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272 Preparing for the Project Management Professional Certification Exam
27. According to McGregor’s concept of theory X and theory Y, which of
the following statements is true?

a. Theory Y managers view their subordinates as lazy, irresponsible,
and resistant to change.
b. Theory Y managers view their subordinates as creative, imaginative,
and agreeable to change.
c. Theory X managers tend to delegate authority.
d. McGregor did not conceive of theory X and theory Y.
28. A project manager wants to have some of the people trained on his
project team. The project team is working in a balanced matrix organi-
zation. Generally, the approval for this training should come from
which of the following managers?
a. Project manager
b. Executive manager
c. Functional manager
d. Human resources manager
29. Which of the following is true of management by objectives (MBO)?
a. The supervisor establishes performance objectives.
b. The supervisor sets the general objectives and the subordinate re-
views and agrees to them.
c. Objectives do not need to be quantifiable.
d. The supervisor and the employee jointly establish performance ob-
jectives.
30. In the matrix management organization, which of the following is true?
a. The project manager is responsible for employee skills improvement.
b. The functional manager is responsible for employee skills improve-
ment.
c. The project manager is responsible for the employee’s annual ap-
praisal.
d. The employee is responsible for his or her own skills improvement.
31. A project manager wants to better control the procedure for sanctioning
work that is done on the project. He initiates a system for doing this. It

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273 Human Resources
requires written authorization to begin work on a specific activity or a
work package. What is this system called?
a. Project charter
b. Team charter
c. Work authorization
d. Change management
32. The project management process groups are:
a. Initiating, planning, expediting, and control.
b. Plan, organize, develop, and control.
c. Plan, do, observe, commit.
d. Initiating, planning, executing, controlling, and closeout.
33. A functional manager needs to communicate the needs of his or her
personnel requirements and the utilization of each person as well as the
assignments that they have in the future. To best accomplish this, what
type of document should be used?
a. Gantt chart
b. Network diagram
c. Staffing plan
d. Responsibility matrix
34. There is great difficulty in communicating in a matrix organization.
One of the ways that the project manager can make communicating
with people on his or her project team easier is by publishing a:
a. Gantt chart.
b. Project charter.
c. Project team directory.
d. Staffing plan.
35. The person most responsible for seeing that the proper people are as-
signed to the projects where they can be used most effectively in a

matrix organization is the:
a. Program manager.
b. Project manager.
c. General manager.
d. Functional manager.
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36. In order for a formal reward system to work it must have which of the
following characteristics?
a. Relationship between reward and performance must be explicit.
b. The reward should be distributed to as many people as possible.
c. The reward must be of significant monetary value.
d. The reward must have approval of all team members.
37. One of the major reasons for the pressure to use a matrix management
style of organization is:
a. Pressure for formal communications.
b. Pressure for shared resources.
c. Pressure for more accountability.
d. Pressure to reduce duplication of effort.
38. The disadvantages of using the functional form of organization are:
a. Poor communications between different parts of the organization.
b. Potential conflict between the authority of the project manager and
the functional manager.
c. Difficulty of customers recognizing who represents them.
d. Allocation of resources is complex.
39. A large project is approximately 50% complete. The project manager
wants to establish some sort of reward system for the project team mem-
bers. The project manager hopes that the reward system will help the
team morale. Which of the following characteristics for reward systems
should the project manager pay the closest attention to?

a. The reward must be a significant monetary value.
b. The reward should be distributed to as many team members as pos-
sible.
c. The relationship between the reward and performance must be ex-
plicit.
d. The budget for the reward must come from outside the project
funds.
40. In a matrix organization there are always people moving between proj-
ects. This makes communications difficult if not impossible since peo-
ple will work on a project for a few weeks and then move to another
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275 Human Resources
project or work in their functional department for a time between proj-
ects. One of the best tools for assuring that people can be located when
they are needed is which of the following?
a. Gantt chart
b. Staffing plan
c. Project team organization chart
d. Work breakdown structure
RISK MANAGEMENT
1. A project manager discovers that there is a part of the project that con-
tains some risk. His strategy with this risk is to subcontract the work to
an outside supplier by using a firm fixed price contract. Which of the
following must the project manager do?
a. The project manager should make certain that the project team does
not reveal the risk to the supplier until the contract is signed.
b. The project manager should make every effort to make sure that the
supplier is made aware of the risk after the contract is signed.
c. The project manager should make sure that the supplier understands
the risk before the contract is signed.

d. The project manager should assign a member of the project team to
monitor the activity of the supplier to make sure that the supplier
deals with the risk properly if it occurs.
2. A project manager is faced with making a decision about a risk that the
team has identified. The risk involves the design of a bicycle. It has been
found that the neck of the bicycle, where the steering bearing is located
and the two supporting bars of the frame come together, will corrode
in a high salt environment. If this takes place the neck may fail and
injure the rider. The project team decides that the design of the bicycle
should be modified by using corrosion resistant materials in the design
of the neck. This will eliminate the risk from consideration. This tech-
nique is called:
a. Risk avoidance.
b. Risk acceptance.
c. Risk rejection.
d. Risk deflection.
3. A problem occurs in the design of a grocery cart. In this case it is
determined that the wheel will wear out much quicker in areas of heavy
snow and ice because the salt will corrode the wheel bearings. Using
sealed bearing wheels will significantly increase cost, and it is deter-
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277 Risk Management
mined that the carts themselves will be rusty and damaged at about the
same time the wheel bearings begin to fail. By injecting the wheel bear-
ings with a high temperature grease the life of the wheel bearings is
increased considerably. The project recommends using the high temper-
ature grease. This is called:
a. Risk acceptance.
b. Risk avoidance.

c. Risk mitigation.
d. Risk deflection.
4. The contingency budget will:
a. Reduce the probability of scope changes.
b. Reduce the probability of cost overruns.
c. Increase the probability of a cost overrun.
d. Increase the probability of scope changes.
5. A risk has four possible outcomes. Given the following information,
what is the expected value of this risk?
Probability Result of Risk
0.4 מ10,000
0.3 מ7,500
0.2 מ5,000
0.1 ם2,500
a. מ$20,000
b. מ$14,500
c. $7,000
d. מ$7,000
6. The project has done its risk analysis. In the process of risk identifica-
tion the project team has determined that there are risks that will proba-
bly happen that have not been identified or evaluated except by noting
that other projects of this type have historically had a certain amount of
risk discussed in the lessons learned of the project. This project team
should set aside money to handle these risks in which financial category?
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278 Preparing for the Project Management Professional Certification Exam
a. Risk management fund
b. Contingency budget
c. Management reserve
d. Emergency fund

7. A project manager observes that in one part of the project several activi-
ties are being completed late. All of these activities have several days of
free float associated with them. These are early warnings of the risk that
the project will be late in completion. They are called:
a. Risk triggers.
b. Warning messages.
c. Risk forecasts.
d. Schedule risks.
8. The effect of risk on schedule dates for the project creates an array of
dates that are possible for project completion. In a typical project the
most likely date for the project will have which of the following relation-
ships with the expected value for the project completion date?
a. The most likely date will be earlier than the expected value date.
b. The most likely date will be later than the expected value date.
c. Both dates will have the same likelihood.
d. The most likely date and the expected value date will occur at the
same time.
9. A project manager is reviewing the risks of her project. One of the risks
she is reviewing has an impact of $25,000 and an associated probability
of 10%. The risk is associated with an activity that is the predecessor to
seven other activities in the schedule. All eight activities are on the criti-
cal path. The seven other activities have a budget of $75,000. What is
the expected value of this risk?
a. $10,000
b. $100,000
c. $25,000
d. $2,500
10. In probability theory, what is the probability that if you roll two dice
(cubes with consecutive numbers 1 to 6 on each of the six faces) you
will have at least one 6?

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279 Risk Management
a. 1/3
b. 11/36
c. 1/36
d. 1/6
11. A project manager is looking at the risk associated with the project
schedule. Realizing that if the risks occur the project will be delivered
to the stakeholders late, the project manager decides to consider the risk
and promise delivery later than the most likely project completion date.
He then takes the time between the promise date and the most likely
completion date and distributes it among the activities of the project
schedule. This creates float in the schedule. This process is called:
a. Schedule delay.
b. Critical chain scheduling.
c. Buffering.
d. Contingency scheduling.
12. A project manager wants to give some guidelines to the project team as
to how risk events should be described. Which of the following items
would not be appropriate in describing a risk event?
a. Probability that the risk will occur
b. The cost of the risk should it occur
c. Expected timing of the risk when it is expected to occur
d. The client’s outsourcing method
13. A project manager and her project team are analyzing risk in their proj-
ect. One of the things that they might do to help identify potential risks
or opportunities would be to review:
a. The project budget.
b. The goals and objectives of the project.
c. Lessons learned from other similar projects.

d. The monetary value of changes for similar projects.
14. A project manager holds the first risk meeting of the project team. The
client is present at the meeting. At the meeting several risks are identi-
fied and assigned to members of the project team for evaluation and
quantification. The result of the meeting is:
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280 Preparing for the Project Management Professional Certification Exam
a. Expected value of the risk events.
b. Strategies for the risk events.
c. A list of potential risk events.
d. General statements about risks for the project.
15. In the Monte Carlo technique, what is the criticality index?
a. The number of days the project will be late divided by the project
duration
b. The percent of time a given activity will be on the critical path
c. The percent of time an activity will be late
d. The sum of the duration of the critical path activities divided by the
project expected value for duration
16. The management reserve for the project contains:
a. Money to offset missing cost objectives.
b. Money to offset missing schedule objectives.
c. Money to offset missing cost or schedule objectives.
d. Money to handle the effects of known risks in the project.
17. A project manager uses the break even point to justify his project. He
presents this as a justification for buying a new machine. What risk does
the project manager run by using this technique to justify buying a new
machine for his company?
a. Break even point will favor buying a cheap, low quality machine.
b. Break even point will favor buying a machine that is too expensive
for the work required.

c. The company may not have the funds to buy the machine in spite
of the justification.
d. The machine may not be available because the justification method
takes a long time to calculate.
18. Goldratt’s critical chain theory says that in order to reduce risk in sched-
ules we should:
a. Start activities in the feeder chains as early as possible.
b. Start activities in the feeder chains as late as possible.
c. Start activities in the critical chains as early as possible.
d. Add buffer to the critical chains.
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281 Risk Management
19. In managing the risk of the project schedule we are managing the risk
that the project will not be delivered or completed on time. If we as-
sume that the project’s possible completion dates are normally distrib-
uted and we promise the client the most likely of the project’s possible
completion dates, what is the probability that the project will be deliv-
ered late?
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 50%
d. 77%
20. A risk event in a project is something that can have an effect on the
project:
a. For the better only, a positive effect.
b. For the worse, a negative effect.
c. Both better or worse, a positive or negative effect.
d. Neither better nor worse, neither a positive nor a negative effect.
21. The project team has put together a project plan for a project, and the
plan has been approved by the stakeholders. The customer asks the

project manager if the project can be delivered seven weeks sooner. The
customer offers sufficient monetary incentive for the project manager.
The project manager decides to fast track the project. This decision will:
a. Increase risk.
b. Decrease risk.
c. Not affect risk.
d. Risk change cannot be determined.
22. A project team evaluates risk in the project. As an outcome there are
some positive and negative risks that are identified and evaluated. To
evaluate the worst case for the project the project team should evaluate
and summarize:
a. All of the risks affecting the project.
b. Only the negative risks.
c. The negative risks minus the positive risks.
d. The positive risks minus the negative risks.
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282 Preparing for the Project Management Professional Certification Exam
23. The project management institute decided to hold their annual meeting
in New Orleans, Louisiana. This conference represents a substantial
amount of PMI’s operating budget for the year. PMI identified a risk
of hurricanes during the month of September when the conference was
to be held. PMI decided to purchase convention insurance to offset the
loss of convention revenue if a hurricane caused cancellation of the
conference. This is a risk management strategy called:
a. Avoidance.
b. Deflection.
c. Acceptance.
d. Mitigation.
24. During the project life cycle, in which part of the life cycle will risk be
the lowest?
a. Initiation
b. Planning
c. Execution

d. Closeout
25. The Monte Carlo technique can be used to:
a. Determine the amount of contingency budget needed for the
project.
b. Determine the amount of the management reserve.
c. Determine the criticality index for an activity in the schedule.
d. Determine the risk index for a risk in the project.
26. Three activities are done in sequence. Each activity takes five days to
do. There is a 90% probability that each activity will be completed on
time and a 10% probability that each activity will be finished late. What
is the probability that the last of the three activities will be finished on
time?
a. .90
b. .73
c. .27
d. .81
27. The project manager has critical parts that are needed for the project. If
the first order of parts is delivered late, the project will be late delivering
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283 Risk Management
a critical deliverable to the customer. The seller that has been selected
to make these parts for the project has been used in the past and histori-
cally has failed to deliver on time 10% of the time. Another vendor can
be found that has the same delivery record. The project manager decides
to divide the order between the two vendors in hopes that at least one
of them will deliver on time. What is the probability that at least one
of the vendors will deliver on time?
a. .81
b. 1.8
c. .99

d. 1.0
28. The creative process used to optimize the life cycle costs, save time,
increase profits, improve quality, expand market share, solve problems,
or use resources more effectively is called:
a. Systems engineering.
b. Value engineering.
c. Project management.
d. Cost management.
29. A project manager is managing a project where a risk occurs. There is
no plan to respond to this risk. The response to a negative risk event
that has no plan is called:
a. Repair order.
b. Workaround.
c. Risk mitigation.
d. Risk deflection.
30. A project’s schedule completion dates are distributed in an even proba-
bility distribution. The earliest that the project can be completed is June
1. The latest the project can be completed is June 29. What is the most
likely date for project completion?
a. June 1
b. June 29
c. June 15
d. There is no most likely date in an even distribution.
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31. When using PERT analysis on a project schedule, probabilistic or ex-
pected durations are used for activity durations. If there is a concern
that the critical path may shift due to durations changing within the
expected range, what technique can be used?
a. CPM

b. Monte Carlo
c. Decision trees
d. Finite element analysis
32. A project manager is dealing with risk analysis on a software develop-
ment project. There is a risk that the module that creates the most
important report that the system will create will not work properly and
will require 200 person-hours to correct. The project manager decides
to do nothing about this risk. Which of the following risk strategies is
the project manager employing?
a. Acceptance
b. Avoidance
c. Mitigation
d. Deflection
33. The project manager of a large project meets several times with the
client for the project. During the meeting the project manager judges
that the client has a very low risk tolerance. This means that the client
will probably:
a. Be willing to take large risks to make large profits.
b. Be unwilling to take large risks to make large profits.
c. Will understand when risks happen on the project.
d. Will not understand when risks happen on the project.
34. Monte Carlo analysis can best be described as:
a. A deterministic scheduling method.
b. A probabilistic scheduling simulation method.
c. A probabilistic cost management technique.
d. A risk identification technique.
35. A project manager decides to create a model to represent the project
risks. The model translates the uncertainties specified at a detailed level
into their potential impact and probabilities. This technique is called a:
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285 Risk Management
a. Risk model.
b. Simulation.
c. Computer risk program.
d. Decision tree.
36. A project manager managing any project should perform risk analysis
with his or her project team:
a. Just before any major meeting with the client.
b. On a regular basis throughout the project.
c. Only when justified by the awareness of new risks becoming a possi-
bility.
d. When preparing the project plan.
37. A project manager working on a large project finds that there are several
risks that have a severity that is higher than the acceptable risk tolerance.
They cannot be avoided or deflected. The project manager will need to
use which of the following approaches?
a. Change the risk tolerance of the client
b. Buy insurance for the risk
c. Ignore the risk
d. Mitigate the risk
38. The project manager of a project evaluates the risks of the project by
assessing the probability of the risk by categorizing the risks as likely or
not likely and assesses their impact as high impact, medium impact, or
low impact. This would be which type of risk assessment?
a. Quantitative
b. Qualitative
c. General
d. Characteristic
39. A project manager must make a decision about a risk in his project. He
examines the extent to which the uncertainty of each of the elements of

the project affects the objective being examined when all other uncer-
tain elements are held at their baseline values. This technique is called
which of the following?
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a. Decision tree analysis
b. Expected value analysis
c. Sensitivity analysis
d. Simulation
40. A project manager is doing risk analysis with the project team members.
They are concerned about evaluating the risks in such a way that the
risks will be ranked according to their severity in relation to the project.
What method should be used to rank the risks in the order of impor-
tance?
a. Determine the expected value
b. Determine the cost of the impact
c. Determine the probability
d. Use subjective analysis
QUALITY MANAGEMENT
1. The processes required to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs
for which it was undertaken include all activities of the overall manage-
ment function that determines the quality policy, objectives, and re-
sponsibilities and implements them by means such as quality planning,
quality control, quality assurance, and quality improvement, within the
quality system. This is called:
a. Quality assurance.
b. Quality control.
c. Quality planning.
d. Quality management.
2. Decisions as to the types of projects that should be accomplished and

strategic plans as to the quality of the projects that is required should
be the decision of which of the following?
a. Project manager
b. Procurement manager
c. Upper management
d. Stakeholders
3. According to Deming and Juran most of the quality problems that exist
are due to a defect or failure in processes that are controlled by:
a. The project manager.
b. The procurement manager.
c. Upper management.
d. Stakeholders.
4. A project manager is managing a large project and must consider the
application of a quality management plan. One of the critical factors in
such a plan is the cost of implementing the plan. The project manager
should:
a. Invoice the client for all quality improvements.
b. Implement the highest quality possible regardless of cost.
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288 Preparing for the Project Management Professional Certification Exam
c. Implement quality improvements as long as the benefits outweigh
the costs.
d. Rely on upper management to determine the quality budget.
5. A project manager has discovered a problem and is trying to determine
the cause. The process whereby he identifies the variables that have the
most influence on the project by holding all the variables constant and
changing one at a time is called:
a. Product correlation.
b. Design of an experiment.

c. System integration.
d. Output processing.
6. A control chart is being used to control a manufacturing process. As
part of the control a sample of five parts is taken from the manufactur-
ing process each hour of operation. Each of the five parts is measured
and the dimension is recorded on the work sheet. The difference be-
tween the highest and lowest measured dimension of the five parts is
plotted on the control chart. This is called which of the following
values?
a. R
b. R bar
c. X
d. X bar
7. The totality of characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to
satisfy stated or implied needs is the definition for:
a. Modern quality management.
b. Quality assurance.
c. Quality.
d. Quality control.
8. A large project is being worked on by a large company. The client is
interested in knowing how the company will be able to meet the quality
needs of the project. In order to satisfy this request of the client the
project manager arranges a meeting between the client and the:
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289 Quality Management
a. General manager.
b. Quality control manager.
c. Quality assurance manager.
d. Chief designer.
9. One of the fundamental tenets of quality management is that quality:

a. Must exceed customer expectations.
b. Is planned in and not inspected in.
c. Will increase cost.
d. Costs must all be passed onto the customer.
10. A category or rank given to products that have the same functional use
but different technical characteristics is called the product’s:
a. Quality.
b. Functional characteristics.
c. Grade.
d. Technical characteristics.
11. The quality manager of a company wishes to analyze the data that is
coming to him in the form of a list of defects that have occurred in the
shipping department. The report comes with defects listed chronologi-
cally as they occurred, the cost of the repair necessary to correct each
defect, the person involved, and a description of the defect. The man-
ager would like to determine which of the defects should be corrected
first according to the frequency of the defect occurring. He should use
which of the following quality tools?
a. Cause and effect diagram
b. Sampling inspection
c. Pareto diagram
d. Quality critical path
12. A project manager from the quality control area is trying to categorize
the number of mistakes that are made in the area that paints the right
front fender of the Mercedes 560 SL. He lists all the possible defects on
a sheet of paper and asks the inspector to make a mark each time one
of the listed defects is found. This is an example of using which of the
following quality tools?
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a. Scatter diagram
b. Statistical measurements
c. Check sheet
d. Random sampling
13. The project management team should be aware that modern quality
management complements modern project management. For example,
both disciplines recognize the importance of:
a. Completion in the shortest possible time frame.
b. Making a maximum profit.
c. Having lower cost than a competitor.
d. Customer satisfaction.
14. In a manufacturing process that is being controlled by control charts
there are variables occurring that will affect the process output. Varia-
tions in the process that are considered to be normal process variables
are called:
a. Common causes.
b. Uncommon causes.
c. Special causes.
d. Random causes.
15. Work results, quality checklists, operational definitions, and the man-
agement plan are:
a. Inputs to quality control.
b. Outputs from quality control.
c. Inputs to quality assurance.
d. Outputs from quality assurance.
16. A control chart is being used to control a manufacturing process. As
part of the control a sample of five parts is taken from the manufactur-
ing process each hour of operation. Each of the five parts is measured,
and the dimension is recorded on the work sheet. The average of the
five parts is plotted on the control chart. This is called which of the

following values?
a. X
b. X bar
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291 Quality Management
c. Sample average
d. Control average
17. A project manager for the quality department is trying to solve a prob-
lem with a machine that makes die cast aluminum parts that are used in
automobiles. These parts are frequently made with defects. The project
manager has decided to hold a meeting to discuss the process of making
the parts. He creates a diagram that has branches that show the possible
causes of the problems. Each of the branches breaks the cause down
into more and more detail of the causes. This diagram is called a:
a. Pareto diagram.
b. Fishtank diagram.
c. Cause and effect diagram.
d. Scatter diagram.
18. As the manager of the production department where electrical circuits
are being made you observe the inspection station where the completed
printed circuit assemblies are being inspected. In this operation the in-
spector takes the printed circuit assembly and puts it into a fixture. The
fixture is part of a testing machine that has three digital readouts. The
inspector records the readings on the three digital readouts on his in-
spection report. This is an example of:
a. Attribute inspection.
b. Variable inspection.
c. Sampling inspection.
d. Process control.
19. One of the important advantages of using control charts in managing a

production operation is that the control chart tells you when to take
corrective action on the process being controlled. Another important
result of using control charts is:
a. The control chart identifies the special causes.
b. The control chart tells you when you should not take corrective
action.
c. The control chart shows how much the defects are costing.
d. The control chart shows who is responsible for the defects.
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20. According to the ideas behind modern quality management, quality
improvements should be made:
a. In large steps through detailed study of problems and then imple-
mented as comprehensive solutions when they are funded.
b. In small incremental steps.
c. By assignment of permanent quality improvement teams.
d. By hiring ISO certification consultants to point out quality deficient
areas.
21. The Japanese developed a method of modern quality management that
relies on continuing small improvements involving everyone from the
top management to the lowest level worker in the organization. This is
called:
a. Kamban.
b. Kaizen.
c. PDCA.
d. Deming cycle.
22. The primary benefits of meeting quality requirements are:
a. Cost and delays are reduced, production improves, cost to customer
goes up, and profits go up.
b. Cost and delays are reduced, production improves, market share
increases, and profits go up.
c. Cost and delays are reduced, capital expenditures go down, market
share increases, and profits go up.

d. Cost and delays are reduced, production improves, market share
increases, and profits are maintained.
23. When the quality management discipline is implemented, the benefits
to costs ratio should at least be:
a. Unable to be evaluated.
b. Less than one.
c. Of little importance.
d. Greater than one.
24. The quality management plan provides input to
and
addresses quality control, quality assurance, and quality improvement.
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293 Quality Management
a. The overall project plan
b. The WBS
c. The project scope
d. External stakeholders
25. Project quality assurance:
a. Includes policing the conformance of the project team to specs.
b. Provides the project team and stakeholders with standards, by which
the project performance is measured.
c. Is a managerial process that defines the organization, design, re-
sources, and objectives of quality management.
d. Provides confidence that the project will satisfy relevant quality stan-
dards.
26. The ISO 9000: 2000 standard is used to:
a. Formalize the tools of quality management.
b. Set international standards for quality conformance in organizations.
c. Set USA national standards for quality conformance in organizations.
d. Develop standards of excellence for manufacturing facilities.

27. What does ‘‘cost of acceptance’’ mean?
a. The cost of establishing and maintaining the quality function
b. The life cycle cost of the project
c. The cost of inspection and reinspection, quality assurance, quality
management, and quality planning
d. The cost of meeting project objectives
28. A control chart controls a manufacturing process. Measurements are
taken while the process is operating one time each hour. At each hour
five sample parts are measured, and the results are recorded and plotted
on a control chart. During the last five hours the following data was
observed for X bar and R. The upper control limit for X bar values is
142 and the lower control limit is 102. The value on the control chart
for X bar is 122 and the value for R bar is 3. What can be said about
this process?
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294 Preparing for the Project Management Professional Certification Exam
9
A.M.
10
A.M.
11
A.M.
12
A.M.
1
P.M.
X bar 125 126 127 128 129
R 2 1 4 2 3
a. The process is not in control and should be adjusted.
b. The process is in control and should not be adjusted.

c. The value of R is too high at 11 ..
d. The value for X bar is outside the control limits.
29. The diagram that ranks defects in the order of frequency of occurrence
and shows the number of defects and the cumulative percentage from
the greatest number of defects to the least number of defects is called a:
a. Bar chart.
b. Critical path.
c. Pie chart.
d. Pareto diagram.
30. Employees of a company were measured on the amount of scrap that
they produced over a period of time. The number of hours of training
that they had was also measured. When these results were plotted on a
scatter diagram, they were found to be negatively correlated. This means
that:
a. Scrap increased as training hours increased.
b. Scrap decreased as training hours increased.
c. Scrap increased as training hours decreased.
d. Scrap decreased as training hours decreased.
It was decided to set up a process to control the output of a machine that
was manufacturing buttons. The following measurements of the diameter of
the button were made. Each hour a sample of four buttons was taken. The
measurement shown in the table is the measured ten-thousandths of an inch
in excess of 1.000 inches. The engineering tolerance on this part is 1.000
ע.005. The following table of data values was collected:
Hour Item 1 Item 2 Item 3 Item 4
1 10 20 17 31
2 22 43 מ12 40
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295 Quality Management
3 16 29 36 33

4 05 44 מ24 33
5 10 מ44 33 42
6 08 33 מ44 מ23
7 25 27 50 מ12
8 33 41 22 10
9 48 מ33 31 04
10 מ25 28 12 22
Based on the information in the table above answer questions 31, 32, and 33.
31. What is the value of X bar for day number 7?
a. .00900 inches
b. 22.5 inches
c. 90 inches
d. .00225 inches
32. What is the value for R on day 10?
a. .0037 inches
b. .0053 inches
c. 37 inches
d. 53 inches
33. What is the value for R bar?
a. .00551 inches
b. 55.1 inches
c. .010 inches
d. 10 inches
34. In acceptance sampling the ideal operating characteristic curve would:
a. Reject all lots that were above the AQL.
b. Accept all lots that were above the AQL.
c. Have buyer’s risk below the AQL.
d. Have seller’s risk below the AQL.
35. A company uses sampling inspection to inspect parts that are sent to
their customers. If a lot of parts is rejected from sampling inspection, it

is inspected 100% and the rejected parts are sent back to the manufac-
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296 Preparing for the Project Management Professional Certification Exam
turing department for rework or scrap. What happens to the overall
outgoing quality level as the number of defective parts increases?
a. The overall outgoing quality level decreases at first and then increases.
b. The overall outgoing quality level increases at first and then decreases.
c. The overall outgoing quality level decreases.
d. The overall outgoing quality level increases.
36. ISO standards are reviewed and reissued every:
a. Ten years.
b. One year.
c. Two years.
d. Five years.
37. In the Shewhart and Deming cycle, the letters P D C A stand for:
a. Purchase, deliver, cost, and acquisition.
b. Prevent defects caused by anyone.
c. Plan, do, check, and act.
d. Please don’t cause accidents.
38. The Deming cycle is usually represented by:
a. PDCA.
b. ABCD.
c. QFAP.
d. CDPA.
39. Attribute inspection is performed on a lot of motor shafts. The lot of
parts is rejected. The parts are supposed to have a diameter of 2 inches
and have an engineering tolerance of ע.015. What is the average di-
mension of the parts?
a. Greater than 2.015 or less than 1.985
b. Greater than 0.000

c. Parts should not be rejected.
d. The inspector should be fired for not writing a better report.

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