Đề thi học sinh giỏi cấp huyện môn Tiếng Anh lớp 8 năm học 2021 2022

Đề thi HSG giỏi cấp huyện môn Tiếng Anh lớp 8 năm 2021-2022”

PHỊNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
HUYỆN THIỆU HĨA

ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 8
NĂM HỌC 2021 - 2022
Mônthi: Tiếng Anh
Thời gian : 150 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi: Ngày 28 tháng 3 năm 2022
(Đề thi gồm có 07 trang)

ĐỀ SỐ: 01

SECTION A: LISTENING
Task 1. Listen to the conversation and fill in the gaps in the table.
J.K. Rowling
Full name:

Joanne Kathleen Rowling

Job:

0) writer

Where from:

Bristol, 1)…………………….

Lives:

In Edinburgh with her husband and 2)………, Jessica

Husband’s job:

3)…………………….

Likes/Loves:

going to the 4)…………………

Now writing:

5) the ………………..Harry Potter book

Link tải file nghe:
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Question II. Listen to Thomas Lambert talking about his life as a ballet dancer. Choose the
correct answer
6. How did Thomas feel about doing performing arts?
A. It was important to maintain a family tradition.
B. It was something he was born to do.
C. He wasn’t talented enough to become a pianist.
D. he found it interesting and important.
7. Thomas went to different ballet schools because
A. he liked performing in different places.
B. he enjoyed travelling to different countries.
C. he needed to find out what suited him best.
D. he wanted to get the widest range of experience.
8. What does Thomas like best about ballet?
A. It’s difficult to get it right.

B. It involves more than movement.
C. Each ballet tells a story and it attracts him.
D. It’s fun performing in front of an audience.
9. What does Thomas like best about awards?
A. Some of them are worth more than others.
B. It is very important to him.
C. Dancers have to win them while they are young.
D. It’s difficult to win them because dancers have a short career.
10. Thomas says that by the time he stops dancing he wants to have
A. studied more about ballet.
B. started to teach ballet to new students.
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C. increased audiences for ballet.

D. made the most of his time on stage.

Question 2. Listen to Kevin and Maria. They are talking about Maria and her sister,
Catherine. Choose true or false.
11. Maria has brown, curly hair.

T/F

12. Maria and Catherine have the same colour eyes.

T/F

13. Catherine is taller than Maria.

T/F

14. Maria isn’t as outgoing as Catherine.

T/F

15. Both Catherine and Maria are independent.

T/F

SECTION B. PHONETICS
I. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from that of the
rest by writing your answer (A, B, C, or D) in the numbered box.
16. A. theatre

B. bathing

C. breathe

D. southern

17. A. headache

B. parachute

C. machine

D. brochure

18. A. Precious

B. preparation

C. pretty

D. repetition

II. Choose the letter (A, B, C or D) next to the word whose main stress is placed differently
from the others.
19. A. electronics

B. exceptional

C.electrify

20. A- disappear

B- represent

C- fertilizer

D. democracy
D- understand

SECTION C. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Choose the letter (A, B, C, or D) as the best answer to complete the following sentences.

21. Let’s paint the house ………. It will be much cheaper.
A. yourself

B. herself

C. themselves

D. ourselves

22. Jane really loves the …………. jewelry box that her parents gave her as a birthday present.
A. wooden brown nice

B. nice wooden brown

C. brown wooden nice

D. nice brown wooden

23. I hope he doesn’t keep us …….
A. waiting

B. to wait

C. wait

D. for waiting

24. There …………. changes of the climate for the last ten years.
A. are

B. has been

C. have been

D. were

25. Would you mind putting out your cigarette?- ………….
A. No, thanks

B. No, of course not

C. No, I wouldn’t

D. No, I don’t

26.This pyramid is believed…………. over 200 years.
A. to be built
B. to build
C. to be building
D. to have been built
27. Just think! Next month you’ll be …………. and it seems like only yesterday you were a baby.
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A. in your teenage

B. in your teens

C. at your teens

28. The match kicked ……… at 5 and has not finished.
A. at
B. off
C. on
29. There are billions of stars in ……………… space.
A. a

B. an

D. at your teenage
D. in

C. X

D. the

30. Hurry up! They’ve only got ….. seats left.
A. a little

B. a few

C. few

D. lots of

II. Give the correct form or tense of the verbs in brackets.

31. It is very dangerous to eat the vegetables (water)………with polluted water.
32. From the clink of dishes one can tell that supper (prepare) ………… .
33. The number of the residents (tell) ………… not to go out at nights recently.
34. None of the students (be) ………… late today.
35. I was just about (leave) ………… the office when the phone rang.
36. They (get) ………… married, but in the end they changed their mind.
37. They had a big party . They ( sing) ……………………all night last night.
38. I (ask) ……………….you to marry me , what would you say?
III. Write the correct form of the word to fill in the blanks in the following sentences.
39.I admire her ……..……beauty. She’s old but she’s still beautiful.

(TIME)

40. His health was seriously affected and he suffered from constant ……..… (SLEEP)
41. It was a long, slow film. I nearly died of …………………………….
42. Jim is one of the most…………….members of the committee.
43. The yellow color of five-colored sticky rice ……..……earth

(BORE)
(SPEAK)
(SYMBOL)

44. The nineteenth century faith in the power of science is now very ……..……
(QUESTION)
45.Who is the ……..…… of this wonderful art?

(CREATE)

IV. The following passage contains 5 errors. Identify and correct them. (46 – 50).
The big majority of students who make well in the Cambridge Proficiency Examination

have learnt to use a good monolingual dictionary effectively. Such dictionaries provide
information, not just about the meanings of words but about their pronunciation and grammar as
well. A student who studies how to use a dictionary effectively will be possible to work
independently for much of the time, and will gain considerable insight into the workings of the
English language. He or she will be able to confirm the meanings of the words in a text which
contextual clues are insufficient, pronounce words accurately by studying the phonetic
transcriptions, and use words accurately both when speaking or writing. Make sure you make
room for at least one good monolingual dictionary on your bookshelf- and then make sure you
use it on a regular basis!
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SECTION D. READING
I. Read the following passage carefully and fill in each gap with one suitable word.
VANCOUVER
Vancouver in western Canada is named (51) ………………Captain George Vancouver of the
British Royal Navy. However, Captain Vancouver was not the first European to visit the area the coast (52) …………………already been explored by the Spanish. Nor did Captain Vancouver
spend many days there, even (53) …………………the scenery amazed him and everyone else (54)
………………………was travelling with him.
The scenery still amazes visitors to the city of Vancouver today. First-time visitors who are in
search of breathtaking views are usually directed to a beach about ten minutes (55)
……………………the city centre. There, looking out over the sailing boats racing across the blue water,
visitors see Vancouver’s towering skyline backed by the magnificent Coast Mountains.
The city is regularly picked by international travel associations as one of the world’s (56)
…………………tourist destinations. They are only confirming what the two million residents and eight
million tourists visiting Greater Vancouver (57) ……………………single year are always saying: there

is simply (58) …………………other place on earth quite (59) …………………it. It’s not just the gorgeous
setting that appeals to people, (60) ……………………also Vancouver's wide range of sporting, cultural
and entertainment facilities.
II. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each
space. Write the answers on your answer sheet.
Some time ago, scientists began experiments to find out (61) ________ it would be
possible to set up a “village” under the sea. A special room was built and lowered (62) ________
the water of Port Sudan in the Red Sea. For 29 days, five men lived (63) ________ a depth of 40
feet. At a (64) ________ lower level, another two divers stayed for a week in a smaller “house”.
On returning to the surface, the men said that they had experienced no difficulty in breathing and
had (65) ________ many interesting scientific observations. The captain of the party, Commander
Cousteau, spoke of the possibility of (66) ________ the seabed. He said that some permanent
stations were to be set up under the sea, and some undersea farms would provide food for the
growing population of the world.
The divers in both “houses” spent most of their time (67) ________ the bottom of the sea.
On four occasions, they went down to 360 feet and observed many extraordinary (68) ________
of the marine life, some of which had never been seen before. During their stay, Commander
Cousteau and his divers reached a depth of 1,000 feet and witnessed a gathering of an immense
(69) ________ of crabs which numbered, perhaps, hundreds of millions. They also found out that
it was (70) ________ to move rapidly in the water in a special vessel known as a “diving saucer”.
61. A. which

B. what

C. how

D. whether

62. A. underneath

B. into

C. down

D. below

63. A. in

B. at

C. on

D. from

64. A. any

B. more

C. much

D. some

65. A. made

B. exercised

C. caught

D. done

66. A. implanting

B. transplanting

C. growing

D. cultivating

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Đề thi HSG giỏi cấp huyện môn Tiếng Anh lớp 8 năm 2021-2022”

67. A. inquiring

B. exploring

C. imploring

D. enquiring

68. A. systems

B. forms

C. breeds

D. castes

69. A. pack

B. herd

C. school

D. flock

70. A. able

B. possible

C. hardly

D. capable

Question III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question. Write
your answers in the space provided.
It takes a long time to raise a family of owlets, so the great horned owl begins early in the
year.In January and February, or as late as March in the North, the male calls to the female with a
resonant hoot. The female is larger than the male. She sometimes reaches a body length of
twenty-two to twenty- four inches, with a wingspread up to fifty inches. To impress her, the male
does a strange courtship dance, lie bobs. lie bows. He ruffled his feathers and hops around with
an important air. He flutters from limb to limb and makes flying sorties into the air. Sometimes he
returns with an offering of food. They share the repast, after which she joins the dance, hopping
and bopping about as though keeping time to the beat of an inner drum.Owls are poor home
builders. They prefer to nest in a large hollow in a tree or even to occupy the deserted nest of a
hawk or crow. These structures are large and rough, built of sticks and bark and lined with leaves
and feathers. Sometimes owls nest on a rocky ledge, or even on the bare ground. The mother lays

two or three round, dull white eggs. Then she stoically settles herself on the nest and spreads her
feather skirts about her to protect her precious charges from snow and cold.It is five weeks before
the first downy white owlet pecks its way out of the shell. As the young birds feather out, they
look like wise old men with their wide eyes and quizzical expressions. They clamor for food and
keep the parents busy supplying mice, squirrels, rabbits, crayfish, and beetles. Later in the season
baby crows are taken. Migrating songsters, waterfowl, and game birds all fall prey to the hungry
family. It is nearly ten weeks before fledglings leave the nest to search for their own food. The
parent birds weary of family life by November and drive the young owls away to establish
hunting ranges of their own.
71: What is the topic of this passage?
A. Raising a family of great horned owls
B. Mating rituals of great horned owls
C. Nest building of great horned owls
D. Habits of young great horned owls
72: It can be inferred from the passage that the courtship of great horned owls .
A. takes place on the ground
B. is an active process
C. happens in the fall
D. involves the male alone
73: The phrase “a resonant hoot” in the passage is closet in meaning to……… .
A. a sound
B. an instrument
C. a movement
D. an offering of food.
74: According to the passage, great horned owls .
A. are discriminate nest builders
B. need big nests for their numerous eggs
C. may inhabit a previously used nest
D. build nests on tree limbs
75: The phrase “ precious chagges” in paragraph 3 refers to

A. the eggs
B. the nest
C. the hawks and crows
D. other nesting owls.
76: According to the passage, which of the following is the mother owl’s job?
A. To initiate the courtship ritual
B. To feed the young
C. To sit on the nest.
D. To build the nest
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77: According to the passage, young owlets eat everything EXCEPT .
A. other small birds
B. insects
C. small mammals
D. nuts and seeds
78: In line 15, the word “they” refers to .
A. the wise old men
B. the adult birds
C. the young birds
D. the prey
79: What can be inferred from the passage about the adult parents of the young great horned
owls?
A. They are sorry to see their young leave home.
B. They are lazy and careless about feeding the small owlets.

C. They probably don’t see their young after November.
D. They don’t eat while they are feeding their young.
80: The phrase “weary of’ is closest in meaning to .
A. tired of
B. become sad about
C. support
D. are attracted to
SECTION E. WRITING
I. Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the
sentence printed above it.
81.John postponed the meeting for an hour.
 John put ....................................................................................................................
82. Their daughter is both pretty and good-natured.
 Their daughter is not ...................................................................................................
83. Although his leg was broken, he managed to get out of the car.
 Despite ......................................................................................................................
84. “That’s a lovely new dress, Jean,” said her mother.
 Jean’s mother complimented
85. Mary wishes she had spoken her mind at the meeting.
 Mary regretted ……………………………………………………..
II. Complete the second sentence, using the word given in bold. Do not change the word
given.
86. They cancelled the match because of the bad weather .

HAD

 ……………………………………………………..
87. They have reported that the number of people using acupuncture is increasing. BE
 ……………………………………………………..
88. You can use it as long as you like, and it won’t wear out.

MATTER

 …………………..............................................................................................................................................................................................
89. The permit expires at the end of this month.
 ……………………………………………………………………
90. Everyone was surprised to see Geoff leave the party early.

VALID
SURPRISE

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Đề thi HSG giỏi cấp huyện môn Tiếng Anh lớp 8 năm 2021-2022”

 ……………………………………………………………………
III. Paragraph writing:
Write a paragraph (from 130 – 150 words) about benefits of learning online.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………
--------------THE END-----------Họ và tên thí sinh:.......................................SBD:..........
Cán bộ coi thi khơng cần giải thích gì thêm.

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PHỊNG GIÁO DỤ VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
HUYỆN THIỆU HĨA
ĐỀ SỐ: 01

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 8
NĂM HỌC 2021 - 2022
Môn: Tiếng Anh- LỚP 8 THCS
Ngày thi: Ngày 28 tháng 3 năm 2022
Hướng dẫn chấm gồm có 03 trang

SECTION A: LISTENING
Part 1 :
1. England

2. daughter

3. doctor

4. cinema

5. fifth

Part II
6. B

7. D

8. B

9. A

10. C

Part III
11. T
12. F
13. F
14. T
15. T
SECTION B. PHONETICS
I. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from that of the
rest by writing your answer (A, B, C, or D) in the numbered box.
16. A
17. A
18. C
II. Choose the letter (A, B, C or D) next to the word whose main stress is placed differently
from the others
19. A

20. C

SECTION C. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Choose the letter (A, B, C, or D) as the best answer to complete the following sentences.
21. D

22. D

23. A

24. B

25. B

26. D

27. B

28. B

29. C

30. B

II. Give the correct form or tense of the verbs in brackets.
31. watered
32. is being prepared
33. has been told
34. were
35. to leave
36. were going to get
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37. were singing
38. Were I to ask / Were …….. to ask
III. Write the correct form of the word to fill in the blanks in the following sentences.
39. timeless
40. sleeplessness
41. boredom
42. outspoken
43. symbolizes
44. questionable
45. creator
IV. Find a mistake in each sentence then correct it..
46. Line 1: makedo
47. Line 3: studieslearns
48. Line 4: possibleable
49. Line 6: whichwhere/ in which
50. Line 7: orand
SECTION D. READING
I. Read the following passage, then choose the letter (A, B, C, D) that best fits each of the
blanks. (10*0,2=2,0 points)
51. after
56. best

52. Had
57. Every

53. though
58. No

54. Who/that
59. Like

55. from
60. but

II. Read the text and questions below.. For each question, mark the correct letter A, B, C or
D on your answer sheet.
61. D
66. D

62. B
67. B

63. B
68. B

64. C
69. C

65. A
70. B

III. Read the text below and think of one word which best fits each space.
71. A
76. C

72. B
77. D

73. A
78. C

74. C
79. C

75. A
80. A

SECTION E. WRITING
I. Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the
sentence printed above it.
81. John put the meeting off for an hour
82. Their daughter is not only pretty but also good-natured.
83. Despite his broken leg/ the fact that his leg was broken, he managed to get out of the car.
84. Jean’s mother complimented her on her lovely new dress.
85. Mary regretted not speaking her mind at the meeting./ not having spoken…...

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II. Complete the second sentence, using the word given in bold. Do not change the word

given.
86. If it had not been for the bad weather, they wouldn’t have cancelled the match.
OR: Had it not been for the bad weather, they wouldn’t have cancelled the match .
OR: Had the weather not been bad, they wouldn’t have cancelled the match .
87. The number of people using acupuncture has been reported to be increasing.
88. No matter how long you use it, it won’t wear out.
89. The permit is not valid after/ from (the end of) this month.
90. To everyone’s surprise, Geoff left the party early.
III. Paragraph writing:
Write a paragraph (from 120 – 150 words) about benefits of learning online.
- Bố cục rõ ràng, chặt chẽ và đúng cấu trúc viết đoạn văn: 0,5 đ
- Nội dung bài viết đầy đủ thông tin: 1 đ
- Khơng có lỗi ngữ pháp và chính tả: 0,5 đ
Cách tính lỗi: - 01 lỗi ngữ pháp (cấu trúc, từ vựng…) trừ
0,05
- 01 lỗi chính tả trừ 0,01
- Viết ít hơn số từ qui định trừ 0,5đ
- Viết nhiều hơn số từ qui định trừ 0,5 đ
Cách chấm:
- Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0.2.
- Hoặc tổng số câu đúng chia cho 5
Tổng điểm: 20 điểm
* Lưu ý: Nếu thí sinh có câu trả lời khác với hướng dẫn chấm trên đây nhưng đúng thì
giám khảo vẫn cho điểm tương ứng với câu đó.
---------------THE END-------------

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PHỊNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
HUYỆN ĐƠNG SƠN
ĐỀ SỐ: 02

ĐỀ THI KSCL ĐỘI TUYỂN HỌC SINH GIỎI
LỚP 8 - NĂM HỌC 2021- 2022
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
(Ngày thi: Ngày 19 tháng 3 năm 2022)

PART A: LISTENING (15 pts)
Question I. You will hear a conversation at the customs in Gatwick Airport . As you
listen, fill in the form below. (5 pts)
Last name: (1)_______________________________________
Sex: (2 )_____________________________________________
Date of birth: (3)______________________________________
Reason for travel in the UK: (4)_________________________
Address in the UK: 35 Halefield (5)_______, Tottenham, London
Question II. Tim and Mrs. Brady are making small talk. Are these statements True or
False? (5 pts)
STT
6

Statements
They are meeting for the first time

7

8

Tim was a student in Mrs. Brady’s class
Tim is a college student now

9

Mrs. Brady ends the conversation

10

They make plans to meet again

True

False

Question III: Listening to the second newspaper article about Halloween and choose the
best answer A or B, C, D. (5 pts)
11. What animals are associated with Halloween?
A. black cats, frogs, mine and spiders
B. black cats, frogs, mice and spiders
C. cats, frogs, mice and spiders
D. All are correct
12. What did poor people go around houses asking for in the past?
A. sweets
B. pumpkins
C. milk
D. food
13. Halloween game has been for children in ___________.

A. Asia
B. America
C. Europe
D. Australia
14. How many witches does Shakespeare's play "Macbeth" open with?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
15. When did the "witchcraft trials" take place in the state of Massachusetts?
A. in 1692
B. In 1962
C. In 1269
D. In 1629
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PART B: PHONETICS (5 pts)
Question I: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word
whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following
questions.
16. A. rugged
B. landed
C. wicked
D. coughed
17. A. precious

B. preparation
C. pretty
D. repetition
18. A. chimpanzee
B. referee
C. refugee
D. committee
Question II: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that
differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following
questions.
19. A. dormitory
B. category
C. priority
D. ordinary
20. A. influential
B. accessible
C. rudimentary
D. incidental
PART C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)
Question I: Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10 pts)
21. We bought some ___________________.
A. German lovely old glasses
B. lovely German old glasses
C. lovely old German glasses
D. old lovely German glasses
22. No sooner _________to marry Jack ____________to have serious doubts.
A. had Carol agreed / than she began
B. Carol has agreed / than she began
C. had Carol agreed / than she begins
D. had Carol agreed / than she had begun

23. She insisted that the reporter____________her as his source of information.
A. not mention
B. doesn’t mention
C. hadn’t mentioned
D. didn’t mention
24. ____________an emergency arise, call 911.
A. Should
B. Can
C. Does
D. Will
25. To the best of my ___________ that doctor’s name was Jane.
A. thinking

B. recollection

C. mind

D. remembrance

26. I was ________ in the book I was reading and didn’t hear the phone.
A. submerged
B. distracted
C. gripped
D. engrossed
27. Robert and his wife ________ to my house for tea yesterday evening.
A. came round
B. came about
C. came down
D. came away
28. Boy: “What is your greatest phobia?” Girl: “____________________”

A. I'm afraid not.
B. Worms, definitely!
C. Probably people who smoke.
D. I haven't made up my mind
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29. Let me _____________ you a nice warm bath and you’ll feel a lot better
A. make

B. run

C. get

D. build

30. I don’t think you have been watering the plants near the gate. The soil is _________.
A. as dry as rice
B. as dry as a tile
C. as dry as a bone
D. as dry as wood
Question II: The passage below contains 5 mistakes. Recognise the mistakes and write their
correct forms in your answer sheet. (5 pts)

Line
1

2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14

It is often said that books are always good friends and reading is an active
mental process. unlike TV, books make you to use your brain. By reading, you
think more and become smarter. Reading improves concentration and focus.
Reading books takes brain power. It requires you to focus for what you are
reading for long periods. Unlike magazines, Internet posts or e-Mails that might
contain small amount of information. Books tell the whole story". Since you must
concentrate in order to read, you will get better at concentration. Many studies
show if you do not use your memory; you lose them. Reading helps you stretch
your memory muscles. Reading requires remembering details, facts and figures
and in literature, plot lines, themes and characters.
Books give you knowledge of the other cultures and places. The more
information you have got, the richer your knowledge is. Books can expand your
horizons by letting you see what other cities and countries have to offer before
you visit them.

Question III: Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. (8 pts)

36. Don’t worry. We ( finish) _________the report by 11 o’clock.
37. Fred was pleased (admit) __________to the college.
38. So fast the thief (run) ________ that the police couldn’t catch him.
39. Trade has gone from bad to worse and staff ( lay) ________ off now.
40. Peter: I realize I (not say)__________ that.
Mary: That all right I have forgiven.
41- 42. He (follow)______ my advice before, he (not be) __________in dangerous for the time
being.
43. The small room was filled with boxes of different sizes (deliver) __________the day before.
Question IV: Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. (7 pts)
44. Not ___________ on such a hot day, the beach was crowded.
SURPRISE
45. Street noise is one of the __________ of living in a big city.
ADVANTAGE
46. Tim is one of the _______ on the boat trip on lake Michigan.
PARTICIPATE
47. This word is very difficult to say. I always __________ it.
PRONUNCIATION
48. The________of the agriculture in our country is very necessary.
ELECTRIFY
49. _________, there are black holes in space .
THEORY
50. Vietnamese people are happy to talk about their past and
FORGIVE
show an amazing resilience and ________.
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PART D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
Question I: Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase
for each space. (10 pts)
It is now extremely popular to take a gap year between school and university or university
and work and to spend it traveling. There are plenty of reasons to recommend it - travel broadens
the mind, you’re (51)_____young once, life isn’t a rehearsal and so on. And if you don’t do it,
you may always regret that you didn’t take the (52) _____. In the end, there’s only one response:
well, why not?
The idea may have its roots in the 18th century Grand tour once (53) _____by the young,
rich and noble, but it is the middle classes who have turned it (54) ___ something that 200,000
British youngsters do every year. (55) ___ has never been so easy and cheap, with more places
open to tourists than ever. Also, the gap year is now (56) ___ by many employers and
universities.
The States, the Far East and Australia were among the original (57)_____and although
these remain in the top five, young explorers are now going even further. The most far-flung
corners of the world are (58) ___ in popularity year by year. About $700 will buy a student ticket
(59) ___ for six months that will take you from London to Calcutta, Singapore, Bangkok, Perth,
Sydney, Auckland, Fiji, Tahiti, Los Angeles and (60)…………..again.
51. A. merely
52. A. occasion
53. A. undertaken
54. A. up
55. A. Voyage
56. A. received
57. A. destinations
58. A. spreading
59. A. genuine
60. A. now

B. only
B. moment
B. gone
B. out
B. Travel
B. stood
B. endings
B. expanding
B. valid
B. here

C. slightly
C. chance
C. done
C. over
C. Excursion
C. accepted
C. landings
C. enlarging
C. effective
C. back

D. simply
D. luck
D. given
D. into
D. Tour
D. admitted
D. terminals

D. growing
D. legal
D. then

Question II: Supply the most suitable word for each blank. (10 pts)
English has for more than a century and a half been (61)_____ a world language. The
number of people who (62) _____ it as their mother tongue has been (63) _____at between three
hundred million. and four hundred million. It is (64) _____ as an official language in countries
where 1.5 billion people live. In China, the importance attached (65)____ learning English is such
that a televised teaching (66)____drew audiences of up to 100 million.
However, this spread of English throughout the world is relatively recent. In the late
sixteenth century English was spoken by just under five million people. (67)____ arrival of
English in North America- was the key step in its world-wide expansion. The United States is a
huge commercial market and this has tended to promote the English language in many
(68)____nations. About eighty percent of the data (69) ____on the world's computers(70)
____believed to be in English and nowadays insufficient knowledge of English can be a problem
in business.
Question III: Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. (10 pts)
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Animation traditionally is done by hand-drawing or painting successive frames of an object,
each slightly different than the preceding frame. In computer animation, although the computer
may be the one to draw the different frames, in most cases the artist will draw the beginning and
ending frames and the computer will produce the drawings between the first and the last drawing.
This is generally referred to as computer-assisted animation, because the computer is more of a

helper than an originator.
In full computer animation, complex mathematical formulas are used to produce the final
sequence of pictures. These formulas operate on extensive databases of numbers that define the
objects in the pictures as they exist in mathematical space. The database consists of endpoints,
and color and intensity information. Highly trained professionals are needed to produce such
effects because animation that obtains high degrees of realism involves computer techniques for
three-dimensional transformation, shading, and curvatures.
High-tech computer animation for film involves very expensive computer systems along with
special color terminals or frame buffers. The frame buffer is nothing more than a giant image
memory for viewing a single frame. It temporarily holds the image for display on the screen.
A camera can be used to film directly from the computer's display screen, but for the highest
quality images possible, expensive film recorders are used. The computer computes the positions
and colors for the figures in the picture, and sends this information to the recorder, which
captures it on film. Sometimes, however, the images are stored on a large magnetic disk before
being sent to the recorder. Once this process is completed, it is repeated for the next frame. When
the entire sequence has been recorded on the film, the film must be developed before the
animation can be viewed. If the entire sequence does not seem right, the motions must be
corrected, recomputed, redisplayed, and rerecorded. This approach can be very expensive and
time consuming. Often, computer-animation companies first do motion tests with simple
computer-generated line drawings before selling their computers to the task of calculating the
high-resolution, realistic-looking images.
71. What aspect of computer animation does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The production process
B. The equipment needed
C. The high cost
D. The role of the artist
72. According to the passage, in computer-assisted animation the role of the computer is to draw
the____________.
A. first frame B. middle frames
C. last frame

D. entire sequence of frames
73. The word "they" in the second paragraph refers to_______________.
A. formulas
B. databases
C. numbers
D. objects
74. According to the passage, the frame buffers mentioned in the third paragraph are used
to_______________.
A. add color to the images
B. expose several frames at the same time
C. store individual images
D. create new frames
75. According to the passage, the positions and colours of the figures in high-tech animation are
determined by_______________.
A. drawing several versions
B. enlarging one frame at a lime
C. analyzing the sequence from different angles
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D. using computer calculations
76. The word "captures" in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to________.
A. separates
B. registers
C. describes
D. numbers

77. The word "Once" in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to___________.
A. before
B. since
C. after
D. while
78. According to the passage, how do computer-animation companies often test motion?
A. They experiment with computer-generated line drawings.
B. They hand-draw successive frames.
C. They calculate high-resolution images.
D. They develop extensive mathematical formulas.
79. The word "task" in the 4th paragraph is closest in meaning to___________.
A. possibility
B. position
C. time
D. job
80. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?
A. Computers have reduced the costs of animation.
B. In the future, traditional artists will no longer be needed.
C. Artists are unable to produce drawings as high in quality as computer drawings.
D. Animation involves a wide range of technical and artistic skills.
PART E: WRITING (20 pts)
Question I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as
possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5 pts)
81. I rarely sleep in the afternoon.
I’m not in _____________________________________________________.
82. Although Mary was exhausted, she agreed to join in the activity.
Exhausted _____________________________________________________.
83. It is rumoured that some children were kidnapped last week.
 Some children______________________________________________.
84. Peter failed to understand how serious his illness was until he spoke to the doctor.

Not until __________________________________________________.
85. Her success went beyond her expectation.
Never ________________________________________________________.
Question II: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as
possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. Do not change the form of the given
word (5 pts)
86. Although the weather changed, the picnic went ahead as planed. (CHANGE)
 In spite ________________________________________________________.
87. Those two makes of car are practically the same.
(HARDLY)
 There__________________________________________________________.
88. I advise you to think carefully before accepting William’s offer. (BETTER)
 You ___________________________________________________________.
89. Jane was sure there was no mistake in her homework.
(NOTHING)
 Jane___________________________________________________________.
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90. When they broke the news, she stayed perfectly calm and controlled. (HAIR)
 When __________________________________________________________.
Question III. Facebook dominates the free-time for too many people especially the students.
It can have negative effect on their study and the physical development.
Do you agree or disagree? Write a paragraph (150 words) to express your opinion.
----------------- THE END---------------

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PHỊNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
HUYỆN ĐƠNG SƠN
ĐỀ SỐ: 02

ĐỀ THI KSCL ĐỘI TUYỂN HỌC SINH GIỎI
LỚP 8 - NĂM HỌC 2021- 2022
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
(Ngày thi: 19 tháng 3 năm 2022)

ĐÁP ÁN:
PART A: LISTENING (15 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
Question I.
1. BUTCHER 2. male
3. 14 April 1966
4. to study English 5. road
Question II.
6. F
7. T
8. F
9. T
10. F
Question III.
11. B
12. D

13. B
14. C
15.A
PART B: PHONETICS (5 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
16.D
17.C
18.D
19.C
20.B
PART C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 điểm)
Question I.
21. C
22. A
23. A
24. A
25. B
26. D
27.A
28. B
29. B
30. C
Question II.
MISTAKES
line
CORRECTIONS
31.
to use
2
use
32.

for
4
on
33.
amount
6
pieces
34.
them
8
it
35.
The other
11
other
Question III.
36. shall/will have finished
40. shouldn’t have said
37. to be admitted
41. Had he followed/were he to have
followed
38. did the thief run
42. wouldn’t be
39. are being laid
43. delivered
Question IV.
44. surprisingly
48. electrification
45. disadvantages
49. theoretically

46. participants
50. forgiveness
47. mispronounce
PART D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts) - Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm
Question I.
51. B
52.C
53. A
54. D
55. B
56. C
57. A
58. D
59. B
60. C
Question II.
61. called
62.speak
63. estimated
64. recognized
65. to
66. course
67. the
68. other
69. stored
70. is
Question II
71.A
72.B
73.D

74.C
75. D
76. B
77. C
78. A
79. D
80. D
PART E: WRITING (20 pts)


Đề thi HSG giỏi cấp huyện môn Tiếng Anh lớp 8 năm 2021-2022”

Question I (5 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
81.
I’m not in a / the habit of sleeping in the afternoon.
82.
Exhausted as / though Mary was / might be, she agreed to join the activity.
83.
Some children are rumoured to have been kidnapped last week
84
Not until Peter spoke to the doctor did he understand how serious his illness was
85
Never had she expected she was so successful
Question II (5 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
86.
In spite of the/a change in the weather, The picnic went ahead as planed
87.
There are hardly any differences between those two makes of car.
88.
You had better think carefully before accepting William’s offer.

89.
Jane was sure there was nothing/nothing was wrong with her home work.
90.
When they broke the news, she did not turn a hair.
Question III. Facebook dominates the free-time for too many people especially the students.
It can have negative effect on their study and the physical development.
Do you agree or disagree? Write a paragraph (150 words) to express your opinion.
3đ
Task achievement:
- fully developed position
- well supported ideas
Coherence and cohesion:
- ideas are connected logically
- different means to link ideas are used ( pronouns,
synonyms, linking words, repetition).

2đ

Lexicology:
- wide range of vocabulary used
- academic words
- accurate use of vocabulary (spelling, meaning,
collocation)

2đ

Grammar:
- wide rage of structures (simple/complex/compound
sentences, emphasis, inversion…)
- accurate (tense, patterns)

2đ

Persuasiveness:

1đ

Tổng điểm toàn bài 100 điểm
Thang điểm 20
Tổng điểm các câu đúng
Điểm bài thi =
5
__________THE END___________

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Đề thi HSG giỏi cấp huyện môn Tiếng Anh lớp 8 năm 2021-2022”

PHỊNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
HUYỆN THIỆU HĨA
ĐỀ SỐ: 03

ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 8 LẦN 1
NĂM HỌC 2021-2022
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH
Ngày thi: 28/02/2022
Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

(Đề này gồm 06 trang )

Part A : LISTENING (15pts )
Part I. Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A
NUMBER for each answer. (5 pts)
Link tải file nghe:
/>
VIDEO LIBRARY APPLICATION FORM
Surname:
Jones
First name:
Louise Cynthia
Address:
Apartment 1, (1) ______ Black Street, Highbridge
Postcode:
(2) _______
Telephone:
(3) _______
(home)
9456 1309
(work)
Driver's (4) _______ number:
2020 BD
Date of birth:
Day: 25th
Month: (5) _______ Year: 1977
Part II. A young woman talks about recently discovering that she has a half-sister. Listen
and decide whether each of the following statements is True (T) or False (F). (5 pts)
6. Her family is quite big.
T/F

7. Her younger sister is 20 years old.
T/F
8. Her half-sister is living in Italy.
T/F
9. She has never met her half-sister.
T/F
10. She has no intention of getting to know her half-sister.
T/F
Part III. Listen to the passage and choose the best answer according to what you hear. (5
pts)
11. There are ________ national parks in the US.
A. 30
B. 32
C. 50
D. 52
12. National parks account for ________ of the total land area of the country.
A. 3%
B. 13%
C. 30%
D. 33%
13. National parks attract ________ visitors each year.
A. billions of
B. millions of
C. a billion
D. a million
14. People cut down trees for ________ .
A. barks
B. wood
C. goods
D. other parts

15. Devastating fires in large areas of national parks are caused by ________ .
A. visitors’ vehicles B. lack of money C. careless people D. the parks’ staff
PART B: PHONETICS (5 pts)
Question I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the
rest in the same line. (3 pts)
16. A. chorus
B. charity
C. ache
D. orchestra
17. A. without
B. cloth
C. wealth
D. marathon
18. A. flew
B. few
C. sewage
D. drew
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