Bộ đề thi học sinh giỏi tiếng anh lớp 6

PHÒNG GIÁaiOf DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 6
NĂM HỌC: 2017-2018
HUYỆN THANH OAI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Chú ý: - Bộ đề thi này gồm có 06 trang, từ trang 01 đến trang 06.
- Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bộ đề thi này.

Điểm Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 1: Số phách
(Do Chủ tịch hội
- Bằng số:…………….. ………………………………………... đồng chấm thi ghi)

- Bằng chữ:…………… Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 2: …………………..
………………………... ………………………………………...

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)

Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts)
Time

Time is (1) ..................................... that you should never waste. Once an (2)
..................................... is gone, it is gone forever. You should make the most of every
minute.
Time is a funny thing. Some days (3) ..................................... by so slowly.
Those are the days that you do things that (4) ..................................... fun. When you are
having fun, time just flies by. Time is made up of (5) ..................................... units.
(6) ..................................... turn into minutes, minutes turn into hours, hours turn into days,
days turn into weeks,weeks turn into months, and months turn into years.
We measure our (7) ..................................... by time. We are very concerned with time.
Even little children are very conscious (8) ..................................... time.

Little children often want to appear older, so if you (9) ..................................... a three-year-
old how old he is, he will often say three and a (10) ......................................
Many of our sayings are based on time.
"Give me a minute.", "Hold on a second.", "I'm (11) ..................................... out of time.",
"Time's up.", "I just want an hour of your time."
All of (12) ..................................... are common things that we say, and they're all based on
time.
We are a society that lives by the clock.
We almost all (13) ..................................... watches, and we glance at our watches a lot.
Time is something that we can't see, (14) ..................................... it is a big factor in our lives.
How many times a day do you look at a watch or a clock?
I bet you'd be surprised at just (15) ..................................... many times you do.

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-> Your answers:

1.......................... 2.......................... 3.......................... 4.......................... 5..........................

.......... .......... .......... .......... ...........

6.......................... 7.......................... 8.......................... 9.......................... 10........................

.......... .......... .......... .......... ..........

11........................ 12........................ 13........................ 14........................ 15........................

.......... .......... .......... .......... ..........

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

16. A. brother B. summer C. orange D. dozen

17. A. plane B. paddy C. math D. flat

18. A. stereo B. lemonade C. eraser D. desk

19. A. workers B. students C. teachers D. doctors

20. A. washes B. couches C. sometimes D. benches

-> Your answers:

16........................ 17........................ 18........................ 19........................ 20........................

.......... .......... .......... .......... ..........

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.

(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. A. motorbike B. badminton C. pagoda D. citadel

22. A. vacation B. collection C. tomato D. lemonade

23. A. canteen B. country C. classroom D. housework

24. A. student B. desert C. housework D. routine

25. A. accident B. telephone C. engineer D. motorbike

-> Your answers:

21........................ 22........................ 23........................ 24........................ 25........................

.......... .......... .......... .......... ..........

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)
I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

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26. Is there ..................................... else you want, Mrs. Thuy? – No, thanks. That’s enough
today.

A. a B. an C. some D. anything

27. ..................................... go fishing this weekend? - Good idea!

A. What do we B. Are we going C. Would you like D. Why don’t we

28. Listen! Who..................................... to your form teacher over there? – That’s my father.

A. is talking B. does talk C. is going to talk D. talks

29. Let’s go to the bakery and buy ten ..................................... of bread! – Yes, let’s.

A. loaves B. bars C. bottles D. cans

30. All of these students come to school in time. They’re never late .....................................
school.

A. to B. in C. for D. at

31. Mum! Please buy some cooking oil. There ..................................... much cooking oil in the
bottle.

A. aren’t B. is not C. isn’t D. B & C are correct

32. Is Phanxipang..................................... moutain in the world? - No, just in Viet Nam.

A. the higher B. the high C. highest D. the highest

33. Mr. Thang’s grandwoman is ..................................... woman. She is ninety years old.

A. a old B. an old C. not young D. not very young

34. Our roads are quite dangerous places. All of us .....................................

A. must be careful B. can be careful C. mustn’t be careless D. Both A&C are correct

35. My father doesn’t want much sugar in coffee. Just ....................................., please.

A. few B. a few C. little D. a little

-> Your answers:

26........................ 27........................ 28........................ 29........................ 30........................

.......... .......... .......... .......... ..........

31........................ 32........................ 33........................ 34........................ 35........................

.......... .......... .......... .......... ..........

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences. (10  0.2 = 2.0 pts)

36. That boy drives so fast. It's very …...................... for the other people. DANGER

37. I like this kind of tree because it has a lot of green…...................... LEAF

38. Trung’s mother, Mrs. Hanh, is a very kind …...................... POLICE

39. There are some …...................... in the garden. They are planting roses. WOMAN

40. Of all the structures in the world we know, the Great Wall of China is the LONG
…...................... one.

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41. My new friend is very careful. He drives his car…...................... CARE
42. There are ten …...................... in our school library. BOOK
43. Do you know the …...................... of this tree? – I don’t know. HIGH
44. My birthday is on the …...................... of August. THIRTY
45. What 's your …......................? - I weigh100 pounds. WEIGH

-> Your answers:

36 37 38 39 40
............................ ........................... ...........................
.............................. ............................ ...... ....... .......

.... ......

41 42 43 44 45
............................ ........................... ...........................
.............................. ............................ ...... ....... .......

.... ......

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)
46. Your sister (do) ……………… the housework every day?
47. Don’t make such a noise! Our grandparents (sleep) ……………… in their room nearby.
48. What time your father (go) ……………… to work in the morning?
49. The students (visit) ……………… President Ho Chi Minh’s Mausoleum this weekend.
50. All the students in our school mustn’t (eat) ……………… food in the classes.

-> Your answers:

46. 47. 48. 49. 50.

........................... ........................... ........................... ........................... ...........................

....... ....... ....... ....... .......

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

Mr. Hung is an engineer in (51)……………… very big factory. He lives in a small

apartment on the (52)……………… floor of a high building in Ho Chi Minh City. The

factory is not near (53) ……………… so he usually goes to work by bus, he rarely goes by

motorbike. He (54)……………… home at 6.45 and come to his office at about 7.15 in the

morning. (55)……………… is Saturday morning now, and Mr. Hung doesn't go to work, he

is (56)……………… home, in bed. On Saturdays, he (57) ……………… at about seven

o'clock. Then he sits in the living room and (58) ……………… breakfast with his wife at

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home. On Saturday afternoon, he usually plays tennis (59)……………… some of his friends

or goes swimming in the swimming pool. On Saturday evenings, he (60)……………… at

home, he often goes out to play chess with our neighbors. He's a good man and he's very kind

to all of us.

51. A. a B. an C. the D. any

52. A. two B. double C. twice D. second

53. A. house B. he’s house C. his house D. him house

54. A. leave B. is leave C. leaving D. leaves

55. A. It B. It’s C. Its D. They

56. A. in B. at C. on D. with

57. A. get up B. gets up C. getting up D. is geting up

58. A. has B. having C. have D. to have

59. A. in B. with C. to D. about

60 A. not stay B. isn’t stay C. doesn’t stay D. no staying

-> Your answers:

51. 52. 53. 54. 55.

56. 57. 58. 59. 60.

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. (10  0.2 =2.0 pts)
New Year is one of the most important festivals in the United States. On New Year’s Eve,

most (61)……………… go to the parties. At twelve (62) ………………at night, everyone
says “Happy New Year” and they wish their friends (63) ……………… relatives good luck.
New Year’s parties usually last a long (64) ……………… . Many people don’t go
(65)……………… until next morning. Another holiday, Halloween, is mainly for children.
On this holiday, children dress as witches, ghosts (66) ……………… others. Most children go
from house (67) ……………… house asking for candy or fruit. If people at the house don’t

give (68)……………… candy, the children will (69)……………… a trick on them. But this
hardly happens. Almost people (70)……………… them candy or fruit.
-> Your answers:

61. 62. 63. 64. 65.

66. 67. 68. 69. 70.

III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

Tom and Jane want to know their friends’ favorite free time activities, so they are asking

their friends about what they like to do in their free time. Many of their friends say that

usually eat and drink as well as chat with their friends. They like to talk about many things

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around them: their teachers, their friends, their families as well as their favorite musicians,

singers, soccer players and movie stars. There are some popular activities after lessons at their

school such as: skipping rope, reading books and playing sports. At home, many of their

friends say they like to watch TV, listen to music or play computer games. They rarely go to

the movies. Some of the girls like to go shopping. Very few of their friends like to do English

exercises on the Internet. Many of their friends don’t take part in art, music club.

71. What/ many of/ Tom and Jane's friends/ usually do/ their free time?
-> ………………………………..…………………………………………….……..……

…………………………………………………………………………….……..……
72. What/ their friends/ like/ talk about?
-> …………………..………………………………………………………….……..……

…………………………………………………………………………….……..……
73. many of their friends/ like to watch TV, listen to music/ or play computer games/ home?
-> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

…………………………………………………………………………….……..……
74. very few/ or many/ their friends/ like to do English exercises/ the Internet?
-> …………………………………………………………………………….……..……

..………………………………………………………………………….……..……
75. What/ passage/ talk about?

(Free time activities/ Tom and Jane's friends/.)
-> ……………………….…………………………………………………….……..……

…………………………………………………………………………….……..……

PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts)
I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the words in brackets:

(5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)
76. How much are these notebooks, Hoa?

-> .........................................................................................................................? (cost)

77. My bike is cheaper than Ha's bike.

->.................................................................................................................... (expensive)
78. No one in our village is as handsome as Peter.

->........................................................................................................................... (most)
79. How tall is your younger brother, Joko?

->..........................................................................................................................? (age)
80. Does your brother enjoy playing Chinese chess?

->.................................................................................................................? (interested)
II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences.
Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary. (5 0.2=1.0 pt)
81. your friends/ going/ have / picnic/ near/Red River?
->...............................................................................................................................................

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82. We would/ some oranges/and two/ glass/ milk/ please.
->...............................................................................................................................................
83. How much/ rice/ many eggs/ these farmers/ produce/ every year?
->...............................................................................................................................................
84. Anh / often/ play/sports/ his free time, but/ sometimes/ go/ camping/ his classmates.
->...............................................................................................................................................
85. Phuong's brother/ play/ soccer/ moment./ He/ play/ it/ every afternoon/ after school.
->...............................................................................................................................................

III. Write an essay (120 words) about your family: (3.0 pts)
(The essay must have the title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion.

Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………….……………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………….……………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………….……………………..

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 6 NĂM HỌC: 2017 -
2018

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)
Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts)

1. something 2. hour 3. go 4. aren't 5. different

6. Seconds 7. lives 8. of 9. ask 10. half

11. running 12. these 13. wear 14. but 15. how

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 0.2=1.0 pt)

16. C. orange 17. A. plane 18. C. eraser 19. B. students 20. C. sometimes

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.

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21. C. pagoda 22. D. lemonade (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 25. A. engineer
23. A. canteen 24. D. routine

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

26. D. anything 27. D. Why 28. A. is talking 29. A. loaves 30. C. for

don’t we

31. D. 32. D. the 33. B. an old 34. D. Both A & 35. D. a little

B & C are correct highest C are correct

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences. (10  0.2 = 2.0 pts)

36. dangerous 37. leaves 38. policewoman 39. women 40. longest

41. carefully 42. bookshelves 43. height 44. thirtieth 45. weight

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt) 50. eat

46. Does…do 47. are sleeping 48. does…go 49. are going to visit

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

-> Your answers:

51. A. a 52. D. second 53. C. his house 54. D. leaves 55. A. It

56. B. at 57. B. gets up 58. A. has 59. B. with 60. C. doesn’t stay

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. (10 0.2 =2.0 pts)

61. people 62. o’clock 63. and 64. time 65. home

66. or 67. to 68. them 69. play 70. give

III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)
71. What do many of Tom and Jane's friends usually do in their free time?
-> They usually eat, drink and chat with their friends.
72. What do their friends like to talk about?
-> They like to talk about many things around them.
37. Do many of their friends like to watch TV, listen to music or play computer games
at home?
-> Yes, they do.
74. Do very few or many of their friends like to do English exercises on the Internet?
-> Very few of their friends like to do English exercises on the Internet.
75. What does the passage talk about?
-> The passage talks about free time activities of Tom and Jane's friends.

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PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts)
I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the words in brackets:

(5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)
76. How much do these notebooks cost, Hoa?
77. Ha's bike is more expensive than my bike/ my one/ mine.
78. Peter is the most handsome in our village.
79. What is your younger brother's age, Joko?
80. Is your brother interested in playing Chinese chess?

II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences.
Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary. (5 0.2=1.0 pt)
81. Are your friends going to have a picnic near the Red River?
82. We would like some oranges and two glasses of milk, please.
83. How much rice and how many eggs do these farmers produce every year?
84. Anh often plays sports in his free time, but he sometimes goes camping with his
classmates.
85. Phuong's brother is playing soccer at the moment. He/ plays it every afternoon after
school.

III. Write an essay (120 words) about your family: (3.0 pts)
(The essay must have the title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion.
Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)

- The opening: The essay must write something relating to the topic “How the family is, the

number of members…”. (0.5pt)

- The body: Write about at least three reasons explaining about what they do in general and

in details…, the sentences must contain connectors and link words... (2,0 pts)

- The conclusion: Write about the writers' ideas. (0.5 pt)

* Note: The essay that has 3.0 points must have:

- Long enough (At least 200 words or maybe more).

- Correct vocabulary and structures.

- Don't tell the proper names (The school, the student's/ teacher’s name/ ...).

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PHÒNaGifGIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 6

HUYỆN THANH OAI NĂM HỌC: 2018 -2019
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Chú ý: - Bộ đề thi này gồm có 06 trang, từ trang 01 đến trang 06.
- Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bộ đề thi này.

Điểm Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 1: Số phách
(Do Chủ tịch hội
- Bằng số:…………….. ………………………………………... đồng chấm thi ghi)

- Bằng chữ:…………… Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 2: …………………..
………………………... ………………………………………...

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)
Listen and fill in the gaps: (15  0.2 = 3.0 pts)

Subjects
There are many subjects that you can (1) ..................................... at school.
My favorite subject is music. I like to (2) ..................................... and to play the clarinet.
I also like art. I am quite good at drawing and (3) ......................................
History is a good subject. I like (4) ..................................... about the past.
Geography is very interesting. We look at many (5) ..................................... in geography.
We learn where there are (6) ..................................... and mountains.
I know the (7) ..................................... of all the continents and all the oceans.
Mathematics is my (8) ..................................... favorite subject.
I am not very good with numbers. I am good at (9) ..................................... and subtraction,
but I am not good at division and multiplication.
In my school we learn to speak (10) ......................................
We learn French (11) ..................................... Canada has French and English-speaking
citizens. English literature is a good (12) ......................................
I enjoy reading books. I also like to (13) ..................................... compositions and poetry.
Science is my brother's favorite subject. He is interested in (14) ....................................., and
he likes to do experiments. We also take drama at my school.
I (15) ..................................... to act. I got the lead role in the school play.

-> Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

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PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

16. A. energy B. pagoda C. programme D. goggles

17. A. charity B. exchange C. character D. peach blossom

18. A. design B. serious C. president D. overseas

19. A. languages B. dresses C. watches D. becomes

20. A. symbol B. robot C. popular D. remote

-> Your answers:

16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.

(5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. A. about B. common C. weather D. building

22. A. landmark B. creature C. channel D. arround

23. A. terrible B. equipment C. remember D. exhausted

24. A. newsreader B. furniture C. continent D. marathon

25. A. waterfall B. educate C. appearance D. beautiful

-> Your answers:

21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)

I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10  0.2 = 2.0 pts)

26. We ............................ the cartoon “Tom and Jerry” many times.

A. see B. saw C. are seeing D. have seen

27. My brother likes going to the cinema............................ I like watching TV at home.

A. but B. and C. or D. because

28. My sister, Thuy Linh, is the ............................ girl in her school.

A. as beautiful B. more beautiful C. beautifullest D. most beautiful

29. What............................ you ............................ yesterday evening? – I stayed at home.

A. do - do B. will - do C. did - do D. can - do

30. I like this programme because it is both entertaining ............................ educational.

A. or B. and C. so D. but

31. My younger sister ............................ home for school yet.

A. didn’t leave B. don’t leave C. hasn’t left D. isn’t leaving

32. ............................ people go to the movies now than ten years ago.

A. Few B. Fewer C. Less D. Lesser

33. Which animals are............................, dogs or dolphins?

A. intelligence B. intelligent C. more intelligent D. most intelligent

34. People in many countries often wear their............................. clothes on the New Year day.

A. ordinary B. summer C. tradition D. traditional

35. The father told her children: “............................ swim in this river. It’s a dangerous place.”

A. Do B. Don’t C. Not D. Can’t

-> Your answers:

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26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

31. 32. 33. 34. 35.

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences. (10  0.2 = 2.0 pts)

36. Nobody in our class is...................................at Math than my cousin, Bao. GOOD

37. We held the Mid-Autumn festivals in the ...................................house. CULTURE

38. Ba had an accident last week because he drove ................................... CARE

39. Living in a city is ...................................than living in the countryside. INTERESTING

40. Nam is very................................... He always has a lot of new ideas. CREATE

41. When you open a newspaper, you’ll find.................................about games. INFORM

42. Many cars in the future will run on................................... ELECTRIC

43. I did many sports last week and was................................... EXSHAUST

44. What is the correct..................................of this word, Lan? - I don’t know. PRONOUCE

0. 45. ...................................is a very big problem in many countries. POLLUTE

-> Your answers: 40.
45.
36. 37. 38. 39.

41. 42. 43. 44.

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

46. Your father (buy) ..........................a ticket for the soccer match last week?

47. My future house will be on the ocean, it’ll (surround).......................... by blue sea.

48. It is not raining now. The sun (shine) ..........................and the sky is blue.

49. There are lots of gray clouds in the sky. It (rain) ..........................

50. If I lend you some money, when you (repay) ..........................me?

-> Your answers:

46. 47. 48. 49. 50.

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)
I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10  0.2 = 2.0 pts)

These days it is important (51).......................... a newspaper without reading about the
damage we are doing to the environment. Our earth is being threatened (52)..........................
our future looks bad. (53).......................... can each of us do?

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We cannot (54).......................... up our polluted rivers and seas overnight. Nor can we stop

the (55).......................... of plants and animals. But we can stop adding to the problem while

scientists look (56) .......................... answers.

I think that it may not be easy to change our lifestyle (57).......................... but some steps

are easy for us to take: Cut down the amount of driving we do, or use as little plastic as

possible. It is also easy to save (58) .........................., which also reduces household bills. We

must all make a personal (59).......................... to work for the future of our planet if we want

to ensure a better (60).......................... for our grandchildren.

51. A. to open B. opened C. opening D. to open

52. A. so B. however C. and D. moreover

53. A. What B. When C. Why D. Where

54. A. clean B. cleaned C. to clean D. cleaning

55. A. appear B. appearance C. disappear D. disappearance

56. A. for B. up C. after D. with

57. A. complete B. completeness C. completed D. completely

58. A. water B. money C. energy D. health

59. A. decide B. decisive C. deciding D. decision

60. A. city B. country C. continent D. world

Your answers:

51. 52. 53. 54. 55.

56. 57. 58. 59. 60.

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. (10  0.2 = 2.0 pts)

comedies rest programmes 7 o’clock news writers

national relax game shows educational viewers

Television is available everywhere now and VTV1 is a (61) …………… television channel
in Viet Nam. It attracts millions of (62) …………… because it offers many different
interesting programmes. The (63) …………… tells people what is happening in Viet Nam
and the (64) …………… of the world. (65) …………… bring a lot of laughter and help
people (66) …………… after a hard working day. The most exciting programmes
are (67).…………… They can be both entertaining and (68). ……………

Many people work hard every day to produce quality (69) …………… for television.
Some of them are programme designers, (70) …………… and reporters.
-> Your answers:

61. 62. 63. 64. 65.

66. 67. 68. 69. 70.

III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)

A lovely house

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My best friend, Mary, lives in a house near the sea. It is an old house, about over one

hundred years old and it is very small. There are two bed rooms upstairs but no bathroom.

The only bathroom is downstairs, next to the kitchen and there is a living room where there is

a lovely old fireplace. There is a garden in front of the house. The garden goes down to the

beach and in spring and summer there are a lot of beautiful flowers every where. Mary likes

alone with his dog, Rack, but they have a lot of visitors. Their city friends often come and

stay with them.

Mary loves her house for many reasons: the beautiful garden, the flowers in summer, the

fire in winter, but the best thing is the view from her bedroom window. Mary is now thinking

of a new house in the future with the help of Robots.

71. How/ old/ Mary/ house/ ?/
-> ………………………………..…………………………………………….……..……

………………………………………………………………..………….….……..……
72. Where/ bathroom/ ?/
-> …………………..………………………………………………………….……..……

………………………………………………………………..………….….……..……
73. When/ there/lot/ beautiful/ flowers/ ?/
-> ……………………………………………………………………………..……..……

……………………………………………………………………………..……..……
74. Who/ often/ come/stay/them/ ?/
-> ……………………………………………………………………………..……..……

..………………………………………………………………………..…..….…..……
75. What/ reasons/ Mary/ love/ house/ for/ ?/
-> ……………………….…………………………………………………….……..……

………………………………………………………………………..…….……..……

PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts)
I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the given words:

(5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)
76. Learning how to use a computer is quite easy for my eldest brother.

-> It..................................................................................................................................?
77. No house in my village is more beautiful than Mr. Hoang’s house.

-> Mr. Hoang’s house.......................................................................................................
78. Mr. Tung’s children like watching cartoons very much. (Use “interested”)

->.......................................................................................................................................

79. The boys tried their best to play well. They didn’t win the soccer match.

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-> ……………………….................although………….….…...........…………….…....
80. No planet in the Solar System is as big as Jupiter.

-> Jupiter ………..………………………………………...……………………………

II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences.
Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary. (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)
81. How often/ you/ practise/ play/ table tennis/ ?/

-> ……………………………………………………………………………………….
82. You/ visit/ your grandparents/ the countryside/ last Sunday/ ?/

-> ……………………………………………………………………………………….
83. There/ might not/meeting/ Friday/ because/ director/ ill/ ./

-> ……………………………………………………………………………………….
84. Little girl/ often/ feel/ unhappy/ when/ get/ bad marks/ . /

-> ……………………………………………………………………………………….
85. I/ not/ like/ that programme/ because/ so boring/ ./

-> ……………………………………………………………………………………….

III. Write a paragraph (about 120 words) to describe how you and your family
preparation for Tet: (3.0 pts) (The essay must have the title and three parts: Opening –
Body and Conclusion. Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..........…………….……………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..........…………….……………………..

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 6
NĂM HỌC: 2018 - 2019

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)

Listen and fill in the gaps: (15  0.2 = 3.0 pts)

1. take 2. sing 3. painting 4. learning 5. maps
9. addition 10. French
6. deserts 7. names 8. least 14. plants 15. like

11. because 12. subject 13. write

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)
I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 0.2=1.0 pt)
16. A. energy 17. C. character 18. B. serious 19. D. becomes 20. C. popular

II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.
(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. A. about 22. D. arround 23. A. terrible 24. A. newsreader 25. C. appearance

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PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)
I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 =
2.0 pts)

26. D. have 27. A. but 28. D. most 29. C. did - do 30. B. and

seen beautiful

31. C. hasn’t 32. B. 33. C. more 34. D. 35. B.

left Fewer intelligent traditional Don’t

II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences. (10 
0.2 = 2.0 pts)

36. better 37. cultural 38. carelessly 39. more 40. creative

interesting

41. information 42. 43. 44. pronunciation 45. pollution
electricity exshausted

III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

46. Did...buy 47.be 48. is 49. is going to 50. will...repay
surrounded
shining rain

PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)

I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10  0.2
= 2.0 pts)

51. D. to 52. C. and 53. A. What 54. A. clean 55. D.
open disappearance

56. A. for 57. D. 58. C. 59. D. 60. D. world
completely energy decision

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. (10
0.2 =2.0 pts)

61. national 62. viewers 63. 7 o`clock 64. rest 65. Comedies
news

66. relax 67. game 68. educational 69. 70. writers
shows programmes

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III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)
71. How old is Mary’s house?
-> It is about over one hundred years old.
72. Where is the bathroom?
-> The bathroom is downstairs, next to the kitchen.
73. When are there a lot of beautiful flowers?
-> (There are a lot of beautiful flowers) In spring and summer.
74. Who often come and stay with them?
-> Their city friends often come and stay with them.
75. What reasons does Mary love her house for?

-> Mary loves her house for many reasons: the beautiful garden, the flowers
in summer, the fire in winter, but the best thing is the view from her bedroom
window.

PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts)
I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the given words:

(5  0.2 = 1.0 pt)
76. It is quite easy for my eldest brother to learn how to use a computer.
77. Mr. Hoang’s house is the most beautiful house in my village.
78. Mr. Tung’s children are very interested in watching cartoons.
79. The boys didn’t win the soccer match although they tried their best to play
well.
80. Jupiter is the biggest planet in the Solar System.

II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful
sentences. Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary. (5  0.2
= 1.0 pt)

81. How often do you practise playing table tennis?
82. Did you visit your grandparents in the countryside last Sunday?
83. There might not be a meeting on Friday because the director is ill.
84. The little girl often feels unhappy when she gets bad marks.
85. I didn’t like that programme because it was so boring.

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III. Write a paragraph (about 120 words) to describe how you and your family

preparation for Tet: (3.0 pts) (The essay must have the title and three parts: Opening –

Body and Conclusion. Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)

- The opening: The essay must write something relating to the topic “How the family

prepare for Tet.”. (0.5 pt)

- The body: Write about at least three reasons explaining about what you and your family do

in general and in details before Tet holiday…, the sentences must contain connectors and link

words... (2,0 pts)

- The conclusion: Write about the writers' ideas. (0.5 pt)

* Note: The essay that has 3.0 points must have:

- Long enough (At least 200 words or maybe more).

- Correct vocabulary and structures.

- Don't tell the proper names (The school, the student's/ teacher’s name/ ...).

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PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC LỚP 6
HUYỆN THANH OAI Năm học: 2014 - 2015
Môn: Tiếng Anh

Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Chú ý: - Bộ đề thi này gồm có 04 trang, từ trang 01 đến trang 04.
- Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bộ đề thi này.

Điểm Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 1: Số phách
(Do Chủ tịch hội
- Bằng số:…………….. ………………………………………... đồng chấm thi ghi)

- Bằng chữ:…………… Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 2: …………………..
………………………... ………………………………………...

PART ONE: LISTENING:
Listen to the tape and fill in the gaps with the words you hear: (15 x 0.2 = 3.0 pts)
My Flower Garden
My (1)…………………. is Anne.
I love (2)………………….. I have a flower garden.
My garden is in (3)…………………. of my house.
My (4)…………………. has a garden, too.
My garden has different types (5)…………………. flowers.
I have roses in my garden. (6)…………………. have tulips in my garden.
I have petunias (7)…………………. my garden.
My garden (8)…………………. different colours.
I plant (9)…………………. flowers.
I plant orange flowers. I plant (10)…………………. flowers.
I plant purple flowers. I (11)…………………. care of my garden.
I (12)…………………. my garden every day.
I kill (13)…………………. weeds in my garden.
I kill insects (14)…………………. eat my flowers.
I love my (15)…………………. garden.

PART TWO: PHONETICS: (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts)

I. Choose one word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others
by circling A, B, C, or D. (5 0,2=1,0 pt)

16. A. chair B. school C. couch D. children
17. A. game B. change C. vegetable D. geography
18. A. intersection B. eraser C. bookstore D. history
19. A. tenth B. tooth C. brother D. theater
20. A. boot B. tooth C. food D. flood

Write your answers here:

1…………….. 2........................ 3........................... 4........................... 5..................

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II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C
or D (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

21. A. forest B. desert C. building D. mountain
B. classroom
22. A. pastimes B. remember C. housework D. canteen
23. A. hotel B. engineer C. repeat D.classroom
24. A. dangerous B. unload C. telephone D. accident
25. A. visit C. receive D. correct

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (25 x 0.2 = 5.0 pts)
I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences. (10 x 0.2= 2.0 pts)

26. How…………. rice does he want?

A. many B. much C. any D. about

27. I don’t like coffee but my brother………….

A. do B. likes C. does D. would like

28. Ha ………….goes swimming in the winter because the winter is cold.

A. never B. always C. usually D. often

29. I don’t want………….to Ho Chi Minh City because I’m very tired.

A. going B. goes C. go D. to go

30. “Does Jane like………….?” – “Yes, She goes Jogging every morning.”

A. jog B. to jog C. jogs D. jogging.

31. What……….…going by bike to the pagoda?

A. there B. sport C. about D. time

32. Which supermarket………….?

A. do you want to go to. B. do you want to go it

C. you want to go D. do you want to go.

33. Where’s the chalk?

A. It’s hers B. It’s on the table C. It’s of the table D. It’s mine

34. I don’t have………….apples but I have………….oranges.

A. any- any B. some- any C. some- some D. any- some

35. Don’t throw trash into the river. It……….…water

A. plows B. saves C. damages D. pollutes

26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

31. 32. 33. 34. 35.

II. Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)

36. Our school children sometimes go ........................... on the weekend. (CAMP)

37. Mount Everest is very high. It is ............................ mountain in the world. (HIGH)

38. Lee comes from China. He speaks ............................ (CHINA)

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