ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA MÔN TIẾNG ANH NĂM 2022 CÓ ĐÁP ÁN 2

ĐỀ THI THỬ
THPT QUỐC GIA
MÔN

TIẾNG ANH
Class 12 in 2022
Sevendung Nguyen


SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HÀ TĨNH
TRƯỜNG THPT HƯƠNG SƠN

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2022
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Mơn thi: TIẾNG ANH

(Đề thi có 4 trang)

Thời gian làm bài 60 phút, không kể thời gia phát đề

Họ, tên thí sinh:.............................................Số báo danh:.......................

Mã đề : 001

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in each of the following question.
Question 1: A. farms
B. aunts
C. walls
D. hands
Question 2: A. climb
B. find

C. file
D. shirt
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following question.
Question 3: A. suggest
B. decide
C. cancel
D. invite
Question 4: A. adventure
B. memory
C. accurate
D. confident
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 5: Lan’s friends passed the final exam, _______?
A. were they
B. did they
C. weren’t they
D. didn’t they
Question 6: This school _______ almost 50 years ago.
A. built
B. was built
C. was building
D. has been built
Question 7: She refused ______ further about the current situation in the company.
A. commented
B. commenting
C. to commenting
D. to comment
Question 8: It’s becoming ______ to get a good job in this competitive society.

A. more and more hard B. harder and harder C. the harder and hardest D. the most hard
Question 9: Paul has just sold his ______ car and intends to buy a new one.
A. black old Japanese B. Japanese old black C. old black Japanese D. old Japanese black
Question 10: By the time my sister graduates from university, she ______ far away from home for 4 years.
A. had been
B. has been
C. will have been
D. will be
Question 11: Linda didn’t participate in the English Singing Contest ______ her lack of confidence.
A. because of
B. although
C. because
D. despite
Question 12: When Linda called last night, I ______ my favourite show on TV.
A. watched
B. have watched
C. was watching
D. am watching
Question 13: If you ______ to my advice, you wouldn’t have been in that messy situation.
A. listened
B. had listened
C. listen
D. would listen
Question 14: This book is not really ______. It is a waste of money buying it.
A. inform
B. information
C. informative
D. informatively
Question 15: She sounded so convincing to me that she ______ completely with her story.
A. took me in

B. found me in
C. confided me in
D. listened me up
Question 16: There is a growing ______ of evidence for the existence of black holes in our solar system.
A. mind
B. part
C. body
D. hand
Question 17: These drugs are widely believed to be effective medications. The data, however,_____a different story.
A. talk
B. speak
C. say
D. tell
Question 18: Young people tend to prefer working with managers that are ______ to new ideas.
A. receptive
B. offensive
C. acceptable
D. permissive
Question 19: It would be better for you to reserve ______ until you know all the facts.
A. opinion
B. comment
C. assessment
D. judgement
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: My neighbor is a reckless driver. He has been fined for speeding this month.
A. famous
B. enormous
C. careless
D. cautious

Question 21: The washing machine I have just bought is very simple to use. Everyone can use it without any difficulty.
A. boring
B. interesting
C. easy
D. difficult
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: At first she denied the accusations against her but she finally said yes.
A. admitted
B. promised
C. doubted
D. refused
Question 23: The writer was really hot under the collar when his novel was mistaken for another.
A. calm
B. worried
C. curious
D. angry
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best complete each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: Jenny and her teacher are meeting at the bus stop.
- Jenny: “Good afternoon, Miss. How are you?”
- Teacher: “______. And you?”
A. I’m going home
B. I’m leaving now
C. I’m thirty years old D. Fine, thank you
Question 25: Trang and Linh have just listened to Hoa’s song.
Trang: “Hoa is the best singer in our school.”

Linh: “______ I really love her beautiful voice.”
A. I can’t agree with you more!
B. Yes, tell me about it!
C. That’s OK!
D. Yes, please.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Almost one in 10 heads (9%) ___26___ took part in the survey said more than 20% of their teaching
staff were absent on the first day of term for Covid-related reasons. The staffing situation is already so
critical in some schools that 4% of heads have had to send classes or year groups home for online learning,
___27____ almost 7% have combined classes or year groups in response to teacher absence. Half of school
leaders said they were already ___28___ on supply teachers to cover classes, and more than a third (37%)
were unable to source the supply staff they need, even via agencies – almost certainly because of high
demand. Paul Whiteman, the general secretary of the National Association of Head Teachers (NAHT), said
the results of the poll ___29___ a worrying picture of the situation. The findings are based on nearly 2,000
headteachers’ experiences on the first day of term this week. ___30___ people who took part were primary
school leaders (76%), 5% were from secondary schools and the rest were made up of nursery, infant, allthrough and middle schools.
Adapted from
Question 26: A. who
B. which
C. whose
D. whom
Question 27: A. because
B. while
C. as
D. when
Question 28: A. reliable
B. keen
C. liable
D. dependent

Question 29: A. painted
B. drew
C. showed
D. took
Question 30: A. another
B. much
C. every
D. most
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Today, WHO listed the Moderna COVID-19 vaccine (mRNA 1273) for emergency use, making it the
fifth vaccine to receive emergency validation from WHO.
WHO’s Emergency Use Listing (EUL) assesses the quality, safety and efficacy of COVID-19 vaccines
and is a prerequisite for COVAX Facility vaccine supply. It also allows countries to expedite their own
regulatory approval to import and administer COVID-19 vaccines.
The vaccine has already been reviewed by WHO’s Strategic Advisory Group of Experts on
Immunization (SAGE), which makes recommendations for vaccines’ use in populations (i.e. recommended
age groups, intervals between shots, advice for specific groups such as pregnant and lactating women). The
SAGE recommended the vaccine for all age groups 18 and above in its interim recommendations dated 25
January 2021.
The US Food and Drug Administration issued an emergency use authorization for the Moderna vaccine
on 18 December 2020 and a marketing authorisation valid throughout the European Union was granted by the
European Medicines Agency on 6 January 2021. The WHO’s EUL process can be carried out quickly when
vaccine developers submit the full data required by WHO in a timely manner. Once those data are submitted,
WHO can rapidly assemble its evaluation team and regulators from around the world to assess the information
and, when necessary, carry out inspections of manufacturing sites.
Trang 2/4 – Mã đề 001


The Moderna vaccine is an mNRA-based vaccine. It was found by the SAGE to have an efficacy of

94.1%, based on a median follow-up of two months. Although the vaccine is provided as a frozen suspension
at -25 ºC to -15 ºC in a multidose vial, vials can be stored refrigerated at 2-8 °C for up to 30 days prior to
withdrawal of the first dose, meaning that ultra-cold chain equipment may not always be necessary to deploy
the vaccine.
(Adapted from WHO’s news)
Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?
A. The US Food and Drug Administration.
B. The Moderna COVID-19 vaccine.
C. WHO’s Emergency Use Listing.
D. WHO’s Strategic Advisory Group of Experts on Immunization.
Question 32: According to paragraph 3, WHO’s SAGE……
A. has not allowed the use of the Moderna COVID-19 vaccine because of its unsafety
B. has never recommended the Moderna COVID-19 vaccine for all age groups 18 and above
C. has already reviewed the Moderna COVID-19 vaccine
D. has considered the Moderna COVID-19 vaccine the best vaccine of all time.
Question 33: The word “efficacy” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to……
A. effort
B. influence
C. effectiveness
D. result
Question 34: The word “which” in paragraph 3 refers to……
A. WHO
B. the Moderna COVID-19 vaccine
C. WHO’s SAGE
D. WHO’s EUL
Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following information is NOT mentioned?
A. The Moderna vaccine is an mNRA-based vaccine.
B. The Moderna COVID-19 vaccine is better than the AstraZeneca COVID-19 one.
C. The Moderna COVID-19 vaccine is the fifth one to receive emergency validation from WHO.
D. An emergency use authorization was issued for the Moderna vaccine by the US Food and Drug Administration.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Human blood comes in four different types, namely A, B, AB and O. In most of the world, most
people are ignorant of which blood type they possess, since it is important only if they have to undergo an
operation which requires a blood transfusion. In Japan, however, things are different, since a large
proportion of the population believes that blood type determines personality and, as a result, over 90% of the
population are aware which type they are.
This linking of blood type and personality has ramifications across life, but is especially prominent in
prospective relationships and employment. For example, in Japan one popular way to meet romantic
partners is to go to specialised venues which conduct speed dating. A single man and woman sit alone
together at a table for just a few minutes. Then a bell rings, and they go to sit with someone new. Some such
venues hold dating sessions which are limited to men or women of a particular blood type. For those who
believe in the blood-type theory, this seems to maximise their chance of finding someone special.
The current popularity of the idea exploded in the 1970s following the publication of a book by
Masahiko Nomi, even though he was a lawyer and broadcaster who had no medical or psychological
training. His ideas were largely anecdotal, and many critics thought it mere superstition, but the book
nevertheless sparked great interest in the general public. Now his son, Toshitaka, continues to promote the
theory, and nowadays it is ubiquitous in Japanese popular culture, featuring on morning TV, women’s
magazines and best-selling self-help books.
Much like horoscopes in the West, the blood group theory is regularly debunked by scientific
experimentation, yet it retains popular appeal. Perhaps one reason for this is that it helps to break the ice in
social situations. Japanese people do not always find it easy to express their opinions, so discussing blood
types is an indirect way of telling people what you think of them.
Question 36: What could be the best title for the passage?
A. The blood-type theory
B. Blood and its functions
C. Different theories about blood type
D. Masahiko Nomi, a famous author
Question 37: How is the blood-type theory used in speed dating?
A. People go to tables according to their blood types.

B. Dating couples talk about the theory and what it means.
C. Some people want to meet only people of a particular blood type.
D. People try to guess the blood type of their date.
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Question 38: What is TRUE about the popularity of the blood-type theory?
A. It became popular due to the writings of a father-and-son team.
B. It is popular because of a traditional idea in Japanese culture.
C. It is not as popular as it was in the 1970s.
D. It became popular following experiments conducted by Masahiko Nomi.
Question 39: It can be inferred from the passage that in Japan
A. people associate blood types solely with personality traits.
B. a complicated scientific theory relating blood types to personality has been developed.
C. many more people than elsewhere know which type of blood they have.
D. blood transfusions are made only for certain types of blood.
Question 40: What does the word “they” in the second paragraph refer to?
A. prospective relationships
B. a single man and woman
C. specialised venues
D. a few minutes
Question 41: The word “sparked” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______
A. spoilt
B. improved
C. generated
D. terminated
Question 42: The word “debunked” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______
A. recognised
B. increased
C. decreased

D. undervalued
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: Last year, Tim works as a shipper and he earned twice as much as his brother.
A
B
C
D
Question 44: These technological developments were hardly imaginary 30 years ago, but now most people
A
B
C
are familiar with them.
D
Question 45: My students are very hard- working and they always finish her homework before going to school.
A
B
C
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: "Why don't we participate in the volunteer work in summer?", said Sophie.
A. Sophie suggested me to participate in the volunteer work in summer.
B. Sophie made me participate in the volunteer work in summer.
C. Sophie suggested participating in the volunteer work in summer.
D. Sophie asked me why not participate in the volunteer work in summer.
Question 47: It isn’t necessary for us to get a visa for Singapore.
A. We mustn’t get a visa for Singapore.
B. We needn’t get a visa for Singapore.
C. We shouldn’t get a visa for Singapore.

D. We may not get a visa for Singapore.
Question 48: He last visited London three years ago.
A. He hasn’t visited London for three years. B. He didn’t visit London three years ago.
C. He has been in London for three years.
D. He was in London for three years.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: I made two minor mistakes. That's why I did not get full marks for the test.
A. If I didn't make two minor mistakes, I would have got full marks for the test.
B. I would have got full marks for the test if there hadn't been two minor mistakes.
C. Had I made two minor mistakes, I would have got full marks for the test.
D. If the mistakes hadn't been minor, I could have got full marks for the test.
Question 50: The substance is very toxic. Protective clothing must be worn at all times.
A. Since the substance is very toxic, so protective clothing must be worn at all times.
B. So toxic is the substance that protective clothing must be worn at all times.
C. The substance is such toxic that protective clothing must be worn at all times.
D. The substance is too toxic to wear protective clothing at all times.
--------Hết -------Trang 4/4 – Mã đề 001


SỞ GIÁO DỤC ĐÀO TẠO HÀ TĨNH
TRƯỜNG THPT HƯƠNG SƠN

Mã đề
Câu

1
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KỲ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2022
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

001

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Mã đề
Câu

001

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003

004

B
D
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D
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A

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A
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A
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C
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A
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B
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B
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A
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D
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C
B
A
B
B
B
D


SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO
THÀNH PHỐ HỒ CHÍ MINH
TRƯỜNG THPT LINH TRUNG

KỲ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THƠNG
Lần 1 – Năm 2022
Mơn thi thành phần: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 50 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. believes
B. dreams
C. girls
D. parents
Question 2: A. nature
B. manage
C. balance
D. campfire
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. suggest
B. involve
C. travel
D. sustain
Question 4: A. disappear
B. arrangement
C. opponent
D. contractual
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: Nobody phoned while I was out, _________ ?
A. wasn’t I
B. was I
C. did they
D. didn’t they
Question 6: She made as if ____________ but then stopped.
A. to speak
B. speaking
C. spoken
D. speak
Question 7: I've never really gone___________ folk music, but I love rock ballad.
A. in for
B. on with
C. up to
D. down with
Question 8: We are very happy as we ___________ for this opportunity for more than three years.
A. were waiting
B. have been waiting C. waited
D. are waiting
Question 9: ________ Jack has a new car, he no longer takes the commuter train to work every day.
A. Because

B. Because of
C. As a result
D. Although
Question 10: ____ his homework, he started to surf the social networks.
A. At the time he finished
B. After he has finished
C. After he had finished
D. By the time he finishes
Question 11: A generation gap or generational gap, is a difference ____ opinions between one
generation and another regarding beliefs, politics, or values.
A. in
B. between
C. of
D. among
Question 12: Scientists ____ on the site found many ancient tools, tombs and pottery, and made some
important archaeological discoveries.
A. worked
B. working
C. to work
D. to be working
Question 13: We will create a stable, prosperous and highly ____ ASEAN Economic community.
A. compete
B. competition
C. competitor
D. competitive
Question 14: The United States, China and India are now competing for political influence in ASEAN,
and France, a leading European country, does not want to be ___________.
A. left out
B. put off
C. thought of

D. led on
Question 15: Ian has no difficulty in ____ into use the perfect plans his friends have prepared for him.
A. lending
B. taking
C. putting
D. heading
Question 16: Action movies may have a negative _________ on children.
A. opinion
B. influence
C. dependence
D. decision
Question 17: All the applicants for the post are thoroughly ________ for their suitability.
A. searched
B. vetted
C. investigated
D. scrutinized
Question 18: Parents are always willing to lend a sympathetic ________ to their children when they
have problems.
A. hand
B. ear
C. eye
D. paw
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 19: Ha Long Bay has attracted millions of visitors who come to enjoy its breathtaking views
and experience other activities.
A. unbreathable
B. heartbreaking
C. awe-inspiring
D. unforgettable

Question 20: In spite of poverty and dreadful conditions, they still manage to keep their self-respect.
A. self-reliant
B. self-restraint
C. self-esteem
D. self-assured


Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 21: Her graceful performance of this traditional art form in the evening session was a real
source of pleasure.
A. attractive
B. effortless
C. inelegant
D. sophisticated
Question 22: Nam is considered to be the best student in our class because he's not only good at
learning but also well-informed about everything around the world.
A. perfectly-informed
B. badly-informed
C. bad-informed
D. ill-informed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of
the following exchanges
Question 23: A custom officer is talking to a client at the airport.
- Officer: “Welcome. Can I see your ticket, please? “
- Client: “___________________”
A. Yes, here you are.
B. Can you tell me how to get to gate A22?
C. Thank you for all your help.
D. Can I have a seat near the emergency exit?

Question 24: Two friends are talking with each other about a musical concert.
- A: “Hey, there is a musical concert in the park. Do you want to go seeing the band play?”
- B: “___________________.”
A. How long ago did the band start playing at our park?
B. I am done with my homework; I can go.
C. Oh, I like all kinds of music as long as it is not Hard Rock.
D. My favorite is Rock and Roll music.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Despite the wealth of information campaigns telling people about global warming and its
causes, (25) _______ people have yet to realize how severe the problem is. Coming climate changes
could alter as much as one third of plant and animal habitats by the end of the 22nd century. These
changes could in turn cause widespread extinctions among plant and animal species around the globe.
Coastal and island habitats are perhaps in the greatest danger (26) _______ they face the combined
threats of warming oceans and rising sea levels. As habitats change, many animals will come under
intense pressure to find more suitable homes for themselves. Mass (27)_______ of at least some animals
are certainly to be expected, but the fact remains that many animals will simply not be able to move fast
enough.
Such dire predictions may sound alarmist, but they are based on the rather moderate estimate that the
amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere will double by 2100. Many scientists believe, however,
(28)_______ this figure is actually very conservative, and they claim that a tripling is far more realistic.
If they are (29) ____, the effects on nature will be even more dramatic.
Question 25: A. almost
B. most
C. most of
D. many of
Question 26: A. although
B. providing
C. since
D. therefore

Question 27: A. migrations
B. onslaught
C. emigration
D. extinctions
Question 28: A. that
B. which
C. when
D. whether
Question 29: A. precise
B. true
C. exact
D. correct
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
In “How many hours does it take to make a friend?” (2018), Jeffrey A. Hall describes the types of
encounters that build a friendship.
His study found that hours of time spent together was linked with closer friendships, as was time
spent enjoying leisure activities together. Specifically, he found that the chance of making a “casual
friend,” as opposed to a mere acquaintance, was greater than 50 percent when people spent
approximately 43 hours together within three weeks of meeting. He further found that casual friends


evolve into friends at some point between 57 hours after three weeks, and 164 hours over three months.
Hall's research also demonstrated, however, that when it comes to time spent developing friendships,
quality is more important than quantity. And when it comes to conversation, topics matter. When it
comes to building quality relationships, the duration of conversation is not as important as the content.
Meaningful conversation is the key to bonding with others.
Hall found that when it comes to developing friendships, sharing daily life through catching up and
joking around promotes closeness; small talk does not. Consider the inane topics that often come up
when you are trapped in an elevator with an acquaintance. Discussing the weather or speculating on how

many stops you will make before finally reaching the lobby does not facilitate bonding. Nor does mere
proximity. Hall found that obligatory time spent together, such as in a classroom or workplace, does not
promote closeness. Friendships require an efficient use of time together. Someone who remembers the
details of your life and asks questions about your family, your job, your latest vacation, etc., is much
more likely on his or her way to becoming someone you consider a friend, as opposed to an
acquaintance.
Question 30: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The priceless gift of time
B. The cluttered social life
C. A world of online acquaintances.
D. From best friends to acquaintances.
Question 31: The word “he” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. classmate
B. friend
C. acquaintance
D. Jeffrey
Question 32: According to paragraph 2, what conclusion can be drawn from the finding of Jeffrey A
Hall?
A. Constant contact exhausting, the pressure to be positive all day long is draining.
B. Even in our fast-paced world, you can create friendships that truly last a lifetime.
C. Both quantity and quality of time spent together contribute to spark true friendships.
D. Individuals are motivated to engage in conversations that form and strengthen relationships.
Question 33: The word “inane” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. silly
B. small
C. regular
D. normal
Question 34: According to paragraph 3, what kind of setting can foster real amity?
A. High-fiving with a stranger on the street.
B. Travelling with your friend on holiday.

C. Boarding the same lift as your neighbor.
D. Discussing with classmate for the class project.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
For hundreds of years, giving flowers have been a social means of communication. In the United
States, flowers are often given during rites of passage, for commemorating special occasions or as a
heartfelt gift between loved ones and friends. Flower gifting also occurs in most countries around the
world. However, the meanings and traditions often vary.
While students traditionally gave their favorite teacher an apple in past years, in China, teachers are
given flowers. Peonies are by far the flower most often given in China. They are also quite popularly
used for weddings. Strangely, potted plants are not considered a pleasant gift among Asian cultures. The
people believe that like a plant confined by a pot, the gift symbolizes a binding or restriction.
In Russia, in lieu of giving birthday presents, the guest of honor receives a single flower or an
unwrapped bouquet. Floral arrangements or baskets are not given. Russians celebrate a holiday known
as Woman’s Day. Traditional gifts include red roses, hyacinths or tulips. When there is a funeral or other
occasion where someone wishes to express sympathy, carnations, lilies or roses are given in circular
configurations, which signify the transition of birth, life and death to rebirth. In this instance, the color
of choice is commonly yellow. For joyous occasions, arrangements and bouquets generally contain an
odd number of flowers.
In the times of ancient Rome, brides carried flowers to scare away evil spirits and encourage
fertility. The Dutch believed that flowers were food for the soul. When invited to someone’s home in
Great Britain, it is tradition to bring a gift of flowers. All types are acceptable except white lilies, which


are usually seen at funerals. Not unlike the United States, red roses are a symbol of love. Flowers are
generally gifted in odd numbered increments regardless of the occasion. However, the Brits also have
superstitions regarding the number 13, so the number is avoided.
In the southern region of the continent, flowers are traditionally given during Christmas. Egyptians are
much more conservative and restrict flower gifting to funerals and weddings. While certain flowers may
have significant meanings for some, flowers in Las Vegas and across the United States flowers are an

accepted gift for any reason desired.
(Source: )
Question 35: What does the topic mainly discuss?
A. The fascinating tradition of giving flowers.
B. The different meaning of flowers in different cultures.
C. The comparison of giving flowers between Asian and European cultures.
D. The kinds of flowers people often give others in different cultures.
Question 36: What does the word “They” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. Students
B. Teachers
C. Flowers
D. Peonies
Question 37: Why should not you give a potted plant to an Asian?
A. Because the Asian prefer to be given flowers.
B. As this gift is often given at weddings in Asia.
C. Since this gift is believed to symbolize a binding and limitation in Asia.
D. Because the Asian students like to give an apple or flowers to others.
Question 38: According to the passage, the following flowers are given at Woman’s Day in Russia,
EXCEPT ___________.
A. red roses
B. hyacinths
C. tulips
D. yellow roses
Question 39: What could the word “fertility” in paragraph 4 best be replaced by?
A. fecundity
B. good spirit
C. happiness
D. loyalty
Question 40: The word “superstitions” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. deep-seated belief

B. unfounded belief C. religious belief
D. traditional belief
Question 41: In which country should not people bring white lilies to other houses?
A. China
B. Russia
C. Great Britain
D. United States
Question 42: It can be inferred from the passage that ____________.
A. People can give flowers to the American in any occasion.
B. Egyptians are rather comfortable when receiving flowers at funerals and weddings.
C. Flowers given in Britain are in even numbers in any case.
D. At the funerals in any cultures, flowers are gifted in circular configurations.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: The introduction of the new species of plants into Phu Quoc island offer an opportunity to
study the response of a natural system to stress.
A. new species
B. plants
C. offer
D. response
Question 44: A big wedding requires a lot of preparation, such as sending invitations, hiring costumes
and choose dishes.
A. requires
B. preparation
C. sending invitations
D. choose
Question 45: Thanks to artificial intelligence, the phone's voice-recognition system converts the sound
into numerous data.
A. Thanks to
B. voice-recognition

C. converts
D. numerous
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions
Question 46: The kitchen is bigger than the living room.
A. The living room is bigger than the kitchen
B. The kitchen is smaller than the living room.
C. The living room isn't as big as the kitchen.
D. The kitchen is not bigger than the living room.


Question 47: "Do homework now or I'll cut your pocket money!" shouted the mum to her son.
A. The mum threatened to cut his pocket money if her son didn't do homework.
B. The mum said that she would cut his pocket money if her son didn't do homework.
C. The mum told her son that she would cut his pocket money if he didn't do homework.
D. The mum informed her son that she would cut his pocket money if he didn't do homework.
Question 48: You are advised to choose your travel provider on the basis of their eco principles and
practices before your departure.
A. You should choose your travel provider on the basis of their eco principles and practices before you
go.
B. You are obliged to choose your travel provider on the basis of their eco principles and practices
before your departure.
C. You are required to choose your travel provider on the basis of their eco principles and practices
before your departure.
D. You have to choose your travel provider on the basis of their eco principles and practices before your
departure.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: Susan is tired now because she got caught in the rain last night.
A. If Susan got caught in the rain last night, she would be tired.

B. If Susan hadn’t got caught in the rain last night, she wouldn’t be tired
C. If Susan hadn’t got caught in the rain last night, she wouldn’t have been tired.
D. Susan got caught in the rain last night and she still felt tired.
Question 50: We almost gave up hope. At that time, the rescue party arrived.
A. Only after the rescue party arrived did we give up hope.
B. It was not until the rescue party arrived that we gave up hope.
C. We were on the verge of giving up hope when the rescue party arrived.
D. Had the rescue party not arrived, we wouldn't have given up hope


TRƯỜNG THPT LONG TRƯỜNG

KÌ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THƠNG NĂM 2022 (LẦN 1)

Bài thi: NGƠN NGỮ
Mơn thi thành phần: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 50 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. conflict
B. strike
C. think
D. single
Question 2: A. economics B. photographs
C. applicants
D. details
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. attitude

B. profession
C. disaster
D. competitor
Question 4: A. attraction
B. argument
C. decision
D. employment
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 5: I feel like
a letter to the authorities about the need for public transportation.
A. to write
B. writing
C. to writing
D. written
Question 6: Ann hopes _ to join the private club. She could make important business contacts
there.
A. to invite
B. inviting
C. to be invited
D. being invited
Question 7: Most of the people
to the wedding banquet arrived late.
A. who inviting
B. whom were invited
C. invited
D. invite
Question 8: _________ an accident in the High Street, traffic is moving every slowly on the
London Road.
A. Despite

B. Because
C. Since
D. Owing to
Question 9: Their has lasted for more than 20 years.
A. friends
B. friendship
C. friendly
D. friend
Question 10: I can’t play ____piano, but I can play guitar.
A. the / a
B. the / the
C. a / the
D. an / a
Question 11: I got a job _____ my bad English.
A. in spite of
B. because
C. if
D. although
Question 12: French ____ in Quebec, Canada.
A. speaks
B. is spoken
C. spoken D. spoke
Question 13: She takes the responsibility _____
running the household.
A. in
B. with
C. for
D. of
Question 14: After a few decades of the economic reforms, Vietnam has increased the living of
people.

A. surfaces
B. standards
C. levels
D. backgrounds
Question 15: In five more minutes, they
_for three hours on the phone.
A. are talking B. have talked
C. will have been talking D. will talk
Question 16: Nam: What do you think about his story? - Tan:
, it’s not true.
A. In my opinion
B. I think
C. According to me
D. I don’t think
Question 17: “Do you want to wait?” - “Two weeks
too long for me to wait.”
A. is
B. are
C. were
D. was
Question 18: We live in the
on the corner.
A. brick house old large
B. large old brick house
C. old brick large house
D. brick large old house
Question 19: I am afraid that if I started running, the man would
me
A. take on
B. take after C. take up

D. take apart
Read thefollowing passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that bestfits each ofthe numbered blanks.
Just like any institution, a family also needs rules. Rules are very important because they keep
things in (20)_____. For a family, rules are as necessary as food and clothing. The rules are very
important because they remain peace and order in the family. For example, children should
respect and listen to their parents.
If there are (21) _____ to be made, for examples, it is not only the parents who are going to
decide especially if the children are already grown up. It would be better if everybody is involved
in making the decision of important matter.
Rules are needed to maintain a harmonious relationship (22) _____ family members. Parents


are there the pillars of the family and guide children to be responsible and practice good values.
Rules teach children to become more responsible and have discipline not only at home but
especially outside of the home. When there are rules to follow, children will know (23) _____ they
should do or should not do. Rules help to avoid conflict and misunderstanding that may lead to
fights and aggression especially among children. Parents should set rules for the children to
follow to avoid quarrels and fights. There are times when the children fight over simple matters
and this happens if the parents do or not interfere but when parents set the rule and let the
children follow, there will be (24) _____ conflicts.
Question 20: A. need
B. time
C. order
D. shape
Question 21: A. decisions
B. problems
C. changes D. calls
Question 22: A. in
B. between

C. inside
D. among
Question 23: A. which
B. that
C. how
D. what
Question 24: A. less
B. more
C. little
D. fewer
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: What do you like doing in your spare time?
A. enjoyable
B. free
C. quiet
D. busy
Question 26: World Wide Fund for Nature was formed to do the mission of the preservation of
biological diversity, sustainable use of natural resources, and the reduction of pollution and
wasteful consumption.
A. contamination
B. energy
C. extinction
D. development
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 27: “That is a well-behaved boy whose behaviour has nothing to complain about”
A. good behavior
B. behaving improperly
C. behaving nice

D. behaving cleverly
Question 28: After five days on trial, the court found him innocent of the crime and he was
released.
A. benevolent
B. innovative
C. naive
D. guilty
Read thefollowing passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
Accidents do not occur at random. People eighty-five years of age and older are twenty -two
times likelyto die accidentally than are children five to nine years old. The risk for native
Americans is four times that for Asian-Americans and twice that for white Americans or AfricanAmericans. Males suffer accidents at more than twice the rate of females, in part because they
are more prone to risky behavior. Alaskans are more than three times as likely as Rhode
Islanders to die in an accident. Texans are twenty-one times more likely than New Jerseyites to
die in a natural disaster. Among the one hundred most populous counties, Kern County,
California (Bakersfield), has an accident fatality rate three times greater than Summit County,
Ohio (Akron).
Accidents happens more often to poor people. Those living in poverty receive inferior medical
care, are more apt to reside in houses with faulty heating and electrical systems, drive older cars
with fewer safety features, and are less likely to use safety belts. People in rural areas have more
accidents than city or suburban dwellers because farming is much riskier than working in a
factory or office and because emergency medical services are less readily available. These two
factors - low income and rural residence - may explain why the south has a higher accident rate
than the north.
(Source: Proficiency Reading)
Question 29: Which of the following is true according to the passage?
A. Children aged five to nine face the greatest accident risk.
B. All people face an equal risk of having an accident.
C. One in every 22 people aged 85 and over will die in an accident.
D. The risk of having an accident is greater among certain groups of people.

Question 30: The word “inferior” in the passage is closest in meaning to__________.


A. modern B. low-quality
C. well-equipped
D. unsafe
Question 31: According to the passage, which of the following groups of people in America face
the highest risk of having an accident?
A. Native Americans
B. Asian-Americans
C. White Americans
D. African-Americans
Question 32: What does the word “that” in the passage refer to?
A. males
B. native Americans
C. the risk D. African-Americans
Question 33: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason for a higher accident rate
among the poor?
A. Little knowledge about safety.
B. Inadequate medical services.
C. Poor housing and working conditions.
D. Use of cars which incorporate fewer safety features.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best
completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 34: Peter: Do you have a minute please?
Tim: “
.”
A. Yes. But you should be brief
B. That’s just fantastic. Thank.
C. Sorry, I left my watch at home.

D. Well, it is not as good as I think
Question 35: - “Would you mind giving me a hand with these things?”
-“
”
A. Yes, certainly
B. Not at all. It’s my pleasure
C. Yes, I would. Go ahead
D. Yes, very soon.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 36: The professor together with his three students have been called to court.
A. The
B. together
C. have
D. to
Question 37: Paulo has learnt English for five years ago.
A. Paulo
B. has learnt
C. English
D. ago
Question 38: Although they always argue with each other, but they are good friends.
A. always
B. with
C. but
D. friends
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest
in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 39: "Do you believe in what the boy says, Mary?" said Tom.
A. Tom asked Mary if she believed in what the boy said.
B. Tom asked Mary to believe in what the boy said.

C. Tom asked Mary whether she believes in what the boy says.
D. Tom said that Mary believed in what the boy said.
Question 40: People say he won a lot of money on the lottery.
A. He is said to have won a lot of money on the lottery.
B. He was said to win a lot of money on the lottery.
C. He is said that he won a lot of money on the lottery.
D. He won a lot of money on the lottery, it is said.
Question 41: John is fat because he eats so many chips.
A. If John didn’t eat so many chips, he would not be fat.
B. John is fat though he eats so many chips.
C. Being fat, John eats so many chips.
D. If John doesn’t eat so many chips, he will not be fat.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
As the twentieth century began, the importance of formal education in the United States
increased. The frontier had mostly disappeared and by 1910 most Americans lived in towns and
cities. Industrialization and the bureaucratization of economic life combined with a new emphasis
upon credentials and expertise to make schooling increasingly important for economic and social
mobility. Increasingly, too, schools were viewed as the most important means of integrating
immigrants into American society.


The arrival of a great wave of southern and eastern European immigrants at the turn of the
century coincided with and contributed to an enormous expansion of formal schooling. By 1920
schooling to age fourteen or beyond was compulsory in most states, and the school year was
greatly lengthened. Kindergartens, vacation schools, extracurricular activities, and vocational
education and counseling extended the influence of public schools over the lives of students,
many of whom in the larger industrial cities were the children of immigrants. Classes for adult
immigrants were sponsored by public schools, corporations, unions, churches, settlement
houses, and other agencies.

Reformers early in the twentieth century suggested that education programs should suit the
needs of specific populations. Immigrant women were once such population. Schools tried to
educate young women so they could occupy productive places in the urban industrial economy,
and one place many educators considered appropriate for women was the home.
Although looking after the house and family was familiar to immigrant women, American
education gave homemaking a new definition. In preindustrial economies, homemaking had
meant the production as well as the consumption of goods, and it commonly included incomeproducing activities both inside and outside the home, in the highly industrialized early-twentiethcentury United States, however, overproduction rather than scarcity was becoming a problem.
Thus, the ideal American homemaker was viewed as a consumer rather than a producer.
Schools trained women to be consumer homemakers cooking, shopping, decorating, and caring
for children "efficiently" in their own homes, or if economic necessity demanded, as employees in
the homes of others. Subsequent reforms have made these notions seem quite out-of-date.
Question 42: The word “means” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. advantages
B. probability
C. method
D. qualifications
Question 43: The phrase "coincided with" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. was influenced by
B. happened at the same time as
C. began to grow rapidly
D. ensured the success of
Question 44: According to the passage, one important change in United States education by the
1920's was that _____.
A. Most places required children to attend school
B. The amount of time spent on formal education was limited
C. New regulations were imposed on nontraditional education
D. Adults and children studied in the same classes
Question 45: Vacation schools and extracurricular activities are mentioned in paragraph 2 to
illustrate ____.
A. Alternatives to formal education provided by public schools

B. The importance of educational changes
C. Activities that competed to attract new immigrants to their programs
D. The increased impact of public schools on students
Question 46: According to the passage, early-twentieth century education reformers
believed that _____.
A. Different groups needed different kinds of education
B. Special programs should be set up in frontier communities to modernize them
C. Corporations and other organizations damaged educational progress.
D. More women should be involved in education and industry
Question 47: The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to _____.
A. consumption
B. production C. homemaking
D. education
Question 48: All of the following statements are true EXCEPT _____.
A. Immigrants played a part in changing American education system in the 20th century
B. Many foreign people found it easier to settle down in American thanks to schools
C. Prior to the 20th century, public education had never had any influence on students’ lives
D. Among the changes in American education system last century, one centred on women.


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: We spend about one-third of our lives sleeping. We know relatively little about
sleep.
A. We know relatively little about sleep; as a result, we spend about one-third of our lives
sleeping.
B. Despite spending about one-third of our lives sleeping, we know relatively little about sleep.
C. We shall know more about sleep if we spend more than one-third of our lives sleeping.
D. We spend about one-third of our lives sleeping so that we know relatively little about sleep.
Question 50: He was successful because he was determined to pursue personal goals. He was

not talented.
A. His determination to pursue personal goals made him successful and talented.
B. It was his determination to pursue personal goals, not talent, that contributed to his success.
C. His success lay in his natural ability, not in his determination to pursue personal goals.
D. In addition to his determination, his talent ensured his success in pursuing his goals.
----------THE END----------