Practice for reading toefl

Practice for reading
SET 1:
Questions 1-10 refer to the following passage.
Awarded the Nobel prize for physics in 1918, German physicist Max Planck is best
remembered as the originator of the quantum theory. His work helped usher in a new era in
theoretical physics and revolutionized the scientific community's understanding of atomic
and subatomic processes.
Planck introduced an idea that led to the quantum theory, which became the
foundation of twentieth century physics. In December 1900, Planck worked out an equation
that described the distribution of radiation accurately over the range of low to high
frequencies. He had developed a theory which depended on a model of matter that seemed
very strange at the time. The model required the emission of electromagnetic radiation in
small chunks or particles. These particles were later called quantums. The energy associated
with each quantum is measured by multiplying the frequency of the radiation, v, by a
universal constant, h. Thus, energy, or E, equals hv. The constant, h, is known as Planck's
constant. It is now recognized as one of the fundamental constants of the world. Planck
announced his findings in 1900, but is was years before the full consequences of his
revolutionary quantum theory were recognized. Throughout his life, Planck made significant
contributions to optics, thermodynamics and statistical mechanics, physical chemistry, and
other fields. In 1930 he was elected president of the Kaiser Wilhelm Society, which was
renamed the Max Planck Society after World War II. Though deeply opposed to the fascist
regime of Adolf Hitler, Planck remained in Germany throughout the war. He died in
Gottingen on October 4, 1947
1. In which of the following fields did Max Planck NOT make a significant contribution?
(A) Optics
(B) Thermodynamics
(C) Statistical mechanics
(D) Biology
2. The word "revolutionary," as used in line 15, means
(A) dangerous.
(B) extremist.

(C) momentous.
(D) militarist.
3. It can be inferred from the passage that Planck's work led to the development of which of
the following?
(A) The rocket
(B) The atomic bomb
(C) The internal combustion engine
(D) The computer
4. The particles of electromagnetic radiation given off by matter are known as
(A) quantums.
(B) atoms.
(C) electrons.
(D) valences.
5. The word "universal," as used in line 12 most nearly means
(A) planetary.
(B) cosmic.
(C) worldwide.
(D) always present.
6. The implication in this passage is that
(A) only a German physicist could discover such a theory.
(B) quantum theory, which led to the development of twentiethth century physics, is
basically a mathematical formula.
(C) Planck's constant was not discernible before 1900.
(D) radiation was hard to study.
7. "An idea" as used in line 5, refers to
(A) a model of matter.
(B) emission of electromagnetic radiation.
(C) quantums.
(D) the equation that described the distribution of radiation accurately over the range of low
to high frequencies.

8. The word "emission" as used in line 9 means
(A) giving off.
(B) holding on to.
(C) throwing away.
(D) taking back.
9. Planck's constant, expressed in a mathematical formula, is
(A) e = v/h
(B) E = h/v
(C) e=h-v
(D) E = hv
10. What is known as Planck's constant?
(A) v
(B) h
(C) e
(D) E
Questions 11-20 refer to the following passage
There has been much speculation about the origin of baseball. In 1907 a special commission
decided that the modern game was invented by Abner Doubleday, a West Point cadet, at
Cooperstown, N.Y., in 1839. One hundred years later the National Baseball Museum was
opened at Cooperstown to honor Doubleday. Historians, however, disagree about the origin
of baseball. Some say that baseball comes from bat-and-ball games of ancient times. It is a
matter of record that in the 1700s English boys played a game they called baseball.
Americans have played a kind of baseball since about 1800. At first the American game had
different rules and different names in various parts of the country—town ball, rounders, or
one old cat. Youngsters today still play some of these simplified forms of the game. Baseball
did not receive a standard set of rules until 1845, when Alexander Cartwright organized the
Knickerbocker Baseball Club of New York City. The rules Cartwright set up for his nine-
player team were widely adopted by other clubs and formed the basis of modern baseball.
The game was played on a "diamond" infield with the bases 90 feet apart. The first team to
score 21 runs was declared the winner. By 1858 the National Association of Base Ball

Players was formed with 25 amateur teams. The Cincinnati Red Stockings began to pay
players in 1869.
11. Which of the following is true about the origins of baseball?
(A) Historians agree that baseball was invented by Abner Doubleday.
(B) Baseball, as played in the early nineteenth century, differed very little from today's
game.
(C) As early as the 1700s, English boys played a came called "baseball."
(D) The first standard set of baseball rules was established at the turn of the century.
12. What was the first professional baseball team?
(A) New York Knickerbockers
(B) Milwaukee Braves
(C) Cincinnati Red Stockings
(D) Brooklyn Dodgers
13. Who first gave baseball a standard set of rules?
(A) Abner Doubleday
(B) Alexander Cartwright
(C) Albert Spalding
(D) Babe Ruth
14. Which of the following was not a predecessor of baseball?
(A) Rounders
(B) Town ball
(C) Cricket
(D) One old cat
15. In what year was the National Baseball Museum opened?
(A) 1939
(B) 1907
(C) 1839
(D) 1845
16. The word "adopted" in line 12 means
(A) established.

(B) accepted.
(C) rejected.
(D) abolished.
17. The word "standard" in line 10 means
(A) normal.
(B) disputed.
(C) conclusive.
(D) official.
18. According to the passage, where is the National Baseball Museum located?
(A) Cooperstown
(B) New York City
(C) Cincinnati
(D) West Point
19. The tone of the passage is
(A) persuasive.
(B) informative.
(C) biased.
(D) argumentative.
20. The passage implies that until 1869, baseball was played for all of the following reasons
EXCEPT
(A) exercise.
(B) leisure.
(C) profit.
(D) socializing.
Questions 21-30 refer to the following passage.
The blue of the sea is caused by the scattering of sunlight by tiny particles suspended
in the water. Blue light, being of short wavelength, is scattered more efficiently than light of
longer wavelengths. Although waters of the open ocean are commonly some shade of blue,
especially in tropical or subtropical regions, green water is commonly seen near coasts. This
is caused by yellow pigments being mixed with blue water. Phytoplankton are one source of

the yellow pigment. Other microscopic plants may color the water brown or brownish-red.
Near the shore silt or sediment in suspension can give waters a brownish hue; outflow of
large rivers can often be observed many miles offshore by the coloration of suspended soil
particles. Marine phytoplankton (Greek for "plant wanderers") are microscopic single-celled
plants that include diatoms, dinoflagellates, coccolithophorids, green algae, and blue-green
algae, among others. The growth of these organisms, which photosynthesize light, depends
on a delicate balance between nutrient enrichment by vertical mixing, often limited by the
availability of nitrogen and light. Diatoms are one-celled plants with patterned glass
coverings. Each glass, or silicon dioxide box, is ornamented with species-specific designs,
pits, and perforations making them popular with microscopists and, more recently, scanning
electron microscopists. Some of the thousands of kinds of phytoplankton swim feebly by
lashing a whiplike thread appendage called a flagellum. The dinoflagellates are known for
their biolumines- cence, or phosphorescence, a "cold light" similar to that of fireflies.
21. The growth of phytoplankton is often limited by the availability of
(A) oxygen.
(B) hydrogen.
(C) nitrogen.
(D) carbon dioxide.
22. Which of the following is not a type of phytoplankton?
(A) Green algae
(B) Diatoms
(C) Blue-green algae
(D) Amoeba
23. Many phytoplankton use an appendage called a flagellum for
(A) reproduction.
(B) propulsion.
(C) digestion.
(D) respiration.
24. What color pigment is phytoplankton a source of?
(A) Red

(B) Green
(C) Yellow
(D) Blue
25. What can give waters a brownish hue near the shore?
(A) Sediment
(B) Phytoplankton
(C) Blue pigment
(D) Diatoms
26. All ocean water is the same shade of blue
(A) in all places.
(B) at all times.
(C) hardly ever.
(D) because all light waves are the same length.
27. Blue light is
(A) a short wavelength.
(B) a long wavelength.
(C) about equal to all other wavelengths.
(D) not scatterable.
28. Green water near coastlines is almost always caused by
(A) sand color.
(B) red pigments in coastal waters.
(C) blue pigment.
(D) reflected light and yellow pigment from plant life.
29. Phytoplankton are
(A) short light rays.
(B) suspended soil particles.
(C) microscopic floating plants.
(D) long light rays.
30. The main idea of this passage is
(A) light causes sea color.

(B) sea coloration is varied because of a combination of length of light waves and
microscopic plant life and silt.
(C) microscopic plant life causes sea color.
(D) water composition causes sea color.
Questions 31-40 refer to the following passage.
Biomass is organic material such as trees, crops, manure, seaweed, and algae.
Biomass captures and stores energy though a process called photosynthesis. Carbon dioxide
from the air enters the leaf through the stomata. Water travels to the leaf cells from the soil
through the xylem in the roots and stems. The captured light energy is then used to break
down the water into oxygen molecules and hydrogen atoms and to join these hydrogen
atoms to the carbon dioxide molecules to make sugar molecules. Six molecules of oxygen
are produced as a waste product and are released into the air through the stomata. This
energy can be released from any form of biomass through conversion processes to produce a
variety of useful energy forms—gas, steam, hydrogen, charcoal, methane, and synthetic oils
with by-products for food, fertilizers, and chemicals as a bonus. These energy forms in turn
can be used to produce electricity, heat, and transportation fuels, reducing the use of
conventional nonrenewable energy sources.
31. Which of the following is NOT an energy form produced by the conversion of biomass?
(A) Methane
(B) Steam
(C) Oxygen
(D) Synthetic oils
32. What is the name of the specialized structures in green plants that carries out
photosynthesis?
(A) Enzymes
(B) Chlorophyll
(C) Stomata
(D) Chloroplasts
33. Which of the following is NOT an essential "ingredient" for photosynthesis to occur?
(A) Sunlight

(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Oxygen
(D) Water
34. In line 11, "synthetic" most nearly means
(A) artificial.
(B) natural.
(C) useful.
(D) organic.
35. How many molecules of oxygen are produced by photosynthesis"
(A) Four
(B) Eight
(C) Six
(D) Two
36. The main idea of this passage is that biomass
(A) is inorganic material.
(B) uses energy
(C) is the beginning of many natural energy forms that conserve use of conventional energy
sources.
(D) uses photosynthesis to transport fuels
37. Which of the following is not mentioned in the passage as organic material?
(A) Metal
(B) Crops
(C) Manure
(D) Algae
38. In this passage "photosynthesis" is the
(A) process needed to create algae.
(B) reason nonrenewable energy sources can be saved.
(C) method of producing electricity
(D) process biomass uses to capture and store energy.
39. The conversion process is considered whot part of the biomass continuum?

(A) Beginning point
(B) Release valve
(C) End point
(D) Shut-off valve
40. "Bonus" in this passage refers to
(A) byproducts.
(B) biomass.
(C) photosynthesis.
(D) conversion.

Questions 41 to 50 refer to the following passage:
The United States government publishes guidelines for appropriate nutrient intakes
These are known as the Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) and are updated
regularly based on new research in the science of nutrition. RDAs are suggested amounts of
calories, protein, and some minerals and vitamins for an adequate diet. For other dietary
substances, specific goals must await further research. However, for the U.S. population as a
whole, increasing starch and fiber in our diets and reducing calories (primarily from fats,
sugar, and alcohol) is sensible. These suggestions are especially appropriate for people who
have other factors for chronic diseases such as family history of obesity, premature heart
disease, diabetes, high blood pressure, and high blood cholesterol, or for those who use
tobacco. Snacks can furnish about one-fourth of the calorie requirements among teenagers
Those snacks should also furnish much of the day's allowances for protein, minerals, and
vitamins. Sandwiches, fruit, and milk make good snacks for active teenagers. Food from the
food pyramid may be part of any meal. A grilled cheese sandwich or a bowl of whole-grain
cereal is just as nutritious in the morning as it is at noon. In addition, a good breakfast
consists of any foods that supply about one-fourth of the necessary nutrients for the day
41. The passage directly states that most of the U.S. population should increase their intake
of
(A) protein.
(B) fats.

(C) starch and fiber.
(D) sandwiches.
42. A good breakfast should supply about what percentage of the necessary nutrients for the
day?
(A) One-half
(B) One-third
(C) One-fourth
(D) Less than one-fourth
43. The passage implies which of the following?
(A) The time of day when food is consumed affects its nutritive value.
(B) Different foods can be combined to increase total nutrition value.
(C) It can be detrimental to your health to eat breakfast foods later in the day.
(D) When food is eaten has no bearing on its nutritive effects.
44. In line 4, "adequate" most nearly means
(A) superior.
(B) sufficient.
(C) long-lasting.
(D) adult.
45. Why are RDAs regularly updated?
(A) New discoveries in the science of nutrition are constantly being made.
(B) American's diets are constantly changing.
(C) As people age, their nutritional needs change.
(D) Very little is currently known about nutrition.
46. In this passage RDAs refers to
(A) types of vitamins.
(B) types of protein.
(C) types of minerals.
(D) amounts of energy, protein, vitamins, and minerals
47. One implication in this passage is that
(A) all RDAs have been established.

(B) not all RDAs have been established yet.
(C) it's not important to know RDAs.
(D) RDAs are necessary only for sick people
48. Most of the U.S. population would do well to include in their diets more
(A) alcohol.
(B) sugars.
(C) fats.
(D) starch and fiber.
49. "Chronic" as used in line 8 means
(A) continuing.
(B) intermittent.
(C) acute.
(D) curable.
50. The reduction of calories in the diet is particularlary good for people who suffer from
(A) obesity.
(B) premature heart disease and diabetes.
(C) high blood pressure and cholesterol levels
(D) All of the above

Questions 51-60 refer to the following passage.
Once flourishing in grassy marshlands and bogs, the whooping crime almost disap-
peared as people's croplands and cities altered its natural habitat. In the late 1940s, only one
flock of fewer than 20 whooping cranes was left in the world. No one knew where the
whooper went to lay its eggs but after a long search, scientists found the whooping crane's
nesting grounds incanada's remote Wood Buffalo Park in 1954. It was a crucial discovery,
enabling biologists to begin a comprehensive program to save the great white birds.
Strenuous efforts are made by Canada and the United States to protect this magnificent bird.
The education of the hunter along with its flyway is important. The cranes are impressive in
flight—great white birds with a seven-foot (2-meter) spread between their black wing tips.
There are other large white birds with black wing tips, however—the white pelican, wood

ibis, and snow goose. And the young birds, mottled with rusty brown, could be mistaken for
the more common sandhill cranes. The federal authorities, therefore, are urging hunters to
adopt the slogan. "Don't Shoot Any Large White Bird."
51. The whooping crane almost disappeared because of
(A) disease.
(B) alteration of its habitat.
(C) overeating.
(D) change in climate.
52. The whooping crane is similar in appearance to
(A) the while pelican.
(B) the wood ibis.
(C) the snow goose.
(D) All of the above.
53. The whooping crane nests in
(A) Yosemite National Park.
(B) the Gulf coast of Florida.
(C) Wood Buffalo Park.
(D) Mexico.
54. The young whooping crane could be mistaken for
(A) a sandhill crane.
(B) a bald eagle.
(C) a seagull.
(D) a vulture.
55. It can be inferred from the author's tone that he/she feels which of the following.?
(A) Whooping cranes should be allowed to become extinct.
(B) Whooping cranes are overabundant.
(C) Whooping cranes should be protected.
(D) Whooping cranes should be hunted.
56. The implication here was that at one time the whooping crane was almost
(A) extinct.

(B) nesting.
(C) overabundant.
(D) wiped out by disease.
57. The main idea in this passage is that whooping cranes
(A) are extinct.
(B) nest in Canada.
(C) would not have been saved if their nesting grounds had not been found.
(D) are egg laying.
58. The word "altered" in this passage refers to
(A) left unchanged.
(B) changed by encroaching civilizations.
(C) fixed.
(D) moved.
59. The word "crucial" in line 6 means
(A) of little consequence.
(B) mildly important.
(C) least important.
(D) most important.
60. "Remote" in line 5 means
(A) on the edge of the wilderness.
(B) close to civilization.
(C) easily accessible.
(D) far away from civilization.
Answers:
1-D 2-C 3-B 4-A 5-D 6-B 7-D 8-A 9-B 10-B
11-C 12-C 13-B 14-C 15-A 16-B 17-D 18-A 19-B 20-C
21-C 22-D 23-B 24-C 25-A 26-C 27-A 28-D 29-C 30-B
31-C 32-D 33-C 34-
A/C
35-C 36-C 37-A 38-D 39-B 40-A

41-C 42-C 43-D 44-B 45-A 46-D 47-B 48-D 49-A 50-D
51-B 52-D 53-C 54-A 55-C 56-A 57-C 58-B 59-D 60-D
SET 2:
Questions 1-10 refer to the following passage.
During the past three years, the staff members of the Smithsonian Institution's
Family Folklore Project have interviewed hundreds of persons about their family
folklore. To prepare for these interviews we drew upon our academic backgrounds in
folklore and American studies, and upon our personal backgrounds as members of
families. In addition, we reviewed the major instruction guides in genealogy, oral
history, family history, and folklore fieldwork. Although these publications were all
helpful in some way, no single book was completely adequate since family folklore
combines-aspects of all the above disciplines. Over time we have developed
guidelines and questions that have proven successful for us; we hope that the
following suggestions will be helpful to anyone who wishes to collect the folklore of
his or her own family.
1. In line 6, "publications" most nearly means
(A) members.
(B) backgrounds.
(C) schools.
(D) journals.
2. In line 7, "adequate" most nearly means
(A) sufficient.
(B) unhelpful.
(C) boring.
(D) genealogical.
3. What would be the topic of the paragraph that would follow this one?
(A) How to gather family folklore
(B) History of the Smithsonian Institution
(C) A description of genealogy
(D) Useful books on family folklore

4. What can be inferred about the researchers who conducted the interviews?
(A) They were mathematicians and physicists.
(B) They were historians and sociologists.
(C) They had children.
(D) They wrote books.
5. The purpose of this passage is to
(A) motivate.
(B) berate.
(C) instruct.
(D) cajole.
6. The assumption of this passage is that
(A) anyone can successfully interview people about their family folklore with out
prior training.
(B) American history is inherent in the family folklore of Americans.
(C) American history and folklore of Americans have no connections.
(D) no guidelines are needed in the interviews.
7. According to the passage, which kind of instructional guide was NOT consulted as
a source?
(A) Clinical sociology
(B) Genealogy guides
(C) Oral history
(D) Folklore fieldwork
8. "Academic background" in this passage refers to
(A) life experience.
(B) college/university study.
(C) fieldwork.
(D) travel.
9. One definition of family folklore represents it as
(A) not historical in nature.
(B) not traditional in nature.

(C) not academic in nature.
(D) interdisciplinary in nature.
10. The final decision of the Smithsonian Institution's Family Folklore Project was to
(A) use only a fieldwork guide to proceed with their work.
(B) trust only already published guides on how to proceed.
(C) use only historical accounts on how to collect family folklore.
(D) write their own guidelines on how to collect family folklore.
Questions 11-20 refer to the following passage
The most popular organic gem is the pearl. A pearl is the response of a marine
mollusk to the presence of an irritating impurity accidentally introduced into its body;
a cultured pearl is the result of the intentional insertion of a mother-of-pearl bead into
a live mollusk. Whether introduced accidentally or intentionally, the pearl-making
process is the same: the mollusk coats the irritant with a substance called nacre. Nacre
is composed chiefly of calcium carbonate. Because very few natural pearls are now on
the market, most pearls used in fine jewelry are cultured. These include "Biwa" pearls
and most other freshwater pearls. Cultured pearls are not easily distinguished from
natural pearls except by an expert.
11. Which of the following people could tell the difference between a cultured pearl
and an organic pearl?
(A) Scuba diver
(B) Fisherman
(C) Jeweler
(D) Clerk
12. In line 2, "impurity" most nearly means
(A) mollusk.
(B) contaminant.
(C) pearl.
(D) diver.
13. In line 5, "irritant" most nearly means
(A) annoyance.

(B) aid.
(C) relief.
(D) jewelry.
14. What is the chief component of nacre?
(A) Sand
(B) Bead
(C) Calcium carbonate
(D) Biwa
15. In line 3, "intentional" most nearly means
(A) deliberate.
(B) accidental.
(C) unconscious.
(D) forceful.
16. A pearl is
(A) a rock.
(B) a gemstone.
(C) a mineral.
(D) an organic gem.
17. The difference between a pearl and a cultured pearl is the nature of the
(A) color.
(B) introduction of the irritating impurity.
(C) coating material.
(D) irritating impurity
18. Nacre is a substance that is
(A) mechanically manufactured.
(B) the result of laboratory testing.
(C) organically secreted by the mollusk.
(D) present in the chemical composition of freshwater pounds.
19. The main idea in this passage is that
(A) most marketable pearls are cultured because nature does not produse enough of its

own to satisfy the market.
(B) cultured pearls are of a higher quality than natural pearls.
(C) there are two major methods of pearl-making.
(D) a natural "drought" of pearl production is taking place.
20. A mollusk, while not defined in this passage, must be
(A) any animal.
(B) a land animal.
(C) the water organism which produces the pearl
(D) all the above
Questions 21-30 refer to the following passage.
From the dawn of civilization, the gaze of humanity has been drawn to the stars. The
stars have been relied upon to direct travelers, to make agricultural predictions, to win
wars,
and to awaken love in the hearts of men and women.
Ancient stargazers pondering the nighttime sky saw definite star patterns emerge. The
names for many of these star patterns retain the names given to them by the Greeks
which
were most often derived from mythology. The Greeks only knew 48 star pattersn.
Today's
astronomers have charted 88 of these patterns, or constellations, which may be
viewed from
different parts of the world at different times of the year.
21. Stars have been relied upon for all of the following EXCEPT
(A) as directional aids.
(B) for crop predictions.
(C) as medical cures.
(D) as war omens.
22. In line 5, "retain" most nearly means
(A) keep.
(B) eliminate.

(C) know.
(D) view.
23. Approximately how many newpatterns have been discovered since the time of the
ancient Greeks?
(A) 40
(B) 48
(C) 88
(D) 136
24. In line 6, "derived" most nearly means
(A) written.
(B) gazed.
(C) drawn.
(D) learned.
25. Which of the following might share a name with a constellation.?
(A) A U.S. president
(B) A country in the Middle East
(C) An ancient Greek hero
(D) A farmer
26. The passage states that
(A) man never depends on the stars.
(B) stars are only for beautifying our skies.
(C) man has depended on stars at times.
(D) moons are the same as stars.
27. The author states that
(A) only adults are intrigued with the stars and constellations
(B) stars have scientific significance only.
(C) only children are intrigued with the stars and constellations.
(D) people have been intrigued with the stars and constellations since ancient times.
28. "Predictions" in this passge refer to
(A) crop fertility.

(B) war success.
(C) Cupid's progress.
(D) travel directions.
29. The word "charted" in this passage means
(A) admired.
(B) identified according to composition and location.
(C) illustrated.
(D) named.
30. Which two words are used synonymously in the passage?
(A) Humanity-astronomers
(B) Different parts-different times
(C) Stargazers-travelers
(D) Patterns-constellations
Questions 31-40 refer to the following passage.
Try to make the Visitor Center your first stop at any park. There you will find
information on attractions, facilities, and activities such as scenic drives, nature trails,
and historic tours. Descriptive films, literature, and exhibits will acquaint you with the
geology, history, and plant and animal life of the area. The park staff will answer
questions about accommodations, services, and the attractions. Most of the parks
described in this book do not offer meals and lodging. Many parks can provide
assistance for those who have visual, auditory, or other physical limitations. Most
have parking lots, restrooms, and other features that are accessible to disabled
persons. If accessibility is important to you, however, inquire in advance.
31. What do most parks NOT offer?
(A) Lodging
(B) Restrooms
(C) Nature trails
(D) Exhibits
32. Which of the following park areas might have special facilities for a handicapped
person?

(A) Nature trail
(B) Historic tour
(C) Restroom
(D) Restaurant
33. Why should the Visitor Center be your first stop?
(A) It will offer detailed information on the park and its activities.
(B) The Visitor Center always has free food.
(C) It is the only place with a bathroom.
(D) The Visitor Center is the only place to buy park passes.
34. In line 3, "descriptive" most nearly means