. is to be built C. would be built D. will be built
Question 12: I was glad when he said that his car was__________.
A. for my use B. at my use C. for me use D. at my disposal
Question 13: We wish that you __________ such a lot of work, because we know that you would
have enjoyed the party.
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A. didn’t have B. wouldn’t have C. hadn’t D. hadn’t had
Question 14: __________, we missed our plane.
A. The train being late B. To be late
C. As the train being late D. The train was late
Question 15: The player was ejected after committing 5 personal __________.
A. errors B. fouls C. mistakes D. faults
Question 16: International Games themselves can help to solve the problem of ___________
among countries.
A. takeoffs B. kickoffs C. standoffs D. warm-ups
Question 17: You must obey the speed limits on public roads. They are designed to keep you safe.
You shouldn’t exceed the speed limit __________ you are an experienced race car driver.
A. even if B. if C. only if D. provided that
Question 18: “I’m going for an interview for a job this afternoon” - “Good luck! I’ll keep my
_______crossed for you.”
A. fingers B. hands C. legs D. arms
Question 19: __________ you give the answer, ___________.
A. The more quickly – the better marks you can get
B. The quicker – the better you can get marks
C. More quickly – better marks you can get
D. The quickest – the best marks you can get
Question 20: I was talking to my aunt when suddenly my cousin George ________ in on our
conversation.
A. broke B. went C. interrupted D. intervened
Question 21: Many citizens say that they are __________ of the political policies of the candidates
in a local election.
A. ignoring B. ignorance C. ignorantly D. ignorant
Question 22: Beyond the mountains ___________ where you will live.
A. the town lies B. does the town lie
C. lies the town D. which the town lies
Question 23: He trained his muscles by __________ weightlifting and bodybuilding.

A. taking B. playing C. doing D. going
Question 24: “Do you think it’s bad to keep all the candy to yourself?”
– “___________ .”
A. I’m sorry. Sometimes I’m too aggressive
B. You’re right. I’m a bit jealous
C. You are absolutely right.I’m crazy about candy
D. I’m sorry. I should not be so selfish
Question 25: Hundreds came to __________ their last respects to the dead president.
A. express B. have C. indicate D. pay
Question 26: He blamed __________ me __________not explaining the lesson __________her
carefully.
A. ø/ for/ to B. on/for/to C. ø/ about/ for D. for/ on/ for
Question 27: Which of the following words is not an acronym?
A. AIDS B. CARE C. LASER D. CANCER
Question 28: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is
primarily stressed on the third syllable.
A. cooperation B. reinforce C. supervise D. committee
Question 29: “Would you bother if I had a look at your paper?” – “ __________.”
A. You’re welcome B. That’s a good idea
C. Well, actually I’d rather you didn’t D. Oh, I didn’t realize it
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Question 30: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is not
stressed on the first syllable.
A. purchase B. vigorous C. ignorant D. tuition
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose
the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 40.
ENGLISH SPELLING
Why does English spelling have a reputation for being difficult? English was first written down
when Christian monks came to England in Anglo-Saxon (31) _________. They used the 23 letters
of Latin to write down the sounds of Anglo-Saxon (32) _________ as they heard it. However,

English has a (33) __________ range of basic sounds (over 40) than Latin. The alphabet was too
small, and so combinations of letters were needed to (34) ________ the different sounds. Inevitably,
there were inconsistencies in the way that letters were combined.
With the Norman invasion of England, the English language was put at risk. English survived,
but the spelling of many English words changed to follow French (35 __________, and many
French words were introduced into the language. The result was more irregularity.
When the printing press was (36) __________ in the fifteenth century, many early printers of
English texts spoke other first languages. They made little effort to respect English spelling.
Although one of the short-term (37) __________ of printing was to produce a number of variant
spellings, in the long term it created fixed spellings. People became used to seeing words spelt in the
same way. Rules were (38) __________, and dictionaries were put together which printers and
writers could refer to. However, spoken English was not fixed and continued to change slowly- just
as it still does now. Letters that were sounded in the Anglo-Saxon period, like the ‘k’ in ‘knife’, now
became (39) ___________. Also, the pronunciation of vowels then had little in common with how
they sound now, but the way they are spelt hasn’t changed. No (40) __________, then, that it is
often difficult to see the link between sound and spelling.
Question 31: A. ages B. centuries C. years D. times
Question 32: A. chat B. discussion C. speech D. communication
Question 33: A. wider B. thicker C. longer D. deeper
Question 34: A. tell B. express C. perform D. explain
Question 35: A. types B. plans C. patterns D. guides
Question 36: A. invented B. discovered C. made up D. taken in
Question 37: A. actions B. conclusions C. effects D. meanings
Question 38: A. handed out B. got across C. filled in D. drawn up
Question 39: A. dumb B. silent C. speechless D. quiet
Question 40: A. problem B. idea C. mention D. wonder
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase closest in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 41 to 43.
Question 41: Every time he opens his mouth, he immediately regrets what he said. He’s always
putting his foot in his mouth.

A. speaking indirectly B. saying embarrassing things
C. doing things in the wrong order D. making a mistake
Question 42: Although the staff did expand somewhat, for the first century of its existence, the
entire teaching staff consisted of the president and three or four tutors.
A. back and forth B. to and fro C. more or less D. side by side
Question 43: To remedy this situation, the Constitution of the United States, approved in 1789,
allowed Congress to issue money.
A. renew B. resolve C. understand D. medicate
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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) opposite in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 44 to 45.
Question 44: Mutualism is a type of symbiosis that occurs when two unlike organisms live
together in a state that is mutually beneficial.
A. dislike B. likely C. similar D. alike
Question 45: Some vegetables are grown without soil and artificial light.
A. true B. genuine C. natural D. real
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions from 46 to 50.
Question 46: On June 30, 1992, international timekeepers in Paris were added an extra second to
the day.
A. the day B. on C. second D. were added
Question 47: Perhaps the most welcoming and friendly of the park’s wild places is the live oak
forest that surrounds the district’s alone visitors’ center in Gulf Breeze.
A. friendly B. welcoming C. live D. alone
Question 48: One another surprising method of forest conservation is controlled cutting of trees.
A. conservation is B. surprising C. One another D. controlled cutting
Question 49: In 1863 and 1864, the U.S. Congress passed the National Banks Acts, which set up a
system of privately owned banks chartered by a federal government.
A. the National Banks Acts B. privately owned banks
C. chartered D. a federal government

Question 50: There are many frequently mentioned reasons why one out of four arrests involve a
juvenile.
A. mentioned B. four arrests
C. frequently D. involve
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the answer to each of the questions from 51 to 60.
DESERTIFICATION
Desertification is the degradation of once-productive land into unproductive or poorly
productive land. Since the first great urban-agricultural centers in Mesopotamia nearly 6,000 years
ago, human activity has had a destructive impact on soil quality, leading to gradual desertification in
virtually every area of the world.
It is a common misconception that desertification is caused by droughts. Although drought
does make land more vulnerable, well-managed land can survive droughts and recover, even in arid
regions. Another mistaken belief is that the process occurs only along the edges of deserts. In fact, it
may take place in any arid or semiarid region, especially where poor land management is practised.
Most vulnerable, however, are the transitional zones between deserts and arable land; wherever
human activity leads to land abuse in these fragile marginal areas, soil destruction is inevitable.
[1] Agriculture and overgrazing are the two major sources of desertification. [2] Large-scale
farming requires extensive irrigation, which ultimately destroys lands by depleting its nutrients and
leaching minerals into the topsoil. [3] Grazing is especially destructive to land because , in addition
to depleting cover vegetation, herds of grazing mammals also trample the fine organic particles of
the topsoil, leading to soil compaction and erosion. [4] It takes about 500 years for the earth to
build up 3 centimeters of topsoil. However, cattle ranching and agriculture can deplete as much as 2
to 3 centimeters of topsoil every 25 years- 60 to 80 times faster than it can be replaced by nature.
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Salination is a type of land degradation that involves an increase in the salt content of the
soil. This usually occurs as a result of improper irrigation practices. The greatest Mesopotamian
empires- Sumer, Akkad and Babylon- were built on the surplus of the enormously productive soil of
the ancient Tigris-Euphrates alluvial plain. After nearly a thousand years of intensive cultivation,
land quality was in evident decline. In response, around 2800 BC the Sumerians began digging the

huge Tigris-Euphrates canal system to irrigate the exhausted soil. A temporary gain in crop yield
was achieved in this way, but over-irrigation was to have serious and unforeseen consequences.
From as early as 2400 BC we find Sumerian documents referring to salinization as a soil problem. It
is believed that the fall of the Akkadian Empire around 2150 BC may have been due to a
catastrophic failure in land productivity; the soil was literally turned into salt. Even today, four
thousand years later, vast tracks of salinized land between the Tigris and Euphrates rivers still
resemble rock-hard fields of snow.
Soil erosion is another form of desertification. It is a self-reinforcing process; once the cycle
of degradation begins, conditions are set for continual deterioration. As the vegetative cover begins
to disappear, soil becomes more vulnerable to raindrop impact. Water runs off instead of soaking in
to provide moisture for plans. This further diminishes plan cover by leaching away nutrients from
the soil. As soil quality declines and runoff is increased, floods become more frequent and more
severe. Flooding washes away topsoil, the thin, rich, uppermost layer of the earth’s soil, and leaves
finer underlying particles more vulnerable to wind erosion. Topsoil contains the earth’s greatest
concentration of organic matter and microorganisms, and is where most of the earth’s land-based
biological activity occurs. Without this fragile coat of nutrient-laden material, plan life cannot exist.
An extreme case of its erosion is found in the Sahel, a transitional zone between the Sahara Desert
and the tropical African rain forests; home to some 56 million people. Overpopulation and
overgrazing have opened the hyperarid land to wind erosion, which is stripping away the protective
margin of the Sahel, and causing the desert to grow at an alarming rate. Between 1950 and 1975, the
Sahara Desert spread 100 kilometers southward through the Sahel.
Question 51: Which of the following statements is true about desertification?
A. It has a history as long as that of civilization.
B. It was just as serious in the past as it is today.
C. Ancient societies managed the problem well.
D. It is a fairly recent problem.
Question 52: The word “arable” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. settled B. cultivatable C. populated D. dry
Question 53: According to the passage, many people’s understanding of desertification is incorrect
because

A. they do not see it as being caused by human activity
B. they think of it as a very slow process
C. they do not think of it as a serious problem
D. they see it as being reversible
Question 54: Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the
highlighted sentence in the passage? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or
leave out essential information.
A. Most of the vulnerable areas are in transition from desert to arable land; a process that because
of human activity and the delicate nature of these areas, always leads to soil loss.
B. Human activity in the transition areas is vulnerable because of the fragile nature of these areas
that are neither desert nor arable land because they have suffered damage to the soil
C. It is the areas that exist between the deserts and the land that is usable for agriculture that are
most at risk because they are susceptible to poor land management methods from human activity
which will always result in the loss of soil.
D. Soil loss in the transitional zones is especially severe where human activity is damaging the
environment through agriculture which is causing the loss of soil.
Question 55: The word “compaction” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
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A. fragmentation B. disruption C. depletion D. compression
Question 56: According to the passage, agriculture furthers desertification through which of the
following activities
A. Irrigation B. The repetitive planting of the same crops
C. The stripping away of native vegetation D. Over fertilization
Question 57: The word “degradation” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. rejuvenation B. deterioration C. contribution D. consumption
Question 58: Paragraph 4 of the passage serves mainly to do which of the following?
A. Describe one process that leads to desertification
B. Describe the main cause of desertification in one particular area
C. Show the progress of desertification down through history
D. Propose a method for dealing with the desertification problem.

Question 59: The word “leaching” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to
A. dispersing B. concentrating C. washing D. depositing
Question 60: Look at numbers [1], [2], [3], [4] in paragraph 3 of the passage. Where would the
following sentence best fit?
Each furthers the process dramatically, but they act in quite different ways
A. [1] B. [2] C. [3] D. [4]
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the answer to each of the questions from 61 to 70.
Though Edmund Halley was most famous because of his achievements as an astronomer, he was
a scientist of diverse interests and great skill. In addition to studying the skies, Halley was also
deeply interested in exploring the unknown depths of the oceans. One of his lesser-known
accomplishments that were quite remarkable was his design for a diving bell that facilitated
exploration of the watery depths.
The diving bell that Halley designed had a major advantage over the diving bells that were in use
prior to his. Earlier diving bells could only make use of the air contained within the bell itself, so
divers had to surface when the air inside the bell ran low. Halley’s bell was an improvement in that
its design allowed for an additional supply of fresh air that enabled a crew of divers to remain
underwater for several hours.
The diving contraption that Halley designed was in the shape of a bell that measured three feet
across the top and five feet across the bottom and could hold several divers comfortably; it was open
at the bottom so that divers could swim in and out at will. The bell was built of wood, which was
first heavily tarred to make it water repellent and was then covered with a half-ton sheet of lead to
make the bell heavy enough to sink in water. The bell shape held air inside for the divers to breathe
as the bell sank to the bottom.
The air inside the bell was not the only source of air for the divers to breathe, and it was this
improvement that made Halley’s bell superior to its predecessors. In addition to the air already in
the bell, air was also supplied to the divers from a lead barrel that was lowered to the ocean floor
close to the bell itself. Air flowed through a leather pipe from the lead barrel on the ocean floor to
the bell. The diver could breathe the air from a position inside the bell, or he could move around
outside the bell wearing a diving suit that consisted of a lead bell-shaped helmet with a glass

viewing window and a leather body suit, with a leather pipe carrying fresh air from the diving bell
to the helmet.
Question 61: The subject of the preceding passage was most likely Halley’s
A. invention of the diving bell B. work as an astronomer
C. many different interests D. childhood
Question 62: Halley’s bell was better than its predecessors because it
A. could rise more quickly B. provided more air
C. weighed less D. was bigger
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Question 63: The expression “ran low” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. move slowly B. sank to the bottom
C. was almost exhausted D. had been replenished
Question 64: How long could divers stay underwater in Halley’s bell?
A. Just a few seconds B. Only a few minutes
C. For days on end D. For hours at a time
Question 65: It is NOT stated in the passage that Halley’s bell
A. was made of tarred wood B. was completely enclosed
C. could hold more than one diver D. was wider at the top than at the bottom
Question 66: The expression “at will” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by
A. upside down B. in the future C. with great speed D. as they wanted
Question 67: It can be inferred from the passage that, were Halley’s bell not covered with lead, it
would
A. get wet B. suffocate the divers C. trap the divers D. float
Question 68: Where in the passage does the author indicate how air traveled from the barrel to the
bell?
A. Lines 8-10 B. Lines 11-13 C. Lines 17-18 D. line 20
Question 69: In which paragraph does the author describe the diving bells that preceded Halley’s?
A. The first paragraph B. The second paragraph
C. The third paragraph D. The fourth paragraph
Question 70: This passage would most likely be assigned reading in a course on

A. astronomy B. oceanography C. physiology D. recreation
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is correct and
closest in meaning to each of the following sentences from 71 to 75.
Question 71: The purpose of any invention is to make our lives better, so good or bad, it depends
on the way by which we use these inventions.
A. We can use either good or bad inventions to make our lives better.
B. Whether an invention is good or bad depends on the way by which we use it because the
purpose of any invention is to make our lives better.
C. The purpose of any invention, whether good or bad, is to make our lives better. This depends
on the way by which we use these inventions.
D. Good or bad as they are, all inventions have the same purpose: to make our lives better.
Question 72: It is acknowledged that Vietnam had a complete control over SARS from a very early
stage of the epidemic.
A. Vietnam is acknowledged to have controlled SARS from a very early stage of the epidemic.
B. Vietnam was acknowledged to have had a complete control over SARS from a very early
stage of the epidemic.
C. Vietnam is acknowledged to have completely controlled SARS from a very early stage of the
epidemic.
D. Vietnam is acknowledged to have a complete control over SARS from a very early stage of
the epidemic.
Question 73: Choosing a suitable job is really important to adolescents.
A. It is really important to choose a suitable job for adolescents.
B. It is of great importance for adolescents to choose a suitable job.
C. The choice of a suitable job for adolescents is really important.
D. Choosing a suitable job for adolescents is a really important affair.
Question 74: Transportation has been made much easier thanks to the invention of cars, but cars
are the greatest contributor of air pollution.
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A. It is cars that are the greatest contributor of air pollution although the invention of cars has
made transportation much easier.

B. The invention of cars has made transportation much easier, but cars are among the greatest
contributors of air pollution.
C. However easier the invention of cars has made transportation, it is cars that are among the
greatest contributors of air pollution.
D. Although the invention of cars has made transportation much easier, people use cars to
contribute to the pollution of air.
Question 75: That will put the cat among the pigeons.
A. The cat will play with the pigeons.
B. Then we shall have as many cats as we have pigeons.
C. That will cause a lot of trouble.
D. The cat will have to stay outside the house today.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet that is best made from the given prompts in
the following sentences from 76 to 80.
Question 76: new/machinery/ put in/ this year/ with a view/ increase output.
A. New machinery have been put in this year with a view to increase output.
B. New machinery has been put in this year with a view to increasing output.
C. New machinery has been put in this year with a view to increase output.
D. New machinery has put in this year with a view to increasing output.
Question 77: scientists/ proved/ there/ close link/ smoking/ lung diseases/ such as/ cough/
tuberculosis/ and/ worst/ all/ fatal cancer.
A. Scientists proved that there has been a close link from smoking to lung diseases, such as from
cough to tuberculosis and worst of all, fatal cancer.
B. Scientists have proved that there is a close link between smoking and lung diseases, such as
cough and tuberculosis and the worst of all is fatal cancer.
C. Scientists have proved that there has been a close link of smoking with lung diseases, such as
cough and tuberculosis and the worst of all, fatal cancer.
D. Scientists have been proving that there is a close link between smoking and lung diseases,
such as cough and tuberculosis and worst of all is fatal cancer.
Question 78: appearance/ steamboats and railroads/ reduce/ transportation cost/ and have effects/
conditions/ workers.

A. Appearance of the steamboats and the railroads have reduced transportation cost and had
effects in conditions of workers.
B. The appearance of steamboats and railroads reduced transportation cost and had effects on the
conditions of workers.
C. The appearance of the steamboats and railroads have reduced transportation cost and had
effects on conditions of workers.
D. The appearance of steamboats and railroads had reduced transportation cost and had effects on
conditions of workers.
Question 79: He/ like/ nothing/ better/ sit/ read/ science books/ father’s/ library.
A. He liked nothing better than sitting and read science books in his father’s library.
B. He liked nothing better than to sit and read science books in his father’s library.
C. He liked nothing better than to sit to read science books in his father’s library.
D. He liked nothing better than to sit and read science books in father’s library.
Question 80: James Watt/ invention/ steam/ engine/ famous/ world/ Scottish scientist.
A. James Watt, whose invention of the steam engine is famous all the world, is a Scottish
scientist.
B. James Watt whose invention of the steam engine is famous round the world was a Scottish
scientist.
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C. James Watt, whose invention of the steam engine is famous throughout the world, was a
Scottish scientist.
D. James Watt whose invention of the steam engine is famous throughout the world was Scottish
scientist.

THE END
SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO
TRƯỜNG THPT LƯƠNG THẾ VINH-HÀ
NỘI
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC ĐỢT 2 (2013-2014)

Môn thi: Tiếng Anh (Khối D/A1)
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút;
(80 câu trắc nghiệm)
Mã đề
thi 833
(Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu)
Họ, tên thí sinh: Mã sinh viên:
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 1: Which of the following words is not an acronym?
A. CANCER B. CARE C. LASER D. AIDS
Question 2: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that does not
contain a silent letter.
A. protect B. rhino C. receipt D. trade
Question 3: __________, we missed our plane.
A. The train being late B. As the train being late
C. To be late D. The train was late
Question 4: Hundreds came to __________ their last respects to the dead president.
A. have B. indicate C. express D. pay
Question 5: I was glad when he said that his car was__________.
A. for my use B. at my disposal C. for me use D. at my use
Question 6: The player was ejected after committing 5 personal __________.
A. faults B. fouls C. mistakes D. errors
Question 7: “I’m going for an interview for a job this afternoon” - “Good luck! I’ll keep my
_______crossed for you.”
A. hands B. legs C. fingers D. arms
Question 8: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is not
stressed on the first syllable.
A. purchase B. ignorant C. tuition D. vigorous
Question 9: The City Planning Department proposed that the new highway__________ in the fiscal

year 2015.
A. be built B. is to be built C. would be built D. will be built
Question 10: You must obey the speed limits on public roads. They are designed to keep you safe.
You shouldn’t exceed the speed limit __________ you are an experienced race car driver.
A. even if B. if C. only if D. provided that
Question 11: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that contains a
consonant /θ/.
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A. smooth B. diphthong C. southern D. breathing
Question 12: “Would you bother if I had a look at your paper?” – “ __________.”
A. Well, actually I’d rather you didn’t B. Oh, I didn’t realize it
C. You’re welcome D. That’s a good idea
Question 13: Many citizens say that they are __________ of the political policies of the candidates
in a local election.
A. ignorant B. ignoring C. ignorantly D. ignorance
Question 14: International Games themselves can help to solve the problem of ___________
among countries.
A. warm-ups B. takeoffs C. standoffs D. kickoffs
Question 15: “Haven’t you put an ad in the paper yet?” – “__________ .”
A. I’m with you there B. I’m not sure
C. I will, first thing in the morning D. I can get a paper for you
Question 16: “Do you think it’s bad to keep all the candy to yourself?”
– “___________ .”
A. I’m sorry. I should not be so selfish
B. You are absolutely right.I’m crazy about candy
C. I’m sorry. Sometimes I’m too aggressive
D. You’re right. I’m a bit jealous
Question 17: I was talking to my aunt when suddenly my cousin George ________ in on our
conversation.
A. interrupted B. went C. broke D. intervened

Question 18: One of the conservation efforts is the development of wildlife__________.
A. reverses B. conserves C. reserves D. reservoirs
Question 19: __________ you give the answer, ___________.
A. The quickest – the best marks you can get
B. More quickly – better marks you can get
C. The quicker – the better you can get marks
D. The more quickly – the better marks you can get
Question 20: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is stressed
differently from the others.
A. oceanic B. influential C. overlook D. furniture
Question 21: We wish that you __________ such a lot of work, because we know that you would
have enjoyed the party.
A. wouldn’t have B. hadn’t had C. hadn’t D. didn’t have
Question 22: At the end of the nineteenth century, Alfred Binet developed a test for measuring
intelligence ________ served as the basis of modern IQ tests.
A. and B. which has C. has D. it has
Question 23: In 1864, twelve nations signed the first Geneva Convention, __________ down rules
for the treatment and protection of the wounded.
A. laying B. lied C. lying D. laid
Question 24: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is
primarily stressed on the third syllable.
A. cooperation B. committee C. reinforce D. supervise
Question 25: He blamed __________ me __________not explaining the lesson __________her
carefully.
A. ø/ for/ to B. for/ on/ for C. on/for/to D. ø/ about/ for
Question 26: He trained his muscles by __________ weightlifting and bodybuilding.
A. going B. taking C. playing D. doing
Question 27: Tony and Nancy always kiss and make __________ after their argument.
A. up with B. up C. clear D. out
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Question 28: It’s no use getting __________ him. He won’t change his mind.
A. across B. off C. on D. around
Question 29: I can’t see us beating them at tennis this year. We are so out of _________.
A. step B. fitness C. practice D. breath
Question 30: Beyond the mountains ___________ where you will live.
A. the town lies B. which the town lies C. does the town lie D. lies the town
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the answer to each of the questions from 31 to 40.
DESERTIFICATION
Desertification is the degradation of once-productive land into unproductive or poorly
productive land. Since the first great urban-agricultural centers in Mesopotamia nearly 6,000 years
ago, human activity has had a destructive impact on soil quality, leading to gradual desertification in
virtually every area of the world.
It is a common misconception that desertification is caused by droughts. Although drought
does make land more vulnerable, well-managed land can survive droughts and recover, even in arid
regions. Another mistaken belief is that the process occurs only along the edges of deserts. In fact, it
may take place in any arid or semiarid region, especially where poor land management is practised.
Most vulnerable, however, are the transitional zones between deserts and arable land; wherever
human activity leads to land abuse in these fragile marginal areas, soil destruction is inevitable.
[1] Agriculture and overgrazing are the two major sources of desertification. [2] Large-scale
farming requires extensive irrigation, which ultimately destroys lands by depleting its nutrients and
leaching minerals into the topsoil. [3] Grazing is especially destructive to land because , in addition
to depleting cover vegetation, herds of grazing mammals also trample the fine organic particles of
the topsoil, leading to soil compaction and erosion. [4] It takes about 500 years for the earth to
build up 3 centimeters of topsoil. However, cattle ranching and agriculture can deplete as much as 2
to 3 centimeters of topsoil every 25 years- 60 to 80 times faster than it can be replaced by nature.
Salination is a type of land degradation that involves an increase in the salt content of the
soil. This usually occurs as a result of improper irrigation practices. The greatest Mesopotamian
empires- Sumer, Akkad and Babylon- were built on the surplus of the enormously productive soil of
the ancient Tigris-Euphrates alluvial plain. After nearly a thousand years of intensive cultivation,

land quality was in evident decline. In response, around 2800 BC the Sumerians began digging the
huge Tigris-Euphrates canal system to irrigate the exhausted soil. A temporary gain in crop yield
was achieved in this way, but over-irrigation was to have serious and unforeseen consequences.
From as early as 2400 BC we find Sumerian documents referring to salinization as a soil problem. It
is believed that the fall of the Akkadian Empire around 2150 BC may have been due to a
catastrophic failure in land productivity; the soil was literally turned into salt. Even today, four
thousand years later, vast tracks of salinized land between the Tigris and Euphrates rivers still
resemble rock-hard fields of snow.
Soil erosion is another form of desertification. It is a self-reinforcing process; once the cycle
of degradation begins, conditions are set for continual deterioration. As the vegetative cover begins
to disappear, soil becomes more vulnerable to raindrop impact. Water runs off instead of soaking in
to provide moisture for plans. This further diminishes plan cover by leaching away nutrients from
the soil. As soil quality declines and runoff is increased, floods become more frequent and more
severe. Flooding washes away topsoil, the thin, rich, uppermost layer of the earth’s soil, and leaves
finer underlying particles more vulnerable to wind erosion. Topsoil contains the earth’s greatest
concentration of organic matter and microorganisms, and is where most of the earth’s land-based
biological activity occurs. Without this fragile coat of nutrient-laden material, plan life cannot exist.
An extreme case of its erosion is found in the Sahel, a transitional zone between the Sahara Desert
and the tropical African rain forests; home to some 56 million people. Overpopulation and
overgrazing have opened the hyperarid land to wind erosion, which is stripping away the protective
margin of the Sahel, and causing the desert to grow at an alarming rate. Between 1950 and 1975, the
Sahara Desert spread 100 kilometers southward through the Sahel.
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Question 31: Which of the following statements is true about desertification?
A. It was just as serious in the past as it is today. B. Ancient societies managed the problem
well.
C. It is a fairly recent problem. D. It has a history as long as that of
civilization.
Question 32: The word “arable” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. populated B. settled C. cultivatable D. dry

Question 33: According to the passage, many people’s understanding of desertification is incorrect
because
A. they do not see it as being caused by human activity
B. they see it as being reversible
C. they think of it as a very slow process
D. they do not think of it as a serious problem
Question 34: Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the
highlighted sentence in the passage? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or
leave out essential information.
A. Most of the vulnerable areas are in transition from desert to arable land; a process that because
of human activity and the delicate nature of these areas, always leads to soil loss.
B. It is the areas that exist between the deserts and the land that is usable for agriculture that are
most at risk because they are susceptible to poor land management methods from human activity
which will always result in the loss of soil.
C. Soil loss in the transitional zones is especially severe where human activity is damaging the
environment through agriculture which is causing the loss of soil.
D. Human activity in the transition areas is vulnerable because of the fragile nature of these areas
that are neither desert nor arable land because they have suffered damage to the soil
Question 35: The word “compaction” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. depletion B. compression C. disruption D. fragmentation
Question 36: According to the passage, agriculture furthers desertification through which of the
following activities
A. Over fertilization B. The repetitive planting of the same crops
C. The stripping away of native vegetation D. Irrigation
Question 37: The word “degradation” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. contribution B. rejuvenation C. consumption D. deterioration
Question 38: Paragraph 4 of the passage serves mainly to do which of the following?
A. Propose a method for dealing with the desertification problem.
B. Describe the main cause of desertification in one particular area
C. Describe one process that leads to desertification

D. Show the progress of desertification down through history
Question 39: The word “leaching” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to
A. washing B. depositing C. dispersing D. concentrating
Question 40: Look at numbers [1], [2], [3], [4] in paragraph 3 of the passage. Where would the
following sentence best fit?
Each furthers the process dramatically, but they act in quite different ways
A. [1] B. [2] C. [3] D. [4]
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose
the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 41 to 50.
ENGLISH SPELLING
Why does English spelling have a reputation for being difficult? English was first written down
when Christian monks came to England in Anglo-Saxon (41) _________. They used the 23 letters
of Latin to write down the sounds of Anglo-Saxon (42) _________ as they heard it. However,
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English has a (43) __________ range of basic sounds (over 40) than Latin. The alphabet was too
small, and so combinations of letters were needed to (44) ________ the different sounds. Inevitably,
there were inconsistencies in the way that letters were combined.
With the Norman invasion of England, the English language was put at risk. English survived,
but the spelling of many English words changed to follow French (45) __________, and many
French words were introduced into the language. The result was more irregularity.
When the printing press was (46) __________ in the fifteenth century, many early printers of
English texts spoke other first languages. They made little effort to respect English spelling.
Although one of the short-term (47) __________ of printing was to produce a number of variant
spellings, in the long term it created fixed spellings. People became used to seeing words spelt in the
same way. Rules were (48) __________, and dictionaries were put together which printers and
writers could refer to. However, spoken English was not fixed and continued to change slowly- just
as it still does now. Letters that were sounded in the Anglo-Saxon period, like the ‘k’ in ‘knife’, now
became (49) ___________. Also, the pronunciation of vowels then had little in common with how
they sound now, but the way they are spelt hasn’t changed. No (50) __________, then, that it is
often difficult to see the link between sound and spelling.

Question 41: A. years B. centuries C. times D. ages
Question 42: A. speech B. chat C. discussion D. communication
Question 43: A. longer B. wider C. thicker D. deeper
Question 44: A. perform B. tell C. explain D. express
Question 45: A. plans B. patterns C. guides D. types
Question 46: A. taken in B. invented C. made up D. discovered
Question 47: A. conclusions B. effects C. meanings D. actions
Question 48: A. filled in B. handed out C. drawn up D. got across
Question 49: A. silent B. quiet C. speechless D. dumb
Question 50: A. wonder B. problem C. mention D. idea
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase closest in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 51 to 53.
Question 51: To remedy this situation, the Constitution of the United States, approved in 1789,
allowed Congress to issue money.
A. renew B. resolve C. understand D. medicate
Question 52: Every time he opens his mouth, he immediately regrets what he said. He’s always
putting his foot in his mouth.
A. saying embarrassing things B. making a mistake
C. doing things in the wrong order D. speaking indirectly
Question 53: Although the staff did expand somewhat, for the first century of its existence, the
entire teaching staff consisted of the president and three or four tutors.
A. to and fro B. more or less C. back and forth D. side by side
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) opposite in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 54 to 55.
Question 54: Some vegetables are grown without soil and artificial light.
A. real B. natural C. genuine D. true
Question 55: Mutualism is a type of symbiosis that occurs when two unlike organisms live
together in a state that is mutually beneficial.
A. dislike B. alike C. similar D. likely
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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is correct and
closest in meaning to each of the following sentences from 56 to 60.
Question 56: The purpose of any invention is to make our lives better, so good or bad, it depends
on the way by which we use these inventions.
A. Good or bad as they are, all inventions have the same purpose: to make our lives better.
B. We can use either good or bad inventions to make our lives better.
C. Whether an invention is good or bad depends on the way by which we use it because the
purpose of any invention is to make our lives better.
D. The purpose of any invention, whether good or bad, is to make our lives better. This depends
on the way by which we use these inventions.
Question 57: It is acknowledged that Vietnam had a complete control over SARS from a very early
stage of the epidemic.
A. Vietnam is acknowledged to have controlled SARS from a very early stage of the epidemic.
B. Vietnam was acknowledged to have had a complete control over SARS from a very early
stage of the epidemic.
C. Vietnam is acknowledged to have completely controlled SARS from a very early stage of the
epidemic.
D. Vietnam is acknowledged to have a complete control over SARS from a very early stage of
the epidemic.
Question 58: Transportation has been made much easier thanks to the invention of cars, but cars
are the greatest contributor of air pollution.
A. However easier the invention of cars has made transportation, it is cars that are among the
greatest contributors of air pollution.
B. It is cars that are the greatest contributor of air pollution although the invention of cars has
made transportation much easier.
C. The invention of cars has made transportation much easier, but cars are among the greatest
contributors of air pollution.
D. Although the invention of cars has made transportation much easier, people use cars to
contribute to the pollution of air.
Question 59: That will put the cat among the pigeons.

A. The cat will have to stay outside the house today.
B. That will cause a lot of trouble.
C. The cat will play with the pigeons.
D. Then we shall have as many cats as we have pigeons.
Question 60: Choosing a suitable job is really important to adolescents.
A. The choice of a suitable job for adolescents is really important.
B. It is really important to choose a suitable job for adolescents.
C. Choosing a suitable job for adolescents is a really important affair.
D. It is of great importance for adolescents to choose a suitable job.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions from 61 to 65.
Question 61: In 1863 and 1864, the U.S. Congress passed the National Banks Acts, which set up a
system of privately owned banks chartered by a federal government.
A. a federal government B. privately owned banks
C. chartered D. the National Banks Acts
Question 62: Perhaps the most welcoming and friendly of the park’s wild places is the live oak
forest that surrounds the district’s alone visitors’ center in Gulf Breeze.
A. alone B. friendly C. live D. welcoming
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Question 63: There are many frequently mentioned reasons why one out of four arrests involve a
juvenile.
A. mentioned B. four arrests C. frequently D. involve
Question 64: One another surprising method of forest conservation is controlled cutting of trees.
A. surprising B. conservation is C. controlled cutting D. One another
Question 65: On June 30, 1992, international timekeepers in Paris were added an extra second to
the day.
A. the day B. second C. on D. were added
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the answer to each of the questions from 66 to 75.
Though Edmund Halley was most famous because of his achievements as an astronomer, he

was a scientist of diverse interests and great skill. In addition to studying the skies, Halley was also
deeply interested in exploring the unknown depths of the oceans. One of his lesser-known
accomplishments that were quite remarkable was his design for a diving bell that facilitated
exploration of the watery depths.
The diving bell that Halley designed had a major advantage over the diving bells that were in use
prior to his. Earlier diving bells could only make use of the air contained within the bell itself, so
divers had to surface when the air inside the bell ran low. Halley’s bell was an improvement in that
its design allowed for an additional supply of fresh air that enabled a crew of divers to remain
underwater for several hours.
The diving contraption that Halley designed was in the shape of a bell that measured three feet
across the top and five feet across the bottom and could hold several divers comfortably; it was open
at the bottom so that divers could swim in and out at will. The bell was built of wood, which was
first heavily tarred to make it water repellent and was then covered with a half-ton sheet of lead to
make the bell heavy enough to sink in water. The bell shape held air inside for the divers to breathe
as the bell sank to the bottom.
The air inside the bell was not the only source of air for the divers to breathe, and it was this
improvement that made Halley’s bell superior to its predecessors. In addition to the air already in
the bell, air was also supplied to the divers from a lead barrel that was lowered to the ocean floor
close to the bell itself. Air flowed through a leather pipe from the lead barrel on the ocean floor to
the bell. The diver could breathe the air from a position inside the bell, or he could move around
outside the bell wearing a diving suit that consisted of a lead bell-shaped helmet with a glass
viewing window and a leather body suit, with a leather pipe carrying fresh air from the diving bell
to the helmet.
Question 66: The subject of the preceding passage was most likely Halley’s
A. childhood B. invention of the diving bell
C. work as an astronomer D. many different interests
Question 67: Halley’s bell was better than its predecessors because it
A. was bigger B. weighed less
C. could rise more quickly D. provided more air
Question 68: The expression “ran low” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to

A. sank to the bottom B. had been replenished
C. was almost exhausted D. move slowly
Question 69: How long could divers stay underwater in Halley’s bell?
A. Only a few minutes B. Just a few seconds C. For hours at a time D. For days on end
Question 70: It is NOT stated in the passage that Halley’s bell
A. could hold more than one diver B. was made of tarred wood
C. was completely enclosed D. was wider at the top than at the bottom
Question 71: The expression “at will” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by
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A. upside down B. with great speed C. as they wanted D. in the future
Question 72: It can be inferred from the passage that, were Halley’s bell not covered with lead, it
would
A. trap the divers B. suffocate the divers C. get wet D. float
Question 73: Where in the passage does the author indicate how air traveled from the barrel to the
bell?
A. Lines 8-10 B. Lines 11-13 C. Lines 17-18 D. line 20
Question 74: In which paragraph does the author describe the diving bells that preceded Halley’s?
A. The first paragraph B. The second paragraph
C. The third paragraph D. The fourth paragraph
Question 75: This passage would most likely be assigned reading in a course on
A. recreation B. astronomy C. oceanography D. physiology
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet that is best made from the given prompts in
the following sentences from 76 to 80.
Question 76: new/machinery/ put in/ this year/ with a view/ increase output.
A. New machinery has put in this year with a view to increasing output.
B. New machinery has been put in this year with a view to increase output.
C. New machinery have been put in this year with a view to increase output.
D. New machinery has been put in this year with a view to increasing output.
Question 77: scientists/ proved/ there/ close link/ smoking/ lung diseases/ such as/ cough/
tuberculosis/ and/ worst/ all/ fatal cancer.

A. Scientists have been proving that there is a close link between smoking and lung diseases,
such as cough and tuberculosis and worst of all is fatal cancer.
B. Scientists have proved that there has been a close link of smoking with lung diseases, such as
cough and tuberculosis and the worst of all, fatal cancer.
C. Scientists proved that there has been a close link from smoking to lung diseases, such as from
cough to tuberculosis and worst of all, fatal cancer.
D. Scientists have proved that there is a close link between smoking and lung diseases, such as
cough and tuberculosis and the worst of all is fatal cancer.
Question 78: He/ like/ nothing/ better/ sit/ read/ science books/ father’s/ library.
A. He liked nothing better than to sit and read science books in father’s library.
B. He liked nothing better than sitting and read science books in his father’s library.
C. He liked nothing better than to sit to read science books in his father’s library.
D. He liked nothing better than to sit and read science books in his father’s library.
Question 79: appearance/ steamboats and railroads/ reduce/ transportation cost/ and have effects/
conditions/ workers.
A. The appearance of steamboats and railroads had reduced transportation cost and had effects on
conditions of workers.
B. The appearance of steamboats and railroads reduced transportation cost and had effects on the
conditions of workers.
C. The appearance of the steamboats and railroads have reduced transportation cost and had
effects on conditions of workers.
D. Appearance of the steamboats and the railroads have reduced transportation cost and had
effects in conditions of workers.
Question 80: James Watt/ invention/ steam/ engine/ famous/ world/ Scottish scientist.
A. James Watt, whose invention of the steam engine is famous throughout the world, was a
Scottish scientist.
B. James Watt whose invention of the steam engine is famous round the world was a Scottish
scientist.
C. James Watt whose invention of the steam engine is famous throughout the world was Scottish
scientist.

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D. James Watt, whose invention of the steam engine is famous all the world, is a Scottish
scientist.

THE END
SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO
TRƯỜNG THPT LƯƠNG THẾ VINH-HÀ
NỘI
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC ĐỢT 2 (2013-
2014)
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh (Khối D/A1)
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút;
(80 câu trắc nghiệm)
Mã đề
thi 834
(Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu)
Họ, tên thí sinh: Mã sinh viên:
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase closest in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 1 to 3.
Question 1: Every time he opens his mouth, he immediately regrets what he said. He’s always
putting his foot in his mouth.
A. doing things in the wrong order B. saying embarrassing things
C. speaking indirectly D. making a mistake
Question 2: To remedy this situation, the Constitution of the United States, approved in 1789,
allowed Congress to issue money.
A. renew B. resolve C. understand D. medicate
Question 3: Although the staff did expand somewhat, for the first century of its existence, the entire
teaching staff consisted of the president and three or four tutors.
A. to and fro B. side by side C. more or less D. back and forth

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) opposite in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 4 to 5.
Question 4: Some vegetables are grown without soil and artificial light.
A. true B. genuine C. natural D. real
Question 5: Mutualism is a type of symbiosis that occurs when two unlike organisms live together
in a state that is mutually beneficial.
A. likely B. similar C. dislike D. alike
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the answer to each of the questions from 6 to 15.
Though Edmund Halley was most famous because of his achievements as an astronomer, he was
a scientist of diverse interests and great skill. In addition to studying the skies, Halley was also
deeply interested in exploring the unknown depths of the oceans. One of his lesser-known
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