Đề đề xuất + keys chọn lọc hsg tiếng anh lớp 10 thpt chu văn an bình định 2021 2022

SỞ GD&ĐT HÀ NỘI
TRƯỜNG THPT CHU VĂN AN

ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI VÙNG
DUYÊN HẢI - ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ
NĂM HỌC 2021 - 2022

(Đề thi đề xuất)

Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 10
(Thời gian: 180 phút – không kể thời gian giao đề)

A. LISTENING (50 points):
Section 1: Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each
answer. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
Date
3000 BC

Event
farmers from China

14th century introduction of (2) _______

Importance for art
built temples ornamented with (1) _______ and stone
carvings and statues in Bali
artists employed by the ruling families and focused on
epic narratives

(3) ______

establishment of Dutch East
Indies Company

art became expression of opposition to (4) ________

1920s

beginning of tourism

encouraged use of new materials, techniques and subjects

1945

beginning of independence

started to describe the (5) ______ of the Balinese people
– as well as the myths and legends of their history

Your answers:
1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Section 2. You will hear a radio discussion about writing a novel. For questions 1-5, choose

the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. (10 points)
1. What does Louise say about Ernest Hemingway's advice to writers?
A. It is useful to a certain extent.
B. It applies only to inexperienced novelists.
C. It wasn't intended to be taken seriously.
D. The advice can mislead aspiring writers.
2. Louise believes that getting feedback is important when you ______
A. are experiencing a writer’s block.
B. are struggling with structuring your writing properly.
C. are unsure of the quality of your own writing.
D. finish your book and need an opinion on it.
3. Louise states that getting feedback from a colleague is important because _____
A. non-writers’ opinion can be hard to take seriously.
1


B. a writer can be less harsh with their criticism.
C. others can be reluctant to help with such thing.
D. a writer can understand the real purpose of your work.
4. For Louise, what does good feedback mean?
A. both general and detailed observations on the content
B. identifying problematic aspects as well as suggesting ways to overcome them
C. feedback that mostly focuses on the stylistic part of the writing
D. an extensive list of good and bad points
5. What does Louise say about the people she gets feedback from?
A. They shouldn’t be more skilled than you.
B. She prefers not to talk about her texts.
C. They exchange feedback.
D. Collaborating with them can be difficult.
(Adapted from CAE practice tests)

Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Section 3. You will hear a tour guide talking to a group of tourists in New York about a visit
they will make to the Museum of Immigration on Ellis Island. Decide the following statements
are true (T) or false (F). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10
points)
1. The first part of the museum you go through used to be the Baggage Room.
2. In the Registry Room, immigrants had only medical check-ups.
3. They haven't made reservations for the play "Ellis Island Stories" in the Theatre 2.
4. At the Ellis Island Oral History Library you can listen to 20 recordings of people's first-hand
experiences at Ellis Island.
5. "The Peopling of America" exhibition is located in a place which used to be a ticket office.
Your answers:
1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Section 4. For questions 1-10, listen to an authentic recording about chess and fill in the
missing information using words taken from the recording. Write NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points)

- Having existed for more than 1500 years, chess has been regarded as a tool of military strategy,
a yardstick for genius, and a metaphor for (1) _______.
- The Arab world was introduced to chess as a result of the Islamic (2) _______ in the seventh
century.
- Over time, chess was not only a tactical simulation - it was also a prolific source of (3)
_______.
- The terminology of chess was used by (4) _______ to talk about their political authority.
- The spread of chess to Asia gave rise to a great number of (5) _______.
- By 1000AD, chess served as (6) _______ for different social ranks carrying out their
corresponding duties.
2


- Despite being frowned upon by the Church and moralists, chess still developed rapidly and the
15th century witnessed it (7) _______ into its modern version.
- The birth of chess theory was marked by the creation of (8) _______ in which common chess
openings and endgames were analyzed.
- As formal competitive chess emerged in the 19th century, the (9) _______ of the past was
eventually eclipsed by strategic calculations.
- In a time period when chess carried a new (10) _______, it was the Soviet Union that
dominated international competition.
Your answers:
1.
6.

2.

3.

4.

5.

7.

8.

9.

10.

B. LEXICO- GRAMMAR (50 points)
Section 1. Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences and write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points)
1. My teacher advises me to juice _____ my presentation with more colorful illustrations.
A. down
B. up
C. over
D. off
2. Every Christmas of my childhood was the same. My father _____ late for lunch, weighed
down with presents for the family.
A. would arrive
B. had arrived
C. was arriving
D. was used to arriving
3. Jack: Did you know Jim's car broke down on the highway late at night?
Jane: Unfortunately, that's a situation anyone _____.
A. might have to confront with
B. might be confronted with
C. might be confronted

D. might have been confronted
4. I don't like the way that Jack is always trying to _____ trouble between us.
A. dish out
B. rub up
C. stir up
D. spark out
5. It’s time ____ so extravagant and started being a bit thriftier.
A. you will stop being
B. you had stopped being
C. you stopped being
D. you don’t be
6. ____ you’ve filled in the forms correctly, you shouldn’t have a problem opening a new
account.
A. Unless
B. Provided that
C. But for
D. Supposing
7. ____ she had no experience, they left her to her own devices.
A. Despite the fact that
B. However
C. While
D. Nevertheless
8.The different colors of _____ the different temperatures of the stars’ surfaces.
A. the stars indicate
B. indicating stars
C. the indication that the stars
D. stars indicating that
9. Only a few sounds produced by insects are heard by humans
most of the sounds are
pitched either too low or too high.

A. in spite of
B. because
C. as a result of
D. instead of

3


10. Mathematics helps meteorologists to predict the weather more accurately, to calculate the
speed of storms, and _____.
A. for the wind to blow determines
B. causes the wind blowing to determine
C. to determine what causes the wind to blow
D. determine the wind’s blowing
11. Would passengers please _____ from using any electronic equipment until the plane is
airborne?
A. refer
B. resist
C. restrain
D. refrain
12. If you want to solve the problem forever, you must face a difficulty or danger boldly, that is,
you must _____.
A. pull the bull's horns
B. take the bull by horns
C. blow your own horn
D. be on the horns of a dilemma
13. The international conference of the Cardiological Association has been _____ in Cairo to
discuss the revolutionary discovery of doctor Gonzales from Mexico.
A. deployed
B. collected

C. mobilized
D. summoned
14. If she wins the prize again this year, it'll be a real _____ in her cap.
A. nutshell
B. gemstone
C. feather
D. landmark
15. When times are good, people can spend freely, but during bad times we have to _____ our
spending.
A. multiple
B. disperse
C. curtail
D. obstinate
16. The manager hesitated to assign the job to the newcomer as he was _____.
A. wet behind the ears
B. feeling your ears burning
C. ringing in your ears
D. keeping your ears open
17. It is important to set goals to strive for in life; however, make sure they are attainable,
otherwise they are nothing more than just _____ dreams.
A. pipe
B. cloud
C. drain
D. tube
18. With just a little preparation and regular feeding and watering, you can guarantee that you
have a ________ of colour throughout the summer.
A. disturbance
B. riot
C. demonstration
D. rally

19. With a wide range of qualifications and a wealth of experience, Rosa is____ the most suitable
candidate.
A. haphazardly
B. begrudgingly
C. indubitably
D. jovially
20. Working night shifts at the weekend is _______ of any job in hospitality.
A. cut and thrust
B. ebb and flow
C. nuts and bolts
D. part and parcel
Your answers:
1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.
11.

7.
12.

8.
13.

9.
14.

10.
15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

Section 2. Complete each sentence with a suitable particle or preposition. Write your answers
in the box provided. (10 points)
1. Ivan has an excellent memory – he can call ______ precise details of things that happened
when he was a small child.
4


2. A: “Did Amanda ever complete the project?”
B: “She’s almost finished. She just has a few minor problems left to iron ______.”
3. Tim distrusts his new friends and prefers to keep them ______ arm’s length.
4. I would advise you to think very carefully before you embark ______ a completely new
career.
5. Unfortunately, most of the photos Terry took were ______ of focus.

6. The dentist told me that when the effect of the anaesthetic wore ______, I might feel a little
pain. But it was more than a little.
7. Their predictions were not borne ______ by subsequent events. In fact, the very opposite
occurred.
8. To prevent soldiers from rebelling, the commander splits them into groups to play them off
______.
9. Close your eyes and try to conjure ______ a picture of a place where you feel at peace.
10. It’s going to be a financially difficult year for us, but we’ll just have to tough it ______.
Things are bound to get better soon.
Your answers:
1.
6.

2.

3.

4.

5.

7.

8.

9.

10.

Section 3. Write the correct form of the words given in the brackets. Write your answers in the

corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
1. The main character in her first novel is very unconventional and is full of _______, brutal but
generous and loyal. (CONTRADICT)
2. My mom thought she’d _______ her account but suddenly she received nine notifications.
(ACTIVE)
3. There is a _________ belief that flamenco is typical throughout Spain, but that is not true.
(HOLD)
4. He left us with the ______ impression that we had been speaking to a future leader.
(ERADICATE)
5. With free-market globalization, investment funds can move _____ from the rich countries to
the developing countries. (IMPEDIMENT)
6. We've tried to anticipate the most likely problems, but it's impossible to be prepared for every
______. (EVENTUATE)
7. The organization insists that it is ______ and does not identify with any one particular party.
(POLITICS)
8. Bill Gate is a totally millionaire ______ who started his own business with no financial help at
all. (SELF)
9. Globalisation has become the ______ of governments and policy-makers across the world,
being alternately blamed and celebrated, depending on what particular action (or outcome) is
being justified. (WORD)
10. A sound dome could thus be regarded as a gigantic well-tempered spatial instrument
with _____ loudspeakers on its periphery. (DISTANT)
Your answers:
5


1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

C. READING (50 points)
Part 1. Read the following passage and circle the best answer to each of the following
questions. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)
For those people who go out in search of adventure, a long-distance flight in a hot-air
balloon is a particularly exciting (1)_______. Indeed, a round-the-world balloon trip is widely
regarded as the ultimate challenge. One well-known adventurer, David Hemplemann-Adams
would not agree, however. Recently, he became the first man to (2)_______ the North Pole in a
hot-air balloon, a more significant (3)_______ in his eyes. Given that the distance and altitudes
(4)_______ are comparatively modest, you might wonder why the trip from Canada to the Pole,
should present such a challenge.
Part of the (5)_______ was that such a flight had not even been attempted for over a
century. In those days, such expeditions were huge events, with a nation's pride (6)_______ on
their success, and so resources were (7)_______ to them. Although he eventually managed to
secure a substantial sponsorship deal from an insurance company, Hemplemann-Adams had the

added challenge of having to raise sufficient funds for his trip.
Then, of course, he had to face major survival concerns, such as predicting the weather
(8)_______ and coping with the dangerously low temperatures. But most challenging of all was
the incredibly complex problem of navigation. As the earth's magnetic field gets stronger, only
the most sophisticated of satellite-linked navigation systems can (9)_______ that one has got to
the Pole. Without them, the chances of getting anywhere near it are extremely slim. Not to
mention an even greater problem that (10)_______ on Hemplemann-Adams' mind: getting back!
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.

A campaign
A meet
A recognition
A engaged
A appeal
A leaning
A commended
A tendencies
A approve
A pushed

Your answers:

1.
6.
6

B prospect
B reach
B acquisition
B regarded
B beauty
B resting
B confided
B conditions
B confirm
B stressed

C motion
C attain
C achievement
C involved
C charm
C waiting
C confirmed
C circumstances
C reinforce
C pressed

D engagement
D fulfil
D realisation
D connected

D allure
D standing
D committed
D elements
D support
D weighed

2.

3.

4.

5.

7.

8.

9.

10.


Part 2. Read the following text and fill in the blank with ONE suitable word. Write your
answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)
The huge stone figures of Easter Island have beguiled explorers, researchers and the
wider world (1) ______ centuries, but now experts say they have cracked one of the biggest
mysteries: why the statues are where they are.
Researchers say they have analysed the locations of the megalithic platforms (2) ______

which many of the statues known as moai sit, as well as scrutinising sites of the island’s
resources, and have discovered the structures are typically found close (3) ______ sources of
fresh water. This led to the belief that such constructions could be tied to the abundance and
quality of the supplies.
Professor Carl Lipo from Binghamton University in New York commented that (4)
______ is important about the findings is that the statue locations seem to carry a symbolic
meaning to them while integrating into the lives of the community, rather than being a weird
ritual place. Easter Island has more than 300 megalithic platforms, (5) ______ of which might
have been made by a separate community. The first of these are believed to have been
constructed in the 13th century.
It is thought the monuments represent ancestors and were linked to ritual activity,
forming a focal point for communities, (6) ______ the reason for their locations was previously
unsolved. (7) ______ studies have suggested the sites might have been chosen because of a link
to key resources, the team says the latest research is the first attempt to scrutinise such claims.
The team (8) ______ on the east of the island, where various resources have been well mapped,
and looked at the distribution of 93 megalithic platforms constructed (9) ______ European
sailors arrived later in the 18th century.
After finding (10) ______ link to the proximity of rock used for tools or for the
monuments, they looked at whether the statues were found near other important resources:
gardens spread with stones in which crops like sweet potatoes were grown, fishing sites, and
sources of freshwater.
(Adapted from The Guardian, Easter Island statues: mystery behind their location revealed)
Your answers:
1.
6.

2.

3.

4.

5.

7.

8.

9.

10.

Part 3. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap.
Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)
ARTISANS AND INDUSTRIALIZATION
Before 1815 manufacturing in the United States had been done in homes or shops by
skilled artisans. As master craftworkers, they imparted the knowledge of their trades to
apprentices and journeymen. In addition, women often worked in their homes part-time, making
finished articles from raw material supplied by merchant capitalists. After 1815 this older form
of manufacturing began to give way to factories with machinery tended by unskilled or

7


semiskilled laborers. Cheap transportation networks, the rise of cities, and the availability of
capital and credit all stimulated the shift to factory production.
The creation of a labor force that was accustomed to working in factories did not occur
easily. Before the rise of the factory, artisans had worked within the home. Apprentices were
considered part of the family, and masters were responsible not only for teaching their
apprentices a trade but also for providing them some education and for supervising their

moral behavior. Journeymen knew that if they perfected their skill, they could become
respected master artisans with their own shops. Also, skilled artisans did not work by the clock,
at a steady pace, but rather in bursts of intense labor alternating with more leisurely time.
The factory changed that. Goods produced by factories were not as finished or elegant as
those done by hand, and pride in craftsmanship gave way to the pressure to increase rates of
productivity. The new methods of doing business involved a new and stricter sense of time.
Factory life necessitated a more regimented schedule, where work began at the sound of a bell
and workers kept machines going at a constant pace. At the same time, workers were required to
discard old habits, for industrialism demanded a worker who was alert, dependable, and selfdisciplined. Absenteeism and lateness hurt productivity and, since work was
specialized, disrupted the regular factory routine. Industrialization not only produced a
fundamental change in the way work was organized; it transformed the very nature of work.
The first generation to experience these changes did not adopt the new attitudes easily.
The factory clock became the symbol of the new work rules. One mill worker who finally quit
complained revealingly about "obedience to the ding-dong of the bell—just as though we are
so many living machines." With the loss of personal freedom also came the loss of standing in
the community. Unlike artisan workshops in which apprentices worked closely with the masters
supervising them, factories sharply separated workers from management. Few workers rose
through the ranks to supervisory positions, and even fewer could achieve the artisan's dream of
setting up one's own business. Even well-paid workers sensed their decline in status.
In this newly emerging economic order, workers sometimes organized to protect their
rights and traditional ways of life. Craftworkers such as carpenters, printers, and tailors formed
unions, and in 1834 individual unions came together in the National Trades' Union. The labor
movement gathered some momentum in the decade before the Panic of 1837, but in the
depression that followed, labor's strength collapsed. During hard times, few workers were willing
to strike or engage in collective action. And skilled craftworkers, who spearheaded the union
movement, did not feel a particularly strong bond with semiskilled factory workers and unskilled
laborers. More than a decade of agitation did finally bring a workday shortened to 10 hours to
most industries by the 1850's, and the courts also recognized workers' right to strike, but these
gains had little immediate impact.
Workers were united in resenting the industrial system and their loss of status, but they

were divided by ethnic and racial antagonisms, gender, conflicting religious perspectives,
occupational differences, political party loyalties, and disagreements over tactics. For them,
the factory and industrialism were not agents of opportunity but reminders of their loss of
independence and a measure of control over their lives. As United States society became more
specialized and differentiated, greater extremes of wealth began to appear. And as the new
markets created fortunes for the few, the factory system lowered the wages of workers by
dividing labor into smaller, less skilled tasks.
1. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage 1 about articles manufactured before
8


1815?
A. They were primarily produced by women.
B. They were generally produced in shops rather than in homes. 
C. They were produced with more concern for quality than for speed of production. 
D. They were produced mostly in large cities with extensive transportation networks.
2. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the bold sentence in
the passage 2?
"Apprentices were considered part of the family, and masters were responsible not only for
teaching their apprentices a trade but also for providing them some education and for
supervising their moral behavior."
A. Masters demanded moral behavior from apprentices but often treated them irresponsibly.
B. The responsibilities of the master to the apprentice went beyond the teaching of a trade.
C. Masters preferred to maintain the trade within the family by supervising and educating the
younger family members.
D. Masters who trained members of their own family as apprentices demanded excellence from
them.
3. The word "disrupted" in the passage 3 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. prolonged
B. established

C. followed

D. upset

4. In paragraph 4, the author includes the  quotation from a mill worker in order to _____.
A. support the idea that it was difficult for workers to adjust to working in factories      
B. to show that workers sometimes quit because of the loud noise made by factory machinery
C. argue that clocks did not have a useful function in factories
D. emphasize that factories were most successful when workers revealed their complaints
5. All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 4 as consequences of the new system for
workers EXCEPT a loss of _____.
A. freedom
B. status in the community
С. opportunities for advancement
D. contact among workers who were not managers
6. The phrase "gathered some momentum" in the passage 5 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. made progress
B. became active
C. caused changes
D. combined forces
7. Which of the following statements about the labor movement of the 1800's is supported by
paragraph 5? 
A. It was successful during times of economic crisis.
B. Its primary purpose was to benefit unskilled laborers.
C. It was slow to improve conditions for workers.
D. It helped workers of all skill levels form a strong bond with each year
8. The author identifies "political party loyalties, and disagreements over tactics" in
paragraph 6 as two of several factors that _____.
9

A. encouraged workers to demand higher wages
B. created divisions among workers
C. caused work to become more specialized
D. increased workers' resentment of the industrial system
9. The word "them" in the passage 6 refers to _____.
A. workers
B. political party loyalties
C. disagreements over tactics
D. agents of opportunity
10. Which of the following square brackets [A], [B], [C] or [D] best indicates where in the first
paragraph the sentence "This new form of manufacturing depended on the movement of goods
to distant locations and a centrealized source of laborers." can be inserted?
Before 1815 manufacturing in the United States had been done in homes or shops by skilled
artisans. [A] As master craftworkers, they imparted the knowledge of their trades to apprentices
and journeymen. [B] In addition, women often worked in their homes part-time, making finished
articles from raw material supplied by merchant capitalists. [C] After 1815 this older form of
manufacturing began to give way to factories with machinery tended by unskilled or semiskilled
laborers. [D] Cheap transportation networks, the rise of cities, and the availability of capital and
credit all stimulated the shift to factory production.
A. [A]
B. [B]
C. [C]
D. [D]
(Adapted from TOEFL)
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.

5.
6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

Part 4: Read the passage and do the following tasks. (15 points)
A. Charles Bolden, NASA’s administrator, averred that the robotic vehicle Curiosity will ‘blaze
a trail for human footprints on Mars’. He could be right. But there is a gulf between what is
technically feasible and what is actually achieved.
B. Neil Armstrong made his ‘one small step’ on the Moon in 1969, only 12 years after Sputnik.
Had the pace set by John F. Kennedy’s Apollo programme been sustained there would
already be footprints on Mars. But that was driven by the urge to beat the Russians; there was
no motive to sustain such huge expenditure.
C. Scientific exploration has burgeoned too. In coming decades, the entire solar system will be
explored by flotillas of miniaturized unmanned craft. Robots will mine raw materials from
asteroids and fabricate large structures. The Hubble Telescope’s successors will further
expand our cosmic vision of galaxies and nebulae.
D. But what role will humans play? There is no denying that Curiosity may miss startling
discoveries no human geologist could overlook. But robotic techniques are advancing fast –
whereas the cost gap between manned and unmanned missions remains huge.
E. The main impediment to a manned NASA programme has always been that public and
political opinion constrains it into being too risk-averse. The space shuttle failed twice in 135
launches. Although astronauts or test pilots would willingly accept this risk level, the shuttle
10

F.
G.
H.

I.

J.

K.

had been promoted as safe for civilians. So, each failure caused a national trauma and was
followed by a hiatus in the programme while costly efforts were made – with very limited
effect – to reduce the risk still further.
Unless motivated by pure prestige, ambitious manned missions will be viable only if they are
cut-price ventures, accepting high risks – perhaps even ‘one-way tickets’. These may have to
be privately funded; no Western government agency would expose civilians to such hazards.
The SpaceX company, led by the entrepreneur Elon Musk, has successfully sent a payload
into orbit and docked with the Space Station. The involvement in space projects of Mr. Musk
and others in the high-tech community with credibility and resources is surely a positive step.
Richard Branson will soon be lobbing people into space to experience a few minutes of
weightlessness. Within a few years private companies will offer orbital flights. Maybe after
another decade the really wealthy will be able to take a week-long trip around the far side of
the Moon – voyaging farther from Earth than anyone has been before but avoiding the
greater risks of a Moon landing and blast-off.
The phrase ‘space tourism’ should, however, be avoided. It lulls people into believing that
such ventures are routine and low-risk. If that becomes the perception, the inevitable
accidents will be as traumatic as those of the space shuttle. Remember that nowhere in our
solar system offers an environment as clement even as the Antarctic or the top of Everest. It

is foolish to claim, as some do, that mass emigration into space offers escape from Earth’s
problems.
But I believe, and hope, that some people living now will walk on Mars. Moreover, a century
or two from now, small groups of intrepid adventurers may be living there or perhaps on
asteroids quite independently from Earth. Whatever ethical constraints we impose here on the
ground, we should surely wish such pioneers good luck in genetically modifying their
progeny to adapt to alien environments.
This might be the first step towards divergence into a new species: the beginning of the posthuman era. And machines of human intelligence could spread still farther. Whether the longrange future lies with organic post- humans or intelligent machines is a matter for debate.
Either way, dramatic cultural and technological evolution will continue not only here on
Earth but far beyond.

Questions 1-7: Choose the correct headings for the following paragraphs. There are more
headings than necessary.
Example: Paragraph A

ii

1. Paragraph C

3. Paragraph E

5. Paragraph G

2. Paragraph D

4. Paragraph F

6. Paragraph H

For questions 8-10, do the following statements agree with the information given?

TRUE
if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE
if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
7. The Americans had no reason to continue spending large amounts of money on their space
programme once they had won the race to the Moon.
11


8. One of the advantages of robots is that they notice unusual objects which human scientists
might not see.
9. It would be wrong for future space explorers to alter their children's genes to make it possible
for them to live on other planets.
10. Whatever the evolution of the species in the future, it should remain human.
(Adapted from IELTS)
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

D. WRITING (50 points)
Section 1. Graph description (20 points)
The chart below shows global sales of the top five mobile phone brands between 2009 and 2013.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features and make comparisons
where relevant.
You should write at least 150 words.
Global mobile phone sales by brand

units sold (millions)

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------12


---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Section 2. Essay writing (30 points)
Write an essay of 200 - 250 words on the following topic.
Some people think scientific research should focus on solving world
health problems. Others think that there are more important issues.
Discuss both views and give your opinion.
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------13


----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------14


------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

15

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------THE END

SỞ GD&ĐT HÀ NỘI
TRƯỜNG THPT CHU VĂN AN
(Đề thi đề xuất)

A. LISTENING (50 points):

16

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI VÙNG
DUYÊN HẢI - ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ
NĂM HỌC 2021 - 2022
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 10
(Thời gian: 180 phút – không kể thời gian giao đề)


Section 1: Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each
answer. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
(Adapted from IELTS)
1. wood

2. Hinduism

3. 1906

4.
colonisation

5. everyday life

Section 2. You will hear a radio discussion about writing a novel. For questions 1-5, choose
the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. (10 points)
(Adapted from CAE practice tests)
1. A

2. C

3. D

4. B

5. C

Section 3. You will hear a tour guide talking to a group of tourists in New York about a visit
they will make to the Museum of Immigration on Ellis Island. Decide the following statements
are true (T) or false (F). (10 points)
1. T

2. F

3. T

4. F

5. T

Section 4. For questions 1-10, listen to an authentic recording about chess and fill in the

missing information using words taken from the recording. Write NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS. (20 points)
1. human
affairs

2. conquest of
Persia

3. poetic
imagery

4. diplomats
and courtiers

5. local variants

6. an allegory

7. cohering

8. treatises

9. dramatic flair 10. geopolitical
importance

B. LEXICO- GRAMMAR (50 points)
Section 1. Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences and write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points)
1. B

2. A

3. B

4. C

5. C

6. B
11. D

7. A
12. B

8. A
13. D

9. B
14. C

10. C
15. C

16. A

17. A

18. B

19. C

20. D

Section 2. Complete each sentence with a suitable particle or preposition. Write your answers
in the box provided. (10 points)
1. UP
2. OUT
3. AT
4. ON
5. OUT
17


6. OFF/ AWAY

7. OUT

8. AGAINST

9. UP

10. OUT

Section 3. Write the correct form of the words given in the brackets. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
1.
CONTRADICTIO
NS

2.

DEACTIVATE
D

3. WIDELYHELD/
LONGHELD

4.
INERADICABL
E

5.
UNIMPEDED

6. EVENTUALITY

7.
APOLITICAL

8. SELFEMPLOYE
D/ SELFMADE

9.
WATCHWORD

10.
EQUIDISTAN
T

C. READING (50 points)
Part 1. Read the following passage and circle the best answer to each of the following

questions. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
1. B

2. B

3. C

4. C

5. A

6. B

7. D

8. B

9. B

10. D

Part 2. Read the following text and fill in the blank with ONE suitable word. Write your
answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
(Adapted from The Guardian, Easter Island statues: mystery behind their location revealed)
1. FOR
2. ON
3. TO
4. WHAT
5. EACH
6. BUT

7. WHILE

8. FOCUSED

9. BEFORE

10. NO

Part 3. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap.
Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
1. C

2. B

3. D

4. A

5. D

6. A

7. C

8. B

9. A

10. D

Part 4: Read the passage and do the following tasks. (15 points)
Questions 1-7: Choose the correct headings for the following paragraphs. There are more
headings than necessary.
For questions 8-10, do the following statements agree with the information given?
1. v
2. x
3. viii
4. vii
5. iv

18


6. i
7. YES
8. NO
D. WRITING (50 points)
Section 1. Graph description (20 points)
1. Task achievement (5 points)
2. Coherence and Cohesion (5 points)
3. Lexical Resource (5 points)
4. Grammatical Range and Accuracy (5 points)

9. NO

10. NOT GIVEN

Section 2. Essay writing (30 points)
1. Content (10 points)

a. Providing all main ideas and details as required
b. Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively
2. Organization and presentation (10 points)
a. Ideas are well-organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and clarity
b. The essay is well-structured
3. Language (5 points)
a. Demonstration of a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to level of English
language of gifted upper secondary school students
b. Good use and control of grammatical structures
4. Punctuation, spelling and handwriting (5 points)
a. Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes
b. Legible handwriting

19


TRANSCRIPT

Section 1
Last week we looked at the traditional art of Japan. In this week’s lecture we’re going to
move south and look at the very special way in which art has developed in the beautiful island of
Bali, which is now part of Indonesia. I’ll begin by giving you a brief historical overview.
It’s thought that the first inhabitants of Bali were farmers who arrived around 3000 BC
… at the beginning of the Iron Age. They probably originally came from China, and in Bali they
cultivated rice and built temples ornamented with wood and stone carvings and statues. The
Hindu religion was introduced in the 14th century AD, and this has remained the main religion on
the island. This was an important period in the artistic development of the island, when sculptors,
poets, priests and painters worked together in the service of the ruling families. Rather than
painting everyday scenes, artists concentrated on narrative paintings illustrating the epic stories
of Hinduism. Bali’s rich natural resources have always made it an alluring goal for merchants,

and from the 17th century onwards, Dutch ships visited the island to trade in spices and luxury
goods. Gradually the old royal families lost their power, and eventually in 1906 the Dutch East
Indies Company was founded and the island became a colony. In the 20 th century, art then took
on a very different role: as a tool accessible to everyone in the fight of the Balinese people
against colonisation rather than as the property of a minority. Shortly after this, in the 1920s,
stories of the beauty of the island of Bali began to spread around the world, and Balinese art
underwent another vast transformation with advent of tourism to the island. At first, this was
only on a small scale, but it had important effects. Expatriate artists from Holland and Germany
settled on the island bringing paper, Chinese ink and other new materials with them. They
worked with local artists, encouraging them to experiment with concepts like naturalism,
expressionism, light and perspective, as well as to move away from the tradition focus on
narrative painting towards something closer to their own experience. When independence came
in 1945, this desire for an art to match a new national identity became stronger and the traditional
narrative paintings started to give way to scenes showing the everyday life of the Balinese people
–harvests, market scenes and daily tasks – as well as the myths and legends of their history.
Section 2
(CAE practice tests)
Interviewer: OK, in our weekly spot about how to write a novel, I’m talking to novelist Louise
Doughty. Louise, this week we’re talking about getting comments and feedback on your work
from other people. ‘If there is anything in your own work you think particularly fine,’ said Ernest
Hemingway, ‘strike it out.’ Is that good advice?
Writer: Well, few would-be novelists aspire to be as plain and brutal as Hemingway, I suspect,
but his dictum is still worth tucking into a corner of your brain – not to be followed slavishly, but
as an antidote to that great curse of the inexperienced novelist: over-writing.
Interviewer: How
do
you
know
if
you

are
over-writing?
Writer: Well, an excess of adverbs and adjectives is a clue. Repetition under the guise of
emphasis is another, and extended metaphors should be rationed tightly.
Interviewer: Now, there comes a point in the writing of every novel when you just don’t know
any more. You’ve been immersed in it for weeks, possibly years. You’ve lost sight of the
original impetus behind the book and are plagued with self-doubt – yet at the same time you
know there is something there and are not ready to give up on it.
Writer: Yes, and this is the point at which you should be getting feedback. 
20