11 đề thi thử đại học môn tiếng Anh có đáp án

SỞ GD & ĐT THANH HÓA

TRƯỜNG THPT BA ĐÌNH
(Đề thi có 06 trang)
ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CHẤT LƯỢNG ĐẠI HỌC NĂM 2012
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH, khối D (Lần 2)
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút.


Họ, tên thí sinh:
Số báo danh:

ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ CÂU 1 ĐẾN CÂU 80) DÀNH CHO TẤT CẢ THÍ SINH.

Chọn từ hoặc cụm từ thích hợp (ứng với A hoặc B, C, D) để hoàn thành mỗi câu sau.
Câu 1: From an early age, Wolfgang had a/an _______ for music.
A. interest B. passion C.involvement D. tendency
Câu 2: Larry never spoke to anyone, and kept himself _______.
A. outside B. withdrawn C. superior D. aloof
Câu 3: Sarah delivered a/an _______ appeal to the court and asked for mercy.
A. sensational B. sentimental C. emotional D. affectionate
Câu 4: No sooner had we left the house, _______ it started snowing.
A. and B. than C. when D. that
Câu 5: What ever Jane _______ to do, she finishes.
A. gets on B. sees to C. sets out D. looks for
Câu 6: Several cars, _______ owners had parked them under the trees, were damaged.
A. their B. of which C. whom D. whose
Câu 7: It was very good _______ you to give up so much of your time.
A. of B. for C. with D. to
Câu 8: The play was not _______ what we had expected.
A. just B. absolutely C. at all D. very

Câu 9: We had to get a bank loan when the money finally _______.
A. gave in B. gave off C. gave over D. gave out
Câu 10: The minister _______ to say whether all the coal mines would be closed.
A. refuse B. avoided C. denied D. bothered
Câu 11: When Helen agreed to run the school play, she got more than she _______.
A. came down to B. bargained for C. faced up to D. got round to
Câu 12: At the end of the match the players were _______ exhausted.
A. solely B. utterly C. actually D. merely
Câu 13: _______ you should do first is make a list of all the things you have to do.
A. That B. What C. As D. If
Câu 14: The smell of the kippers cooking _______ my breakfast.
A. put me off B. came up agaist C. gave off D. held up
Câu 15: This conversation project looks promising, but it’s still _______.
A. in the early stages B. in advance C. understress D. at first sight

Đọc kỹ đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (ứng với A hoặc B, C, D) cho mỗi câu từ 16
đến 25.




Every drop of water in the ocean, even in the deepest parts, responds to the forces that
create the tides. No other force that affects the sea is so strong. Compared with the tides, the
waves created by the wind are surface movements felt no more than a hundred fathoms
below the surface. The currents also seldom involve more than the upper several hundred
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fathoms despite their impressive sweep.
The tides are a response of the waters of the ocean to the pull of the Moon and the more
distant Sun. In theory, there is a gravitational attraction between the water and even the
outermost star of the universe. In reality, however, the pull of remote stars is so slight as to
be obliterated by the control of the Moon and, to a lesser extent, the Sun.
Just as the Moon rises later each day by fifty minutes, on the average, so, in most places,
the time of high tide is correspondingly later each day. And as the Moon waxes and wanes
in its monthly cycle, so the height of the tide varies. The tidal movements are strongest
when the Moon is a sliver in the sky, and when it is full. These are the highest flood tides
and the lowest ebb tides of the lunar month and are called the spring tides. At these times
the Sun, Moon, and Earth are nearly in line and the pull of the two heavenly bodies is added
together to bring the water high on the beaches, to send its surf upward against the sea cliffs,
and to draw a high tide into the harbors. Twice each month, at the quarters of the Moon,
when the Sun, Moon and Earth lie at the apexes of a triangular configuration and the pull of
the Sun and Moon are opposed, the moderate tidal movements called neap tides occur. Then
the difference between high and low water is less than at any other time during the month.

Câu 16: What is the main point of the first paragraph?

A. The waves created by ocean currents are very large.
B. Despite the strength of the wind, it only moves surface water.
C. Deep ocean water is seldom affected by forces that move water.
D. The tides are the most powerful force to affect the movement of ocean water.
Câu 17: The word "felt" in line 3 is closest in meaning to
A. based B. dropped C. detected D. explored
Câu 18: The words "In reality" in line 8 are closest in meaning to
A. surprisingly B. actually C. characteristically D. similarly
Câu 19: It can be inferred from the passage that the most important factor in determining how
much gravitational effect one object in space has on the tides is
A. size B. distance C. temperature D. density
Câu 20: The word "correspondingly" in line 11 is closest in meaning to
A. unpredictably B. interestingly C. similarly D. unusually
Câu 21: What is the cause of spring tides?
A. Seasonal changes in the weather
B. The gravitational pull of the Sun and the Moon when nearly in line with the Earth
C. The Earth's movement around the Sun
D. The triangular arrangement of the Earth, Sun, and Moon
Câu 22: The word "configuration" in line 18 is closest in meaning to
A. unit B. center C. surface D. arrangement
Câu 23: Neap tides occur when
A. the Sun counteracts the Moon's gravitational attraction
B. the Moon is full
C. the Moon is farthest from the Sun
D. waves created by the wind combine with the Moon's gravitational attraction
Câu 24: According to the passage, all of the following statements about tides are true EXCEPT:
A. The time of high tide is later each day.
B. Tides have a greater effect on the sea than waves do.
C. The strongest tides occur at the quarters of the Moon.
D. Neap tides are more moderate than spring tides.

Câu 25: Where in the passage does the author mention movements of ocean water other than
those caused by tides?
A. Lines 2-5 B. Lines 10-11 C. Lines 12-13 D. Lines 17-20

Đọc kỹ đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (ứng với A hoặc B, C, D) cho mỗi chỗ trống từ
26 đến 35.
Most traditional human life in deserts is nomadic. It (26) ______ in hot deserts on finding
water, and on following infrequent rains to (27) ______ grazing for livestock. In cold deserts, it
depends on finding good hunting and fishing grounds, on sheltering from blizzards and winter
(28) ______, and on storing enough food for winter. Permanent settlement in both kinds of
deserts requires permanent water, food sources and adequate shelter, or the technology and
energy sources to (29) ______ it.
Many deserts are flat and featureless, lacking landmarks, or composed of repeating landforms
such as sand (30) ______ or the jumbled ice-fields of glaciers. Advanced skills or devices are
required to navigate through such landscapes and (31) _____ travelers may die when supplies
run (32) ______ after becoming lost. In addition, sandstorms or blizzards may cause
disorientation in severely-reduced visibility.
The (33) ______ represented by wild animals in deserts has featured in explorers' accounts
but does not cause higher (34) ______ of death than in other environments such as rainforests or
savanna woodland, and generally does not affect human distribution. Defense against polar bears
may be advisable in some areas of the Arctic. Precautions against snakes and scorpions in
choosing (35) ______ at which to camp in some hot deserts should be taken.
Câu 26: A. locates B. selects C. follows D. depends
Câu 27: A. earn B. demand C. obtain D. require
Câu 28: A. extremes B. poles C. tops D. heights
Câu 29: A. grow B. supply C. comfort D. bring
Câu 30: A. dunes B. piles C. valleys D. stores
Câu 31: A. inconsistent B. incapable C. inexperienced D. independent
Câu 32: A. of B. out C. in D. over
Câu 33: A. danger B. dangerous C. endanger D. endangered

Câu 34: A. level B. rate C. scale D. standard
Câu 35: A. sight B. lies C. sites D. seats

Đọc kỹ đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (ứng với A, hoặc B, C, D) cho mỗi câu từ 36
đến 44.




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10

The ocean bottom - a region nearly 2.5 times greater than the total land area of the
Earth - is a vast frontier that even today is largely unexplored and uncharted. Until about a
century ago, the deep-ocean floor was completely inaccessible, hidden beneath waters
averaging over 3,600 meters deep. Totally without light and subjected to intense pressures
hundreds of times greater than at the Earth's surface, the deep-ocean bottom is a hostile
environment to humans, in some ways as forbidding and remote as the void of outer space.
Although researchers have taken samples of deep-ocean rocks and sediments for over a
century, the first detailed global investigation of the ocean bottom did not actually start until
1968, with the beginning of the National Science Foundation's Deep Sea Drilling Project
(DSDP).Using techniques first developed for the offshore oil and gas industry, the DSDP's
drill ship, the Glomar Challenger, was able to maintain a steady position on the ocean's
surface and drill in very deep waters, extracting samples of sediments and rock from the

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ocean floor.
The Glomar Challenger completed 96 voyages in a 15-year research program that
ended in November 1983. During this time, the vessel logged 600,000 kilometers and took
almost 20,000 core samples of seabed sediments and rocks at 624 drilling sites around the
world. The Glomar Challenger's core samples have allowed geologists to reconstruct what
the planet looked like hundred of millions of years ago and to calculate what it will probably
look like millions of years in the future. Today, largely on the strength of evidence
gathered during the Glomar Challenger's voyages, nearly all earth scientists agree on the
theories of plate tectonics and continental drift that
explain many of the geological processes that shape the Earth.
The cores of sediment drilled by the Glomar Challenger have also yielded information
critical to understanding the world's past climates. Deep-ocean sediments provide a climatic
record stretching back hundreds of millions of years, because they are largely isolated from
the mechanical erosion and the intense chemical and biological activity that rapidly destroy
much land-based evidence of past climates. This record has already provided insights into
the patterns and causes of past climatic change - information that may be used to predict
future climates.

Câu 36: The author refers to the ocean bottom as a "frontier" in line 2 because it
A.is not a popular area for scientific research
B.contains a wide variety of life forms
C.attracts courageous explorers
D.is an unknown territory
Câu 37: The word "inaccessible" in line 3 is closest in meaning to
A.unrecognizable B.unreachable C.unusable D.unsafe
Câu 38: The author mentions outer space in line 6 because
A.the Earth's climate millions of years ago was similar to conditions in outer space.
B.it is similar to the ocean floor in being alien to the human environment
C.rock formations in outer space are similar to those found on the ocean floor
D.techniques used by scientists to explore outer space were similar to those used in ocean
exploration
Câu 39: Which of the following is true of the Glomar Challenger?
A. It is a type of submarine. B. It is an ongoing project.
C. It has gone on over 100 voyages D. It made its first DSDP voyage in 1968
Câu 40: The word " extracting " in line 11 is closest in meaning to
A. breaking B. locating C. removing D. analyzing
Câu 41: The deep Sea Drilling Project was significant because it was
A. an attempt to find new sources of oil and gas
B. the first extensive exploration of the ocean bottom
C. composed of geologists form all over the world
D. funded entirely by the gas and oil industry
Câu 42: The word " strength " in line 17 is closest in meaning to
A.basis B.purpose C.discovery D.endurance
Câu 43: The word " they " in line 22 refers to
A.years B.climates C.sediments D.cores
Câu 44: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as being a result of the Deep
Sea Drilling Project?

A. Geologists were able to determine the Earth's appearance hundreds of millions of years ago.
B. Two geological theories became more widely accepted
C. Information was revealed about the Earth's past climatic changes.
D. Geologists observed forms of marine life never before seen.

Chọn phương án đúng (ứng với A hoặc B, C, D) để hoàn thành mỗi câu sau.
Câu 45: Havy: “Thanks for your help, Judy.”
Judy: “______.”
A. With all my heart B. Never remind me C. It’s my pleasure D. Wish
you
Câu 46: "Just think, ______ 2 years' time, we'll be 20 both."
A. under B. in C. after D. over
Câu 47: Anne: “Thanks for the nice gift!”
John: “______”
A. I’m glad you like it. B. But do you know how much it costs?
C. In fact, I myself don’t like it. D. You’re welcomed.
Câu 48: Anne persisted ______ her search for the truth about what had happened.
A. at B. about C. on D. in
Câu 49: If she ______ sick, she would have gone out with me to the party.
A. wasn’t B. hadn’t been C. hasn’t been D.
weren’t
Câu 50: - “________ detective stories?”

- “In my opinion, they are very good for teenagers.”
A. What do you think about

B. Are you fond of
C. How about

D. What do people feel about

Câu 51: - “Would you mind lending me your bike?”

- “ ______ .”
A. Yes. Here it is

B. Not at all

C. Great

D. Yes, let’s
Câu 52: They would ______ go by air than travel by train.
A. always

B. better

C. prefer

D. rather
Câu 53: Don’t worry. He’ll do the job as _______ as possible.
A. economizing

B. economic

C. uneconomically

D. economically
Câu 54: ______ entering the hall, he found everyone waiting for him.
A. With

B. On

C. At

D. During
Câu 55: - “Has an announcement been made about the eight o’clock flight to Paris?”
- “ _______.”
A. Not yet

B. Yes, it was

C. I don’t think that D. Sorry, I don’t

Chọn phương án (A hoặc B, C, D) ứng với từ/ cụm từ có gạch chân cần phải sửa để các câu
sau trở thành câu đúng.
Câu 56: By measuring the color of a star, astronomers can tell how hot is it.
A B C D
Câu 57: Exploration of the Solar System is continuing, and at the present rate of progress all the
A B
planets will have been contacted within the near 50 years.
C D
Câu 58: Grover Cleveland was the only American president served two nonconsecutive terms.
A B C D

Câu 59: Calcium, the most abundantly mineral in the body, works with phosphorus in
maintaining
A B C D
bones and teeth.

Câu 60: The next host for the SEA Games is Laos. It is Laos' the first time as the host for the
A B C D

biannual-games.

Chọn phương án đúng (A hoặc B, C, D) ứng với câu có nghĩa gần nhất với mỗi câu cho sẵn
sau đây.
Câu 61: "Leave my house now or I'll call the police!" shouted the lady to the man.
A. The lady threatened to call the police if the man didn't leave her house.
B. The lady said that she would call the police if the man didn't leave her house.
C. The lady told the man that she would call the police if he didn't leave her house.
D. The lady informed the man that she would call the police if he didn't leave her house.
Câu 62: He last had his eyes tested ten months ago.
A. He had tested his eyes ten months before.
B. He had not tested his eyes for ten months then.
C. He hasn't had his eyes tested for ten months.
D. He didn't have any test on his eyes in ten months.
Câu 63: The children couldn't go swimming because the sea was too rough.
A. The children were not calm enough to swim in the sea.
B. The sea was rough enough for the children to swim in.
C. The sea was too rough for the children to go swimming.
D. The sea was too rough to the children's swimming.
Câu 64: David drove so fast; it was very dangerous.
A. David drove so fast, which was very dangerous.
B. David drove so fast and was very dangerous.
C. David drove so fast, then was very dangerous.
D. David drove so fast that was very dangerous.
Câu 65: The captain to his men: “Abandon the ship immediately!”
A. The captain invited his men to abandon the ship immediately.
B. The captain suggested his men abandon the ship immediately.
C. The captain ordered his men to abandon the ship immediately.
D. The captain requested his men to abandon the ship immediately.

Đọc kỹ đoạn văn sau và chọn phương án đúng (ứng với A hoặc B, C, D) cho mỗi chỗ trống từ
66 đến 75.
Owning a car
Owning a car has several advantages. (66) ________ you can go wherever you want,
whenever you want. You don’t have to depend on public transport and (67) ________ you feel
more independent. (68) ________ you are able to give lifts to friends, or carry heavy loads of
shopping. (69) ________ there can be problems, especially if you live in a city. Running a car
can be expensive, and you have to spend money on items (70) ________ petrol, servicing the
car, and repairs. You might also have problem with parking, as every where is more and more
crowded with cars. (71) ________ most people feel that the advantages of owning a car
outweigh the disadvantages.
(72) ________ most young people of my age start driving as soon as they can. (73)
________ I think that cars nowadays have become more essential, but I also feel that they cause
a lot of problems, (74) ________ they are noisy and dirty. (75) ________ the large numbers of
cars on the roads means that most town and cities are organized for the convinience of cars, and
the needs of pedestrians are ignored.
Câu 66: A. First of all B. As a result C. Personally D. Besides this
Câu 67: A. however B. personally C. since D. as a result
Câu 68: A. In contrast B. In my view C. Besides this D. However
Câu 69: A. On the other hand B. To sum up C. Thus D. For example
Câu 70: A. as B. such as C. owning to D. then
Câu 71: A. Finally B. Secondly C. However D. As
Câu 72: A. For B. Next C. As well as this D. Consequently
Câu 73: A. For example B. Personally C. Nevertheless D. In comparison
Câu 74: A. for example B. however C. thus D. since
Câu 75: A. As a result B. Moreover C. Personally D. In comparison

Chọn phương án (A hoặc B, C, D) ứng với từ có phần gạch chân phát âm khác với ba từ còn
lại trong mỗi câu.
Câu 76: A. food B. shoot C. book D. boot

Câu 77: A. secure B. police C. council D. socialize

Chọn phương án (A hoặc B, C, D) ứng với từ có trọng âm chính nhấn vào âm tiết có vị trí
khác với ba từ còn lại trong mỗi câu.
Câu 78: A. medicine B. endanger C. addition D. survival
Câu 79: A. corridor B. enormous C. mystery D. separate
Câu 80: A. effectiveness B. enterteinment C. environment D. endangerment


THE END

SỞ GD & ĐT THANH HÓA

TRƯỜNG THPT BA ĐÌNH

ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
ĐỀ THI CHẤT LƯỢNG MÔN THI ĐẠI HỌC NĂM 2012
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH KHỐI D (Lần 2)

Điểm bài thi = Tổng số câu đúng / 8, làm tròn đến hai số thập phân

KEY

1 B 11 B 21 B 31 C 41 B 51 B 61 A 71 C
2 D 12 B 22 D 32 B 42 A 52 D 62 C 72 D
3 C 13 B 23 A 33 A 43 C 53 D 63 C 73 B
4 B 14 A 24 C 34 B 44 D 54 B 64 A 74 D
5 C 15 A 25 A 35 C 45 C 55 A 65 C 75 B
6 D 16 D 26 D 36 D 46 B 56 D 66 A 76 C
7 A 17 C 27 C 37 B 47 A 57 D 67 D 77 D
8 C 18 B 28 A 38 B 48 D 58 B 68 C 78 A
9 D 19 B 29 B 39 D 49 B 59 A 69 A 79 B
10 A 20 C 30 A 40 C 50 A 60 C 70 B 80 B





1
S

Ở GD & ĐT C
À MAU

TRƯỜNG THPT ĐẦM DƠI

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
(5 trang)
Đ
Ề THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC, CAO ĐẲNG NĂM 2013
-

L
ẦN I

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian: 90 phút (Không kể thời gian giao nhận đề)



H
ọ v
à tên thí sinh:



Phòng thi:



S

ố báo danh:



Mã
đ
ề
:


007


Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.

1. A. shown B. flown C. grown D. crown
2. A. complexion B. examination C. exaggerate D. exhibit
3. A. accountant B. amount C. founding D. country
4. A. missed B. laughed C. stopped D. closed
5. A. criteria B. initiate C.certificate D. interactive

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following sentences.
6. I really think that apologising is ______________ you can do.
A. not as much as B. a little C. the least D. as far as
7. __________ you get used to the job, it won’t seem so bad.
A. Since B. While C. Once D. As
8. Oh bother, ___________ the bus I wanted to catch!
A. wherever B. it’s left C. there goes D. owing to
9. ___________ that military spending is extremely high.

A. We are felt B. It feels C. It is felt D. We feel that it is
10. ____________ of the brothers wants to give in. Both are as stubborn as mules.
A. Both B. Either C. Neither D. Each
11. Nobody’s got to stay late this evening, _________________ ?
A. is it B. have they C. isn’t it D. don’t they
12. “ Did you stay home last night?” “Yes, but I ___________ dancing.”
A. would rather go B. would rather have gone C. would go D. would rather be going
13. __________ didn’t you tell me that you felt too ill to work?
A. Whoever B. Whatever C. However D. Why ever
14. “Have you decided which you like best- the round table or the square table?”
“Of the two, the round one is ____________ .”
A. the nicest B. the nicer C. nicer D. a nice one
15. I would rather you ____________ just at the moment.
A. leave B. didn’t leave C. leaving D. to leave
16. It was important that they __________ before the curtain went up last night.
A. arrive B. have arrived C. must arrive D. had arrived
17. “Was the test long?” “Yes, John is the only one ____________ it. ”
A. to finish B. finished C. could finish D. has finished
18. I’ll have to do overtime tonight, ____________ is very tiresome.
A. which B. what C. that D. so
19. He earns his living by ____________ old paintings.
A. reviving B. restoring C. reforming D. replenishing
20. To be a good short story writer one needs, among other things, a very _______ imagination.
A. vivid B. living C. bright D. sparkling
21. This book gives a brief ___________ of the history of the castle and details of the art collection in the
main hall.
A. outline B. reference C. article D. research

2
22. I must take this watch to be repaired; it ___________ over twenty minutes a day.

A. increases B. progresses C. accelerates D. gains
23. If a bus doesn’t come, you can always flag ____________ a taxi.
A. after B. for C. down D. off
24. He was so mean that he couldn’t bear to __________ the smallest sum of money for the charity appeal.
A. pay off B. part with C. give in D. let out
25. She was so tired last night that she slept like __________ until 10 o’clock this morning.
A. a squirrel B. death C. a log D. a hill
26. Some supporters were __________ at the entrance because the ground was full.
A. sent off B. turned away C. set out D. played off
27. Motorists __________ of speeding may be banned from driving for a year.
A. convicted B. arrested C. charged D. judged
28. He _________ as a quiet , thoughtfull person.
A. bubbles over B. catches on C. comes across D. puts through
29. “ Is the dress too big?” “ No, not at all. It fits like ______________ .”
A. a mould B. a glove C. a glue D. a pillowcase
30. James never remembers anything; he’s got a memory like ___________ .
A. cotton wool B. a mouse C. a sieve D. a bucket
31. “I’ve lost my new USB.” “___________________ ”
A. Yes, go ahead. B. That’s a nice idea. C. What a pity! D. It’s a pleasure.
32. “I’m sorry. I promise I won’t be late again.” “________________”
A. You’d better not. B. Yes, I’m glad to. C. Not too bad. Thanks. D. That would be very nice.
33. “May I sit here?” “______________”
A. Yes, with pleasure. B. No, there’s no need. Thanks.
C. It is a pleasure. I’m glad you liked it. D. That’s very kind of you. Thanks.
34. “Would you like tea or coffee? ” “__________________”
A. Yes, please. B. I don’t mind; either’s fine.
C. Yes, I’m glad to hear that. D. Never mind. Better luck next time.
35. “Would you mind getting that book for me?” “_____________________”
A. Of course not. Congratulations! B. Don’t mention it!
C. Make yourself at home, please. D. Not at all. There you are.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction
36. The students in the dormitories were forbidden for staying out after 11:30 p.m unless they have
A B C
special passes.
D
37. Of all outdoor activities, Paul likes fishing best of all, but he doesn’t enjoy cleaning the fishing rods
A B C
afterwards.
D
38. Despite the disappearance of the Mayan Empire, there are still Mayans in the region that they once
A B C
inhabited.
D
39. I have got into the habit to turn on the TV as soon as I get home.
A B C D
40. Commercial airliners do not fly in the vicinity of volcanic eruptions because even a small amount of
A B
volcanic ash can damage its engine.
C D

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word for each of the blanks.
3
The research (41) __________ alternative sources of energy has (42)____________ in various
directions. Many communities are burning garbage and other biological waste products to produce electricity.
Changing waste products into gases or oil is also an efficient way to dispose of wastes.
Experimental work (43) ___________ to make (44)_________ fuels from coal, or coal tars. But (45)
____________ date, that process (46) ____________ expensive. Other experiments are (47) ____________ to
harness power with giant windmills. Geothermal power, heat from earth, is also being tested.

Some experts are trying to revive hydroelectric power which derived from streams and rivers. Fifty
years ago, hydroelectric power provided one third of the electricity (48) _________ in the United States, but
today it supplies only 4 percent. The oceans are another potential source of energy. Scientists are studying
ways to change the energy of ocean currents, tides, and waves (49)__________ electricity. Experiments are
also underway to make (50) ___________ of temperature differences in ocean water to produce energy.
41. A. with B. about C. for D. of
42. A. resulted B. finalized C. ended D. come
43. A. will be done B. is doing C. is being done D. will do
44. A. artificial B. synthetic C. compound D. man-made
45. A. at B. by C. to D. on
46. A. is proving B. has proved C. proved D. had proved
47. A. undergo B. underestimate C. underway D. undergone
48. A. use B. usage C. used D. using
49. A. onto B. up to C. to D. into
50. A. advantage B. waste C. do D. use

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Herman Melville, an American author best known today for his novel Moby Dick, was actually more
popular during his lifetime for some of his other works. He traveled extensively and used the knowledge
gained during his travels as the basis for his early novels. In 1837, at the age of eighteen, Melville signed as a
cabin boy on a merchant ship that was to sail from his Massachusetts home to Livepool, England. His
experiences on this trip served as a basic for the novel Redburn (1849). In 1841, Melville set out on a whaling
ship headed for the South Seas. After jumping ship in Tahiti, he wandered around the islands of Tahiti and
Moorea. This South Sea island sojourn was a backdrop to the novel Omoo (1847). After three years away
from home, Melville joined up with a U.S. naval frigate that was returning to the eastern United States around
Cape Horn. The novel White Jacket (1850) describes this lengthy voyage as a navy seaman.
With the publication of these early adventure novels, Melville developed a strong and loyal following
among readers eager for his tales of exotic places and situations. However, in 1851, with the publication of
Moby Dick, Melville’s popularity started to diminish. Moby Dick, on one level the saga of the hunt for the

great white whale, was also a heavily symbolic allegory of the heroic struggle of humanity against the
universe. The public was not ready for Melville’s literary metamorphosis
from romantic adventure to
philosophical symbolism. It is ironic that the novel that served to diminish Meville’s popularity during his
lifetime is the one for which he is best known today.
Question 51: The main subject of the passage is .
A. Meville’s travels B. The popularity of Meville’s novels
C. Meville’s personal background D. Moby Dick
Question 52: According to the passage, Meville’s early novels were .
A. publish while he was traveling B.completely fictional
C. all about his work on whaling ships D. based on his travels experience
Question 53: In what year did Meville’s book about his experiences as a cabin boy appear?
A.1837 B. 1841 C.1847 D.1849
Question 54: The word “basic” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to .
A. background B. message C. bottom D. dissertation
Question 55: The passage implies that Meville stayed in Tahiti because .
A. He had unofficially left his ship B. He was on leave while his ship was in port
C. He had finished his tern of duty D. He had received permission to take a vacation in Tahiti.
Question 56: A “frigate” in paragraph 1 is probably .
A. An office B. a ship C. a troop D. a fishing boat
Question 57: How did the publication of Moby Dick affect Meville’s popularity?
A. His popularity increased immediately. B. It had no effect on his popularity.
C. It caused his popularity to decrease. D. His popularity remained as strong as ever.

4
Question 58: According to the passage, Moby Dick is .
A. A romantic adventure B. A single-faceted work
C. A short story about a whale D. Symbolic of humanity fighting the universe

Question 59: The word “metamorphosis” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .

A. circle B. change C.mysticism D.descent
Question 60: The passage would most likely be assigned reading in a course on .
A. nineteenth-century novels B. American history
C.oceanography D.modem American literature

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each the questions.
An air pollutant is defined as a compound added directly or indirectly by human to the atmosphere in
such quantities as to affect humans, animals, vegetation, or materials adversely. Air pollution requires a very
flexible definition that permits continuous change. When the first air pollution laws were established in
England in the fourteenth century, air pollutants were limited to compounds that could be seen or smelled – a
far cry from the extensive list of harmful substances known today. As technology has developed and
knowledge of the health aspects of various chemicals has increased, the list of air pollutants has lengthened. In
the future, even water vapor might be considered an air pollutant under certain conditions.
Many of the more important air pollutants, such as sulfur oxides, carbon monoxide, and nitrogen
oxides, are found in nature. As the Earth developed, the concentration of these pollutants was altered by
various chemical reactions; they became components in biogeochemical cycles. These serve as an air
purification scheme by allowing the compounds to move from the air to the water or soil. On a global basic,
nature’s output of these compounds dwarfs that resulting from human activities.
However, human production usually occurs in a localized area, such as a city. In such a region, human
output may be dominant and may temporarily overload the natural purification scheme of the cycles. The
result is an increased concentration of noxious chemicals in the air. The concentrations at which the adverse
effects appear will be greater than the concentrations that the pollutants would have in the absence of human
activities. The actual concentration need not be large for a substance to be a pollutant; in fact, the numerical
value tells us little until we know how much of an increase this represents over the concentration that would
occur naturally in the area. For example, sulfur dioxide has detectable health effects at 0.08 parts per million
(ppm), which is about 400 times its natural level. Carbon monoxide, however, has a natural level of 0.1 ppm
and is not usually a pollutant until its level reaches about 15ppm.

Question 61: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The economic impact of air pollution B. What constitutes an air pollutant.
C. How much harm air pollutants can cause. D. The effects of compounds added to the atmosphere.
Question 62: The word “adversely” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to .
A. Negatively B. quickly C. admittedly D. considerably
Question 63: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that .
A. water vapor is an air pollutant in localized areas B. most air pollutants today can be seen or smelled
C. the definition of air pollution will to change D. a substance becomes an air pollutant only in cities
Question 64: The word “These” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to .
A. the various chemical reactions B. the pollutants from the developing Earth
C. the compounds moved to the water or soil D. the components in biogeochemical cycles
Question 65: For which of the following reasons can natural pollutants play an important role in controlling
air pollution?
A. They function as part of a purification process.
B. They occur in greater quantities than other pollutants.
C. They are less harmful to living beings than other pollutants.
D. They have existed since the Earth developed.
Question 66: According to the passage, human-generated air pollution in localized regions .
A. can be dwarfed by nature’s output of pollutants
B. can overwhelm the natural system that removes pollutants
C. will damage areas outside of the localized regions
D. will react harmfully with natural pollutants
Question 67: The word “localized” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to .
A. specified B. circled C. surrounded D. encircled
Question 68: According to the passage, the numerical value of the concentration level of a substance is only
useful if .
A. the other substances in the area are known B. it is in a localized area
C. the natural level is also known D. it can be calculated quickly
5
Question 69: The word “detectable” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to .
A. beneficial B. special C. measurable D. separable

Question 70: Which of the following is best supported by the passage?
A. To effectively control pollution, local government should regularly review their air pollution laws.
B.One of the most important steps in preserving natural lands is to better enforce air pollution laws
C.Scientists should be consulted in order to establish uniform limits for all air pollutants.
D.Human activities have been effective in reducing air pollution.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 71: The cyclist he crossed the main street.
A. looked with caution after B. had looked with caution before
C. was looked with caution when D. looks with caution when
Question 72: The facilities of the older hospital are as good .
A. or better than the new hospital B. as or better than the new hospital
C. as or better than those of the new hospital D. as or better than the new hospital
Question 73: A study has been done to determine how the recent change in government policies
A. has affected the small business sector B. have affected the small business sector
C. the small business sector was affected D. affecting the small business sector
Question 74: , we would be rich by now.
A. If we invest in the telecommunications industry
B. Unless we had investment in the telecommunications industry
C. Had we invested in the telecommunications industry
D. Did we invest in the telecommunications industry
Question 75: When the personnel director realized , he immediately added two more staff to the project.
A. What a formidable task it was B. what it was a formidable task
C. it was what a formidable task D. how formidable was it a task

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct and natural combination of each
pair of sentences given.
Question 76: The student next to me kept chewing gum. That borthered me a lot.
A. The student next to me kept chewing gum, that borthered me a lot.

B. The student next to me kept chewing gum, which borthered me a lot.
C. The student next to me kept chewing gum borthering me a lot.
D. The student next to me kept chewing gum borthered me a lot.
Question 77: Transportation has been made much easier thanks to the invention of cars. However, cars are the
greatest contributor of air pollution.
A. The invention of cars has made transportation much easier, but cars are among the greatest contributors of
air pollution.
B. Although the invention of cars has made transportation much easier, people use cars to contribute to the
pollution of air.
C. Although the invention of cars has made transportation much easier, cars are the greatest contributor of air
pollution.
D. However, easier the invention of cars has made transportation, it is cars that are among the greatest
contributors of air pollution.
Question 78: He was suspected to have stolen credit cards. The police have investigated him for days.
A. He has been investigated for days, suspected to have stolen credit cards.
B. Suspecting to have stolen crdit cards, he has been investigated for days.
C. Having suspected to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
D. Suspected to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
Question 79: The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room. He opened the window.
A. The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room because he opened the window.
B. The man opened the window in order to get some fresh air in the room.
C. The man got some fresh air in the room, even though he opened the window.
D. Having opened the window, the room could get some fresh air.
Question 80: The plan may be ingenious. It will never work in practice.
A. Ingenious as it may be, the plan will never work in practice.
B. Ingenious as may the plan, it will never work in practice.
C. The plan may be to ingenious to work in practice.
D. The plan is an impractical as it is ingenious.
THE END!

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC& ĐÀO TẠO YÊN BÁI ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC LẦN I NĂM 2013
TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN HUỆ MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – KHỐI D, A1

(Đề thi gồm 07 trang)
Thời gian: 90 phút
(không kể thời gian giao đề)

Thí sinh làm bài ra phiếu trả lời trắc nghiệm
Mã đề 068

Reading the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 1 to 10:

Animation traditionally is done by hand-drawing or painting successive frame of an object, each slightly
different than the proceeding frame. In computer animation, although the computer may be the one to draw
the different frames, in most cases the artist will draw the beginning and ending frames and the computer
will produce the drawings between the first and the last drawing. This is generally referred to as computer-
assisted animation, because the computer is more of a helper than an originator.
In full computer animation, complex mathematical formulas are used to produce the final sequences of
pictures. These formulas operate on extensive databases of numbers that defines the objects in the pictures
as they exist in mathematical space. The database consists of endpoints, and color and intensity
information. Highly trained professionals are needed to produce such effects because animation that
obtains high degrees of realism involves computer techniques fro three-dimensional transformation,

shading, and curvatures.
High-tech computer animation for film involves very expensive computer systems along with special
color terminals or frame buffers. The frame buffer is nothing more than a giant image memory for viewing
a single frame. It temporarily holds the image for display on the screen.
A camera can be used to film directly from the computer’s display screen, but for the highest quality
images possible, expensive film recorders are used. The computer computers the positions and colors for
the figures in the picture, and sends this information to the recorder, which captures it on film. Sometimes,
however, the images are stored on a large magnetic disk before being sent to the recorder. Once this
process is completed, it is replaced for the next frame. When the entire sequence has been recorded on the
film, the film must be developed before the animation can be viewed. If the entire sequence does not seem
right, the motions must be corrected, recomputed, redisplayed, and rerecorded. This approach can be very
expensive and time- consuming. Often, computer-animation companies first do motion tests with simple
computer-generated line drawings before selling their computers to the task of calculating the high-
resolution, realistic-looking images.
Question 1: What aspect of computer animation does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The production procession B. The equipment needed
C. The high cost D. The role of the artist
Question 2: According to the passage, in computer-assisted animation the role of the computer is to draw
the _________.
A. first frame B. middle frames
C. last frame D. entire sequences of frames
Question 3: The word “they” in the second paragraph refers to _________.
A. formulas B. objects C. numbers D. database
Question 4: According to the passage, the frame buffers mentioned in the third paragraph are used to
_________.
A. add color to the images B. expose several frames at the same time
C. store individual images D. create new frames
Question 5: According to the passage, the positions and colors of the figures in high-tech animation are
determined by _________.
A. drawing several versions B. enlarging one frame at a lime

C. analyzing the sequence from different angles D. using computer calculations



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Question 6: The word “captures” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. separates B. registers C. describes D. numbers
Question 7: The word “Once” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. before B. since C. after D. while
Question 8: According to the passage, how do computer-animation companies often test motion?
A. They experiment with computer-generated line drawings.
B. They hand-draw successive frames.
C. They calculate high-resolutions images.
D. They develop extensive mathematical formulas.
Question 9: The word “task” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. possibility B. position C. time D. job
Question 10: Which of the following statement is supported by the passage?
A. Computers have reduced the costs of animation.
B. In the future, traditional artists will no longer be needed.
C. Artists are unable to produce drawings as high in quality as computer drawings.
D. Animation involves a wide range of technical and artistic skills.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions from 11 to 12:

Question 11: We offer a speedy and secure service of transferring money in less than 24 hours.
A. uninterested B. unsure C. open D. slow

Question 12: The Red Cross is an international humanitarian agency dedicated to reducing the sufferings
of wounded soldiers, civilians and prisoners of war.
A. happiness B. worry and sadness C. pain and sorrow D. loss

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions from 13 to 15:

Question 13: The most important thing is to keep yourself occupied.
A. busy B. comfortable C. free D. relaxed
Question 14: My uncle, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play.
A. skillful B. famous C. perfect D. modest
Question 15: After many year of unsuccessfully endeavoring to form his own orchestra, Glenn Miller
finally achieved world fame in 1939 as a big band leader.
A. requesting B. trying C. offering D. deciding

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 16 to 45:

Question 16: - Do you like pop music or jazz?
- I don’t like _______of them. I prefer classical music.
A. any B. both C. either D. neither
Question 17: By 1820, there were over sixty steamboats on the Mississippi river, _______ were quite
luxurious.
A. which many B. many of them C. many of which D. many that
Question 18: Let’s do something to protect the environment, _______we?
A. needn’t B. must C. shall D. will
Question 19: _______saying was so important that I asked everyone to stop talking and listen.
A. What the woman was B. That the woman was
C. The woman was D. What was the woman

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Question 20: If we leave now for our trip, we can drive half the distance before we stop _______lunch.
A. for having B. having had C. having D. to have
Question 21: Although he is my friend, I find it hard to _______ his selfishness.
A. keep up with B. come down with C. put up with D. catch up with
Question 22: –“Would you like another coffee?” – “____________”.
A. Willingly B. Very kind of your part
C. I’d love one D. It’s a pleasure
Question 23: The discovery was a major _______ for research workers.
A. break-in B. breakout C. breakthrough D. breakdown
Question 24: -“Do you mind if I take a seat?” - “_____________ .“
A. Yes, I don’t mind B. No, do as you please
C. No I mind D. Yes, do as you please
Question 25: As the two teams left the football ground, the 100,000 _______ gave them a standing
ovation.
A. bystanders B. spectators C. viewers D. audiences
Question 26: My parents lent me the money. _______, I couldn’t have afforded the trip.
A. However B. Therefore C. Only if D. Otherwise
Question 27: It was Mr. Harding _______ the bill to yesterday.
A. who sent my secretary B. to whom my secretary sent
C. that my secretary sent D. my secretary sent
Question 28: - “How lovely your pets are!” – “____________”.
A. I love them, too B. Thank you, it’s nice of you to say so
C. Can you say that again D. Really? They are
Question 29: It is essential that Alice _______ Tom of the meeting tomorrow.

A. remind B. must remind C. reminds D. will remind
Question 30: It is interesting to take _______ a new hobby such as collecting stamps or going fishing.
A. over B. on C. in D. up
Question 31: Jack made me _______ him next week.
A. promise calling B. to promise calling C. to promise to call D. promise to call
Question 32: _______ down to dinner than the telephone rang.
A. No sooner had I sat B. Scarcely I sat C. Hardly had I sat D. No sooner I sat
Question 33: “ I passed the TOEFL test, Mom.” -“ _______”
A. All right B. Thank you C. Well done D. Good luck
Question 34: - “Don’t fail to send your parents my regards”
- “_____________ .“
A. It’s my pleasure B. Good idea, thanks C. You’ve welcome D. Thanks, I will
Question 35: Parts of the country are suffering water _______ after the unusually dry summer.
A. shortage B. supply C. thirst D. hunger
Question 36: The bad weather caused serious damage to the crop. If only it _______ warmer.
A. was B. were C. has been D. had been
Question 37: My supervisor is angry with me. I didn’t do all the work that I _______ last week.
A. must have done B. can have done C. may have done D. should have done
Question 38: Jogging every day will_______ you good.
A. do B. keep C. help D. make
Question 39: _______you, I’d think twice about that decision. I could be a bad move.
A. Were I B. Should I be C. If I am D. If I had been
Question 40: They are having their house _______ by a construction company.
A. to paint B. being painted C. painted D. painting




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Question 41: Stay out of this problem and do not interfere, please! It’s none of your _______!
A. work B. job C. business D. action
Question 42: Not only _______ to speak to him, but she also vowed never to see him again.
A. she refused B. did she refuse C. she did refuse D. when she refused
Question 43: The judge _______ the pedestrian for the accident.
A. accused B. charged C. sued D. blamed
Question 44: She had to borrow her sister’s car because hers was _______.
A. out of work B. out of order C. off chance D. off work
Question 45: We should participate in the movement _______ to conserve the natural environment.
A. to organize B. organizing C. which organized D. organized

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction
from 46 to 50:

Question 46: A galaxy, where may include billions of stars, is held together by gravitation attraction.
A B C D
Question 47: The tongue is the principle organ of taste, and is crucial for chewing, swallowed, and
speaking.
A B C D
Question 48: If Monique had not attended the party, she never would meet her old friend Dan, whom she
A B C
had not seen in years.
D
Question 49: A smaller percentage of British students go on to farther or higher education than any other
A B C D
European country.
Question 50: The proposal has repealed after a thirty-minutes discussion and a number of objections to
A B C

its failure to include our district.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in
the position of the main stress in each of the following questions from 51 to 55:
Question 51: A. environment B. satisfy C. imagine D. attractive
Question 52: A. biology B. ability C. interactive D. inaccurate
Question 53: A. specialize B. anxious C. anticipate D. tendency
Question 54: A. eliminate B. compulsory C. technology D. academic
Question 55: A. medicine B. addition C. endanger D. survival

Read the following passage and mark A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word for each of the bank from 56 to 65:

Why did you decide to read, and will you keep reading to the end? Do you expect to understand
every single part of it and will you remember anything about it in a fortnight’s ([<56>]) __________?
Common sense ([<57>]) __________ that the answers to these questions depend on “readability”- whether
the ([<58>]) __________ matter is interesting, and the argument clear and the ([<59>])
__________attractive. But psychologists are trying to ([<60>]) __________ why people read – and often
don’t read certain things, for example technical information. They also have examined so much the writing
as the readers.



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Even the most technically confident people often ([<61>]) __________ instructions for the video or
home computer in favor of hands- on experience. And people frequently take little notice of consumer
information, whether on nutritional labels or in the small print of contracts. Psychologists researching

reading ([<62>]) __________ to assume that both beginners and competent readers read everything put in
front of them from start to finish. There are ([<63>]) __________among them about the role of eyes,
memory and brain during the process. Some people believe that fluent readers take in very letter or word
they see; other ([<64>]) __________that reader rely on memory or context to carry them from one phrase
to another. But they have always assumed that the reading process is the same: reading starts,
comprehension ([<65>]) __________, then reading stops.

Question 56: A. time B. period C. term D. gap
Question 57: A. transmits B. suggests C. informs D. advises
Question 58: A. content B. text C. subject D. topic
Question 59: A. information B. pattern C. layout D. assembly
Question 60: A. rate B. value C. determine D. ensure
Question 61: A. ignore B. pass C. miss D. omit
Question 62: A. lead B. tend C. undertake D. consent
Question 63: A. contests B. objections C. separations D. arguments
Question 64: A. direct B. press C. insist D. urge
Question 65: A. occurs B. establishes C. issues D. sets

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions from 66 to 70:
Question 66: While I strongly disapproved of your behavior, I will help you this time.
A. Despite of my strong disapproval of your behavior, I will help you this time.
B. Despite my strong disapproval of your behavior, I will help you this time.
C. Although I strongly disapproved of your behavior, but I will help you this time.
D. Because of your behavior, I will help you this time.
Question 67: I’m sorry I interrupted your speech in the middle.
A. Your speech is very sorry for being interrupted in the middle.
B. I’m sorry to interrupt your speech in the middle.
C. It’s my pity to interrupt your speech in the middle.
D. I apologized for having interrupted your speech in the middle.

Question 68: I was not surprised to hear that Harry had failed his driving test.
A. By having failed his driving test, Harry made no surprise.
B. If Harry had not failed his driving test, I would have been surprised.
C. Harry’s having failed his driving test is not my surprise.
D. It came as no surprise to me that Harry had failed his driving test.
Question 69: She has always had a good relationship with the children.
A. She has always got on well with the children.
B. She has got a lot of friend children.
C. She has always got away well with the children.
D. The children have had her as their friend.
Question 70: I have called this meeting in order to present the latest sale figures.
A. This meeting is in order to present the latest sale figures.
B. My purpose in this meeting is in order to present the latest sale figures.
C. My purpose in having called this meeting is to present the latest sale figures.
D. This meeting is called in order to present the latest sale figures.



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Reading the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the question 71 to 80:

Some animal behaviorists argue that certain animals can remember part events, anticipate future
ones, make plans and choices, and coordinate activities within a group. These scientists, however, are
cautious about the extent to which animals can be credited with conscious processing.
Explanations of animal behavior that leave out any sort of consciousness at all and ascribe actions
entirely to instinct leave many questions unanswered. One example of such unexplained behavior:

Honeybees communicate the sources of nectar to one another by doing a dance in a figure-eight pattern.
The orientation of the dance conveys the position of the food relative to the sun’s position in the sky, and
the speed of the dance tells how far the food source is from the hive. Most researchers assume that the
ability to perform and encode the dance is innate and shows no special intelligence. But in one study, when
experimenters kept changing the site of the food source, each time moving the food 25 percent father from
the previous site, foraging honeybees began to anticipate where the food source would appear next. When
the researchers arrived at the new location, they would find the bees circling the spot, waiting for their
food. No one has yet explained how bees, whose brains weigh four ten-thousandths of an ounce, could
have inferred the location of the new site.
Other behaviors that may indicate some cognition include tool use. Many animals, like the otter
who uses a stone to crack mussel shells, are capable of using objects in the natural environment as
rudimentary tools. One researcher has found that mother chimpanzees occasionally show their young how
to use tools to open hard nuts. In one study, chimpanzees compared two pairs of food wells containing
chocolate chips. One pair might contain, say, five chips and three chips, the other four chips and three
chips. Allowed to choose which pair they wanted, the chimpanzees almost always chose the one with the
higher total, showing some sort of summing ability. Other chimpanzees have learned to use numerals to
label quantities of items and do simple sums.
Question 71: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Observations that suggest consciousness in animal behavior.
B. The use of food in studies of animal behavior.
C. The role of instinct in animal behavior.
D. Differences between the behavior of animals in their natural environments and in laboratory
experiments.
Question 72: Which of the following is NOT discussed as an ability animals are thought to have?
A. Communicating emotions B. Remembering past experiences
C. Selecting among choices D. Anticipating events to come
Question 73: What is the purpose of the honeybee at a site?
A. To determine the quality of food at a site
B. To increase the speed of travel to food sources
C. To identify the type of nectar that is available

D. To communicate the location of food
Question 74: The word “yet” is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. however B. generally C. since D. so far
Question 75: What did researchers discover in the study of honeybees discussed in paragraph 2?
A. Bees are able to travel at greater speeds than scientists thought.
B. The bees were able to determine in advance where scientists would place their food.
C. Changing the location of food caused bees to decrease their dance activity.
D. The bees could travel 25% farther than scientists expected.
Question 76: It can be inferred from the passage that brain size is assumed to ___________.
A. be an indicator of cognitive ability B. be related to food consumption
C. correspond to levels of activity D. vary among individuals within a species



Trường THPT Nguyễn Huệ - Đề thi thử ĐH lần I - Năm học 2012-2013

Trang 7/7 - Mã đề thi 068

Question 77: Why are otters and mussel shells included in the discussion in paragraph 3?
A. To provide that certain species demonstrate greater ability in tool use than other species.
B. To provide an example of tool use among animals.
C. To show that animals are very good at using objects in their habitat.
D. To provide an example of the use of weapons among animals.
Question 78: The word “rudimentary” in meaning to ___________.
A. technical B. basic C. superior D. original
Question 79: The phrase “the one” refer to the ____________.
A. chimpanzee B. pair C. ability D. study
Question 80: Scientists concluded from the experiment with chimpanzees and chocolate chips that
chimpanzees __________.
A. prefer to work in pairs or groups

B. have difficulty selecting when given choices
C. lack abilities that other primates have
D. exhibit behavior that indicates certain mathematical abilities

THE END


SỞ GD-ĐT NAM ĐỊNH
TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN BÍNH
ĐỀ THI THỬ TUYỂN SINH ĐẠI HỌC, CAO ĐẲNG NĂM 2013-LẦN 1
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH, khối D
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút


Họ và tên thí sinh:
Số báo danh: …………………………………………………

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in
the position of the main stress in each of the following Questions
Question 1: A. parameter B. speedometer C. thermometer D. conscious
Question 2: A. production B. deficient C. ancient D. sufficient
Question 3: A. endangered B. humidity C. necessary D. incredible
Question 4: A. secretary B. necessary C. classifies D. vocabulary
Question 5: A. biology B. accordance C. incomplete D. pudicity
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is not received the tress
or unstressed words)
Question 6: Those of us who smoke should are liable to die of cancer.
A B C D
Question 7: Would you like to have a drink with me tonight, John?
A B C D

Question 8: Jenny must have been suffered after her husband’s death.
A B C D
Question 9: Never in his whole life has he forgotten what happened to his wife.
A B C D
Question 10: You remember the words if you write them down in your notebook.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
pronunciation in each of the following Questions
Question 11: A. question B. presentation C. industrialization D. modernization
Question 12: A. accompany B. application C. apologize D. admire
Question 13: A. theme B. ethnic C. honey-mouthed D. thunder
Question 14: A. will B. we’ll C. weal D. wheel
Question 15: A. I ’d B. AIDS C. played D. paid
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following Questions
Question 16: “What a new nice style of hair you have it cut!” “ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ ”
A. Yes, please B. It’s from Italy
C. Thank you D. No, I think it’s suitable for me.
Question 17: “You’d better help your mother do the household chores.” “ _ _ _ _ _ __ ”
A. I’d love to B. Thank for your advice C. It’s rubbish D. I have no clue.
Question 18: “Could you tell me how to get to the nearest post office?” “ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ ”
A. sorry, for this inconvenience B. I have no clue
C. not at all D. sorry, I’m the new comer here.
Question 19: “More coffee, sir?” “ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ ”
A. No, thanks B. Yes, do it yourself
C. All right, self-service D. Make yourself at home
Question 20: “May I come in?” “_______”
A. Yes, no problem B. Feel free C. You’re welcome D. Sorry, let’s wait.
Mã đề thi 01
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

(Đề thi có 06 trang)
Question 21: Tom “Sorry, I don’t know where the nearest post office is.”
Stranger: “ _ _ _ __ _ _ ”
A. Thank you B. Thank you anyway C. Not at all D. Don’ t mention it
Question 22: “What do you think of this shirt?” “ _ _ _ _ _ _ _”
A. It fits you B. Nonsense C. It’s up to you D. No money
Question 23: “What do you want me to cook for your dinner? “ __ _ _ __ _ ”
A. Yes, give up B. Yeah, your meal is great C. It’s up to you D. Let me go
Question 24: As the patient was still too weak the surgeon postpones the operation.
The word postpone is the nearest meaning with:
A. put in B. put on C. put off D. put over
Question 25: John _ _ _ _ _ _ _ this task yesterday morning, but I did it for him. He owes me a thank-
you.
A. must have completed B. should have completed
C. could have completed D. may have completed
Question 26: It _ _ _ _ _ _ _ a long time since we were apart, I did not recognize her.
A. is B. has been C. was D. had been
Question 27: _ _ __ _ _ _ had my teacher arrived than he gave us exercises.
A. Hardly B. Not until C. When D. No sooner
Question 28: Actually, I not only read the stories about princes or princesses in the great castles in the
school library_______ in the public library.
A. or B. whether C. but also D. either
Question 29: _ _ __ _ _ _ furniture needs supplying for the schools in the whole country will slow
down the process of the reform of education.
A. Few B. A few C. Little D. That little
Question 30: It was not _ _ _ _ _ _ _ Micheal Jackson’s death people around the world understood his
contribution in music.
A. since B. when C. until D. result
Question 31: Although David was _ _ _ _ _ _ after a day’s work in the office, he tried to help his wife
the household chores.

A. exhaustion B. exhausted C. exhausting D. exhaustive
Question 32: _ _ __ _ _ _ studying in faculty of Love and Happiness in Japan for 5 years, he wrote the
books of how to live and to be lived.
A. After had been B. After he has C. Having been D. Before he had been
Question 33: If you are a typewriter, you will be accustomed to Microsoft word, this program allows
you to save your _______ with many types.
A. files B. documents C. documentaries D. documentary files
Question 34: Juliet, remember shammed death when Romeo appears, _ _ __ _ _ _.
A. didn’t she B. doesn’t he C. do you D. will you
Question 35: Although they are poor and hard, they are _ _ _ _ _ _ _ to their children’s success.
A. content B. proud C. satisfied D. boastful
Question 36: In 1879, _ _ _ _ _ _ _ , Alice Freeman Palmer became head of the history department at
Wellesley College.
A. twenty-four years B. at the age of twenty-four
C. age twenty-four D. of twenty-four years
Question 37: The United States spends more money on the economic crisis _ _ _ _ _ __ country in the
world.
A. other B. other than C. than any other D. while other
Question 38: Geysers have often been compared to volcanoes _ _ _ _ _ _ _ they both emit hot from
below the Earth’s surface.
A. due to B. because C. in spite of D. regardless of
Question 39: “Bless you.” “ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ ”
A. You’re welcome B. Sorry C. Thank you D. That’s all right
Question 40: Vladimir Putin said that he loved his wife and two daughters as well as his dog, _ _ _ _ _
__ also a female, so much.
A. which was B. that were C. all of whom were D. which were
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks from 41 to 50.
The PBT is a pencil and (41) _______ test that is offered for two purposes. One purpose of the PBT is
for (42) _______ and process evaluation. Colleges or other institutions use the PBT to test their

students. The scores are not valid outside of the place where they are (43) _______, but the college or
institution accepts the PBT that they administered as an official score. This PBT is also (44) _______
an Intitution TOEFL. The (45) _______ purpose of the PBT is (46) _______ the official Computer-
Based TOEFL in areas where computer-based testing is not possible. The scores are usually valid
outside of the place where they are administered. This PBT is also called a Supplement TOEFL.
The Paper-Based TOEFL has three parts: Listening Comprehension, Structure and Written
Expression, and Reading. (47) _______, the TEST of Written English (TWE) is an essay that is
required to provide a (48) _______ score. The PBT is a (49) _______ test, which means that everyone
who takes the TOEFL during the same administration will see and answer the same questions. The (50)
_______ score is based on a scale of 310-677.
Question 41: A. note-paper B. letter C. draft D. paper
Question 42: A. place B. placing C. placement D. placeability
Question 43: A. administered B. managed C. controlled D. protected
Question 44: A. called B. seemed C. considered D. appeared
Question 45: A. some B. other C. another D. main
Question 46: A. supplement B. to supplement C. supplementing D. supplemented
Question 47: A. In other words B. On the other hand C. Besides D. In addition
Question 48: A. reading B. speaking C. listening D. writing
Question 49: A. style B. form C. standard D. linear
Question 50: A. total B. final C. whole D. all
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the Questions from 51 to 55
Our demand for water is constantly increasing. Every year there are more and more people in
the world. Factories turn out more and more products and need more and more water. We live in a
world of water. But almost all of it - about 97%-is in the oceans. This water is too salty to be used
for drinking, farming, and manufacturing. Only about 3% of the world's water is fresh. Most of this
water is not easily available to man because it is locked in
glaciers and icecaps. There is as much water on earth today as there ever was or will ever be. Most of
the water we use finds its way to the oceans. There, it is evaporated by the sun. It then falls back to the
earth as rain.

Water is used and reused over again. It is never used up. Although the world as a whole has
plenty of fresh water, some regions have a water shortage. Rain does not fall evenly over the earth.
Some regions are always too dry, and others too wet. A. region that usually gets enough rain may
suddenly have a serious dry spell and another region may be flooded with too much rain.
Question 51. All of the following statements can be inferred from the text EXCEPT
A. We need more and more water.
B. The population of the world is increasing every year.
C. Most of the world’s water is locked in glaciers and icecaps.
D. Factories also need more water.
Question 52. Which of the following is NOT true about the world’s water?
A. The vast majority of the world’s water is ocean (or salty) water.
B. Ocean water is salty enough to be used for drinking, farming, and manufacturing.
C. Most fresh water is locked in glaciers and icecaps.
D. The percentage of fresh water is very small.
Question 53. What can be inferred about water?
A. The amount of water on earth is always the same.
B. Water will probably be exhausted.
C. Water can be used once only.
D. Most of the water we use is not rain water.
Question 54. It can be inferred from the text that ______
A. no region in the world suffers from a lack of fresh water.
B. rain does not fall equally everywhere on earth.
C. the world has plenty of fresh water in comparison with salty water.
D. a region that usually gets enough rain hardly ever has a dry spell.
Question 55. The phrasal verb “turn out” in the second line is closest in meaning to.
A. sell B. prove to be C. switch off D. produce
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the Questions from 56 to 60
It is commonly believed in the United States that school is where people go to get as education.
Nevertheless, it has been said that today children interrupt their education to go to school. The

distinction between schooling and education implied by this remark is important.
Education is much more open-ended and all-inclusive than schooling. Education knows no bounds. It
can take place where, whether in the shower or on the job, whether in a kitchen or on a tractor. It
includes both the formal learning that takes place in schools and the whole universe of informal
learning. The agents of education can range from a reserved grandparent to the people debating
politics on the radio, from a child to a distinguished scientist. Whereas schooling has certain
predictability, education quite often produce surprise. A change conversation with a stranger may lead
a person to discover how little is know of other religions.
People are engaged in education from infancy on. Education, then, is a very broad, inclusive
term. It is a lifelong process, a process that starts long before the start of school and one that should be
an integral part of one’s entire life. Schooling, on the other hand, is a specific, formalized process,
whose general pattern varies little from one setting to the next. Throughout a country, children arrive at
school at approximately the same time, take assigned seats, are taught by an adult, use similar
textbook, do homework, take exams, and so on. The slices of reality that are to be learnt, whether they
are the alphabet or an understanding of the workings of government, have usually been limited by the
boundaries of the subject being taught. For example, high school students know that they are not likely
to find out in their class the truth about political problems in their communities or what the newest
filmmakers are experimenting with. There are definite conditions surrounding the formalized process
of schooling.
Question 56: What does the author probably mean by using the expression “children interrupt their
education to go to school”?
A. Going to several different schools is educationally beneficial.
B. School vacations interrupt the continuity of the school year.
C. Summer school makes the school year too long.
D. All of life is an education.
Question 57: the word “bounds” is closest in meaning to
A. rules B. experiences C. limits D. expectation
Question 58: the word “they” refers to
A. slices of reality B. similar textbooks C. boundaries D. seats
Question 59: The passage supports which of the following conclusions?

A. Without formal education, people would remain ignorant
B. Education systems need to be radically reformed.
C. Going to school is only part of how people become educated.
D. Education involves many years of professional training.
Question 60: The passage is organized by
A. listing and discussing several educational problems
B. contrasting the meanings of two related words
C. narrating a story about excellent teachers
D. giving examples of different kinds of schools
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction
Question 61: From 1905 to 1920, American novelist Edith Wharton was at the height of her
A B
writing career, publishing of her three most famous novels.
C D
Question 62: Because of its vast tracts of virtually uninhabited northern forest, Canada has one
A B C
of the lowest population density in the world.
D
Question 63: Every child in Great Britain between the old year of five and fifteen must attend school.
A B C D
Question 64: It is the high time John understands how to behave properly towards the old men.
A B C D
Question 65: Have you learnt the reason why does the water of the ocean becomes blue?
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct and natural way of
combining of each pair of sentences given
Question 66: In spite of having a broken leg, he managed to get out of the car.
A. In spite of the fact that his leg was broken, he managed to get out of the car.
B. In site of having broken legs, he managed to get out of the car.
C. Despite of the fact that his leg was broken, he managed to get out of the car.

D. Although his leg was broken but he managed to get out of the car.
Question 67: Maria says she’d like to have been put in a higher class.
A. Maria wishes she will be put in a. higher class.
B. Maria wishes she is put in a higher class.
C. Maria wishes she were put in a higher class.
D. Maria wishes that she had been put in a higher class.
Question 68: “Please could you wake me up at 7 o’clock tomorrow morning?” I asked the doorman.
A. I asked the doorman if he wakes me at 7 o’clock in the following morning.
B. I asked the doorman if he wake me at 7 o’clock in the following morning.
C. I asked the doorman whether he wakes me at 7 o’clock in the following morning or not.
D. I asked the doorman to wake me up 7 o’clock in the following morning.
Question 69: “I’m sorry, I was rude to you yesterday.” I said to Tom.
A. I apologize of being rude to you yesterday.
B. I apologized Tom for having been rude to him the day before.
C. I apologized for my rude to you yesterday.
D. I apologized Tom to be so rude the day before.
Question 70: The Prime Minister set up a committee of financial experts. They were to help him
discuss and formulate new policies.
A. The Prime Minister, who is a financial expert, set up a committee to discuss and formulate new
policies.
B. A committee consisting of financial experts was set up by the Prime Minister to help him
discuss and formulate new policies.
C. The Prime Minister, who was helped by financial experts, set up a committee to discuss and
formulate new policies.
D. A committee consisting of financial experts who were helped by the Prime Minister discussed
and formulated new policies.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to the best sentence which is made up from the
given cue word
Question 71: /anxious / find / good school / my wife / children / attend.