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Cambridge ielts 16 general training

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q CAMBRIDGE

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WITH ANSWERS
AUTHENTIC PRACTICE TESTS


Cambridge University Press
www.cambridge.org/elt
Cambridge Assessment English
www.cambridgeenglish.org
\nformation on this title: www.cambridge.org/9781 108933865
© Cambridge University Press and Cambridge Assessment 2021
It is normally necessary for written permission for copying to be obtained
in advance from a publisher. The sample answer sheets at the back of this
book are designed to be copied and distributed in class.
The normal requirements are waived here and it is not necessary to write to
Cambridge University Press for permission for an individual teacher to make copies
for use within his or her own classroom. Only those pages that carry the wording

“© Cambridge Assessment 2021 JĂWWEMDIN may be copicd.
First published 2021
20

19

18 17


16 15

14 13

12

1110987654321

Printed in Dubai by Oriental Press
A catalogue record for this publication is available from the British Library
ISBN 978-1-108-93385-8 Academic Student's Book with Answers with Audio
ISBN 978-1-108-93386-5 General Training Student's Book with Answers with Audio
The publishers have no responsibility for the persistence or accuracy of URLs
for external or third-party internet websites referred to in this publication, and
do not guarantee that any content on such websites is, or will remain, accurate
or appropriate. Information regarding prices, travel timetables, and other factual
information given in this work is correct at the time of first printing but the
publishers do not guarantee the accuracy of such information thereafter.


Contents
Introduction
Test 1

10

Test 2

32


Test 3

54

Test 4

76

Audioscripts

98

Listening and Reading answer keys

121

Sample Writing answers

129

Sample answer sheets

139

Acknowledgements

143


Introduction

Prepare for the exam with practice tests from Cambridge
Inside you'll find four authentic examination papers from Cambridge Assessment English.
They are the perfect way to practise - EXACTLY like the real exam.

Why are they unique?
All our authentic practice tests go through the same design process as the IELTS test. We

check every single part of our practice tests with real students under exam conditions, to
make sure we give you the most authentic experience possible.
Students can practise these tests on their own or with the help of a teacher to familiarise
themselves with the exam format, understand the scoring system and practise exam
technique.

Further information
IELTS is jointly managed by the British Council, IDP: IELTS Australia and Cambridge
Assessment English. Further information can be found on the IELTS official website at
ielts.org.

WHAT

IS THE TEST FORMAT?

IELTS consists of four components. All candidates take the same Listening and Speaking
tests. There is a choice of Reading and Writing tests according to whether a candidate is
taking the Academic or General Training module.
Academic

General Training

and for those seeking professional

registration.

New Zealand, UK), and for those wishing to
train or study below degree level.

For candidates wishing to migrate to an
For candidates wishing to study at
undergraduate or postgraduate levels, | English-speaking country (Australia, Canada,


Introduction
The test components are taken in the following order:
Listening
4 parts, 40 items, approximately 30 minutes
Academic Reading

3 sections, 40 items

or

Academic Writing
2 tasks

or

60 minutes

60 minutes

General Training Reading


3 sections, 40 items
60 minutes

General Training Writing
2 tasks
60 minutes

Speaking

11 to 14 minutes
Total Test Time
2 hours 44 minutes

GENERAL

TRAINING

TEST FORMAT

Listening
This test consists of four parts, each with ten questions. The first two parts are concerned
with social needs. The first part is a conversation between two speakers and the second part
is a monologue. The final two parts are concerned with situations related to educational or
training contexts. The third part is a conversation between up to four people and the fourth
part is a monologue.
A variety of question types is used, including: multiple choice, matching, plan/map/
diagram labelling, form completion, note completion, table completion, flow-chart completion,
summary completion, sentence completion and short-answer questions.
Candidates hear the recording once only and answer the questions as they listen. Ten

minutes are allowed at the end for candidates to transfer their answers to the answer sheet.

Reading
This test consists of three sections with 40 questions. The texts are taken from notices,
advertisements, leaflets, newspapers, instruction manuals, books and magazines. The
first section contains texts relevant to basic linguistic survival in English, with tasks mainly

concerned with providing factual information. The second section focuses on the work

context and involves texts of more complex language. The third section involves reading
more extended texts, with a more complex structure, but with the emphasis on descriptive
and instructive rather than argumentative texts.
A variety of question types is used, including: multiple choice, identifying information
(True/False/Not Given), identifying the writer's views/claims (Yes/No/Not Given), matching
information, matching headings, matching features, matching sentence endings, sentence


Introduction
completion, summary completion, note completion, table completion, flow-chart completion,
diagram-label completion and short-answer questions.

Writing
This test consists of two tasks. It is suggested that candidates spend about 20 minutes on
Task 1, which requires them to write at least 150 words, and 40 minutes on Task 2, which
requires them to write at least 250 words. Task 2 contributes twice as much as Task 1 to the
Writing score.
In Task 1, candidates are asked to respond to a given situation with a letter requesting
information or explaining the situation. They are assessed on their ability to engage in
personal correspondence, elicit and provide general factual information, express needs,
wants, likes and dislikes, express opinions, complaints, etc.

In Task 2, candidates are presented with a point of view, argument or problem. They
are assessed on their ability to provide general factual information, outline a problem and

present a solution, present and justify an opinion, and to evaluate and challenge ideas,
evidence or arguments.
Candidates are also assessed on their ability to write in an appropriate style. More
information on assessing the Writing test, including Writing assessment criteria
(public version), is available at ielts.org.

Speaking
This test takes between 11 and 14 minutes and is conducted by a
There are three parts:

trained examiner.

Part 1

The candidate and the examiner introduce themselves. Candidates then answer general
questions about themselves, their home/family, their job/studies, their interests and a wide
range of similar familiar topic areas. This part lasts between four and five minutes.

Part 2

The candidate is given a task card with prompts and is asked to talk on a particular topic.
The candidate has one minute to prepare and they can make some notes if they wish,
before speaking for between one and two minutes. The examiner then asks one or two
questions on the same topic.

Part 3


The examiner and the candidate engage in a discussion of more abstract issues which are
thematically linked to the topic in Part 2. The discussion lasts between four and five minutes.
The Speaking test assesses whether candidates can communicate effectively in English.
The assessment takes into account Fluency and Coherence, Lexical Resource, Grammatical
Range and Accuracy, and Pronunciation. More information on assessing the Speaking test,
including Speaking assessment criteria (public version), is available at ielts.org.


Introduction

HOW

IS IELTS SCORED?

IELTS results are reported on a nine-band scale. In addition to the score for overall language
ability, IELTS provides a score in the form of a profile for each of the four skills (Listening,
Reading, Writing and Speaking). These scores are also reported on a nine-band scale. All
scores are recorded on the Test Report Form along with details of the candidate’s nationality,
first language and date of birth. Each Overall Band Score corresponds to a descriptive
statement which gives a summary of the English-language ability of a candidate classified at
that level. The nine bands and their descriptive statements are as follows:
9

Expert user — Has fully operational command of the language: appropriate, accurate and
fluent with complete understanding.

8

Very good user — Has fully operational command of the language with only occasional
unsystematic inaccuracies and inappropriacies. Misunderstandings may occur in

unfamiliar situations. Handles complex detailed argumentation well.

7

Good user — Has operational command of the language, though with occasional
inaccuracies, inappropriacies and misunderstandings in some situations. Generally
handles complex language well and understands detailed reasoning.

6

Competent user — Has generally effective command of the language despite some
inaccuracies, inappropriacies and misunderstandings. Can use and understand fairly
complex language, particularly in familiar situations.

5

Modest user — Has partial command of the language, coping with overall meaning in
most situations, though is likely to make many mistakes. Should be able to handle basic
communication in own field.

4

Limited user — Basic competence is limited to familiar situations. Has frequent problems
in understanding and expression. Is not able to use complex language.

3

Extremely limited user — Conveys and understands only general meaning in very
familiar situations. Frequent breakdowns in communication occur.


2

Intermittent user — Has great difficulty understanding spoken and written English.

1

Non-user — Essentially has no ability to use the language beyond possibly a few
isolated words.

0

Did not attempt the test — Did not answer the questions.


Introduction

MARKING

THE PRACTICE

TESTS

Listening and Reading
The answer keys are on pages 121-128.
Each question in the Listening and Reading tests is worth one mark.

L

——


Questions which require letter ! Roman numeral answers
For questions where the answers are letters or Roman numerals, you should write only the
number of answers required. For example, if the answer is a single letter or numeral, you
should write only one answer. If you have written more letters or numerals than are required,
the answer must be marked wrong.
Questions which require answers in the form of words or numbers
Answers may be written in upper or lower case.
Words in brackets are optional — they are correct, but not necessary.

Alternative answers are separated by a slash (/).

e

If you are asked to write an answer using a certain number of words and/or (a) number(s),
you will be penalised if you exceed this. For example, if a question specifies an answer
using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS and the correct answer is ‘black leather coat’,
the answer ‘coat of black leather’ is incorrect.
In questions where you are expected to complete a gap, you should only transfer the
necessary missing word(s) onto the answer sheet. For example, to complete ‘in the ...’,
where the correct answer is ‘morning’, the answer ‘in the morning’ would be incorrect.
All answers require correct spelling (including words in brackets).
Both US and UK spelling are acceptable and are included in the answer key.
All standard alternatives for numbers, dates and currencies are acceptable.
All standard abbreviations are acceptable.
You will find additional notes about individual answers in the answer key.

Writing
The sample answers are on pages 129-138. It s not possible for you to give yourself a mark
for the Writing tasks. We have provided sample answers (written by candidates), showing
their score and the examiners’ comments. These sample answers will give you an insight

into what is required for the Writing test.

———


Introduction

HOW

SHOULD YOU

INTERPRET YOUR

SCORES?

At the end of each Listening and Reading answer key you will find a chart which will help
you assess whether, on the basis of your Practice Test results, you are ready to take the

IELTS test.

In interpreting your score, there are a number of points you should bear in mind. Your
performance in the real IELTS test will be reported in two ways: there will be a Band Score
from 1 to 9 for each of the components and an Overall Band Score from 1 to 9, which
is the average of your scores in the four components. However, institutions considering
your application are advised to look at both the Overall Band Score and the Band Score for
each component in order to determine whether you have the language skills needed for a
particular course of study or work environment. For example, if you are applying for a course
which involves a lot of reading and writing, but no lectures, listening skills might be less
important and a score of 5 in Listening might be acceptable if the Overall Band Score was 7.
However, for a course which has lots of lectures and spoken instructions, a score of 5 in

Listening might be unacceptable even though the Overall Band Score was 7.
Once you have marked your tests, you should have some idea of whether your listening
and reading skills are good enough for you to try the IELTS test. If you did well enough in
one component, but not in others, you will have to decide for yourself whether you are ready
to take the test.
The Practice Tests have been checked to ensure that they are the same level of difficulty
as the real IELTS test. However, we cannot guarantee that your score in the Practice Tests
will be reflected in the real IELTS test. The Practice Tests can only give you an idea of
your possible future performance and it is ultimately up to you to make decisions based on

your score.

Different institutions accept different IELTS scores for different types of courses. We have
based our recommendations on the average scores which the majority of institutions accept.
The institution to which you are applying may, of course, require a higher or lower score than
most other institutions.


Test 1

PART

1

Questions 1-10

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD ANDIOR A NUMBER for each answer.


Eistonig 05530010

Children’s Engineering Workshops
Tiny Engineers (ages 4-5)
Activities
„+

80 they can drop it from a height

e

Create a cover for an 1......
without breaking it.

e
9)

Take part in a competition to build the tallest 2................................. °Mak6G/8132.04...00i.6e powered by a balloon.

dunior Engineers (ages 6-8)
Activities:
e_
e_

Build model cars, trucks and 4................................. and learn how to program
them so they can move.
Take partin a competition to build the longest 8................................ using Card
and wood.

e _ Create ashort6............................. with special software.

©

Build,7........................ and program a humanoid robot.

Cost for a five-week block: £50

Held on 8.................................. ffom 10 am to 11 am
Location
Building 10A, 9.................................. Industrial Estate, Grasford

Plenty of 10.................................. i$ available.

10.

2|} p.121|[B p. 98]


PART

2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-14
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

11

Stevenson's was founded in


A_
B

12

B_.
C

the healthcare industry.

theautomotive industry.
the machine tools industry.

What does the speaker say about the company premises?

A

The company has recently moved.

C

The company is going to move shortly.

B

14

1923.
1924.
1926.


Originally, Stevenson's manufactured goods for
A.

13

Listening test audio

The company has no plans to move.

The programme for the work experience group includes
A __ time to do research.
B_

C

meetings with a teacher.

talks by staff.

11


Test 1

Questions 15-20
Label the map below.
Write the correct letter, A-J, next to Questions 15-20.

Plan of Stevenson’s site


FACTORY

:

A

š

D

yl

F

B

c

| |

E
S

OPE!
COURTYARD


`


c
Em

MAINIROAD)

15

coffee room

16

warehouse

17

staff canteen

18

meeting room

19_

human resources....................

20

boardroom

3| p.121||Ê

p. 99]

Đà

@)
(ð)
CC

J

RECEPTION

12

Fs
a


PART

3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21 and 22
Choose TWO letters, A-E.

Listening test aualo

Which TWO parts of the introductory stage to their art projects do Jess and Tom agree

were useful?
A_
B_
C
D__
E

the
the
the
the
the

Bird Park visit
workshop sessions
Natural History Museum visit
projects done in previous years
handouts with research sources

Questions 23 and 24
Choose TWO letters, A-E.

In which TWO

ways do both Jess and Tom decide to change their proposals?

mom>

by giving a rationale for their action plans
by being less specific about the outcome


by adding a video diary presentation
by providing a timeline and a mind map
by making their notes more evaluative

13


Test 1

Questions 25-30
Which personal meaning do the students decide to give to each of the following
pictures?
Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A—H, next to
Questions 25-30.

Personal meanings

T70

m

mo


a childhood memory

hope for the future
fast movement
a potential threat


the power of colour
the continuity of life
protection of nature
a confused attitude to nature

Pictures
25

Falcon (Landseer)..........................

26

Fish hawk (Audubon).................................

27

Kingfisher (van Gogh).........................

28

Portrait of William Wells............................

29

Vairumati (Gauguin)

30

Portrait of Giovanni de Medici........................


14

2|@p.121||Ê
p. 100]


Listening

PART

4

Questions 31-40

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Listening dest audio

Stoicism
Stoicism is still relevant today because of its 3†1................................. 4DDeal.
Ancient Stoics
e ... Stoicism was founded over 2,000 years ago in Greece.
e

The Stoics’ ideas are surprisingly well known, despite not being intended
[ON SQ
eee aca


Stoic principles
e

Happiness could be achieved by leading a virtuous life.

e — Controlling emotions was essential.
se. .

Epictetus said that external events cannot be controlled but the

8S ica aidan etune people make in response can be controlled.

e¢ — AStoic is someone who has a different view on experiences which others would
consider as 34..................................... The influence of Stoicism
e

George Washington organised a 35............................... about Cato to motivate
his men.

e .. The French artist Delaoroix was a Stoic.
se __ Adam Smiths ideas on 36................................ Were influenced by Stoicism.

se. .

Some oftoday's political leaders are inspired by the Stoics.

e

Cognitive Behaviour Therapy (CBT)

— the treatment for 37 ................................. is based on ideas from Stoicism
— people learn to base their thinking on 38

e

In business, people benefit from Stoicism by identifying obstacles as
39...

Relevance of Stoicism
°

e

It requires a lot of 40................................. Đụt Sftoicism can help people to lead a

good life.

It teaches people that having a strong character is more important than
anything else.

[0 p. 121] (Tp.104

15


Test 1

SECTION

1


Questions 1-14

Read the text below and answer Questions

1-6.

Helping pupils to choose optional subjects when
they're aged 14-15: what some pupils say
Krishnan
I'm studying Spanish, because
very pleased when | can watch
really pushes us, and offers us
for me, because otherwise I'd

it's important to learn foreign languages — and I’m
a video in class and understand it. Mr Peckham
extra assignments, to help us improve. That's good
be quite lazy.

Lucy
History is my favourite subject, and it’s fascinating to see how what we learn about

the past is relevant to what's going on in the world now. It's made me understand
much more about politics, for instance. My plan is to study history at university,
and maybe go into the diplomatic service, so | can apply a knowledge of history.



Mark


Thursdays are my favourite days, because that's when we have computing. It’s
the high spot of the week for me — | love learning how to program. | began when
| was about eight, so when | started doing it at school, | didn't think I'd have any
problem with it, but | was quite wrong! When | leave school, I’m going into my
family retail business, so sadly | can't see myself becoming a programmer.
Violeta
My parents both work in leisure and tourism, and they've always talked about
their work a lot at home. | find it fascinating. I’m studying it at school, and the
teacher is very knowledgeable, though | think we spend too much time listening
to her: I'd like to meet more people working in the sector, and learn from their
experience.

Walid
I've always been keen on art, so | chose it as an optional subject, though | was

afraid the lessons might be a bit dull. | needn't have worried, though — our teacher

gets us to do lots of fun things, so there’s no risk of getting bored. At the end of
the year the class puts on an exhibition for the school, and I'm looking forward to
showing some of my work to other people.
16

=


Reading

Questions 1-6
Look at the five comments about lessons, A-E, on page 16.

For which comments are the following statements true?
Write the correct letter, A-E, in boxes

1-6 on your answer sheet.

ND

This pupil is hoping to have a career that makes use of the subject.

WO

This pupil is interested in the subject despite the way it is taught.
This pupil finds the subject harder than they expected.

+

1

This pupil finds the lessons very entertaining.

a

You may use any letter more than once.

This pupil appreciates the benefit of doing challenging work.

oOo

NB


This pupil has realised the connection between two things.

17


Test 1
Read the text below and answer Questions 7-14.

It’s almost time for the next Ripton Festival!
As usual, the festival will be held in the last weekend of June, this year on Saturday to

Monday, 27-29 June. Ever since last year’s festival, the committee has been hard at work to
make this year’s the best ever! The theme is Ripton through the ages. Scenes will be acted
out showing how the town has developed since it was first established. But there’s also plenty
that’s up-to-date, from the latest music to local crafts.

The Craft Fair is a regular part of the festival. Come and meet professional artists, designers
and craftsmen and women, who will display their jewellery, paintings, ceramics, and much
more. They'll also take orders, so if you want one of them to make something especially for
you, just ask! You'll get it within a month of the festival ending.

The Saturday barbecue will start at 2 pm and continue until 10 pm, with a bouncy castle
for kids. The barbecue will be held in Palmer’s Field, or in the town hall if there’s rain. Book
your tickets now, as they always sell out very quickly! Entry for under 16s is free all day;
adults can come for free until 6 pm and pay £5 after that. There'll be live music throughout,
with local amateur bands in the afternoon and professional musicians in the evening.

On Sunday we're delighted to introduce an afternoon of boat races, arranged by the Ripton
Rowing Club. The spectator area by the bridge has plenty of room to stand and cheer the
boats home, in addition to a number of benches. The winners of the races will be presented

with trophies by the mayor of Ripton.
All money raised by the festival will go to support the sports clubs in Ripton.

18


Reading

Questions 7-14
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text on page 18?
In boxes 7-14 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE
FALSE
NOT GIVEN

if the statement agrees with the information
if the statement contradicts the information
if there is no information on this

The festival is held every year.
This year’s festival focuses on the town’s history.
Goods displayed in the craft fair are unlike ones found in shops.

10

The barbecue will be cancelled if it rains.

1


Adults can attend the barbecue at any time without charge.

12

Amateur musicians will perform during the whole of the barbecue.

13

Seating is available for watching the boat races.

14

People attending the festival will be asked to donate some money.

> (nm

19


Test 1

SECTION

2

Questions 15-27

Read the text below and answer Questions 15-20.

Reducing injuries on the farm

Farms tend to be full of activity. There are always jobs to be done and some tasks
require physical manual work. While it is good for people to be active, there are risk

factors associated with this, and efforts need to be made to reduce them.

The first risk relates to the carrying of an excessive load or weight. This places undue
demands on the spine and can cause permanent damage. Examples of tasks that

involve this risk are moving 50-kilogramme fertiliser bags from one site to another
or carrying heavy buckets of animal feed around fields. According to the UK Health
and Safety Executive, activities such as these ‘should be avoided at all times’. Their
documentation states that other methods should be considered, such as breaking down
the load into smaller containers prior to movement or transporting the materials using a
tractor or other vehicle. The risk posed by excessive force is made worse if the person
lifting is also bending over as this increases pressure on the discs in the back.
If a load is bulky or hard to grasp, such as a lively or agitated animal, it will be more
difficult to hold while lifting and carrying. The holder may adopt an awkward posture,
which is tiring and increases the risk of injury. Sometimes a load has to be held away
from the body because there is a large obstacle in the area and the person lifting needs
to be able to see where their feet are going. This results in increased stress on the back;
holding a load at arm’s length imposes about five times the stress of a close-to-the-body
position. In such cases, handling aids should be purchased that can take the weight off
the load and minimise the potential for injury.
Another risk that relates to awkward posture is repetitive bending when carrying out a
task. An example might be repairing a gate that has collapsed onto the ground. This type

of activity increases the stress on the lower back because the back muscles have to
support the weight of the upper body. The farmer should think about whether the job can
be performed on a workbench, reducing the need for prolonged awkward


20

posture.




Reading

Questions 15-20
Complete the table below.
Choose

ONE WORD

ONLY from the text on page 20 for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 15-20 on your answer sheet.

Risks and how to avoid them
Examples of farm
activities

Risk factor
Heavy loads

Awkward posture

e


Lifting sacks of

e

Divide into containers
that weigh less

e

Carrying food for
animals

e

Use a vehicle such as
a tractor

e

Lifting a restless

Buy particular

46..

18.
to help with support

e


Moving something
around a big

A lot of 19.............................. | Fixing a fallen
while working

Risk reduction measures
to consider

Use a workbench instead

20. sce

21


Test 1
Read the text below and answer Questions 21-27.

Good customer service in retail
Without customers, your retail business would not exist. It stands to reason, therefore, that
how you treat your customers has a direct impact on your profit margins.

Some customers just want to browse and not be bothered by sales staff. Try to be sensitive
to how much help a customer wants; be proactive in offering help without being annoying.
Suggest a product that naturally accompanies what the customer is considering or point out

products for which there are special offers, but don’t pressure a customer into buying an item
they don’t want.
Build up a comprehensive knowledge of all the products in your shop, including the pros


and cons of products that are alike but that have been produced under a range of brand
names. If you have run out ofa particular item, make sure you know when the next orders
are coming in. Negativity can put customers off instantly. Ifa customer asks a question to

which the answer is ‘no’, do not just leave it at that — follow it with a positive, for example:

‘we're expecting more of that product in on Tuesday’.

Meanwhile, if you see a product in the wrong place on a shelf, dont ignore it — put it
back where it belongs. This attention to presentation keeps the shop tidy, giving the right
impression to your customers. Likewise, if you notice a fault with a product, remove it and
replace it with another.

When necessary, be discreet. For example, if the customer's credit card is declined at the till,
keep your voice down and enquire about an alternative payment method quietly so that the
customer doesn’t feel humiliated. If they experience uncomfortable emotions in your shop,
it’s unlikely that they'll come back.

Finally, good manners are probably the most important aspect of dealing with customers.
Treat each person with respect at all times, even when you are faced with rudeness. Being
discourteous yourself will only add more fuel to the fire.
Build a reputation for polite, helpful staff and you'll find that customers not only keep giving

you their custom, but also tell their friends about you.

22

mmeee=n



Reading

Questions 21-27
Complete the sentences below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text on page 22 for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 21-27 on your answer sheet.
21
22

Ác.

+ 8ÐĐFOACh to selling is fine as long as you do not irritate

the customer.

Recommend additional products and............................................... Without being
too forceful.

23

Know how to compare similar products which have different............................................... -

24

AVON since scystensarcibearacnanteniene by always saying more than ‘no’.

25

Keep an eye on the.......................................... Of goods on the shelves.


26

If a customer has problems paying With their............................................. , Randle the

27

ANYEiiitnncnaeueeaenunianenes from a customer should not affect how you treat them.

problem with care.

3812]

z


Test 1

SECTION

3

Questions 28-40

Read the text on pages 25 and 26 and answer Questions 28-40.

Questions 28-34
The text on pages 25 and 26 has seven paragraphs, A-G.

Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below.

Write the correct number, i-viii, in boxes 28-34 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings
A time when opportunities were limited
The reasons why Ferrando’s product is needed
Ano-risk solution
Two inventions and some physical details
The contrasting views of different generations
vi

A disturbing experience

vii

The problems with replacing a consumer item

viii

Looking back at why water was bottled

28

Paragraph A

29

Paragraph B

30


Paragraph C

31

Paragraph D

32

Paragraph E

33

Paragraph F

34

Paragraph G

24


Reading

Plastic is no longer fantastic
In 2017, Carlos Ferrando, a Spanish engineer-turned-entrepreneur, saw a piece of
art in a museum that profoundly affected him. ‘What Lies Under’, a photographic
composition by Indonesian digital artist Ferdi Rizkiyanto, shows a child crouching
by the edge of the ocean and ‘lifting up’ a wave, to reveal a cluster of assorted
plastic waste, from polyethylene bags to water bottles. The artwork, designed to


raise public awareness, left Ferrando angry — and fuelled with entrepreneurial ideas.

Ferrando runs a Spanish-based design company, Closca, that produces an
ingenious foldable bicycle helmet. But he has now also designed a stylish glass
water bottle with a stretchy silicone strap and magnetic closure mechanism that
means it can be attached to almost anything, from a bike to a bag to a pushchair
handle. The product comes with an app that tells people where they can fill their
bottles with water for free.
The intention is to persuade people to stop buying water in plastic bottles, thus
saving consumers money and reducing the plastic waste piling up in our oceans.

‘Bottled water is now a $100 billion business, and 81 per cent of the bottles are
not recycled. It’s a complete waste — water is only 1.5 per cent of the price of the
bottle!’ Ferrando cries. Indeed, environmentalists estimate that by 2050 there will

be more plastic in our oceans than fish and that’s mainly down to such bottles. ‘We

are trying to create a sense that being environmentally sophisticated is a status

symbol,’ he adds. ‘We want people to clip their bottles onto what they are wearing,
to show that they are recycling — and to look cool.’
Ferrando’s story is fascinating because it seems like an indicator of something

unexpected. Three decades ago, conspicuous consumption — the purchase of
luxuries, such as handbags, shoes, cars, etc. on a lavish scale — heightened

people’s social status. Indeed, the closing decades of the 20th century were a time

when it seemed that anything could be turned into a commodity. Hence the fact that
water became a consumer item, sold in plastic bottles, instead of just emerging, for

free, from a tap.

Today, though, conspicuous extravagance no longer seems desirable among
consumers. Now, recycling is fashionable — as is cycling rather than driving. Plastic
water bottles have become so common that they do not command status; instead,
what many millennials — young people born in the late 20th century — prefer to post
on social media are ‘real (refillable) bottles or even the once widespread Thermos
bottles. Some teenagers currently think that these stainless-steel vacuum-insulated
water bottles that are coming back onto the market are ultra ‘cool’; never mind the
fact that they feel oddly out-of-date to anyone over the age of 40 or that teenagers
in the 1970s would have avoided ever being seen with one.

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