Prompt ibt 3 doc

34. e. Choice e is the only one that eliminates the
repetition of the words foreign and policy. It is
the clearest and most concise choice.
35. b. The change in verb tense is necessary to main-
tain consistency. Choice a would include a
superfluous comma, while choice c would
make the sentence awkward. The phrase sug-
gested in choice d would need commas
around it, and choice e would retain the incor-
rect verb form.
Section 3: Multiple Choice
1. c. Choice c is the only one that is not a run-on
sentence. All of the others use a comma or no
punctuation mark to separate two independ-
ent clauses.
2. d. Only choice d corrects the faulty
comparison—domesticated hounds are fatter
than they were 50 years ago, not fatter than 50
years ago.
3. a. Choices b, c, and d use the wrong conjunc-
tions (and, as a result, in spite of the fact) to
express the relationship between the two
phrases. The first phrase depends on, or is
subordinate to, the second, making because
the correct word. Choice e also uses the right
conjunction, but it incorrectly uses the present
tense verb believes.
4. e. As the saying goes is a phrase that introduces
the clause better late than never. Introductory
words and phrases should always end with a
comma.

5. c. Choice c is the only one that’s a complete sen-
tence. All of the other choices are sentence
fragments.
6. e. Choices a and c have misplaced modifiers; Bob
Geldof was not held in 1984. Choice b corrects
the error but introduces a new one. The
meaning of the sentence is lost, because the
concert wasn’t the first 1984 one. Choice d also
corrects the error, but it is not as clear and
concise as choice e.
7. d. Choice a is a run-on sentence. Choice b uses
illogical and ungrammatical sentence struc-
ture. Choice c incorrectly uses the wordy
phrase to which. Choice e creates a fragment
by using a semicolon and is wordy.
8. e. The problem is incorrect use of the passive
voice. Notice how choice e is more direct and
concise than the other four versions. While
choice c also uses the active voice, its word
order changes the meaning of the sentence.
9. e. The problem is a misplaced modifier—the
hotels aren’t planning the vacation. Choice
e is
the clearest way to correctly express the idea of
the sentence. Choices b and d include, with a
slight variation, the original error, and choice
d also uses the wrong verb tense.
10. e. Choice e is the most clear and concise.
Choices a and c shift from the impersonal
pronoun one to the personal you. Choices b

and d correct that error, but retain the wordy
phrase you should probably. Choice d also
changes the wording and eliminates the semi-
colon, creating a long and confusing sentence
unbroken by punctuation.
11. a. Choice b incorrectly uses the passive voice to
create an awkward construction. Choice c
needs commas to separate the interrupter
phrase which the jury seemed interested in.
Choice c is also wordy. Choice d tightens up
the language of the sentence, but loses the
meaning. In choice e, the interrupter phrase,
which modifies the noun evidence,is
misplaced.
12. b. The comma after years is superfluous in
choices a and d. Choice d also uses the wrong
verb tense. The introductory phrase once they
are established refers to perennials, so choice c,
which uses the implied subject you (you dig
them up and divide them) is confusing. Yo u
–PRACTICE TEST 1–
100
aren’t what’s established. Choice e also uses the
wrong verb tense; the future progressive tense
is needed rather than the simple present.
13. b. Choice b is the only one that corrects the
faulty comparison and clears up the ambigu-
ous pronoun. What does they refer to? It’s sup-
posed to refer to the restaurant, but in the
original sentence, as well as in choices c, d,

and e, it refers to the take-out dinners.Com-
paring dinners to a restaurant is not the
intended meaning.
14. c. Choices a, b, and d include a faulty compari-
son; something can’t be more perfect than
something else—it’s either perfect, or it’s not.
Choices c and e correct the error, but choice e
has a superfluous comma after display.
–PRACTICE TEST 1–
101

Section 1
Time: 25 minutes
Essay
Directions: In the essay, you will demonstrate how well you develop and present ideas. Your goal is to clearly use
language, firmly take a point of view, and logically advance your argument.
You must use only the space provided, which will be adequate if you pay attention to handwriting size and
margins. Avoid leaving extra space, such as through double-spacing or leaving a blank line between paragraphs.
Write legibly so the scorers of your essay can understand what you have written. You may use your test booklet
to take notes and organize your thoughts, but only what is written on the answer sheet will be scored.
There are 25 minutes in which to write your essay. Carefully read the prompt and your assignment. Respond
only to the assignment—off-topic essays will receive a zero.
CHAPTER
Practice Test 2
5
103
–PRACTICE TEST 2–
104
Money never made a man happy yet, nor will it.

—Benjamin Franklin
But for money and the need of it, there would not be half the friendship in the
world. It is powerful for good if divinely used. Give it plenty of air and it is
sweet as the hawthorne; shut it up and it cankers and breeds worms.
—George MacDonald
Assignment: What is your view on the uses of money? Choose the quote you disagree with most strongly, and write
an essay explaining your position. Support that position with evidence and examples from literature, the arts, his-
tory, current events, politics, science and technology, and/or from personal experiences or observations.
–PRACTICE TEST 2–
105