UNIVERSITY ENTRANCE EXAM 2014

ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC NĂM 2014
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH – ĐỀ SỐ 100
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút
Directions: Choose the best answer from the options given below.

1. The incidence of suicide in the country of Travonia has increased dramatically in recent years, as evidenced by the fact
that since the introduction of several non-prescription brands of sleeping pills, the number of deaths from overdoses alone
has nearly doubled. However, certain types of suicides have not increased in number during this period. It is true that
elderly suicides have seen a greater than 70 percent increase, but teen suicides now account for only 30 percent of all
suicides in the country. This is a significant decrease over 1985, when teen cases represented 65 percent of all country-wide
suicides.
The assertion that suicides are increasing in Travonia is most justified if which of the following is assumed?
A. The elderly suffered the greatest number of overdoses from the non-prescription sleeping pills.
B. Overdosing on sleeping pills was not the most pervasive method of suicide in Travonia ten years ago.
C. The number of deaths from natural causes in Travonia has decreased in recent years.
D. The majority of deaths resulting from overdosing on non-prescription sleeping pills were not accidental.
2. The local high school students have been clamoring for the freedom do design their own curricula. Allowing this would
be as allowing three-year-olds to choose their own diets. These students have neither the maturity nor the experience to
equal that of the professional educators now doing the job.
Which of the following statements, if true, would most strengthen the above argument?
A. high school students have less formal education than those who currently design the curricula.
B. Three-year-olds do not, if left to their own devices, choose healthful diets.
C. The ability to design good curricula develops only after years of familiarity with educational life.
D. Individualized curricula are more beneficial to high school students than are the standard curricula, which are rigid and
unresponsive to their particular strengths and weaknesses.
3. The rate of violent crime in this state is up 30 percent from last year. The fault lies entirely in our court system: Recently
our judges' sentences have been so lenient that criminals can now do almost anything without fear of a long prison term.
The argument above would be weakened if it were true that
A.85 percent of the other states in the nation have lower crime rates than does this state.
B. white collar crime in this state has also increased by over 25 percent in the last year.
C.35 percent of the police in this state have been laid off in the last year due to budget cuts.

D. polls show that 65 percent of the population in this state oppose capital punishment.
4. The education offered by junior colleges just after the Second World War had a tremendous practical effect on familyrun businesses throughout the country. After learning new methods of marketing, finance, and accounting, the sons and
daughters of merchants returned home, often to increase significantly the size of the family's enterprise or in other ways, to
maximize the profits.
Which of the following statements is best supported by the information above?
A) The junior colleges principally emphasized methods of increasing the size of small businesses.
B) The business methods taught in the junior colleges were already widespread before the second World War.
C) The business curricula at junior colleges did not include theoretical principles of management.
D) Business methods in many post-war family-run businesses changed significantly as a result of the junior colleges.
5. Techniques to increase productivity in the performance of discrete tasks, by requiring less human labor in each step of
the production process, are widely utilized. Consultants on productivity enhancement point out, however, that although
these techniques achieve their specific goal, they are not without drawbacks. They often instill enough resentment in the
workforce eventually to lead to a slowdown in the production process as a whole.
Which of the following can be reasonably inferred from the statements above?
(A) Productivity enhancement techniques do not attain their intended purpose and should not be employed in the
workplace.
(B) The fact that productivity enhancement techniques are so widely employed has led to a decline in the ability of
American businesses to compete abroad.
(C) If productivity enhancement consultants continue to utilize these techniques, complete work stoppages will eventually
result.


(D) Ironically, an increase in the productivity of discrete tasks may result in a decrease in the productivity of the whole
production process.
The following questions consist of sentences that are either partly or entirely underlined. Select the answer choice
that represents the best revision of the underlined text. Choice A duplicates the original version. If the original seems
better than any of the revisions, then select it

6. When he had run for mayor of Cleveland in 1968, Carl Stokes won the election, proving that an African American
candidate can be elected in a city in which African Americans constitute a minority of the population.

A. When he had run for mayor of Cleveland in 1968,
B. He ran for mayor of Cleveland in 1968, and
C. Running, in 1968, for mayor of Cleveland,
D. When he ran for mayor of Cleveland in 1968,
7. Finding itself unable to keep up with the new competitions that had recently entered its industry, the company was
forced to begin closing plants, laying off workers and reduced its research and marketing budgets
A. reduced
B. it reduced
C. reducing
D. would reduce
8. Those who study ancient European history soon realize that before Greece was Greece, it was a collection of small citystates that were intensely jealous of one another and were only occationally able to work together for common goals.
(A) before Greece was Greece, it was a collection of small city-states
(B) before there was Greece, it was a collection of small city-states
(C) before Greece, it was a collection of small city-states
(D) it was a collection of small city-states that was Greece
9. Many freshmen of college find the first year quite challenging and are unable to balance responsibilities such as
attending class, reading assignments and to write papers with the wide and sometimes bewildering array of new social
opportunities.
A. reading assignments and to write
B. reading assignments and writing
C. to read assignments and to write
D. to read assignments and write.
10. Without hiding the fact that the destruction of the Athens was one of their most important objectives, the multitudinous
Persian army, led by Xerxes and nine of his generals, marched Westward toward Greece in the spring and summer of 480
B. C. E
A. was one of their most important objectives
B. was one of its most important objectives
C. one of the objectives they considered to be most important D. having been one of the most important objectives
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions

The rich analyses of Fernand Braudel and his fellow Annales historians have made significant contributions to
historical theory and research. In a departure from traditional historical approaches, the Annales historians assume (as do
Marxists) that history cannot be limited to a simple recounting of conscious human actions, but must be understood in the
context of forces that underlie human behavior. Braudel was the first Annales historian to gain widespread support for the
idea that history should synthesize data from social sciences, especially economics, to provide a broader historical view of
human societies over time (although Febvre and Bloch, founders of the Annales school, originated this approach).
Braudel conceived of history as the dynamic interaction of three temporalities. The first of these, the even
ementielle, involved short-lived dramatic "events," such as battles, revolutions, and the actions of great men, which had
preoccupied traditional historians like Carlyle. Conjunctures was Braudel's term for the larger, cyclical processes that might
last up to half a century. The longue duree, a historical wave of great length, was for Braudel the most fascinating of the
three temporalities. Here he focused on those aspects of everyday life that might remain relatively unchanged for centuries.
What people ate, what they wore, their means and routes of travel—for Braudel these things create "structures" that define
the limits of potential social change for hundreds of years at a time.
Braudel's concept of the longue duree extended the perspective of historical space as well as time. Until the Annales
school, historians had taken the juridicial political unit— the nation-state, duchy, or whatever—as their starting point. Yet,
when such enormous time spans are considered, geographical features may have more significance for human populations
than national borders. In his doctoral thesis, a seminal work on the Mediterranean during the reign of Philip II, Braudel
treated the geohistory of the entire region as a "structure" that exerted myriad influences on human lifeways since the first
settlements on the shores of the Mediterranean Sea.


And so the reader is given such arcane information as the list of products that came to Spanish shores from North
Africa, the seasonal routes followed by Mediterranean sheep and their shepherds, and the cities where the best ship timber
could be bought.
Braudel has been faulted for the imprecision of his approach. With his Rabelaisian delight in concrete detail,
Braudel vastly extended the realm of relevant phenomena; but this very achievement made it difficult to delimit the
boundaries of observation, a task necessary to beginning any social investigation. Further, Braudel and other Annales
historians minimize the differences among the social sciences. Nevertheless, the many similarly designed studies aimed at
both professional and popular audiences indicate that Braudel asked significant questions which traditional historians had

overlooked.
11. Which statement is TRUE? According to the passage
A. Unlike Maxis, the Annales historians assume (as do Marxists) that history cannot be limited to a simple recounting of
conscious human actions, but must be understood in the context of forces that underlie human behavior.
B. One of Annales historians, Braudel, was well-known for his assumption that in order to provide a broader historical
view of human societies over time, it is ill-advised to synthesize data from social sciences
C. Fernand Braudel and his fellow Annales historians ,with their rich analyses, have made significant contributions to
historical theory and research
D. The assumption that to synthesize data from social sciences, especially economics, to provide a broader historical view
of human societies over time is originated by Fernand Braudel and his fellow Annales historians
12. The primary purpose of the passage is to
A. show how Braudel's work changed the conception of Mediterranean life held by previous historians.
B. evaluate Braudel's criticisms of traditional and Marxist historiography
C. contrast the perspective of the longue duree with the actions of major historical figures
D. outline some of Braudel's influential conceptions and distinguish them from conventional approaches
13. The word ‘ potential’ in the passage is closest in meaning to……
A. able
B. opposed
C. possible
D. imminent
14. The author refers to the work of Febvre and Bloch in order to
A. illustrate the limitations of the Annales tradition of historical investigation
B. suggest the relevance of economics to historical investigation
C. debate the need for combining various sociological approaches
D. show that previous Annales historians anticipated Braudel's focus on economics
15. Which statement is NOT TRUE?
A. Of three temporalities, the longue duree, the historical wave lasting long was the most fascinating, according to Braudel.
B. For Braudel, the relatively unchanged aspects of everyday life are the things that create “ structures”
C. The limits of potential social change for hundreds of years at a time is defined by "structures" created by relatively
unchanged aspects of everyday life.

D. Carlyle was an example of short-lived dramatic events, one of the three temporalities.
16. According to the passage, all of the following are aspects of Braudel's approach to history EXCEPT that he
A. attempted to unify various social sciences
B. studied social and economic activities that occurred across national boundaries
C. pointed out the link between increased economic activity and the rise of nationalism
D. examined seemingly unexciting aspects of everyday life
17. The passage suggests that, compared to traditional historians, Annales historians are
A. more interested in other social sciences than in history
B. more critical of the achievements of famous historical figures
C. more skeptical of the validity of most economic research
D. more interested in the underlying context of human behavior provided by social structure
18. The author is critical of Braudel’s perspective for which of the following reasons?
A. It seeks structures that underlie all forms of social activity.
B. It assumes a greater similarity among the social sciences than actually exists.
C. It fails to consider the relationship between short-term events and long-term social activity.
D. It clearly defines boundaries for social analysis
19. Braudel has been faulted due to:
A. the lack of precise in his approach


B. His extending the realm of relevant phenomena, which made it difficult to delimit the boundaries of observation
C. His minimizing the differences among the social sciences.
D. All of the above.
20. For Braudel…..
A. geographical features may be less significant to human populations than national borders
B. national borders may be less significant to human populations than geographical features
C. geographical features and national borders played the same important role in human populations
D. geographical features didn’t play as much significant function to human population as national borders
Mark the letter A, B, C or d on your answer shhet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.

21. According to what I've heard from the weather report, the outlook for the whole week is sunshine.
A. It is predicted by the weather forecaster that it will get sunnier towards the end of the week.
B. The outlook for the week is that this sunny weather will continue all through the week.
C. According to the weather report, it will become sunny some time during the week.
D. I've listened to the weather forecast, and it says it will be sunny throughout the week.
22. It is unfair that such a well-qualified person as you are could not find a better-paid job.
A. Sometimes people with good qualifications get low-paid jobs, which isn't fair.
B. A person as well-qualified as you are does not deserve to have such a low-paid job.
C. I don't approve of paying well-qualified people a low salary.
D. Considering the qualifications required for this job, what you earn is not justified.
23. Jim told me that last year; the company celebrated their tenth anniversary with an elaborate dinner party that was held
in an old castle.
A. Last year, according to Jim, there was an elaborate banquet which took place in an old castle in honour of the company's
tenth anniversary.
B. According to Jim, the ancient castle provides a wonderful place to arrange any special occasion, such as the party his
company held there on their tenth anniversary.
C. Jim says that since last year, his company has been preparing for an elaborate banquet in an old castle to celebrate their
tenth anniversay.
D. The company where Jim works held an elaborate party in an old castle last year to celebrate their tenth anniversary.
24. If only she had saved more money, she would be able to visit Thailand again next summer.
A. She really needs to save more money if she wants to come to Thailand next summer.
B. Why doesn't she save more money if she wants to come to Thailand?
C. She has not saved enough money to be able to go back to Thailand next summer.
D. If we were her, I would save more money and come to Thailand again.
25. With your qualifications, it would be surprising if you didn't find a job.
A. If you want to find a job, you should become better qualified.
B. I wonder why you haven't found a job, because you have such good qualifications.
C. The better your qualifications, the more likely you are to find a job.
D. You are so well qualified that you are almost certain to find a job.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions

During those barren winter months, with windows overlooking long-dead gardens, leafless trees, and lawns that seem to
have an ashy look about them, nothing soothes the jangled nerves more than the vibrant green of plants surrounding the
living spaces of one’s home. People browse through garden stores just to get a whiff of chlorophyll and to choose a plant or
two to bring spring back into their winter-gray lives.
Now there is even more of a need for “the green,” in light of recent articles warning us of the hazards of chemicals
that we, ourselves, introduce into our homes. Each time we bring clothes home from the cleaners, we release those
chemicals into the closed-in air of our dwellings. Every cleanser releases its own assortment of fumes. Some of the
chemicals are formaldehyde, chlorine, benzene, styrene, etc. Read the labels on many home products, the ingredients aren’t
even listed! During the winter, when those same windows are shut tight, we breathe in these chemicals— causing
symptoms much like allergies. In fact, most people probably dismiss the effects of these chemicals simply as a flare up of
some allergy or other. The truth is that we are experiencing a syndrome that is called Multiple Chemical Sensitivity.


Now, what has this got to do with green plants? Everything healthy! Research has been conducted with
two types of plants that have actually removed much of these harmful chemicals from the air. The two plants that seem to
be the best bet for ridding one’s home of such chemicals are ferns and palms. These plants release moisture as part of
photosynthesis and, as they do, pull chemicals from the air into their leaves. Even NASA has conducted some greenhouse
experiments for long-term space exploration. Within hours, their plants [palms] had removed almost all traces of
formaldehyde in the room. Both species of plants are ancient, dating back more than a hundred million years. Another trait
they share is that they both live long lives, 100 years or more. This we expect from trees, but ferns and palms are plants;
plants that can grow to 65 feet in the proper setting! Even their individual leaves live for one to two years [ferns] and one to
nine years [palms]. Perhaps it is their primal qualities that have contributed to their ability to purify their environment.
26. What is the main idea of the passage?
a. Our homes are full of contaminants.
b. Our allergies are caused by chemicals found in the home.
c. All plants release moisture in the home.
d. Certain plants can purify the home of many harmful chemicals.

27. According to the passage, when a few harmful chemicals combine, they can
a. cause us to experience allergies.
b. cause a monumental task for homeowners.
c. contribute to a syndrome called Multiple Chemical Sensitivity. d. contribute to photosynthesis in plants.
28. The passage indicates that research
a. has only been conducted using specific plants.
b. has only been conducted by NASA.
c. has not identified the sources of these chemical impurities.
d. has only benefited long term space exploration.–44
29. The passage infers a relationship between the antiquity of ferns and palms and their ability to
a. live long.
b. purify the air.
c. grow leaves that live long.
d. react successfully in research experiments.
30. A good title for this passage is
a. Research in the New Millennium.
b. Home Dangers.
c. Common Houseplants May Purify Your Home .d. NASA Experiment Finds the Cure.2
Choose the sentence which is closest in meaning to the given one

31. Umberto Eco's novels have lately become less complex and more entertaining.
A. The recent novels of Umberto Eco are not as complicated, but are more fun to read than his earlier ones.
B. Umberto Eco's early novels were so intricate that they were sometimes not very readable.
C. The novels of Umbeto Eco are intellectually satisfying, however amusing they may be, because of their complexity.
D. Few writers combine complexity and entertainment as effectively as Umbeto Eco does.
32. In the course of learning English, I had three different teachers from Canada.
A. I was taught to speak English by three separate Canadian teachers.
B. Three Canadian teachers taught me at different times while I was studying English.
C. Since I started studying English, I have been taught by three different Canadian teachers.
D. The 3 different teachers on my language course were all Canadians.

33. The writer Kate Millett was forced to stay in a psychiatric hospital by her family.
A. Problems with her family made the writer Kate Millett go to a psychiatric hospital.
B. Together with her family, the writer Kate Millett was made to go into a psychiatric hospital.
C. The writer Kate Millett's family made her stay in a psychiatric hospital.
D. The family of the writer Kate Millett convinced her to remain in a psychiatric hospital.
34. Susan congratulated Jane on having beaten Fiona at the chess tournament.
A. Jane beat Fiona at the chess tournament, and so Susan suggested celebrating this victory.
B. For her victory over Fiona at the chess tournament, Jane was complimented by Susan.
C. Susan was the first to congratulate Jane when she won a victory over Fiona at the chess tournament.
D. Jane won the chess tournament by finally beating Fiona, so Susan congratulated her for it.
35. In the 1996 presidential election in the US, the majority of Americans abstained from voting.
A. Most Americans chose not to vote for any presidential candidate in the 1996 election in the US.
B. The US presidential election had to be held again in 1996, as the majority of Americans refused to vote.
C. In the US presidential election of 1996, many Americans decided not to cast a vote.
D. The majority of American voters cast a vote in the US presidential election of 1996.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for
each of the blanks


The fact that previous educationalists have been reluctant to (36)…… what they mean by creativity has, in my view, only
exacerbated schools’ misunderstanding (37)….. it. The result was that when teachers got the ‘creative box’ out of the
cupboard – the one (38)….. bits of coloured paper, fabric, glue-sticks and scissors – they sometimes patted themselves
on the back for (39)….. their students to ‘express their creativity’. The truth was that while some children were being
creative (40)….. these tools, many were just doing what they had always done with them – not very (41)……!
The work of American educational giant Robert Sternberg has thankfully helped to bring creativity (42)….. much sharper
focus in the last few years. His seminal Handbook of Creativity is the first serious attempt to bring together, in a
scientifically rigorous (43)……., what is known about creativity from research studies. Sternberg’s conclusion is clear:
creativity is a legitimate topic of educational research because it is possible to actively teach the skills to be creative.
My view, based on the study of many research papers and from my 15 years of experience working in education, is that
everyone has the ability to become more creative. Though some people do seem instinctively to have the (44)…… to be

creative – sometimes effortlessly so – we should not let this lead us to think that creativity is purely in your genes. I feel
passionately that what we need to do in our schools is to (45)…. all learners with the attributes and skills that enable them
to use their innate creativity and develop this capacity – whatever their starting point.
36. A. say
37. A. about
38. A. contenting
39. A. motivating
40. A. with
41. A. effectively
42. A. in
43. A. manner
44. A. ability
45. A. provide

B. define
B. over
B. including
B. stimulating
B. in
B. efficiently
B. into
B. means
B. capability
B. supply

C. affirm
C. in
C. containing
C. promoting
C. to

C. creatively
C. on
C. approach
C. facility
C. equip

D. point out
D. of
D. combining
D. encouraging
D. about
D. sufficiently
D. up
D. way
D. quality
D. offer

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined pared that needs correction

46. If you choose to work in Nepal, you will find a well- establishing program for volunteers, particularly in the capital
Kathmandu.
47. The various parts of the body require so different surgical skills that many surgical specialists have developed.
48. The thing about filming is that you hang around for hours chat away to people, then suddenly you’ve got to turn it on
49. He was the son of a French immigration, who later began calling himself Revere to make his name easier for American
to pronounce.
50. For five years after the Civil War, Robert E.Lee served to president of Washington College, which was later called
Washington and Lee.
Choose the answer that best fits the blank in each sentence or substitutes for the underlined words or phrases.

51. The concert didn't come _______ our expectations.

A. up with
B. up against
C. up to
D. round
52. Professor Alan insisted that every student _______ their report by Friday.
A. finish
B. finishes
C. finished
D. had finished
53.- "Would you like to have noodles, spaghetti, or something different?" - " ___________" .
A. I'm afraid not
B. Yes, please
C. Never mind
D. Anything will do
54. Jane always keeps her…….pretty close to the ground about all of what is related to his colleagues and can usually tell you
what the mood of the staff is
A. mind
B. nose
C. ear
D. head
55. On September 9, 1950, California was admitted to the Union__________.
A. being thirty-first state
B. as the thirty-first state
C. for the thirty-first state
D. the thirty-first state
56. James should have stayed out of the sun as his skin is so ____.


A. sensible
B. insensible

C. sensitive
D. senseless
57. _______ that the company has shown rapid growth in the last two ears.
A. It is reported
B. They are reported C. The report was
D. It was reported
58. “Excuse me, is anybody sitting here?” – “__________________”
A. Sorry, the seat is taken.
B. Yes, I am so glad
C. No, thanks.
D. Yes, yes. You can sit here.
59. - "Do you mind if I use your phone?" - ".__________________."
A. Yes, certainly
B. Sorry. I have no idea
C. Not at all. Help yourself
D. You can say that again
60. When her boss told her she was getting a pay rise, she looked like a cat that got the……
A. cake
B. cream
C. fat
D. meat
61. _________ Nam Cao is a realistic writer, but he still used a lot of romance in his stories.
A. On the contrary
B. On my part
C. On the whole
D. On the other hand
62. In the early 16th century, the geography of the globe still _______________ a mystery.
A. maintained
B. continued
C. was

D. remained
63. The house stands high in the top of the hill, so it can be _______ from very far.
A. aimed at
B. picked up
C. visible
D. deal with
65. More people speak English than any other language, but non-native speakers now ______ native speakers by three to
one.
A. outnumber
B. overtake
C. pass
D. dominate
66. The government should take _______ to reduce the current high unemployment rate.
A. steps
B. measures
C. changes
D. solutions
67. The chairman requested that _______.
A. the members study the problem carefully B. with more carefulness the problem could be studied
C. the problem was more carefully studied D. the members studied more carefully the problem
68. His new appointment takes……from the beginning of the next month
A. place
B. effect
C. post
D. possession
69. ………..that he only started learning it two years ago, his English is excellent
A. Wondering
B. Accounting
C. Thinking
D. Considering

70. All the….of the dance went to charity
A. results
B. proceeds
C. rewards
D. finances
Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those of the other words. Write your answers
in the numbered blanks provided below

71. A. confirmation
72. A. praver
73. A. sweet
74.. A. neophyte
75. A. only

B. admission
B. sprayer
B. sweat
B. geocentric
B. volcano

C. confession
C. betrayer
C. beastie
C. leopard
C. hydrogen

D. inconclusion
D. layer
D. creature
D. leotard

D. nitrogen

Find the word which is ANTOONYMOUS in meaning with the underlined one:

75. I’m afraid to bring up the matter again, but I really need to have a computer of my own now that I’m preparing for my
exam
A. lull
B. arouse
C. rise
D. bring down
76. In the effort to please his parents, Betty bitterly failed her university entrance exam, however much she had tried
A. insert herself into her parents’ heart
B. back her parents up
C. give her parents a piece of cake
D. let her parents down
77. The notice should be put in the most conspicuous place so that all the students can be well-informed.
A. easily seen
B. concealed
C. popular
D. suspicious
Find the word which is SYNONYMOUS in meaning with the underlined one:


78 The interviewer spends most of the interview trying to confirm the impression given by the candidate in the first few
moments.
A. verify
B. misrepresent
C. recollect
D. conclude
79. Experiments have shown that in selecting personnel for a job, interviewing is at best a hindrance, and may even cause

harm
A. assistance
B. encouragement
C. procedure
D. interference
80. The phenomenon known as the contrast effect also skews the judgment of interviewers
A. improves
B. opposes
C. biases
D. distinguishes
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ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC NĂM 2014
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH – ĐỀ SỐ 96

Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút
I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to identify the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words in the
same group.
1. A. manage
B. shortage
C. village
D. encourage
2. A. psychology
B. environmental
C. impossible
D. photography
3. A. provide
B. machine
C. lesson

D. important
4. A. immediate
B. notice
C. comfortable
D. nervous
5. A. injection
B. accessible
C. government
D. continuous
II. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best completes each sentence.
6. This book gives a brief _____ of the history of the university.
A. reference
B. outline
C. article
D. research
7. “How did you feel before the exam?” “Very _____”
A. shy
B. happy
C. nervous
D. fearsome
8. Of two new teachers, one is experienced and _____.
A. the others are not. B. another is inexperienced. C. the other is not. D. other lacks experience.
9. I’d rather he _____ the door blue.
A. paints
B. painted
C. painting
D. paint
10. Vietnam on June 4 sent a diplomatic note to the Chinese Ministry of Foreign Affairs, _____ China to strictly

abide by international law. A. asked B. asks

C. asking

D. being asked

11. It turned out that we _____ rushed to the airport as the plane was delayed by several hours.
A. hadn’t
B. can’t have
C. mustn’t have
D. needn’t have
12. _____, the people who come to this club are in their twenties.
A. By and large
B. To a degree
C. Virtually
D. Altogether
13. _____ you feel thirsty, please help yourself to the drink at home.
A. Should
B. Because
C. Unless
D. Would
14. While attempting to reach his home before the storm, _____.
A. the bicycle of John broke down.
B. it happened that John's bile down.
C. the storm caught John.
D. John had an accident on his bicycle.
15. I am late because my alarm clock never _____ this morning.
A. turned on
B. rang out
C. went off
D. came out

16. “Another cup of coffee?” – “No, but thank _____”
A. not at all
B. for all
C. all the same
D. you for all


17. I don’t care what you do about job. It’s no _____ of mine.
A. importance
B. feeling
C. matter
D. concern
18. Overexposure to the sun causes ________ health problems.
A. various
B. among
C. but
D. of
19. The FDA was set up in 1940 _____ that maintain standards for the sale of food and drugs.
A. to enforce the laws
B. to enforcing the laws C. enforcing laws D. enforced the laws
20. I wish you _____ me a new one instead of having it _____ as you did.
A. would give/ to repair B. gave/ to repair
C. had given/ to be repaired
D. had given/ repaired
21. They are happily married although, of course, they argue _____.
A. most times
B. from day to day
C. every now and then D. on the occasion
22. A hero of the war of 1812, ________ President of the United States.
A. Andrew Jackson later became

B. that Andrew Jackson later became
C. who was Andrew Jackson
D. later became Andrew Jackson
23. Today, _____ largely to personal computers and the interconnectedness brought by the internet, Vietnamese
literature scholars are equipped with a deeper knowledge of their field than ever before.
A. thanks
B. due
C. in addition
D. indifferent
24. There is some controversy over who is responsible for the _____ of penicillin.
A. creation
B. discovery
C. invention
D. revolution
25. It’s late. It’s time _____ home.
A. we go
B. we must go
C. we went
D. we’d go
III. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
26. There is a really good explanation of my favorite field in the chapter two of that book.
A
B
C
D
27. This fridge is very old to keep things at a proper temperature.
A
B
C
D

28. A lunch of soup and sandwiches do not appeal to all of the students.
A
B
C
D
29. All the students are looking forward to spending their free time relax in the sun this summer.
A
B
C
D
30. He knows to repair the carburetor without taking the whole car apart.
A
B
C
D
31. Dictionaries frequently explain the origin of the defined word, state its part of speech and indication its correct use.
A
B
C
D
32. The rings of Saturn are so distant to be seen from the Earth without a telescope.
A
B
C
D
33. Unless you don't have a quite room, you will not be able to do any work.
A
B
C
D

34. Because of the long questions, Tom could not hardly finish the test on time.
A
B
C
D
35. Dreaming, like all other mental processes, it is a product of the brain and its activity.
A
B
C
D
IV. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following questions.
36. There is growing concern about the way man has destroyed the environment.
A. ease
B. attraction
C. consideration
D. speculation
37. Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance on the island. The islanders even exported the surplus.
A. large quantity
B. small quantity
C. excess
D. sufficiency


38. Thousands are going starving because of the failure of this year's harvest.
A. hungry
B. poor
C. rich
D. full
39. I’d like to pay some money into my bank account.

A. withdraw some money from
B. put some money into
C. give some money out
D. leave some money aside
40. Mr. Smith’s new neighbors appear to be very friendly.
A. amicable
B. inapplicable
C. hostile
D. futile
V. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks.
Stressful situations that (41) _____ almost every day in life seem to be unavoidable. However, we can do little
sometimes to avoid a misfortune or an unpleasant occurrence which may (42) _____ us expectedly as only it can. At such
a moment, one may hit the (43) _____, give in to the helplessness of the situation or, ideally, put a brave face on it trying
to (44) _____ the burden.
Can you (45) _____ in your mind an hour spent in a traffic jam, say, this morning? Do you light one cigarette after
another? Do you sound the horn every few seconds like the other neurotics? Or do you take a different ( 46) _____ and
withstand the stressful moment you can also do a crossword puzzle, listen to your favorite music or even compose a
menu for your Sunday dinner.
In fact, whatever way you (47) _____ to the annoying situation, you can exert no impact on it as the traffic jam will
only reduce in due (48) _____ Nevertheless, your reaction might considerably influence your mood for the rest of the
day. The inability to confront a stressful occurrence like that with a deal of composure and sensibility adds much more
strain to your life and in this way puts your well-being in (49) _____. Surprisingly, it’s the seemingly negligible hardships
we stumble on daily that run double the risk of developing serious health disorders rather than our isolated tragedies
however painful they may be.
(50) _____ that so many of those wretched stress inducing troubles affect us in a day, we should, at best, try to
avoid them or possibly make radical alterations in the way we lead our daily lifestyles.
41.
A. devise
B. create
C. originate

D. emerge
42.
A. arise
B. happen
C. befall
D. occur
43.
A. post
B. roof
C. bottom
D. wall
44.
A. subsist
B. remain
C. cow
D. bear
45.
A. envision
B. observe
C. picture
D. image
46.
A. manner
B. stance
C. practice
D. mode
47.
A. strike
B. deal
C. respond

D. challenge
48.
A. course
B. term
C. timing
D. period
49.
A. risk
B. weakness
C. insecurity
D. jeopardy
50.
A. Providing
B. Given
C. Hence
D. As much
VI. Read the following passage and choose A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each question.
HARVARD UNIVERSITY
Harvard University, today recognized as part of the top echelon of the worlds’ universities came from very
inauspicious and humble beginnings.
This oldest of American universities was founded in 1636, just sixteen years after the Pilgrims landed at Plymouth.
Included in the Puritan emigrants to the Massachusetts colony during this period were more than 100 graduates of
England’s prestigious Oxford and Cambridge universities and these university graduates in the New World were
determined that their sons would have the same educational opportunities that they themselves had had. Because of this
support in the colony for an institution of higher learning, the General Court of Massachusetts appropriated 400 pounds
for a college in October of 1636 and early the following year decided on a parcel of land for the school- this land was in an
area called Newetowne, which was later renamed Cambridge after its English cousin and is the site of the president-day
university.

When a young minister named John Harvard, who came from the neighboring town of Charlestowne, died from
tuberculosis in 1638, he willed half of his estate of 1,700 pounds to the fledgling college. In spite of the fact that only half
of the bequest was actually paid, the General Court named the college after the minister in appreciation for what he had
done. The amount of the bequest may not have been large, particularly by today’s standards, but it was more than the
General Court had found it necessary to appropriate in order to open the college.
Henry Dunster was appointed the first president of Harvard in 1640, and it should be noted that in addition to
serving as president, he was also the entire faculty, with an entering freshman class of four students. Although the staff
did expand somewhat, for the first century of its existence the entire teaching staff consisted of the president and three
or four tutors.
51. The main idea of this passage is that _____.
A. Harvard is one of the world’s most prestigious universities. B. what is today a great university.
C. John Harvard was key to the development of a great university.
D. Harvard University developed under the auspices of the General Court of Massachusetts.
52. The passage indicates that Harvard is _____.
A. one of the oldest universities in the world.
C. one of the oldest universities in America.
B. the oldest university in the world.
D. the oldest university in America.
53. It can be inferred from the passage that the Puritans who traveled to the Massachusetts colony were _____.
A. rather well educated
C. rather supportive of the English government
B. rather rich
D. rather undemocratic.
54. The pronoun “they” in line 6 refers to _____.
A. Oxford and Cambridge universities B. university graduates C. sons
D. educational opportunities
55. The “pounds” in line 8 are probably_____.
A. types of books
B. college students
C. units of money

D. school campuses
56. The “English cousin” in line 10 refers to a_____.
A. city
B. relative
C. person
D. court
57. Which of the following is NOT mentioned about John Harvard?
A. What he died of
C. Where he was buried
B. Where he came from
D. How much he bequeathed to Harvard
58. The word “fledgling” in line 12 could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. Newborn
B. Flying
C. Winged
D. Established
59. The word “somewhat” in line 19 could best be replaced by_____.
A. back and forth
B. to and fro
C. side by side
D. more or less
60. The passage implies that_____.
A. Henry Dunster was an ineffective president
B. someone else really served as president of Harvard before Henry Dunster
C. Henry Dunster spent much of his time as president managing the Harvard faculty.
D. the position of president of Harvard was not merely an administrative position in the early years.
VII. Read the following passage and choose A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each question.
According to airline industry statistics, almost 90 percent of airline accidents are survivable or partially survivable.
But passengers can increase their chances of survival by learning and following certain tips. Experts say that you should
read and listen to safety instructions before takeoff and ask questions if you have uncertainties. You should fasten your

seat belt low on your hips and as tightly as possible. Of course, you should also know how the release mechanism of your
belt operates. During takeoff and landings you are advised to keep your feet flat on the floor. Before takeoff you should
locate the nearest exit and an alternative exit and count the rows of seat between you and the exits so that you can find
them in the dark if necessary. In the even that you are forewarned of the possible accident, you should put your hands on
your ankles and keep your head down until the plane come to complete stop.
If smoke is present in the cabin, you should keep your head low and cover your face with napkins, towels, or
clothing. If possible, wet these for added protection against smoke inhalation. To evacuate as quickly as possible, follow
crew command and do not take personal belongings with you. Do not jump on escape slides before they are fully inflated


and when you jump, do so with your arms and legs extended in front of you. When you get to the ground, you should
move away from the plane as quickly as possible, and never smoke near the wreckage.
61. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Airline industry accident statistics.
B. Procedures for evacuating aircraft.
C. Guidelines for increasing aircraft passengers survival. D. Safety instructions in air travel.
62. Travelers are urged by experts to read and listen to safety instructions _____.
A. in an emergency. B. before locating the exits.
C. if smoke is in the cabin. D. before take-off.
63. According to the passage, airline travelers should keep their feet flat on the floor _____.
A. throughout the flight.
B. during takeoff and landings.
C. especially during landings.
D. only if an accident is possible.
64. The word “them” in line 8 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. exits
B. the dark
C. rows of seat
D. landings
65. According to the passage, which exits should an airline passenger locate before take-off?

A. The ones that can be found in the dark.
B. The two closest to the passenger’s seat.
C. The nearest one.
D. The ones with counted rows of seats between them.
66. It can be inferred that people are more likely to survive fires in aircrafts if they _____.
A. keep their heads low.
B. wear a safety belt.
C. don’t smoke in or near a plane.
D. read airline safety statistics.
67. Airline passenger are to do all of the following EXCEPT _____.
A. locate the nearest exist.
B. ask questions about safety.
C. fasten their seat belt before takeoff.
D. carry personal belongings in an emergency.
68. The word “evacuate” in line 13 is closes in meaning to _____.
A. maintain
B. escape
C. vacate
D. return
69. The word “inflated” in line 14 is closes in meaning to _____.
A. lifted
B. increased
C. expanded
D. assembled
70. What does the paragraph following the passage most probably discuss?
A. How to recover your luggage.
B. Where to go to continue your trip.
C. When to return to the aircraft.
D. How to proceed once you are away from the aircraft.
VIII. Choose the sentence that is similar in meaning to the one given. Identify your choice by marking A, B, C or D.

71: Kate works for an organization which collects money to help orphans.
A. The organization which Kate works for collects money to help orphans.
B. The organization where Kate works for collects money to help orphans.
C. The organization for that Kate works collects money to help orphans.
D. Money of orphans is collected in the organization where Kate works.
72: Lin’s success took us all by surprise.
A. Lin was successful, which surprised all of us.
B. We took all of Lin’s successes surprisingly.
C. We were taken aback by all of Lin’s successes.
D. Lin’s success was surprised to all of us.
73: I no longer speak to my neighbour since our quarrel.
A. Before our quarrel, I spoke longer to my neighbour than now
B. I stopped speaking to my neighbour since our quarrel C. I have spoken long to my neighbour since our quarrel
D. I have longed for speaking to my neighbour since our quarrel
74: The Minister said that he had not done anything improper.
A. The Minister denied that he would do anything improper. C. The Minister denied doing anything improper.
B. The Minister refused to have done anything improper.
D. The Minister refused to do anything improper.
75: Sue is too slow to understand what you might say.
A. What you might say, Sue can understand slowly. B. Sue is not enough quick to understand what you might say.
C. Sue is so slow to understand what you might say. D. So slow is Sue that she can’t understand what you might say.


76: Fiona goes to the theatre once in a blue moon.
A. Fiona goes to the theatre only once a month.
B. Fiona occasionally goes to the theatre.
C. Fiona goes to the theatre when the blue moon is on.
D. Fiona goes to the theatre when the moon is full.
77:It is believed that the man escaped in a stolen car.
A. The man is believed to have been escaped in a stolen car B. The man is believed to be escaped in a stolen car

C. The man is believed to have escaped in a stolen car
D. The man is believed to escape in a stolen car
78: Optimistic as Jack is, he cannot bear to learn the truth.
A. Jack cannot bear to learn the truth because he is so optimistic.
B. Despite Jack’s optimism, he cannot bear to learn the truth.
C. Learning the truth is not what Jack can optimistically bear. D. Jack is optimistic and cannot bear to learn the truth.
79: Soon after they sold their house, they were offered a better price for it.
A. No sooner had they sold their house and they were offered a better price for it.
B. No sooner they sold their house were they offered a better price for it.
C. They had no sooner sold their house than they were offered a better price for it.
D. They were offered a better price for their house, and they sold it.
80: The accused couldn’t convince the jury of his innocence.
A. The accused did not manage to convince the jury of his innocence.
B. The accused did not succeed to convince the jury of his innocence.
C. The accused made it impossible to convince the jury of his innocence.
D. The accused couldn’t be able to convince the jury of his innocence.
-------------------THE END------------------ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC NĂM 2014
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH – ĐỀ SỐ 97

Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position
of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. popularity
B. conscientious
C. apprenticeship
D. personality
Question 2. A. horizon
B. ignorant
C. determinedlyD. librarian
Question 3. A. consonant

B. divisible
C. significant
D. mosquito
Question 4. A. consignation
B. abnormality
C. supplementary
D. dictionary
Question 5. A. garment
B. comment
C. cement
D. even
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 6: The_______ horse began to run as fast as he could.
A. frightening
B. frighten
C. frightful
D. frightened
Question 7: Tom: “ Sorry, I forgot to phone you last night.”
-Mary: “________”
A. I have nothing to tell you. B. Oh. Poor me!
C. Never mind!
D. You was absent - minded.
Question 8: I haven’t had a ________ week. I seem to have done nothing at all.
A. extensive
B. productive
C. enthusiastic
D. economic
Question 9: “ Why don’t we ask Martin to chair the meeting?” “ Well, suppose _____to ask him, do you think he would
accept?” A. were we
B. we have

C. we try
D. we were
Question 10: After the accident, a lot of debris _________ on the runway.
A. was scattered
B. scatters
C. were scatters
D. were scattering
Question 11: _________ back to her hometown, Julia found everything new and attractive.
A. When arrived
B. As she arrives
C. On arriving
D. On arrival
Question 12: Tom : “I read somewhere recently that about 137 species of animals and plants become extinct everyday.”
Mary : “__________”. A. Well, maybe all is not lost yet.
B. What’s point?


C. What a pity
D. It can’t have happened like that
Question 13: It has been a habit for families here to wait for the ring at 7 p.m. every day to _____ the garbage.
A. take in
B. take off
C. take up
D. take out
Question 14:Peter: “Is it important?”. Thomas: “_________________”.
A. Not on your life !
B. It’s a matter of life and death! C. No worry, that’s nothing . D. It’s ridiculous.
Question 15: The city _________ at one time prosperous, for it enjoyed a high level of civilization.
A. should have been
B. was

C. may have been
D. must have been
Question 16: The government should take _______ to reduce the current high unemployment rate.
A. steps
B. measures
C. changes
D. solutions
Question 19: I’ve never really enjoyed going to the ballet or the opera; they’re not really my______.
A. piece of cake
B. sweets and candy
C. biscuit
D. cup of tea
Question 20: Doctors always hope that there will be new cures ________some diseases.
A. to
B. of
C. in
D. for
Question 21: Parts of the country are suffering water ______ after the unusually dry summer.
A. thirst
B. shortage
C. supply
D. hunger
Question 22: You should look up the meaning of the new word in the dictionary________ misuse it.
A. so as to not
B. to
C. so as not to
D. so that
Question 23: Busy ________ he was , Bob’s father still played with him.
A. like
B. though

C. although
D. however
Question 24: More than a mile of roadway has been blocked with trees, stones and other debris, _______ the explosion.
A. causing
B. caused by
C. which caused by
D. which caused
Question 25: _________ of all the staff, I would like to wish you a happy retirement.
A. Instead
B. In place
C. On behalf
D. On account
Question 26: No matter _______, Mozart was an accomplished composer while still a child.
A. how it seems remarkable
B. how remarkable it seems
C. it seems remarkable how
D. how seems it remarkable
Question 27: Last year she earned _______ her brother.
A. twice as much as
B. twice more than
C. twice as many as
D. twice as more as
Question 28: Sportsmen __________ their political differences on the sports field.
A. take part
B. put aside
C. take place
D. keep apart
Question 29: This picture book, the few pages _______ are missing, is my favorite.
A. for which
B. of which

C. of that
D. to which
Question 30: “ Buy me a newspaper on your way back, _______ ?”
A. don’t you
B. can’t you
C. will you
D. do you?
Question 31: I’ve never had the slightest disagreement ______ him ______ anything.
A. with/ about
B. with/ in
C. on/ about
D. on/ at
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is closest in meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 32: The police are trying to recruit more officers from ethnic minorities.
A. create
B. enlist
C. capture
D. catch
Question 33: She is always diplomatic when she deals with angry students.
A. strict
B. outspoken
C. tactful
D. firm
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 34: My parents always disapproved of my smoking. They even told me once it would stop me growing taller.
A. objected to
B. supported
C. denied

D. refused
Question 35: She was unhappy that she lost contact with a lot of her old friends when she went abroad to study.
A. made room for
B. put in charge of
C. got in touch with
D. lost control of
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 41 to 50.


Today we take electricity for granted and perhaps we do not realize just how useful this discovery has been.
Steam was the first invention that replaced wind power. It was used to drive engines and was passed through pipes and
radiators to warm rooms. Petrol mixed with air was the next invention that provided power. Exploded in a cylinder, it
drove a motor engine. Beyond these simple and direct uses, those forms have not much adaptability. On the other hand,
we make use of electricity in thousands of ways. From the powerful voltages that drive our electric trains to the tiny
current needed to work a simple calculator, and from the huge electric magnet in steel works that can lift 10 tons to the
tiny electric magnet in a doorbell, all are powered by electricity. An electric current can be made with equal ease to heat
a huge mass of molten metal in a furnace, or to boil a jug for a cup of coffee. Other than atomic energy, which has not as
yet been harnessed to the full, electricity is the greatest power in the world. It is flexible, and so adaptable for any task
for which it is wanted. It travels so easily and with incredible speed along wires or conductors that it can be supplied
instantly over vast distances. To generate electricity, huge turbines or generators must be turned. In Australia they use
coal or water to drive this machinery. When dams are built, falling water is used to drive the turbines without polluting
the atmosphere with smoke from coal. Atomic power is used in several countries but there is always the fear of an
accident. A tragedy once occurred at Chernobyl, in Ukraine, at an atomic power plant used to make electricity. The
reactor leaked, which caused many deaths through radiation. Now scientists are examining new ways of creating
electricity without harmful effects to the environment. They may harness the tides as they flow in and out of bays. Most
importantly, they hope to trap sunlight more efficiently. We do use solar heaters for swimming pools but as yet
improvement in the capacity of the solar cells to create more current is necessary. When this happens, electric cars will
be viable and the world will rid itself of the toxic gases given off by trucks and cars that burn fossil fuels.
Question 36: The author mentions the sources of energy such as wind, steam, petrol in the first paragraph to ______.

A. suggest that electricity should be alternated with safer sources of energy
B. emphasize the usefulness and adaptability of electricity
C. imply that electricity is not the only useful source of energy
D. discuss which source of energy can be a suitable alternative to electricity
Question 37: Before electricity, what was sometimes passed through pipes to heat rooms?
A. Gas.
B. Petrol.
C. Steam.
D. Hot wind.
Question 38: What does the author mean by saying that electricity is flexible?
A. It is cheap and easy to use.
B. It is used to drive motor engines.
C. It can be adapted to various uses.
D. It can be made with ease.
Question 39: What do we call machines that make electricity?
A. Voltages.
B. Electric magnets.
C. Generators or turbines.
D. Pipes and radiators.
Question 40: The main forms of power used to generate electricity in Australia are ______.
A. atomic power and water B. water and coal
C. sunlight and wind power
D. wind and gas
Question 41: The word "they" in the last paragraph refers to ______.
A. harmful effects
B. the tides
C. scientists
D. new ways
Question 42: Electric magnets are used in steel works to ______.
A. lift heavy weights up to ten tons

B. test the steel for strength
C. heat the molten steel
D. boil a jug of water
Question 43: The advantage of harnessing the power of the tides and of sunlight to generate electricity is that they
______. A. do not pollute the environment
B. are more reliable
C. are more adaptable
D. do not require attention
Question 44: Which of the following power sources causes pollution by emitting harmful gases?
A. Sunlight.
B. Petrol.
C. Water.
D. Wind.
Question 45: The best title for this passage could be ______.
A. “Types of Power Plants”
B. “Electricity: Harmful Effects on Our Life”
C. “How to Produce Electricity”
D. “Why Electricity Is So Remarkable”
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
Question 46: The Green Garden Restaurant uses fresh produce on their dishes, much of which the owners grow in their
own garden.
A
B
C
D
Question 47: There are many different ways of comparing the economy of one nation with those of another.


A
B

C
D
Question 48: Going from air condition room to a natural environment can cause respiratory illness.
A
B
C
D
Question 49: A basic knowledge of social studies, such as history and geography, are considered a basic part of the
education of every child.
A
B
C
D
Question 50: So extensive the lakes are that they are viewed as the largest bodies of fresh water in the world.
A
B
C
D
Put a suitable word in the blank by marking the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet.
Everybody has heard about the Internet, do you know that an “intranet” is? It is this: just as the Internet connects
people around the world, intranets connect people within a (51)____ company. In fact, intranets make use of the same
software programs as the Internet to (52)____ computers and people. This (53)____ that you do not have to buy a lot of
additional programs to set up an intranet service. If your intranet is working properly, it can link together a huge amount
of (54)____ which is stored in different places in the company. In this way, people can get the information they need,
regardless (55)____ where it comes from. A company intranet can , of course, be used for unimportant information like
office memos or canteen menus. But an intranet should (56)____ important information which people need to make
decision about new products, costs and so on. The intranet is (57)____ to share their information with other people.
(58)____, many departments don’t want to share their specialist knowledge with others. Another problem which often
occurs is (59)____ top managers like to use the intranet to “ communicate down” rather than to “ communicate across”.
That is, they use the intranet to give orders, not to (60)____ information between themselves and others working in the

same organization.
Question 51. A. large
B. jointed
C. single
D. branch
Question 52. A. contact
B. introduce
C. distinguish
D. compare
Question 53. A. is
B. is said
C. indicates
D. means
Question 54. A. parts
B. information
C. elements
D. properties
Question 55. A. on
B. with
C. of
D. to
Question 56. A. bring
B. provide
C. give
D. take
Question 57. A. likely
B. willing
C. going
D. happened
Question 58. A. Luckily

B. Consequently
C. However
D. Unfortunately
Question 59. A. that
B. what
C. which
D. it
Question 60. A. change
B. exchange
C. transform
D. transit
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer for each of the questions
Experiments have shown that in selecting personnel for a job, interviewing is at best a hindrance, and may even
cause harm. These studies have disclosed that the judgments of interviewers differ markedly and bear little or no
relationship to the adequacy of the job applicants. Of the many reasons why this should be the case, three in particular
stand out.
The first reason is related to an error of judgment known as the halo effect. If a person has one noticeable good
trait, their other characteristics will be judged as better than they really are. Thus, an individual who dresses smartly and
shows self-confidence is likely to be judged capable of doing a job well regardless of his or her real ability.
Interviewers are also prejudiced by an effect called the primacy effect. This error occurs when interpretation of
later information is distorted by earlier connected information. Hence, in an interview situation, the interviewer spends
most of the interview trying to confirm the impression given by the candidate in the first few moments. Studies have
repeatedly demonstrated that such an impression is unrelated to the aptitude of the applicant.
The phenomenon known as the contrast effect also skews the judgment of interviewers. A suitable candidate may be
underestimated because he or she contrasts with a previous one who appears exceptionally intelligent. Likewise, an
average candidate who is preceded by one who gives a weak showing may be judged as more suitable than he or she
really is.
Since interviews as a form of personnel selection have been shown to be inadequate, other selection procedures
have been devised which more accurately predict candidate suitability. Of the various tests devised, the predictor which
appears to do this most successfully is cognitive ability as measured by a variety of verbal and spatial tests.

Question 61. The word “they” in line 6 refers to _______.


A. applicants
B. judgments
C. interviewers
D. characteristics
Question 62. The word “this” in line 20 refers to _______.
A. measure cognitive ability
B. devise personnel selection
C. predict candidate suitability
D. devise accurate tests
Question 63. This passage mainly discusses the _______.
A. Judgments of interviewers concerning job applicants.
B. Inadequacy of interviewing job applicants.
C. Effects of interviewing on job applicants.
D. Techniques that interviewers use for judging job applicants.
Question 64. According to the passage, the hallo effect _______.
A. exemplifies how one good characteristic color perceptions C. stands out as the worst judgmental error
B. takes effect only when a candidate is well –dressed
D. helps the interviewer’s capability to judge real ability
Question 65. The word “hindrance” in line 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. assistance
B. encouragement
C. procedure
D. interference
Question 66. According to the passage the first impression _______.
A. can easily be altered
B. is unrelated to the interviewer’s prejudices
C. is the one that stays with the interviewer D. has been repeatedly demonstrated to the applicant

Question 77. The word “skews” in line 14 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. improves
B. opposes
C. biases
D. Distinguishes
Question 68. The author mentions all of the following reasons why interviewing is not an accurate way to predict
candidate suitability EXCEPT the _______.
A. primacy effect B. halo effect C. contrast effect
D. cognitive effect
Question 69. The word “confirm” in line 11 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. verify
B. misrepresent
C. recollect
D. conclude
Question 70. The paragraphs following the passage most likely discuss which of the following?
A. More information on the kinds of judgmental effects
B. Other reasons for misjudgments of applicants
C. Other selection procedures included in interviewing
D. More information on cognitive ability tests
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 71: It is not until a Vietnamese girl getting 18 years old that she is allowed to get married legally.
A. A Vietnamese girl is not allowed to get married legally only when she gets 18 years old.
B. A Vietnamese girl is allowed to get married legally only after she gets 18 years old.
C. They never allow a Vietnamese girl to get married legally when she is 18 years old.
D The legal allowance for a Vietnamese girl to get married will be issued in 18 years.
Question 72. There is no point in taking the exam when you are not prepared for it.
A. The exam is pointless even if you are prepared for it.
B. You are not allowed to take the exam without preparing for it.
C. You will get a very low point without a good preparation for the exam.

D. You shouldn't take the exam if you don't prepare well for it.
Question 73: The government does not know what to do with household rubbish in large cities.
A. Little does the government know what to do with household rubbish in large cities.
B. It is unknown what to do with household rubbish in large cities by the government
C. Rarely the government knows what to do with household rubbish in large cities.
D. Hardly any government knows what to do with household rubbish in large cities.
Question 74: I did not read his book. I did not understand what the lecturer was saying .
A. What the lecturer wrote and said was too difficult for me to understand.
B. I found it very difficult to understand what the lecturer said in his book.
C. I would have understood what the lecturer was saying if I had read his book.
D. The lecturer's book which I had not read was difficult to understand.
Question 75: The number of accidents has gone down steadily since the speed limit was imposed.
A. There has been a steady decline in the number of accidents since the speed limit was imposed.


B. It is the speed limit that reduce steadily the number of accidents.
C. The imposing of speed limit has resulted from the number of accidents.
D. There have been few accidents than before since they used the speed limit.
Questions 76 - 80. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the best sentence built from the given words or phrases.
76. when 1/ airport/ plane/ already/ leave.
A. When I arrived the airport, the plane had already left. B. When I got to the airport, the plane had already left.
C. When I reached at the airport, the plane already left. D. When I came the airport, the plane had already left.
77. If/ weather/ fine/ an excursion/ tomorrow.
A. If the weather will be fine, we will go on an excursion tomorrow.
B. If the weather is fine, we will go on an excursion tomorrow.
C. If the weather is fine, we would go on an excursion tomorrow.
D. If the weather were fine, we would go on an excursion tomorrow.
78. She/ not alone/ when/ shopping/ yesterday.
A. She was not alone when she did shopping yesterday.
B. She is not alone when she go shopping yesterday.

C. She was not alone when she went shopping yesterday. D. She had not been alone when she went shopping yesterday
79. a pity/ wish/ tell/ about/ this.
A. What a pity! I wish you had told us about this.
B. What a pity! I wish you told us about this.
C. What a pity! I wish you would tell us about this.
D. What a pity! I wish you have told us about this.
80. Only/ this way/ make/ laws/ effective.
A. Only by this way we can make our laws effective.
B. Only this way we can make our laws effective.
C. Only by this way can we make our laws effective.
D. Only by this way can we make it effective our laws.
----THE END--ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC NĂM 2014
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH – ĐỀ SỐ 98

Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút
Question 1: Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the rest.
A. succession
B. cigarette
C. contaminate
D. appreciate
Question 2: Error identification. It is said that heart attacks are fatally in 75 percent of occurrences.
A
B
C
D
Question 3: Choose the correct option that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions. The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively commonplace in recent years.
A. Almost B. relevantly C. comparatively D. absolutely
Question 4: Error identification.
Two miles beyond the hills were a fire with the flames reaching up to the sky.

A
B
C
D
Question 5: Choose the best sentence that can be made from the words given.
Excite / exam result / she /rush home / tell / family / good news.
A. Excited over the exam results, she rushed home to tell the good news with her family.
B. Excited over the exam results, she rushed home to tell her family the good news.
C. Exciting over the exam results. She rushed home to tell her family the good news.
D. Too excite over the exam results, she rushed quickly home to tell her family the good news.
Question 6: Choose the word whose underlined part is different from the rest.
A. Worm
B. worse
C. more
D. work
Question 7: Choose the correct option.
I wish you _____ me a new one instead of having it_____ as you did.
A. would give/ to repair B. had given/ repaired C. had given/ to be repaired D. gave / to repair
Question 8: Choose the sentence which has the closest meaning to the original one. “John shouldn’t have behaved so
badly.” said Janet. A. Janet was angry with John.
B. Janet dislikes John.
C. Janet doesn’t like John’s behavior.
D. Janet objected to John’s behavior.
Question 9: Choose the correct option. One of the areas of multimedia that is growing quickly _____ is sound.


A. is easily overlooked B. it is easily overlooked C. that is easily overlooked D. yet is easily overlooked
Question 10: Choose the correct option. Richard Braxton, born in Chicago, ___ famous as a writer and a playwright.
A. and he became
B. and became

C. became
D. he was
Question 11: Error identification. Before the invention of the printing press, books have been all printed by hand.
A
B
C
D
Question 12: Choose the correct option.
Nobody agreed with the new project, _____?
A. was he
B. were they
C. did they
D. didn’t they
Read the passage carefully, then answer the questions that follow.
A rather surprising geographical feature of Antarctica is that a huge freshwater lake, one of the world's largest and
deepest, lies hidden there under four kilometers of ice. Now known as Lake Vostok, this huge body of water is located
under the ice block that comprises Antarctica. The lake is able to exist in its unfrozen state beneath this block of ice
because its waters are warmed by geothermal heat from the earth's core. The thick glacier above Lake Vostok actually
insulates it from the frigid temperatures on the surface.
The lake was first discovered in the 1970s while a research team was conducting an aerial survey of the area. Radio
waves from the survey equipment penetrated the ice and revealed a body of water of indeterminate size. It was not until
much more recently that data collected by satellite made scientists aware of the tremendous size of the lake; the
satellite-borne radar detected an extremely flat region where the ice remains level because it is floating on the water of
the lake.
The discovery of such a huge freshwater lake trapped under Antarctica is of interest to the scientific community
because of the potential that the lake contains ancient microbes that have survived for thousands upon thousands of
years, unaffected by factors such as nuclear fallout and elevated ultraviolet light that have affected organisms in more
exposed areas. The downside of the discovery, however, lies in the difficulty of conducting research on the lake in such a
harsh climate and in the problems associated with obtaining uncontaminated samples from the lake without actually
exposing the lake to contamination. Scientists are looking for possible ways to accomplish this.

Question 13: The word "hidden" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. undrinkable
B. undiscovered
C. unexploitable
D. untouched
Question 14: What is true of Lake Vostok?
A. It is beneath a thick slab of ice. B. It is completely frozen. C. It is heated by the sun. D. It is a saltwater lake.
Question 15: Which of the following is closest in meaning to "frigid" in paragraph 1?
A. Extremely cold
B. Lukewarm
C. Quite harsh
D. Easily broken
Question 16: All of the following are true about the 1970 survey of Antarctica EXCEPT that it ______.
A. was controlled by a satellite
B. could not determine the lake's exact size
C. was conducted by air
D. made use of radio waves
Question 17: It can be inferred from the passage that the ice would not be flat if _______.
A. Antarctica were not so cold
B. radio waves were not used
C. the lake were not so big
D. there were no lake underneath
Question 18: The word "microbes" in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. Pieces of dust
B. Tiny organisms
C. Rays of light
D. Tiny bubbles
Question 19: Lake Vostok is potentially important to scientists because it _______.
A. may contain uncontaminated microbes
B. can be studied using radio waves

C. may have elevated levels of ultraviolet light D. has already been contaminated
Question 20: The word "downside" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. bottom level
B. underside
C. negative aspect
D. buried section
Question 21: The last paragraph suggests that scientists should be aware of _______.
A. problems with satellite-borne radar equipment
B. ways to study Lake Vostok without contaminating it
C. further discoveries on the surface of Antarctica
D. the harsh climate of Antarctica
Question 22: The purpose of the passage is to______.
A. provide satellite data concerning Antarctica B. present an unexpected aspect of Antarctica's geography
C. discuss future plans for Lake Vostok
D. explain how Lake Vostok was discovered


Question 23: Choose the correct option that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions. They decided to postpone their journey till the end of the month because of the epidemic.
A. take up
B. put off
C. turn round
D. carry out
Question 24: Choose the correct option.
He said that he ______ some flowers in the garden at that moment.
A. watered
B. would water
C. is watering
D. was watering
Question 25: Choose the correct option. Any student ____ more than 650 points will be awarded the scholarship.

A. scored
B. scores
C. scoring
D. when scores
Question 26: Choose the correct option that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions. The plan is supposed to have been initiated by Davison in 1978.
A. treated
B. dedicated
C. started
D. ended
Question 27: Choose the sentence which has the closest meaning to the original one.
"A baby has no knowledge of the difference between good and evil" means ______.
A. No knowledge of the difference between good and evil has in a baby.
B. A baby doesn't know the difference between good and evil.
C. A baby knows no difference between good and evil. D. Good and evil are different from a baby.
Question 28: Choose the correct option.
It was unfair of you ______ her for something she didn't do.
A. to criticize
B. that criticizing
C. criticized
D. criticizing
Question 29: Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the rest.
A. physical
B. treasure
C. enter
D. compare
Question 30: Choose the sentence which has the closest meaning to the original one. Lucy always reminds me of my
youngest sister. A. I always think of Lucy, when I see my youngest sister.
B. It is Lucy who I consider to be my youngest sister. C. My youngest sister's name is Lucy.
D. Whenever I see Lucy, I think of my youngest sister.

Question 31: Choose the correct option.
All of us were ______ that she had won the first prize in the competition.
A. amazingly
B. amazement
C. amazed
D. amazing
Question 32: Choose the correct option. Henry was really a silly boy when we were at high school. I still remember_____ very
stupid questions. A. him to ask B. asking him
C. his being asked
D. him asking
Question 33: Choose the correct option.
He devoted a lifetime ______with disabled children.
A. to work
B. work
C. working
D. to working
Question 34: Choose the correct option. As the managing director can't go to the reception, I'm representing the
company ___. A. for his part
B. on his behalf
C. from his point of view D. on his account
Question 35: Choose the correct option that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions. I think we have solved this problem once and for all.
A. in the end
B. forever
C. temporarily
D. never again
Question 36: Choose the sentence which has the closest meaning to the original one. At no time did the two sides look
likely to reach an agreement. A. The two sides had no time to reach an agreement.
B. The two sides never looked like each other. C. The two sides never looked likely to reach an agreement.
D. If the two sides had had time, they would have reached an agreement.

Question 37: Choose the correct option.
She is wearing a ______dress.
A. beautiful new blue B. beautiful blue new C. new beautiful blue D. blue beautiful new
Question 38: Choose the correct option.
Her enthusiasm _____ her lack of experience.
A. makes up for
B. makes out at
C. makes up
D. makes off
Question 39: Choose the correct option. Scientists are now carrying out experiments on _____ trigger different sorts of
health risks. A. how noise pollution can B. can noise pollution C. how noise pollution D. that noise pollution
Question 40: Choose the sentence which has the closest meaning to the original one. I thought she was the right person
for the position, yet it turned out that she was quite useless.
A. Because I was expecting her to be competent, I was shocked to see her perform rather badly.
B. I was mistaken about her suitability for the position, since she proved rather incompetent.
C. Contrary to my initial impression, she was not totally unsuitable for the position.
D. I was right in thinking that she was totally useless for the job.


Question 41: Choose the best sentence that can be made from the words given. It / until / father / home / children /
dinner. A. It was not until the father got home that the children had dinner.
B. It is not until the father gets home than the children had dinner.
C. It was not until when the father got home that children had had dinner.
D. It was until the father got home that the children have dinner.
Question 42: Choose the correct option. I don’t think you have been watering the plants near the gate. The soil is _____
A. as dry as a bone
B. as dry as wood
C. as dry as a tile
D. as dry as brick
Question 43: Choose the correct option that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following

questions. Dr. Jones suggested that final examinations should be discontinued, an innovation I heartily support.
A. change
B. entrance
C. test
D. inner part
Question 44: Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the rest.
A. mathematician
B. representative
C. tuberculosis
D. communication
Question 45: Choose the correct option. Our seats were _____ far from the stage that we couldn't see the actors and
actresses clearly. A. too
B. enough
C. very
D. so
Question 46: Choose the correct option to complete the sentence. That car isn’t beyond my means.
A. That car is cheap enough for me to buy.
B. I really do not like that car.
C. I am really interested in that car.
D. That car is too expensive for me to buy.
Question 47: Error identification.
Ceramic can be harder, light, and more resistant to heat than metals.
A
B
C
D
Question 48: Choose the correct option.
"How about going fishing this Sunday?"
- "______ "
A. Yes, I am fishing.

B. That's my pleasure. C. Never mind.
D. That's a good idea.
Question 49: Choose the word whose underlined part is different from the rest.
A. flour
B. humour
C. rumour
D. honour
Question 50: Choose the correct option.
There’s someone at the door. _____ it.
A. I answered
B. I am going answer C. I’ll answer
D. I’m answering
Question 51: Choose the correct option. Give me a ring before nine tomorrow morning, __ I’ll be too busy to talk to you.
A. otherwise
B. unless
C. therefore
D. if not
Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase. Famous explorer
Captain James Cook is (52) _______ today for being one of Britain’s most famous explorers of the 18 th century.
Cook was (53) _______ most other explorers of the same period as he did not come from a wealthy family and had to
work hard to (54) _______ his position in life. He was lucky to be (55) _______ by his father’s employer, who saw that he
was a bright boy and paid for him to attend the village school. At sixteen, he started work in a shop in a fishing village,
and this was a turning (56) _______ in his life. He developed an interest in the sea and eventually joined the Royal Navy in
order to see more of the world.
Cook was (57) _______ by sailing, astronomy and the production of maps, and quickly became an expert in these
subjects. He was also one of the first people to realize that scurvy, an illness often suffered by sailors, could be prevented
by careful (58) _______ to diet. It was during his (59) _______ to the Pacific Ocean that Cook made his historic landing in
Australia and the (60) _______ discovery that New Zealand was two separate islands. He became a national hero and still
(61) _______ one today.
Question 52: A. reminded

B. recommended
C. recognized
D. remembered
Question 53: A. different
B. contrary
C. distinct
D. unlike
Question 54: A. succeed
B. achieve
C. fulfil
D. manage
Question 55: A. glanced
B. viewed
C. noticed
D. remarked
Question 56: A. mark
B. moment
C. instant
D. point
Question 57: A. keen
B. enthusiastic
C. eager
D. fascinated
Question 58: A. attention
B. selection
C. observation
D. organisation
Question 59: A. excursion
B. travel
C. tour

D. voyage
Question 60: A. leading
B. major
C. superior
D. serious
Question 61: A. remains
B. keeps
C. maintains
D. stands
Question 62: Choose the correct option. It is strongly recommended that the machines _____ every year.


A. are checked
B. be checked
C. check
D. checked
Question 63: Choose the correct option. My father didn't like coffee and ______did my mother.
A. so
B. neither
C. none
D. either
Question 64: Choose the correct option. I felt that he lacked the _____ to pursue a difficult task to the very end.
A. determinating
B. commitment
C. engagement
D. obligation
Read the passage carefully, then answer the questions that follow.
What geologists call the Basin and Range Province in the United States roughly coincides in its northern portions
with the geographic province known as the Great Basin. The Great Basin is hemmed in on the west by the Sierra Nevada
and on the east Line by the Rocky Mountains; it has no outlet to the sea. The prevailing winds in the Great Basin are from

the west. Warm, moist air from the Pacific Ocean is forced upward as it crosses the Sierra Nevada. At the higher altitudes
it cools and the moisture it carries is precipitated as rain or snow on the western slopes of the mountains. That which
reaches the Basin is air wrung dry of moisture. What little water falls there as rain or snow, mostly in the winter months,
evaporates on the broad, flat desert floors. It is, therefore, an environment in which organisms battle for survival. Along
the rare watercourses, cottonwoods and willows eke out a sparse existence. In the upland ranges, pines and junipers
struggle to hold their own.
But the Great Basin has not always been so arid. Many of its dry, closed depressions were once filled with water.
Owens Valley, Panamint Valley, and Death Valley were once a string of interconnected lakes. The two largest of the
ancient lakes of the Great Basin were Lake Lahontan and Lake Bonneville. The Great Salt Lake is all that remains of the
latter, and Pyramid Lake is one of the last briny remnants of the former.
There seem to have been several periods within the last tens of thousands of years when water accumulated in these
basins. The rise and fall of the lakes were undoubtedly linked to the advances and retreats of the great ice sheets that
covered much of the northern part of the North American continent during those times. Climatic changes during the Ice
Ages sometimes brought cooler, wetter weather to mid-latitude deserts worldwide, including those of the Great Basin.
The broken valleys of the Great Basin provided ready receptacles for this moisture.
Question 65: What is the geographical relationship between the Basin and Range Province and the Great Basin?
A. The Great Basin is in the northern part of the Basin and Range Province.
B. The Great Basin is larger than the Basin and Range Province
C. The Great Basin is west of the Basin and Range Province.
D. The Great Basin is mountainous ; the Basin and Range Province is flat desert.
Question 66: According to the passage, what does the Great Basin lack?
A. Dry air
B. Access to the ocean
C. Winds from the west
D. Snow
Question 67: The word "prevailing" in line 3 is closest in meaning to ____
A. most dangerous
B. Occasional
C. most frequent
D. Gentle

Question 68: It can be inferred that the climate in the Great Basin is dry because ____
A. precipitation falls in the nearby mountains B. the winds are not strong enough to carry moisture
C. the altitude prevents precipitation
D. the weather patterns are so turbulent
Question 69: The word "it" in line 3 refers to_____.
A. the Great Basin
B. west
C. air
D. Pacific Ocean
Question 70: Why does the author mention cottonwoods and willows in line 7?
A. To assert that there are more living organisms in the Great Basin than there used to be
B. To give examples of trees that are able to survive in a difficult environment
C. To demonstrate that certain trees require a lit of water
D. To show the beauty of the landscape of the Great Basin
Question 71: Why does the author mention Owens Valley, Panamint Valley, and Death Valley in the second paragraph?
A. To explain what the Great Basin is like today
B. To explain their geographical formation
C. To give examples of depressions that once contained water
D. To compare the characteristics of the valleys with the characteristics of the lakes
Question 72: The words "the former" in line 10 refer to ____
A. Lake Lahontan
B. Lake Bonneville
C. the Great Salt Lake D. Pyramid Lake
Question 73: The word "accumulated" in line 11 is closest in meaning to ______


A. collected
B. evaporated
C. dried
D. flooded

Question 74: According to the passage, the Ice Ages often brought about _____
A. desert formation
B. broken valleys
C. wetter weather
D. warmer climates
Question 75: Choose the correct option.
Peter always tells _________truth. He never tells _________lies.
A. the- the
B. a- ∅
C. the -∅
D. ∅ - ∅
Question 76: Error identification.
Having been informed of the change of the meeting, Henry missed it.
A
B
C
D
Question 77: Choose the best sentence that can be made from the words given. Never/ history/ humanity/ there/
be/more people/ live/ world. A. Never in the history of humanity there were more people living in the world.
B. Never in the history of humanity there have been more people to live in the world.
C. Never in the history of humanity have there been more people living in the world.
D. Never in the history of humanity has there been more people to live in the world.
Question 78: Choose the sentence which has the closest meaning to the original one. It’s possible that she didn’t hear
what I said.
A. She may not hear what I said
B. She might not hear what I said
C. She may not have heard what I said.
D. She might have not heard what I said.
Question 79: Choose the correct option. They could find no ___ of the missing car despite an extensive search.
A. remain

B. clue
C. trace
D. indication
Question 80: Choose the correct option. "What are you doing?"
- “_____”
A. You don't enter at all. B. Look after your own affairs. C. It’s none of your business. D. It doesn't touch you
---------------HẾT--------------ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC NĂM 2014
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH – ĐỀ SỐ 99
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút

FEEDBACK EXERCISE XIX:
There is a mistake in the four underlined parts of each sentence. Find the mistakes
or D ).

( A, B, C,

1. Carbon dioxide lets sunlight entering the earth’s atmosphere and heat the earth.
2. He showed a desire entering the University of Medicine.
3. Charlie Chaplin was one of the greatest and widely loved silent movie star.
4. Why did you take a decision to quit your job and continue your study ?
5. Tom apologized to the postman for being impolitely to him.
6. One of the weaknesses in English is that it is not pronounced the way it is written.
7. In the first meeting, a headmaster briefly introduced me to the school’s teaching staff.
8. The girl who comes from a rich family can’t seem getting accustomed to eating in the canteen.
9. Do you mind if I took a photo?
10. The breakup of bird flu did great damage to our agriculture.
Blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions

11. Only a few people who saw the director’s new film felt that it was as good as his last one had been

A. The director’s new movie is worse than his previous one, according to most of the people who watched it
B. Many of those who saw the director’s new film wondered why it was so much worse than his previous one.
C. If the director’s new film were as good as the last one that he made, more people would have gone to see it.
D. Most of the director’s earlier films were quite good, so many people were surprised at how bad his new one
was.


12. You’ll have no hope of growing crops here unless you find way to irrigate this land
A. Because there is no way you can irrigate this land, you had better give up trying to grow crops on it.
B. Even if you find a method of watering this land, there is no hope that any crops will grow on it
C. You’ll have to try growing crops elsewhere if you prove unable to irrigate this land here.
D. Without discovering how to water this land, there is no chance that you can grow crops here.
13. The thief appears to be perfectly open about his work, which has taken him around the world
A. The thief, who operates all over the world, does not seem to conceal anything about what he does.
B. Although he tries hard to look honest, we know that he is a global thief
C. Because he steals from all around the world, the thief is not completely honest when he speaks to anyone
D. The thief seems to want to keep his career private, as he wanted all over the world
14. The Ministry of Culture has decided that the national library must be open to the public every day except
Sunday
A. On Sunday, only some of the public will be able to access the national library, according to a recent decision
by the Ministry of Culture.
B. Public access to the national library on every day of the week, as well as Sunday, has been forbidden by the
Ministry of Culture
C. According to the Ministry of Culture, apart from Sunday, the public should be able to enter the national library
each day of the week
D. The Ministry of Culture would like the national library to open six days of the week, but not on Sunday.
15. If the cow hadn’t kicked over the lantern in the barn, the fire wouldn’t have begun.
A. The barn was affected by the fire the most because another fire caused by the cow’s kicking over the lantern
started there.
B. The cow knocked over the barn’s lantern with its foot; otherwise, the blare would not have started

C. Frightened of the fire, the cow kicked over the lantern in the barn, which only made the fire worse.
D. The blaze may have started when the cow used its foot to knock over the lantern in the barn.
Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions
An eye for detail
Artist Susan is best known for her flower paintings and the large garden the surrounds her house is the
source of many of her subjects. It is full of her favorite flowers, most especially varieties of tulips and poppies.
Some of them plants are unruly and seed themselves all over the garden. There is a harmony color, shape and
structure in the two long flower borders that line the paved path which crosses the garden from east to west.
(line12) much of this is due to the previous owners who were keen gardeners, who left plants that appealed to
Susan, she also inherited the gardener, Danny. ‘In fact, it was really his garden,’ she says ‘We’ve got on very
well. At first he would say, “Oh, .it’s not worth it” to some of the things I wanted to put in, but when I said I
wanted to paint them. He recognized what I had in mind’.
Susan prefers to focus on detailed studies of individual plants rather than on the garden as a whole, though
she will occasionally paint a group of plants where they are. More usually, she picks them and then takes them
up to her studio. ‘I don’t set the whole thing up at once.’ She says, ‘ I take one flower put and paint it, which
might take a few days, and then I bring in another one and build up the painting that way. Sometimes it takes a
couple of years to finish,’
Her business time of year is spring and early summer, when the tulips are out, followed be poppies. ‘They
all come out together, and you’re so busy’, she says. But the gradual decaying process is also part of the
fascination for her. With tulips, for example, ‘you bring them in and put them in water, then leave them for


perhaps a day and they each form themselves into different shapes. They open out in a vase, you think they are
boring, but they change all the time with twists and turns.’
Susan has always been interested in plants: ‘I did botany at school and used to collect wild flowers from all
around the countryside,’ she says. ‘ I wasn’t particularly interested in gardening then: in fact, I didn’t like garden
flowers, I thought they looked like the ones made of silk or plastic that were sold in some florists’ shops – to me,
the only real ones were wild. I was intrigued by the way they managed to flower in really awkward places, like
cracks in rocks or on-cliff tops’ Nowadays , the garden owes much to plants that originated in far-off lands,

though they seem as much at home in her garden as they did in China or the Himalayas. She has a come-whatmay attitude to the garden, rather like an affectionate aunt who is quite happy, for children to run about
undisciplined as long as they don’t do any serious damage.
With two forthcoming exhibitions to prepare for and a ready supply of subject material at her back door,
finding time to work in the garden has been difficult recently. She now employs an extra gardener but, despite
the need to paint, she knows that, to maintain her connection with her subject matter, ‘you have to get your hands
dirty’.
16. In the first paragraph, the writer describes Susan’s garden as
A. having caused problems for the previous owners.
B. having a path lined with flowers
C. needing a lot of work to keep it looking attractive
C. being only partly finished
17. What does ‘this’ in line 12 refer to?
A. the position of the path
B. the number of the wild plants
C. the position of the garden
D. the harmony of the planting
18. The word ‘paved’ in the first paragraph is in the closest meaning to
A. dug
B. bricked
C. stripped
D. paced
19. What does Susan say about Danny?
A. He felt she was interfering in his work
B. He immediately understood her feelings
C. He was recommended by the previous owners
D. He was slow to see the point of some of her ideas
20. Which statement is not TRUE?
A. Susan put more weight on detailed studies of individual plants than on the garden as a whole
B. Susan’s favorite flowers are tulips and poppies C. Susan’s business time of year is spring and late summer
D. Susan also has fascination for the gradual decaying process of flowers.

21. What is Susan’s approach to painting?
A. She will wait until a flower is ready to be picked before painting it.
B. She likes to do research on the plant before she paints it
C. She spends all day painting an individual flower D. She creates her paintings in several stages
22. Susan thinks that the tulips
A. are more colorful and better shaped than other flowers B. are not easy to paint because they change so
quickly
C. look best some time after they have been cut
D. should be kept in the house for as long as possible
23. Why did Susan enjoy studying wild flowers at school?
A. She found the way they adapted to their surrounding fascinating
B. She used the lessons as good excuse to get out of school.
C. She was attracted by their different colours and shapes
D. She wanted to learn how to make copies of them in material
24. How does the writer describe Susan’s attitude to her garden?
A. She thinks children should be allowed to enjoy it.
B. She prefers painting flowers from the overseas
C. She likes a certain amount of disorder
D. She dislikes criticism of the planting methods
25. What point is Susan making in the final paragraph?
A. It’s essential to find the time to paint even if there is gardening to be done
B. It’s important not to leave the gardening entirely to other people