đề thi khảo sát chất lượng lớp 12, lần 2-2013 môn tiếng anh - chuyên

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TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN
ĐỀ THI KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG LỚP 12, LẦN II - 2013
Môn: TIẾNG ANH (Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, 80 câu trắc nghiệm)

Mã đề thi 137
Họ, tên thí sinh:
Số báo danh:

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 1: Names of people in the book were changed to preserve anonymity.
A. cover B. conserve C. presume D. reveal
Question 2: Primary education in the United States is compulsory.
A. selective B. optional C. required D. free of charge

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in
the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. humane B. honorable C. microwave D. horizon
Question 4: A. intangible B. substance C. latitude D. parasite
Question 5: A. accumulate B. accuracy C. accelerate D. academy
Question 6: A. majority B. machine C. malignant D. magnifier
Question 7: A. inability B. potentially C. territorial D. personality

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 8: Women still cover their heads in some countries. They did so in the past.

A. Women still cover their heads in some countries as they did in the past.
B. Women still cover their heads in some countries as they did so in the past.
C. Women cover their heads in some countries similar to what they did so in the past.
D. In the past, women covered their heads but they do so today in some countries.
Question 9: Marry loved her stuffed animal when she was young. She couldn’t sleep without it.
A. When Marry was young, she loved her stuffed animal so as not to sleep with it.
B. As Marry couldn’t sleep without her stuffed animal when she was young, she loved it.
C. When Marry was young, she loved her stuffed animal so much that she couldn’t sleep without it.
D. When Marry was young, she loved her stuffed animal though she couldn’t sleep without it.
Question 10: She phoned him early in the morning. She didn’t want him to forget to bring along the
document.
A. She phoned him early in the morning lest he would forget to bring along the document.
B. She phoned him early in the morning so that she wanted him to bring along the document.
C. She phoned him early in the morning when she didn’t want him to bring along the document.
D. She phoned him early in the morning though she didn’t want him to forget to bring along the
document.
Question 11: The basketball team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other.
A. Hardly had the basketball team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.
B. No sooner had the basketball team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match.
C. As soon as they blamed each other, the basketball team knew they lost the match.
D. Not only did the basketball team lose the match but they blamed each other as well.
Question 12:The fire-fighters made every effort to put off the flames. The building burned down completely.
A. Since the fire-fighters made every effort to put off the flames, the building burned down completely.
B. Had it not been for the fire-fighters’ every effort, the building would have burned down completely.
C. Making every effort to put off the flames, the fire-fighters completely burned down the building.
D. The building burned down completely though the fire-fighters made every effort to put off the flames.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 13: It takes roughly 4,000 pounds of petals to make a single pound of rose oil.
A. as much as B. more or less C. amazingly D. relatively
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Question 14: Perhaps more than anything else, it was onerous taxes that led to the Peasants’ Revolt in
England in 1381.
A. multiple B. unjust C. burdensome D. infamous
Question 15: Although monkeys occasionally menace their enemies, they are usually not dangerous
unless they are provoked.
A. consume B. threaten C. kill D. pursue

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.

Even before the turn of the century, movies began to develop in two major directions: the realistic and
the formalistic. Realism and formalism are merely general, rather than absolute terms. When used to
suggest a tendency toward either polarity, such labels can be helpful, but in the end they are still just labels.
Few films are exclusively formalist in style, and fewer yet are completely realist. There is also an important
difference between realism and reality, although this distinction is often forgotten. Realism is a particular
style, whereas physical reality is the source of all the raw materials of the film, both realistic and formalistic.
Virtually all movie directors go to the photographable world for their subject matter, but what they do with
this material, how they shape and manipulate it determines their stylistic emphasis.
Generally speaking, realistic films attempt to reproduce the surface of concrete reality with a minimum of
distortion. In photographing objects and events, the filmmaker tries to suggest the copiousness of life itself.
Both realist and formalist film directors must select and hence emphasize certain details from chaotic
sprawl of reality. But the element of selectivity in realistic films is less obvious. Realists, in short, try to
preserve the illusion that their film world is not manipulated, an objective mirror of the actual world.
Formalists, on the other hand, make no such pretense. They deliberately stylize and distort their raw
materials so that only the very naïve would mistake a manipulated image of an object or event for the real

thing.
We rarely notice the style in a realistic movie; the artist tends to be self-effacing. Some filmmakers are
more concerned with what is being shown than how it is manipulated. The camera is used conservatively. It
is essentially a recording mechanism that reproduces the surface of tangible objects with as little
commentary as possible. A high premium is placed on simplicity, spontaneity, and directness. This is not to
suggest that these movies lack artistry, however, at its best the realistic cinema specializes in art that
conceals art.
Question 16: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Film plots B. Filmmaking 100 years ago
C. Acting style D. Styles of filmmaking
Question 17: With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree?
A. Formalistic films are less artistic than realistic ones.
B. Most films are neither exclusively realistic nor formalistic.
C. Realistic films are more popular than formalistic ones.
D. Realism and formalism are outdated terms.
Question 18: The phrase “this distinction” refers to the difference between
A. physical reality and raw materials B. general and absolute
C. realism and reality D. formalists and realists
Question 19: Whom does the author say is primarily responsible for the style of a film?
A. The director B. The camera operator
C. The actors D. The producer
Question 20: The word “shape” is closest in meaning to
A. specify B. achieve C. understand D. form
Question 21: The word “preserve” is closest in meaning to
A. encourage B. attain C. maintain D. reflect
Question 22: The word “they” refers to
A. realists B. films C. raw materials D. formalists
Question 23: How can one recognize the formalist style?
A. It uses familiar images. B. It is very impersonal.
C. It mirrors the actual world. D. It obviously manipulates images.

Question 24: The word “tangible” is closest in meaning to
A. various B. comprehensible C. concrete D. complex
Question 25: Which of the following terms is NOT used to describe realism in filmmaking?
A. Exaggerated B. Spontaneous C. Simple D. Self-effacing
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in
meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: Many countries share the view that drastic measures must be taken to stop sea pollution.
A. Sea pollution can only be prevented provided that many countries follow the same policy.
B. A lot of countries agree that it is essential to take strong action to put an end to sea pollution.
C. Seas will continue to be polluted unless this agreement is accepted by a majority of the countries.
D. By putting into practice a series of precautions, it is believed that sea pollution will be prevented.
Question 27: The assignment that you’ve been given isn’t as complicated as mine.
A. My assignment isn’t as complex as the one you have been given.
B. Neither of us has been given a simple assignment.
C. The assignment that you’ve got is extremely easy, but mine’s not.
D. Mine is the more complex of the assignments you and I have received.
Question 28: While recycling has caught the public imagination, reducing waste has attracted less attention.
A. It is not generally known that reducing waste is more effective than recycling.
B. People are more interested in recovery and reuse than in creating less rubbish.
C. Using things again is the best way to reduce the amount of rubbish.
D. Recycling is not necessarily the best way of reducing waste, according to the public.
Question 29: “It’s the excessive number of songs that makes my laptop crash.” said Tim.
A. Tim insisted that the songs be deleted from his laptop to avoid crash.
B. Tim blamed the excessive number of songs for the crash of his laptop.
C. Tim advised me not to save so many songs that his laptop crashed.

D. Tim refused to save more songs on his laptop to avoid crash.
Question 30: While I sympathize with your problem, there is nothing I can do to help.
A. Since I have no idea about your problem, I cannot be of any assistance.
B. I would like to help you sort out this problem, but I won’t.
C. Perhaps I can help you if you tell me more about your problem.
D. I can’t do anything for you, though I understand what you are going through.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of blanks.

All sorts of sportspeople say that there are great benefits to be gained from exercising to music. It’s an
opinion which is shared by sports scientists at London University who have been studying the (31) _______
of music on exercise performance. They have now proved that listening to motivating tunes can help people
to get fit quicker. They discovered that the right tunes not only inspire people to start exercising in the first
place, but also enable them to (32)_______ out for longer. Music can calm someone down after a stressful
day, so that they are more in the (33) _______ to exercise. But also, (34) _______ on the rhythm of music
helps people to keep going when they are getting tired.
The researchers attended gyms in various countries to (35) _______ the reactions of different age
groups to different types of music. Interestingly, they found that it is the music that people (36)_______ with
their youth that inspires them most. The researchers also visited international athletics meetings, and found
that music can also help (37) _______ athletes to perform to a higher (38) _______. Before and during a
competition, it can bring about vital changes to their mental state, which can mean the difference between
winning and losing.
The British fitness industry is (39) _______ the findings seriously. Several leisure companies have (40)
_______ surveys to ask members about their musical preferences.
Question 31: A. effects B. force C. results D. significance
Question 32: A. wear B. work C. draw D. make
Question 33: A. mood B. humor C. mind D. state
Question 34: A. concentrating B. thinking C. visualizing D. reflecting
Question 35: A. follow B. remark C. regard D. observe

Question 36: A. combine B. join C. associate D. accompany
Question 37: A. head B. chief C. top D. upper
Question 38: A. amount B. standard C. measure D. average
Question 39: A. taking B. acting C. doing D. seeing
Question 40: A. handed in B. drawn up C. written up D. filled in

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.

The principal difference between urban growth in Europe and in the North American colonies was the
slow evolution of cities in the former and their rapid growth in the latter. In Europe they grew over a period
of centuries from town economies to their present urban structure. In North America, they started as
wilderness communities and developed to mature urbanism in little more than a century.
In the early colonial days in North America, small cities sprang up along the Atlantic Coastline, mostly in
what are now New England and the Middle Atlantic states in the United States and in the lower Saint
Lawrence valley in Canada. This was natural because these areas were nearest England and France,
particularly England, from which most capital goods were imported. Merchandising establishments were,
accordingly, advantageously located in port cities from which goods could be readily distributed to interior
settlements. Here, too, were the favored locations for processing raw materials prior to export. Boston,
Philadelphia, New York, Montreal, and other cities flourished, and as the colonies grew, these cities
increased in importance.
This was less true in the colonial South, where life centered around large farms, known as plantations,
rather than around towns, as was the case in the areas further north along the Atlantic coastline. The local
isolation and the economic self-sufficiency of the plantations were antagonistic to the development of the
towns. The plantations maintained their independence because they were located on navigable streams
and each had a wharf accessible to the small shipping of that day. In fact, one of the strongest factors in the
selection of plantation land was the desire to have it front on a water highway. When the United States

became an independent nation in 1776, it did not have a single city as large as 50,000 inhabitants, but by
1820 it had a city of more than 100,000 people, and by 1880 it had recorded a city of over one million. It
was not until after 1823, after the mechanization of the spinning and weaving industries, that cities started
drawing young people away from farms. Such migration was particularly rapid following the Civil War
(1861-1865).

Question 41: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Factors that slowed the growth of cities in Europe
B. The evolution of cities in America
C. Trade between North American and European cities
D. The effects of the United States' independence on urban growth in New England
Question 42: The word "they" refers to
A. North American colonies B. cities
C. centuries D. town economies
Question 43: The passage compares early European and North American cities on the basis of which of the
following?
A. Their economic success
B. The type of merchandise they exported
C. Their ability to distribute goods to interior settlements
D. The pace of their development
Question 44: The word "accordingly" is closest in meaning to
A. as usual B. in contrast C. to some degree D. for that reason
Question 45: According to the passage, early colonial cities were established along the Atlantic coastline of
North America due to
A. an abundance of natural resources
B. financial support from colonial governments
C. proximity to parts of Europe
D. a favorable climate
Question 46: The passage indicates that during colonial times, the Atlantic coastline cities prepared which of
the following for shipment to Europe?

A. Manufacturing equipment B. Capital goods
C. Consumer goods D. Raw materials
Question 47: According to the passage, all of the following aspects of the plantation system influenced the
growth of southern cities EXCEPT the
A. location of the plantations
B. access of plantation owners to shipping
C. relationships between plantation residents and city residents
D. economic self-sufficiency of the plantations
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Question 48: It can be inferred from the passage that, compared with northern cities, most southern cities were
A. more prosperous
B. smaller
C. less economically self-sufficient
D. tied less closely to England than to France
Question 49: The word "recorded" is closest in meaning to
A. imagined B. discovered C. documented D. planned
Question 50: The passage mentions the period following the Civil War because it was a time of
A. significant obstacles to industrial growth
B. decreased dependence on foreign trade
C. increased number of people leaving employment on farms
D. increased migration from northern states to southern states

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 51: No one knows exactly _______.
A. how did speech begin B. how speech began
C. how the beginning of speech D. of how beginning speech
Question 52: _______ one or more units of living substance called protoplasm.

A. All living things consist of B. In all living things consisting of
C. Although all living things that consist of D. All living things consisting of
Question 53: I think you’ll find that the inconvenience of the diet is _______ by the benefits.
A. outranked B. overthrown C. overbalanced D. outweighed
Question 54: The marathon, first staged in 1896, ______ the legendary feat of a Greek soldier who carried
news of victory from the battle at Marathon to Athens.
A. commemorating B. was commemorated C. commemorated D. commemorates
Question 55: Neither my dad nor my mum _______ of the idea.
A. convinced B. have convinced C. was convinced D. were convinced
Question 56: He was brave; _______ soldier fought so bravely in that battle.
A. no others B. no another C. no other D. no others
Question 57: My mother ______ when she found out that I’d forgotten to do the washing-up again.
A. stood her ground B. hit the ceiling C. felt off color D. made my blood boil
Question 58: Jones: “It seems to me that the summer is nice here.”
Tam: “_______. It’s really lovely.”
A. You’re exactly right B. You’re dead wrong
C. I couldn’t agree less D. You could be right
Question 59: The quality of the young artist’s painting is beginning to gain _______ throughout the world.
A. knowledge B. understanding C. recognition D. familiarity
Question 60: I took a course in shorthand and typing with a(n) _______ to applying for a secretarial job.
A. purpose B. intention C. view D. project
Question 61: Our teacher tends to ______ certain subjects which she finds difficult to talk about.
A. boil down B. string along C. skate over D. track down
Question 62: Jacobson is often referred to ______ at the factory.
A. be the best engineer B. as the best engineer
C. by the president to be the best engineer D. as being the best engineer
Question 63: Monica was so angry about the noise her neighbors were making that she refused to ______
it anymore.
A. get away with B. run away with C. put up with D. cut down on
Question 64: Linda: “I’ve got to go, Sasha. So long.”

Sasha: “So long, Linda. And _______.”
A. don’t hurry B. be careful
C. take care D. don’t take it seriously
Question 65: I ______ hope there won’t be a repetition of these unfortunate events.
A. bitterly B. sincerely C. unfailingly D. completely
Question 66: Anna: “In my opinion, children always watch too much TV.”
Tom: “_______.”
A. Completely B. Of course C. Totally D. Absolutely
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Question 67: There was _______ evidence to bring charges against the man.
A. ineffective B. inadvisable C. interior D. insufficient
Question 68: If Michael ______ with his piano playing, he could eventually reach concert standard.
A. perseveres B. maintains C. survives D. sustains
Question 69: After you have finished the _________, restart the computer to get it acquainted to the new
program.
A. installation B. install C. installment D. installing
Question 70: _______ inventions such as video CD Rom and the Internet, it has been difficult for movie
theatres to turn a profit since the early 1970s.
A. Because of recent B. Since recent
C. Recent D. The result of recent
Question 71: You look really tired. You could ______ a week’s holiday, I think.
A. make for B. pass for C. do with D. make with
Question 72: I was going to bring up the issue of my premature retirement but it turned out I _______ it as
everybody had already known my case.
A. needn’t have done B. didn’t need do
C. didn’t need to do D. needn’t to have done
Question 73: When the bombing started, plans were made for an immediate _________ of the city.
A. vacation B. departure C. exodus D. evacuation

Question 74: In blank verse, _______ of ten syllables, five of which are accented.
A. consists of each line B. line consists of each
C. it consists of each line D. each line consists
Question 75: Did you see the ________ envelop?
A. small brown square B. small square brown
C. brown small square D. square brown small

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 76: The local economy which once used to be in crisis now depends to a great extent on menial
A B C
jobs provided by the recent development of ecotourism.
D
Question 77: Some of plants in this store require very little care, but this one needs much more sunlight
than those. A B C
D
Question 78: The product you bought at the lower price is more inferior than the one that we sell at a
slightly higher price. A B C

D
Question 79: Included in the series are “The Enchanted Horses”, among other famous children’s stories.
A B C D
Question 80: The teacher decided to fail the student with the grounds of his poor performance in tests and
A B C
too slow progress.
D

THE END

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