ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA SỐ 9 KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THƠNG NĂM 2023
(Đề thi có 05 trang)
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút khơng kể thời gian phát đề
-------------------------Họ, tên thí sinh: ....................................................................................................................
Số báo danh: ...................................................................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. watched
B. astonished
C. closed
D. cooked
Question 2: A. nail
B. faint
C. fail
D. fair
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. flashy
B. protect
C. coffee
D. current
Question 4: A. historic
B. privacy
C. principle
D. charity
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: She was 74 years of age ______.
A. in case she was writing her first novel
B. as soon as she has written her first novel
C. when she wrote her first novel
D. before she had written her first novel
Question 6: Television is an increasingly important means of ______.
A. protection
B. communication
C. agreement
D. membership
Question 7: ______ we make a decision, does anyone want to say anything else?
A. After
B. Despite
C. Before
D. Therefore
Question 8: Acupuncture has long been a part of traditional Chinese ______.
A. currency
B. medicine
C. communication
D. martial art
Question 9: When he was busy with his work, his mother ______ care of his son.
A. was taking
B. takes
C. will take
D. took
Question 10: Who ______ most of the cooking in your house?
A. holds
B. deals
C. makes
D. does
Question 11: She has a ________ face, so she is quite beautiful.
A. oval happy pretty B. happy pretty oval C. pretty oval happy D. pretty happy oval
Question 12: We'll need to ______ some of the budget for travel later in the year.
A. keep back
B. keep away
C. call back
D. call away
Question 13: The colder it is, ______ I get.
A. hungriest
B. the hungriest
C. hungrier
D. the hungrier
Question 14: The meeting is on the fifth and we're hoping everyone will ______.
A. attend
B. attention
C. attentive
D. attentively
Question 15: He learned English ______ listening to the radio.
A. under
B. over
C. at
D. by
Question 16: ________ classical dance for five years, Akiko finally felt ready to perform in public.
A. Studied
B. To study
C. Being studied
D. Having studied
Question 17: If it is foggy, that sport event __________.
A. will be cancelled B. will cancel
C. will be calcelling D. will have cancelled
Question 18: The tabloid press had a ______ day with the latest government scandal.
A. hard
B. field
C. nice
D. great
Question 19: The bank has streamlined systems for switching accounts, ______?
A. had it
B. hasn’t it
C. has it
D. hadn’t it
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: In cases of severe mental handicap, constant supervision is recommended.
A. serious
B. negative
C. opposite
D. effective
Question 21: Dozens of valuable works of art disappeared during shipment to the US.
A. awareness
B. tension
C. confusion
D. delivery
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: When you fill in the form, please write clearly in black ink.
A. freely
B. vaguely
C. frankly
D. hardly
Question 23: In the initial days and weeks, it was literally a case of living from hand to mouth.
A. sending all the money
B. spending a large amount of money
C. saving lots of money
D. losing all the money
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Nam is talking to his father about the driving test the next week.
Nam: “Do you think I can pass my driving test next week?”
Nam’s father: “__________”
A. Don’t pass it.
B. Go ahead. You can!
C. No way.
D. No, you can’t.
Question 25: Trang is asking her father for permission to use the car.
Trang: “May I borrow your car tonight?”
Trang’s father: “__________”
A. Yes, you can’t.
B. No, it’s mine.
C. I’d love to.
D. I’m afraid you can’t.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Jet lag occurs when you travel across multiple time zones and have trouble adjusting to the
new schedule. After traveling a long distance by air, your circadian (26) ________ may still be
aligned with the previous time zone. Your body may expect to sleep when it is daytime in the new
time zone or be awake when you are supposed to sleep.
Jet lag is a temporary condition. It may begin (27) ________ you travel across at least two
time zones. The severity of the jet lag depends on how many time zones (28) ________ you crossed
and which direction you travelled. Flying east is usually more difficult of an adjustment than
westward travel. It is estimated that it takes one day per time zone for your body clock to fully
adjust to local time.
You may have a difficult time functioning when you are jet lagged. You may not feel awake
and alert when you need to do your job, socialize or sightsee. Anyone of any age can have jet lag,
although older adults are likely to have (29) ________ severe jet lag, and may need a much longer
time to (30) ________ . Some people are able to adjust more quickly than others to rapid shifts in
time zones. Pilots, flight attendants and business travellers are most likely to have jet lag due to
their lifestyle.
Question 26: A. corners
B. rhythms
C. degrees
D. tickets
Question 27: A. after
B. but
C. before
D. until
Question 28: A. whom
B. when
C. that
D. who
Question 29: A. another
B. many
C. every
D. more
Question 30: A. recover
B. respond
C. connect
D. cancel
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Cloud computing services are operated from giant datacentres around the world. AWS
divides this up by 'regions' and 'availability zones'. Each AWS region is a separate geographic
area, like EU (London) or US West (Oregon), which AWS then further subdivides into what it
calls availability zones (AZs). An AZ is composed of one or more datacentres that are far enough
apart that in theory a single disaster won't take both offline, but close enough together for business
continuity applications that require rapid failover. Each AZ has multiple internet connections and
power connections to multiple grids: AWS has over 50 AZs.
Google uses a similar model, dividing its cloud computing resources into regions which are
then subdivided into zones, which include one or more datacentres from which customers can run
their services. It currently has 15 regions made up of 44 zones: Google recommends customers
deploy applications across multiple zones and regions to help protect against unexpected failures.
Microsoft Azure divides its resources slightly differently. It offers regions which it describes
as is a "set of datacentres deployed within a latency-defined perimeter and connected through a
dedicated regional low-latency network". It also offers 'geographies' typically containing two or
more regions, that can be used by customers with specific data-residency and compliance needs
"to keep their data and apps close". It also offers availability zones made up of one or more data
centres equipped with independent power, cooling and networking.
Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?
A. Separate AWS Region According to Geographic Areas
B. Cloud computing region and computing availability zone
C. Cloud computing resources of Google
D. How Microsoft Azure divides its resources
Question 32: According to paragraph 1, datacentres in an AZ are neither too far nor too near from
one another because ______.
A. they have to be able to avoid disaster and ensure rapid failover
B. they have multiple internet connections and power connections
C. they have multiple grids of AWS
D. they are divided into 'regions' and 'availability zones'
Question 33: The word “similar” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. available
B. capable
C. comparable
Question 34: The word “which” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. Microsoft Azure
B. resources
C. datacentres
D. remarkable
D. regions
Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a feature of
Microsoft Azure?
A. It offers availability zones made up of only one data centre.
B. It offers regions which it describes as is a set of datacentres.
C. Its datacentres are deployed within a latency-defined perimeter.
D. It offers geographies typically containing two or more regions.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
As Hubble orbits Earth, the Fine Guidance Sensors lock onto stars. The Fine Guidance
Sensors are part of the Pointing Control System and aim Hubble in the right direction. The
telescope can lock onto a target that is one mile away without moving more than the width of a
human hair.
Once the target is acquired, Hubble's primary mirror collects light. The mirror can collect
about 40,000 times more light than the human eye. The light bounces off the primary mirror to the
secondary mirror. The secondary mirror focuses the light back through a hole in the primary
mirror. From there, the light shines to Hubble's scientific instruments. Each instrument has a
different way of interpreting the light.
Hubble has five scientific instruments which include cameras and spectrographs. A
spectrograph is an instrument that splits light into its individual wavelengths.
The Wide Field Camera 3 is Hubble’s main camera. It studies everything from the formation
of distant galaxies to the planets in the solar system. The camera can see three different kinds of
light: near-ultraviolet, visible and near-infrared. But Hubble can only see each kind of light one at
a time. Human eyes can see visible light. Near-ultraviolet and near-infrared are just beyond what
our eyes can see.
The Advanced Camera for Surveys captures images of large areas of space. These images
have helped scientists study some of the earliest activity in the universe.
The Cosmic Origins Spectrograph reads ultraviolet light. This spectrograph studies how
galaxies, stars and planets formed and changed.
The Space Telescope Imaging Spectrograph helps scientists determine the temperature,
chemical composition, density and motion of objects in space. It also has been used to detect black
holes.
The Near Infrared Camera and Multi-Object Spectrometer, or NICMOS, sees objects in deep
space by sensing the heat they emit. It captures images and it is also a spectrograph. NICMOS
helps scientists study how stars, galaxies and planetary systems form.
Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. the Fine Guidance Sensors
B. Hubble's primary mirror
C. The Advanced Camera for Surveys
D. What Instruments Are on Hubble?
Question 37: The word “instruments” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. apartments
B. apparatuses
C. collections
D. communities
Question 38: In paragraph 2, the light shone to Hubble's scientific instruments will be ______.
A. interpreted by the instruments
B. targeted by Hubble's primary mirror
C. made visible to human eye
D. observed through a hole
Question 39: The word “distant” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. remote
B. sturdy
C. shadowy
D. awesome
Question 40: The word “It” in paragraph 7 refers to ______.
A. temperature
B. chemical composition
C. Space Telescope Imaging Spectrograph
D. space
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. A target can be locked onto one mile away by the telescope.
B. Light cannot be split into its individual wavelengths by a spectrograph.
C. Hubble can see each kind of light one at a time.
D. Images captured by the Advanced Camera for Surveys will be used to study activities in the universe.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 7?
A. NICMOS can see objects in deep space by sensing the heat only.
B. NICMOS captures images like an ordinary camera.
C. The way stars, galaxies and planetary systems form can be studied with NICMOS.
D. NICMOS helps scientists reach stars and other galaxies earlier.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: The ancient Britons inhabited this parts of England before the Roman invasion.
A. The
B. this
C. before
D. invasion
Question 44: A dangerous number of radioactivity was released into the environment last month.
A. number of
B. was released
C. the
D. last month
Question 45: When I reach there, the highest building had been destroyed by the storm!
A. reach
B. the
C. destroyed
D. the
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: “If I were you, I wouldn’t go abroad at this time,” he said.
A. He reminded me not to go abroad at this time.
B. He informed me not to go abroad at that time.
C. He advised me not to go abroad at that time.
D. He inquired me not to go abroad at this time.
Question 47: It’s not good for you to drive at that high speed.
A. You may drive at that high speed.
B. You needn’t drive at that high speed.
C. You must drive at that high speed.
D. You shouldn’t drive at that high speed.
Question 48: The police started investigating the case a week ago.
A. The police didn’t investigate the case a week ago.
B. The police haven’t investigated the case for a week.
C. The police have investigated the case for a week.
D. The police started to investigate the case for a week.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: I can’t sing that English song. I really want to sing it with my favourite singer.
A. Although I can’t sing that English song, I will sing it with my favourite singer.
B. I wish I could sing that English song and could sing it with my favourite singer.
C. Since I can’t sing that English song, I can sing it with my favourite singer.
D. Though I can’t sing that English song, I will be able to sing it with my favourite singer.
Question 50: The doctor's waiting room was bright. It was cheerful with yellow walls and curtains.
A. Not only was the doctor's waiting room bright but it was also cheerful with yellow walls and curtains.
B. However the doctor's waiting room was, it was cheerful with yellow walls and curtains.
C. No sooner had the doctor's waiting room been bright than it was cheerful with yellow walls and curtains.
D. Had it not been for the doctor's bright waiting room, it wouldn’t have been cheerful with yellow
walls and curtains.
--------------------HẾT--------------------
ĐÁP ÁN
1.C
2.D
3.B
4.A
5.C
6.B
7.C
8.B
9.A
10.D
11.B
12.A
13.D
14.A
15.D
16.D
17.A
18.B
19.C
20.A
21.D
22.B
23.C
24.B
25.C
26.B
27.A
28.C
29.D
30.A
31.B
32.A
33.C
34.D
35.A
36.D
37.B
38.A
39.A
40.C
41.B
42.C
43.B
44.A
45.A
46.C
47.D
48.C
49.B
50.A
ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA SỐ 12
(Đề thi có 05 trang)
KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2023
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút khơng kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh: ....................................................................................................................
Số báo danh: ...................................................................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. naked
B. started
C. intended
D. watched
Question 2: A. weave
B. cleanse
C. treat
D. please
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. donate
B. husband
C. public
D. obvious
Question 4: A. evidence
B. violent
C. religious
D. delicate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: Scientists are working to harness the power of the atom, ______?
A. aren’t they
B. don’t they
C. weren’t they
D. didn’t they
Question 6: The boy suddenly ______ his bike while he was riding it very fast yesterday.
A. falls off
B. fell off
C. was falling
D. will fall
Question 7: She felt she had been discriminated against ______ her age.
A. despite
B. because of
C. although
D. because
Question 8: I __________ to the party last night but I didn’t come.
A. invite
B. was inviting
C. invited
D. was invited
Question 9: I'm not a very good advertisement for the diet ______.
A. before I was putting weight
B. since I've actually put on weight
C. although I’d actually put on weight
D. in case I actually put on weight
Question 10: ________ with a smile, he left the hall quickly.
A. Not being rewarded B. Not rewarding
C. Not to reward
D. Not rewarded
Question 11: The youngest boys are so close in age they look ______ twins.
A. like
B. on
C. for
D. with
Question 12: Any new company is seen as an invader in an already ______ market.
A. compete
B. competition
C. competitive
D. competitively
Question 13: I know you don't like Jack's idea, but just ______ with him for a while.
A. get out
B. get along
C. play out
D. play along
Question 14: ______ a car is, the more comfortable it is.
A. More expensive
B. Most expensive
C. The more expensive D. The most expensive
Question 15: The doctor advised him to ______ a complete rest from football.
A. lay
B. take
C. lie
D. hunt
Question 16: The produce is sorted into ______ according to quality.
A. couples
B. shares
C. categories
D. steps
Question 17: It’s difficult to understand this ________ script.
A. boring TV series outdated
B. outdated boring TV series
C. boring TV series outdated
D. boring outdated TV series
Question 18: He's ______ on thin ice by lying to the police when stopped in the street.
A. skating
B. saying
C. playing
D. rolling
Question 19: The government raised prices to encourage production, further fuelling ______.
A. culture
B. dimension
C. capital
D. inflation
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: The primary aim of this course is to improve your spoken English.
A. narrow
B. basic
C. solid
D. minor
Question 21: The college produces a glossy brochure to advertise its training courses.
A. reception
B. letter
C. perception
D. booklet
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: When they saw how much money they could save, they quickly changed their minds.
A. gradually
B. recently
C. shortly
D. swiftly
Question 23: I'm not an impulsive person, I don't generally do things on the spur of the moment.
A. quickly
B. industriously
C. intentionally
D. attentively
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Jack is inviting Janet to drink something.
Jack: “Would you like a cup of tea?”
Janet: “__________”
A. No, thanks.
B. I don’t drink tea any more.
C. Sorry for that.
D. When did you make it?
Question 25: Harry is talking to Garry about Tom’s birthday.
Harry: “Tomorrow is Tom’s birthday.”
Garry: “__________”
A. Really? So quick!
B. I don’t think so.
C. What present should we give him?
D. Where is it held?
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Families can be a source of support in good times and in bad. When kids are young, parents
can provide advice on playground or friendship issues. As children grow, parents can help them
(26) ________ school, sports, activities, and a complex web of relationships.
Parental guidance can extend to helping young people choose (27) ________ and careers.
For many people, family members are present at major milestones from engagements, to
purchasing first homes, to the birth of children. When hardships arise, family can help people
traverse difficult passages and build resilience.
It is critical, however, to be mindful and considerate of your child’s needs and wants (28)
________ it comes to offering guidance. In (29) ________ cases, offering too much support or
unwanted guidance can be harmful to family relationships. In general, as children grow and
mature, parents should seek to take a mentoring role in their children’s lives, offering support in a
more Socratic, indirect way, rather than simply telling them (30) ________ to do or doing it for
them.
Question 26: A. continue
B. remember
C. illustrate
D. navigate
Question 27: A. employees
B. assistants
C. colleges
D. tourists
Question 28: A. when
B. since
C. after
D. but
Question 29: A. every
B. some
C. another
D. much
Question 30: A. what
B. that
C. whom
D. who
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Originally intended as a temporary exhibit, the Eiffel Tower was almost torn down and
scrapped in 1909. City officials opted to save it after recognizing its value as a radiotelegraph
station. Several years later, during World War I, the Eiffel Tower intercepted enemy radio
communications, relayed zeppelin alerts and was used to dispatch emergency troop
reinforcements. It escaped destruction a second time during World War II: Hitler initially ordered
the demolition of the city’s most cherished symbol, but the command was never carried out. Also
during the German occupation of Paris, French resistance fighters famously cut the Eiffel Tower’s
elevator cables so that the Nazis had to climb the stairs.
Over the years, the Eiffel Tower has been the site of numerous high-profile stunts,
ceremonial events and even scientific experiments. In 1911, for instance, the German physicist
Theodor Wulf used an electrometer to detect higher levels of radiation at its top than at its base,
observing the effects of what are now called cosmic rays. The Eiffel Tower has also inspired more
than 30 replicas and similar structures in various cities around the world.
Now one of the most recognizable structures on the planet, the Eiffel Tower, which is
repainted every seven years, underwent a major facelift in 1986. It welcomes more visitors than
any other paid monument in the world—an estimated 7 million people per year. Some 500
employees are responsible for its daily operations, working in its restaurants, manning its elevators,
ensuring its security and directing the eager crowds flocking the tower’s platforms to enjoy
panoramic views of the City of Lights.
Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?
A. The Eiffel Tower Becomes a Permanent Feature of the Paris Skyline
B. The Eiffel Tower during World War I
C. The German Physicist Theodor Wulf and The Eiffel Tower
D. The Eiffel Tower and The Major Facelift in 1986
Question 32: According to paragraph 1, the Eiffel Tower was saved because ______.
A. it was a famous temporary exhibit
B. it was too dangerous to tear it down in 1909
C. it could absorb enemy radio communications
D. it could be used as a radiotelegraph station
Question 33: The word “which” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. planet
B. Eiffel Tower
C. seven years
D. major facelift
Question 34: The word “eager” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. private
B. weird
C. anxious
D. secrete
Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as an incident
happened to the Eiffel Tower?
A. During World War II, the Eiffel Tower was completely demolished by Hitler.
B. The Eiffel Tower’s elevator cables used to be cut.
C. An electrometer was installed on the tower to observe the effects of cosmic rays.
D. The tower underwent a major facelift in 1986.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
The goal of blockchain is to allow digital information to be recorded and distributed, but not
edited. Blockchain technology was first outlined in 1991 by Stuart Haber and W. Scott Stornetta,
two researchers who wanted to implement a system where document timestamps could not be
tampered with. But it wasn’t until almost two decades later, with the launch of Bitcoin in January
2009, that blockchain had its first real-world application.
The Bitcoin protocol is built on a blockchain. In a research paper introducing the digital
currency, Bitcoin’s pseudonymous creator, Satoshi Nakamoto, referred to it as “a new electronic
cash system that’s fully peer-to-peer, with no trusted third party.”
The key thing to understand here is that Bitcoin merely uses blockchain as a means to
transparently record a ledger of payments, but blockchain can, in theory, be used to immutably
record any number of data points. As discussed above, this could be in the form of transactions,
votes in an election, product inventories, state identifications, deeds to homes, and much more.
Currently, there is a vast variety of blockchain-based projects looking to implement
blockchain in ways to help society other than just recording transactions. One good example is
that of blockchain being used as a way to vote in democratic elections. The nature of blockchain’s
immutability means that fraudulent voting would become far more difficult to occur.
For example, a voting system could work such that each citizen of a country would be issued
a single cryptocurrency or token. Each candidate would then be given a specific wallet address,
and the voters would send their token or crypto to whichever candidate's address they wish to vote
for. The transparent and traceable nature of blockchain would eliminate the need for human vote
counting as well as the ability of bad actors to tamper with physical ballots.
Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Blockchain Technology
B. Bitcoin vs. Blockchain
C. Digital Currency
D. A Single Cryptocurrency
Question 37: The word “key” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. creative
B. artificial
C. dynamic
D. essential
Question 38: In paragraph 1, Blockchain technology was created in order to ______.
A. allow digital information to be recorded and distributed
B. edit the system of document recorded and distributed earlier
C. outline the launch of Bitcoin in January 2009
D. implement document timestamps that could not be tampered with
Question 39: The word “nature” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. presence
B. reference
C. essence
D. evidence
Question 40: The word “they” in paragraph 5 refers to ______.
A. voters
B. actors
C. ballots
D. citizens
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Satoshi Nakamoto called Bitcoin a new electronic cash system.
B. Bitcoin uses blockchain as a means to transparently record payments.
C. Blockchain can be used as a way to vote in democratic elections.
D. Each citizen of a country would be issued a lot of cryptocurrencies.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 5?
A. Blockchain would eliminate the need for human vote counting.
B. Candidate would be given a specific wallet to contain money.
C. Voters wouldn’t know for whom they should vote without blockchain.
D. Physical ballots would be more popular after the application of blockchain.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: I've met him so much times and I still can't remember his name!
A. met
B. much
C. still
D. his
Question 44: The decision has been got to move UN troops in to try and stop the fighting.
A. has been got
B. UN troops
C. and
D. the fighting
Question 45: They learn how to use the lawnmower in the garden now.
A. learn
B. the
C. in
D. garden
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: “Let’s go to the cinema tonight,” he said.
A. He decided to go to the cinema tonight.
B. He proposed to go to the cinema tonight.
C. He suggested going to the cinema that night. D. He denied going to the cinema that night.
Question 47: It’s necessary for you to go home early tonight.
A. You may go home early tonight.
B. You mustn’t go home early tonight.
C. You shouldn’t go home early tonight.
D. You need to go home early tonight.
Question 48: They haven’t gone to see their children for 3 months.
A. They didn’t go to see their children 3 months ago.
B. They last went to see their children 3 months ago.
C. They went to see their children for 3 months.
D. They have gone to see their children for 3 months.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: You are not in my situation. I really need your advice on what to do now.
A. I wish you were in my situation and could give me advice on what to do now.
B. You are not in my situation, so I need your advice on what to do now.
C. Now that you are not in my situation, I need your advice on what to do now.
D. If only you had been in my situation and could have given advice on what to do now.
Question 50: Her father encouraged her much. She finished the essay on endangered species.
A. Hardly had she finished the essay on endangered species when her father encouraged her much.
B. Only after she had finished the essay on endangered species did her father encourage her much.
C. Had it not been for her father’s encourage, she couldn’t have finished the essay on endangered species.
D. Not only did she finish the essay on endangered species but her father also encouraged her much.
--------------------HẾT--------------------
ĐÁP ÁN
1.D
2.B
3.A
4.C
5.A
6.B
7.B
8.D
9.B
10.A
11.A
12.C
13.D
14.C
15.B
16.C
17.D
18.A
19.D
20.B
21.D
22.A
23.C
24.A
25.C
26.D
27.C
28.A
29.B
30.A
31.A
32.D
33.B
34.C
35.A
36.B
37.D
38.D
39.C
40.A
41.D
42.A
43.B
44.A
45.A
46.C
47.D
48.B
49.A
50.C
ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA SỐ 11
(Đề thi có 05 trang)
KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2023
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút khơng kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh: ....................................................................................................................
Số báo danh: ...................................................................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. cleaned
B. caused
C. decided
D. studied
Question 2: A. snap
B. after
C. fast
D. glass
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. patient
B. release
C. human
D. hopeless
Question 4: A. cultural
B. qualify
C. property
D. invalid
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: We are campaigning for a repeal of the abortion laws, ______?
A. don’t we
B. didn’t we
C. aren’t we
D. weren’t we
Question 6: ________ for twelve hours, I felt marvelous.
A. Being slept
B. Having slept
C. Slept
D. To sleep
Question 7: This machine __________ for quite a long time.
A. hasn’t been using B. weren’t used
C. hasn’t been used
D. hadn’t been used
Question 8: Many people lack the ______ and training that is needed for these jobs.
A. structure
B. education
C. material
D. question
Question 9: Would you put the jar back ______ the cupboard for me, please?
A. against
B. into
C. after
D. like
Question 10: They made a ______ of different countries' eating habits.
A. compare
B. comparative
C. comparatively
D. comparison
Question 11: The more she smiles, ______ she becomes.
A. most graceful
B. more graceful
C. the most graceful D. the more graceful
Question 12: This opportunity ______ at just the right time for me.
A. gave up
B. gave out
C. turned up
D. turned out
Question 13: We bought some ________ glasses.
A. German lovely old B. old lovely German C. lovely old German D. German old lovely
Question 14: The producers didn't want to ______ a chance on an unknown actor.
A. hold
B. take
C. have
D. put
Question 15: I will tell David you are looking for him when I ______ him tomorrow.
A. see
B. will see
C. saw
D. was seeing
Question 16: Many doctors want to see a law banning all tobacco ______.
A. example
B. purpose
C. intention
D. advertising
Question 17: He managed to eat a big lunch ______ having eaten an enormous breakfast.
A. despite
B. because of
C. although
D. because
Question 18: She did slim down a couple of years ago but has piled on the ______ again.
A. halls
B. knees
C. pounds
D. ears
Question 19: I hadn't realized she wasn't English ______.
A. until she spoke
B. when she will speak
C. because she had spoken
D. although she has spoken
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: They use special chemicals to accelerate the growth of crops.
A. independent
B. equivalent
C. sensitive
D. particular
Question 21: In addition to a competitive salary, the company offers attractive employee benefits.
A. manager
B. assistant
C. staff
D. client
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: This is an interactive museum where children can actively manipulate the exhibits.
A. idly
B. badly
C. clearly
D. angrily
Question 23: We respectfully advise the Culture Secretary not to put her shirt on it.
A. get rid of
B. be doubtful about
C. become interested in
D. be sure about
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: David is suggesting eating at the new Chinese restaurant.
David: “What do you think of eating in that new Chinese restaurant?”
Laura: “__________”
A. You try it first.
B. It sounds great. Let’s go there.
C. Don’t go there.
D. No, I don’t like.
Question 25: Linh is promising his father when coming home late.
Linh: “I promise I won’t come home late again.”
Linh’s father: “__________”
A. I’m not sure.
B. Yes, please!
C. I hope so.
D. Why not?
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
In today’s hyper-connected world, it’s easy to get over-exposed to unhealthy ideas and
images. However, a close family with strong values can help young family (26) ________ avoid
or resist negative influences. Without strong family values, young people can succumb to peer
pressure and stumble upon unwanted consequences, including substance abuse and various forms
of addiction. It’s best to start embodying good values (27) ________ your kids are young. That
way, as your children encounter critical decisions, they are already prepared to make good choices.
In children’s earliest years, they look to parents as role models. If you show them positive
behaviour, such as kindness and caring for those in need, your children are more likely to follow
in your footsteps. Remember, much of (28) ________ you teach your children is taught indirectly
through what you say and do every day.
As children grow, they’ll start to (29) ________ new social situations at school and in the
community. Your communications towards friends, neighbours, and others you interact with (30)
________ day will show them how to interact with peers. They’ll learn how to form healthy
friendships and how to navigate difficult situations. Knowing your family’s values and staying
true to them will help your children embrace them and follow suite as they grow.
Question 26: A. soldiers
B. members
C. candidates
D. crews
Question 27: A. when
B. unless
C. whether
D. because
Question 28: A. whom
B. where
C. what
D. that
Question 29: A. determine
B. encourage
C. recommend
D. encounter
Question 30: A. many
B. each
C. much
D. another
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Visa is a prominent processing network and its cards are accepted by businesses in more
than 200 countries and territories across the world. Other payment processing companies with
ownership of payment processing networks include Mastercard, American Express, and Discover.
A financial institution chooses to partner with a single transaction processing network
provider such as Visa for all of their payment card products. Each issuer sets its own terms and
conditions for the Visa cards it offers and decides the customers to which it offers Visa cards. Visa
cards are available to individual and business customers through a range of financial institution
partnerships.
Service agreements include bank transaction fees and Visa network charges. Visa also
partners with merchants through varying types of service agreements. Merchants that accept Visa
cards pay Visa Inc. a small transaction fee for each customer transaction as part of the cost for the
network processing services that the company provides.
Each Visa card relies on the Visa payment processing network to execute transactions.
Partnering with Visa as a primary payment processing network allows payments to be taken
electronically and debited—or credited—to a cardholder's account purchases are made with
merchants that accept Visa cards. All Visa cards come with a unique 16-digit number that is printed
or embossed on the front along with a microchip that provides the cardholder with protection
against card fraud. There's a magnetic stripe on the back along with a panel for the cardholder's
signature.
Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?
A. Payment Processing Companies
B. Bank Transaction Fees and Visa Network Charges
C. Cardholder's Account Purchases
D. Understanding Visa Cards
Question 32: The word “which” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. issuer
B. terms and conditions C. customers
D. Visa cards
Question 33: According to paragraph 3, Merchants that accept Visa cards pay Visa Inc. a small
transaction fee because ______.
A. service agreements don’t include bank transaction fees
B. it charges the cost for the network processing services
C. it has to deal with varying types of service agreements
D. the company doesn’t provide the service
Question 34: The word “primary” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. main
B. huge
C. strict
D. broad
Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a feature of
Visa card?
A. Each Visa card has to work with Visa payment processing network.
B. Visa functions as a payment processing network.
C. All Visa cards have a unique 16-digit number printed on both sides.
D. Magnetic stripe can be found on the back of the card.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
When new copies of the viral genome are ready to leave the host cell, some viruses fuse the
infected cell with a neighbouring cell to allow faster spread. Other viruses condense their genome
inside a protective protein shell with the right receptors to get the new virus to the next cell. To
condense their genome, some herpesviruses and bacteriophages use a powerful molecular motor
that can build up a pressure of 50 atmospheres!
Ultimately, a virus may need to spread between organisms. It can then rely on the natural
behaviour of the host or a vector, such as a tick, or manipulate its host’s behaviour. The rabies
virus, for instance, uses a snake-venom-like compound that makes animals aggressive and froth at
the mouth with virus-laden saliva in order to increase the chance that a bite will spread the virus.
Similarly, some baculoviruses can turn caterpillars into ‘zombies’ that climb up to high leaves and
burst, spreading infectious virus particles to healthy caterpillars below.
Although viruses use their host, they are also incredibly useful. Molecular biology uses viral
enzymes to manipulate RNA and DNA. Moreover, we can now alter viral receptors to re-target
viruses to specific cells, such as cancerous cells. In addition, we can create attenuated viruses that
can only proliferate in cancer cells, which often lack antiviral sensors; we can lyse tumours and
keep healthy tissues, which are still able to control the infection, unharmed.
Viruses are masters at infecting cells, utilising life’s diverse abundance of molecules,
systems and behaviours for their propagation. By studying them, we are learning from their
expertise about ourselves and other organisms. This knowledge, combined with advances in other
scientific fields, is enabling us to re-engineer viruses for our own purposes. Viruses may not only
be the most abundant and diverse biological entities, but also some of the most useful.
Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Atomic Modelling and Structure
B. The Shape of Viruses
C. Vectors and Spread
D. Replication and Adaptation
Question 37: The word “It” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. vector
B. host
C. behaviour
D. virus
Question 38: In paragraph 2, the rabies virus makes animals aggressive and froth at the mouth to
______.
A. increase the chance of spreading the virus B. rely on its host’s behaviour
C. spread between organisms
D. turn caterpillars into ‘zombies’
Question 39: The word “chance” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. possibility
B. community
C. security
D. activity
Question 40: The word “diverse” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. precious
B. various
C. hilarious
D. envious
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. A pressure of 50 atmospheres can be created by some herpesviruses.
B. ‘Zombies’ caterpillars spread infectious virus particles to healthy caterpillars.
C. Attenuated viruses can be created to multiply cancer cells.
D. Men are learning from viruses’ expertise about other organisms.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 4?
A. All viruses are masters at infecting cells and dangerous.
B. Viruses know much about ourselves and other organisms.
C. Each type of viruses has their own purposes.
D. Some viruses are useful, and understanding them helps humans treat diseases.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: Every time I take a suggestion at work, my boss overrides it.
A. Every time
B. take
C. at work
D. overrides
Question 44: Don't phone me between 7 and 8 p.m. We will have dinner then.
A. phone
B. and
C. will have
D. dinner
Question 45: In that days it was considered not quite proper for young ladies to be seen talking to
men in public.
A. that
B. considered
C. ladies
D. in
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: It’s necessary for you to type this document as soon as possible.
A. You can’t type this document as soon as possible.
B. You may not type this document as soon as possible.
C. You need to type this document as soon as possible.
D. You must type this document as soon as possible.
Question 47: I haven’t gone to the cinema for ten years.
A. I have gone to the cinema for ten years.
C. I went to the cinema ten for years.
B. I didn’t go to the cinema ten years ago.
D. I last went to the cinema ten years ago.
Question 48: “Would you like to come to my birthday party, Sarha?” asked Frederic.
A. Frederic invited Sarha to his birthday party.
B. Frederic asked Sarha to his birthday party.
C. Frederic promised Sarha to come to her birthday party.
D. Frederic reminded Sarha of his birthday party.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Her mother doesn’t stay with her. She really needs her to understand how she feels.
A. Her mother doesn’t stay with her because she doesn’t understand how she feels.
B. She wishes her mother stayed with her and could understand how she feels.
C. As long as her mother stays with her, she understands how she feels.
D. While Her mother doesn’t stay with her, she still understands how she feels.
Question 50: His wife helped him much in his work. He was promoted to chief executive.
A. Only after he had been promoted to chief executive did his wife help him much in his work.
B. Not only was he promoted to chief executive but his wife also helped him much in his work.
C. Had it not been for his wife’s help in his work, he couldn’t have been promoted to chief executive.
D. Hardly had he been promoted to chief executive when his wife helped him much in his work.
--------------------HẾT-------------------ĐÁP ÁN
1.C
2.A
3.B
4.D
5.C
6.B
7.C
8.B
9.B
10.D
11.D
12.C
13.C
14.B
15.A
16.D
17.A
18.C
19.A
20.D
21.C
22.A
23.B
24.B
25.C
26.B
27.A
28.C
29.D
30.B
31.D
32.C
33.B
34.A
35.C
36.C
37.D
38.A
39.A
40.B
41.C
42.D
43.B
44.C
45.A
46.C
47.D
48.A
49.B
50.C
ĐỀ CHUẨN MINH HỌA SỐ 10
(Đề thi có 05 trang)
KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2023
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút khơng kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh: ....................................................................................................................
Số báo danh: ...................................................................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. looked
B. visited
C. watched
D. passed
Question 2: A. come
B. month
C. some
D. comb
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. digest
B. country
C. flora
D. fortune
Question 4: A. interact
B. entertain
C. fantastic
D. submarine
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: The nuclear plant provides a fifth of the nation's ______ supplies.
A. labour
B. vegetable
C. water
D. energy
Question 6: ________ the dog coming towards her, she quickly crossed the road.
A. saw
B. To see
C. Having seen
D. Being seen
Question 7: A joke can be very revealing about what someone's ______ thinking.
A. real
B. reality
C. realize
D. really
Question 8: They ______ the proposal and decided to give it their approval.
A. talked out
B. talked over
C. pulled out
D. pulled over
Question 9: If you cook a good meal for the family, I'll ______ the washing-up.
A. do
B. catch
C. touch
D. hit
Question 10: The children were vaccinated against the major childhood ______.
A. activities
B. memories
C. diseases
D. mistakes
Question 11: The crisis hasn’t led to price rises in basic foodstuffs, ______?
A. hasn’t it
B. has it
C. hadn’t it
D. had it
Question 12: The examinees __________ the result of the examination next week.
A. will tell
B. will be told
C. will have told
D. will be telling
Question 13: I really don't know what all the fuss is ______ .
A. with
B. at
C. about
D. on
Question 14: The more I know him, ______ I like him.
A. the less
B. less
C. the least
D. least
Question 15: Mrs. Annie looks so graceful because she has ________ hair.
A. black beautiful long
B. beautiful long black
C. long black beautiful
D. long beautiful black
Question 16: The shop near her house had closed before she ______ there last night.
A. got
B. has got
C. gets
D. will get
Question 17: Students are not allowed to handle these chemicals ______ they are under the
supervision of a teacher.
A. because of
B. because
C. except
D. unless
Question 18: The smell of that bacon cooking is making my mouth ______.
A. wet
B. water
C. dry
D. swallow
Question 19: You're not going out ______.
A. because you had finished this
B. when you finished this
C. as soon as you were finishing this
D. until you've finished this
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Children with single parents at my school were very much in the minority.
A. unhappy
B. personal
C. unmarried
D. appropriate
Question 21: We must invest our time and energy in the development of our craft.
A. proposal
B. power
C. penalty
D. ambition
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: I'm tired of all these cloak-and-dagger meetings - let's discuss the issues openly.
A. closely
B. highly
C. anxiously
D. secretly
Question 23: I only thought about it the day before the game and had my heart in my mouth from
then on.
A. was very composed
B. was extremely nervous
C. was very tired
D. was extremely panic
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: John is complaining about Mark’s using his car without asking.
John: “Why on earth did you use my car without asking me first?”
Mark: “__________”
A. I’m terribly sorry for that.
B. I don’t think so.
C. Why should I?
D. No problem at all.
Question 25: Nam is giving wishes to his teacher at Christmas.
Nam: “Wish you a merry Christmas and a happy new year!”
Nam’s teacher: “__________”
A. Thank you!
B. Wish you too!
C. You can wish me again!
D. The same to you!
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
An internal “body clock” regulates your sleep cycle, controlling when you feel tired and
ready for bed or refreshed and alert. This clock operates on a 24-hour cycle known as the circadian
rhythm. After waking up from sleep, you’ll become increasingly tired throughout the day. These
feelings will (26) ________ in the evening leading up to bedtime.
This sleep drive – also known as sleep-wake homeostasis – may be linked to adenosine, an
organic compound produced in the brain. Adenosine levels increase throughout the day as you
become (27) ________ tired, and then the body breaks down this compound during sleep.
Light also influences the circadian rhythm. The brain contains a special region of nerve cells
known as the hypothalamus, (28) ________ a cluster of cells in the hypothalamus called the
suprachiasmatic nucleus, which processes (29) ________ when the eyes are exposed to natural or
artificial light. These signals help the brain determine whether it is day or night.
As natural light disappears in the evening, the body will release melatonin, a hormone that
induces drowsiness. When the sun rises in the morning, the body will release the hormone known
as cortisol (30) ________ promotes energy and alertness.
Question 26: A. peak
B. wrap
C. fold
D. lay
Question 27: A. every
B. each
C. many
D. more
Question 28: A. because
B. so
C. and
D. although
Question 29: A. missions
B. signals
C. options
D. projects
Question 30: A. where
B. who
C. when
D. that
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
The Schengen Agreement is a treaty between European nations which eventually led to the
creation of a common travel area in which there are few internal border checks. The agreement
gets its name from the town of Schengen in Luxembourg, where it was signed by representatives
of five of the ten member states of the then European Economic Community (EEC). The agreement
proposed measures intended to gradually abolish border checks at the signatories' common
borders, including hugely reducing vehicle checks, freedom for citizens to cross borders, and the
harmonization of visa policies.
In 1990, the original agreement was supplemented by the Schengen Convention which
proposed the complete abolition of systematic internal border controls and a common visa policy.
This led to the creation of the Schengen Area in 1995. It operates very much like a single state for
international travel purposes, with external border controls imposed on travellers entering and
exiting the area, but with no internal border controls.
Originally, the Schengen treaties and the rules adopted under them were officially
independent from the EEC and its successor, the European Union (EU). In 1999, they were
incorporated into European Union law by the Treaty of Amsterdam, which codified Schengen into
EU law while providing opt-outs for Ireland and the U.K., with the latter since leaving the EU. EU
member states that don’t have an opt-out which have not already joined the Schengen Area are
legally obliged to do so when they meet technical requirements. Although it is linked to EU law,
several non-EU countries are included in the area, having signed up to the agreement.
Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?
A. The Town of Schengen in Luxembourg
B. Abolition of Systematic Internal Border Controls
C. The EEC and Its Successor
D. What is the Schengen Agreement?
Question 32: According to paragraph 1, The Schengen Agreement was signed by the
representatives because ______.
A. the harmonization of visa policies couldn’t be achieved
B. they want to gradually abolish border checks
C. they want to reducing the number of vehicles
D. the number of citizens crossing borders must be controlled
Question 33: The word “which” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. visa policy
B. agreement
C. Schengen Convention
D. abolition
Question 34: The word “obliged” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. enforced
B. interested
C. sacred
D. united
Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a
characteristic of the Schengen treaties?
A. The Schengen treaties were independent from the EEC.
B. The Schengen Area included Ireland and the U.K as well.
C. They were incorporated into European Union law.
D. Some member are legally obliged to joined the Schengen Area.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
In addition to light, the sun radiates heat and a steady stream of charged particles known as
the solar wind. The wind blows about 280 miles (450 kilometres) a second throughout the solar
system, extending the sun's magnetic field out more than 10 billion miles. Beyond that distance,
the solar wind gives way to the colder, dense material that drifts in between stars, forming a
boundary called the heliopause. So far, just two spacecraft—Voyager 1 and Voyager 2—have
crossed this cosmic threshold, which defines the start of interstellar space.
Every so often, a patch of particles will burst from the sun in a solar flare, which can disrupt
satellite communications and knock out power on Earth. Flares usually stem from the activity of
sunspots, cool regions of the photosphere that form and dissipate as the sun's internal magnetic
field shifts. Solar flares and sunspots obey a regular cycle, rising and falling in number every 11
years as the poles of the sun's magnetic field flip back and forth.
Sometimes, the sun will also launch huge bubbles of magnetized particles from its corona,
in events called coronal mass ejections (CMEs). Some CMEs can grow as large as the sun itself
and fling as much as a billion tons of material in a given direction. As they rush from the sun,
CMEs can send huge shockwaves through the solar wind. If a CME collided with Earth, its
particles could pack enough power to fry electronics in orbit and on Earth's surface.
Like many energy sources, the sun will not last forever. It has already used up nearly half of
the hydrogen in its core. The sun will continue to burn through the hydrogen for another five billion
years or so, and then helium will become its primary fuel. At that point, the sun will expand to
about a hundred times its current size, swallowing Mercury and Venus—and maybe Earth. It will
burn as a red giant star for another billion years and then collapse into a white dwarf star.
Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Solar Wind and Flares
B. Material That Drifts in Between Stars
C. Huge Shockwaves Through the Solar Wind D. Hydrogen in Sun’s Core
Question 37: The word “dense” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. quiet
B. mature
C. hopeful
D. thick
Question 38: In paragraph 2, Solar flares and sunspots ______.
A. burst from the sun in a solar flare
B. change when sun's magnetic field changes
C. share the same characteristics
D. form and dissipate cool regions of the photosphere
Question 39: The word “ejections” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. sessions
B. versions
C. emissions
D. passions
Question 40: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. billion tons
B. CMEs
C. shockwaves
D. particles
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. The speed of the solar wind can reach 450 kilometres a second.
B. Flares are usually created by the activity of sunspots.
C. CMEs can grow larger than the sun itself.
D. Like many energy sources, the sun will die one day.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 4?
A. The sun will exist as long as Mercury and Venus.
B. The sun will expand to about a thousand times its current size.
C. It’s impossible for the sun to collapse into a white dwarf star.
D. The sun will die when it runs out of the hydrogen in its core.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: When I last see Carrie, she was thinking of buying a house, but now she’s changed
her mind.
A. When
B. see
C. buying
D. mind
Question 44: Do you think this jacket looks a bit funny with this trousers?
A. think
B. jacket
C. a bit
D. this
Question 45: The organizers failed to do the necessary arrangements for dealing with so many people.
A. The organizers
B. to do
C. necessary
D. for dealing with
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: I have not met her and her husband for three years.
A. I last met her and her husband three years ago.
B. I have met her and her husband for three years.
C. I did not meet her and her husband three years ago.
D. I met her and her husband for three years.
Question 47: “I’m sorry I forgot your birthday,” Harry told Mary.
A. Harry asked Mary to forget his birthday.
B. Harry admitted having forgetting Mary’s birthday.
C. Harry apologized Mary for having forgotten her birthday.
D. Harry denied to have forget Mary’s birthday.
Question 48: It’s not good for you to be aggressive to customers.
A. You need to be aggressive to customers.
B. You shouldn’t be aggressive to customers.
C. You may not be aggressive to customers. D. You must be aggressive to customers.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: She is busy with her work. She really wants to go out with them for dinner.
A. She wishes weren’t busy with her work and could go out with them for dinner.
B. She is busy with her work, so she wants to go out with them for dinner.
C. As soon as she isn’t busy with her work, she will go out with them for dinner.
D. Even if she is busy with her work, she still wants to go out with them for dinner.
Question 50: My father supported me much in my career. I did really well in my business.
A. So well did I do in my business that my father supported me much in my career.
B. Hardly had I done so well in my business when my father supported me much in my career.
C. Only after I had done so well in my business did my father support me much in my career.
D. Had it not been for my father’s support, I couldn’t have done so well in my business.
--------------------HẾT--------------------
ĐÁP ÁN
1.B
2.D
3.A
4.C
5.D
6.C
7.D
8.B
9.A
10.C
11.B
12.B
13.C
14.A
15.B
16.A
17.D
18.B
19.D
20.C
21.B
22.D
23.A
24.A
25.D
26.A
27.D
28.C
29.B
30.D
31.D
32.B
33.C
34.A
35.B
36.A
37.D
38.B
39.C
40.B
41.C
42.D
43.B
44.D
45.B
46.A
47.C
48.B
49.A
50.D
ĐỀ SỐ 36
(Đề thi có 05 trang)
ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2023
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. concerned
B. devoted
C. renewed
D. improved
Question 2: A. thrill
B. hide
C. prize
D. crime
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3 A. document
B. holiday
C. location
D. journalist
Question 4 A. listen
B. agree
C. escape
D. deny
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 5: Foreign students________ a decision about which school to attend may not know
exactly where the choices are located
A. makes
B. made
C. to make
D. making
Question 6: _______ the person is, the more privilege he enjoys.
A. The rich
B. The richest
C. As rich as
D. The richer
Question 7: I hope these machines will have worked very well ______.
A. as soon as you would come back next month B. when you came back next month
C. by time you come back next month
D. after you were coming back next month
Question 8: The restaurant is well-known ________ its friendly atmosphere and excellent
service.
A. for
B. on
C. in
D. off
Question 9: She’ll take the flight for the early meeting, ______?
A. won’t she
B. hasn’t she
C. didn’t she
D. doesn’t she
Question 10: It takes me______hour to finish my work.
A. a
B. An
C. the
D. ∅
Question 11: The popular press often contains a lot more _______ than hard facts.
A. tolerance
B. influence
C. speculation
D. realism
Question 12: Unless we do something now, hundreds of plant and animal species will _______.
A. point out
B. die out
C. cut up
D. make up
Question 13: The company denied ______ chemicals into the river
A. disposing
B. to dispose
C. disposed
D. disposes
Question 14: Sceptics claim that looking for alien forms of life in space is like squaring the
_______ as they do not exist.
A. ground
B. circle
C. flag
D. school
Question 15: While she was taking her exams, she _______ a terrible headache.
A. will have
B. has
C. had
D. is having
Question 16: Researchers have ________ to the conclusion that personality is affected by your
genes.
A. got
B. reached
C. arrived
D. come
Question 17: My grandparents are quite old now and sometimes they have to _______ up and
down steps.
A. be helping
B. helped
C. help
D. be helped
Question 18: They offered her the job because she was very _______ on the design front.
A. creatively
B. creative
C. create
D. creation
Question 19: The letters he would write were full of doom and _______. We still do not know
what made
him so depressed.
A. drib
B. gloom
C. duck
D. tuck
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.