Đề thi thử THPT quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh số 397

SỞ GD- ĐT VĨNH PHÚC
TRƯỜNG THPT LIỄN SƠN
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2015
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian: 90 phút
PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM: (8 điểm)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions:
Question 1: A. certificate B. category C. enthusiasm D. imaginary
Question 2: A. discovery B. similar C. demonstrate D. management
Question 3: A. eject B. advance C. referee D. insurance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions:
Question 4: A. Martha’s B. Thompson’s C. Philip’s D. Peter’s
Question 5: A. cooked B. naked C. looked D. worked
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions:
Question 6: The supervisor’s job is to _________ the work of his particular department.
A. overlook B. overrun C. overview D. oversee
Question 7: - Cashier: “All right. Keep your receipt. If something comes up, you can show it to us and you can
get a refund.”
- John: “_________.”
A. OK, I won’t use it B. Thanks. I’ll put it in a safe place
C. You’re welcome. See you D. Thank you. I’ll keep it for you
Question 8: Phil was sentenced to three years _________ for his part in the robbery.
A. prisoner B. imprisonment C. imprison D. prison
Question 9: Small microcomputers of today can process _________ their predecessors, which were twenty
times their size.
A. in the same amount of information B. and have the same amount of information
C. the information is the same as D. the same amount of information as

Question 10: In public places, you should ask everyone for permission before you _________ a cigarette.
A. put out B. put up C. turn up D. light up
Question 11: Neither of them will be treated preferentially, _________?
A. won’t they B. will they C. won’t them D. will them
Question 12: We bought some _________.
A. lovely old German glasses B. German lovely old glasses
C. German old lovely glasses D. old lovely German glasses
Question 13: I don’t believe a word he said; I think he just made _________ the story.
A. up B. down C. out D. off
Question 14: It is generally true that the lower the stock market falls, _________.
A. higher the price of gold rises B. the price of gold rises high
C. the higher the price of gold rises D. rises high the price of gold
Question 15: He said that the plane had already left and that I _________ an hour earlier.
A. must have arrived B. had to arrive C. should have arrived D. was supposed to arrive
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Question 16: _________ the Christmas shopping season begins.
A. That is after Thanksgiving B. After Thanksgiving it is
C. It is Thanksgiving that D. It is after Thanksgiving that
Question 17: WHO _________ for World Health Organization.
A. shortens B. summarizes C. symbolizes D. stands
Question 18: Only after food has been dried or canned _________.
A. that it should be stored for later consumption B. should be stored for later consumption
C. should it be stored for later consumption D. it should be stored for later consumption
Question 19: On being told about her sack, _________.
A. her boss felt sorry for Mary B. Mary was shocked
C. Mary’s face turned pale D. I felt afraid
Question 20: The success of the party was mainly due to the presence of several _________.
A. celebrations B. celebrated C. celebrities D. celebrates
Question 21: _________ the weather forecast, it will rain heavily later this morning.
A. According to B. On account of C. Due to D. Because of

Question 22: _________ the students here are serious about studying.
A. Most B. Almost C. Almost of D. Most of
Question 23: _________ cheaper, Belinda would have bought it.
A. The notebook computer B. The notebook computer had been
C. Had the notebook computer been D. If the notebook computer was
Question 24: - John: “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our environment?”
- Laura: “_________.”
A. Yes, it’s an absurd idea B. There’s no doubt about it
C. Of course not. You bet D. Well, that’s very surprising
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction:
Question 25: Some methods to prevent soil erosion are ploughing parallel with the slopes of hills,
A B C
to plant trees on unproductive land, and rotating crops.
D
Question 26: That man was an easy recognized figure with his long, white beard and a wide-
A B C D
brimmed hat.
Question 27: Generally speaking, proteins that come from animal sources are complete whereas
A B
those that come from another sources are incomplete proteins.
C D
Question 28. With the development of the Internet and the World Wide Web, businessmen do not
A B
hardly have as much traveling as they used to.
C D
Question 29. Australia Scuba Diving is managed by two Australian scuba divers Rick and Bernie,
A
who together have over 50 years dive experienced.
B C D
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following sentences:
Question 30: In the summer of 2000, the Vietnam Society of Learning Promotion started a campaign for
illiteracy eradication.
A. performance B. project C. job D. game
Question 31: My father died when I was young and my mother brought me up.
A. educated me B. reared me C. supported me D. fed me
Question 32: Aside from its reproduction on the one-dollar bill, the reverse of the Great Seal of the United
States has hardly been used.
A. Except for B. Since C. As a result of D. In addition to
Question 33: There has been a stable relationship among Southeast Asian countries.
A. mutual B. steady C. close D. comfortable
Question 34: Julia and William broke with tradition and got married quietly.
A. did things differently B. argued with their parents
C. opposed their parents D. kept their marriage secret
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Why do people like to chew gum? Some people say they like the taste. (35) _________ say they can
think better if they chew gum. Some people chew it when they have some boring work to (36) _________.
Others chew gum when they are nervous.
Gum is a (37) _________ of several things. For many years gum companies made gum from chicle.
Chicle is a natural gum from a tree in Mexico and Central America. Now companies use plastic and rubber
made from petroleum (38) _________ of chicle.
Gum must be soft (39) _________ you can chew it. A softener keeps it soft. The gum company makes
the softener from vegetable oil. A sweetener makes the gum sweet. The sweetener is usually sugar. Then the
company (40) _________ the flavor.
Thomas Adams made the first gum from chicle in 1836. (41) _________, chewing gum was not new.
The Greeks chewed gum from a tree (42) _________ 2,000 years ago. Mayan Indians in Mexico chewed
chicle. Indians in the Northeastern United States taught Europeans to chew gum from a tree there.
People first made bubble gum in 1928. Children like to (43) _________ bubble with bubble gum. Some

university students do (44) _________.
Question 35: A. The other B. Others C. The others D. Other
Question 36: A. make B. get C. do D. carry
Question 37: A. mixture B. roll C. fix D. connection
Question 38: A. aside B. apart C. inside D. instead
Question 39: A. so that B. then C. for D. that
Question 40: A. puts B. places C. adds D. fits
Question 41: A. However B. More C. But D. Though
Question 42: A. more B. over C. above D. than
Question 43: A. turn B. set C. pass D. blow
Question 44: A. so B. too C. then D. same
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54.
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The White House, the official home of the United States President, was not built in time for George
Washington to live in it. It was begun in 1792 and was ready for its first inhabitants, President and Mrs. John
Adams, who moved in on November 1, 1800. When the Adamses moved in, the White House was not yet
complete, and the Adamses suffered many inconveniences; for example, the main staircase was incomplete,
which hindered movement from floor to floor, and the future laundry yard was merely a pool of mud, so wet
laundry was hung in the unfinished East Room to dry. Thomas Jefferson, the third president, improved the
comfort of the White House in many aspects and added new architectural features such as the terraces on the
east and west ends.
When the British forces burned the White House on August 24, 1814, President Madison was forced to
leave. All the remained after the fire was the exterior walls, the interior was completely destroyed. It was not
until December of 1817 that the following president, James Monroe, was able to move into a rebuilt residence.
Since then, the White House has continued to be modified but has been continuously occupied by each
succeeding US president.
Question 45: Which of the following would be the most appropriate title of this text?
A. George Washington’s Life in the White House.
B. The Early History of the White House.

C. The Burning of the White House.
D. Presidential Policies of Early US Presidents.
Question 46: Why did George Washington not live in the White House?
A. It had been burned by the British.
B. He did not like the architectural features.
C. He did not want to suffer the inconveniences that the Adamses had suffered.
D. Construction had not yet been completed.
Question 47: The word “inhabitants” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. modifications B. moves C. celebrations D. residents
Question 48: It can be inferred from the passage that John Adams was __________.
A. the first president of the United States B. the second president of the United States
C. the third president of the United States D. the fourth president of the United States
Question 49: What of the White House was not yet complete when the Adamses moved in?
A. main staircase B. laundry yard C. pool D. A and B
Question 50: The author most likely discusses the “staircase” in paragraph 1 in order to __________.
A. show the elegance of the new White House
B. explain the architectural features added by Jefferson
C. provide an example of an inconveniences in the White House
D. demonstrate what had to be rebuilt after the fire
Question 51: The word “forces” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by __________.
A. military B. effort C. power D. energy
Question 52: According to the passage, which of the following best describes Thomas Jefferson’s tenure in the
White House?
A. He worked to improve the appearance and convenience of the White House.
B. He had to flee the White House because of the war with the British.
C. He removed the terraces that had been added by Adams.
D. He was accepting of the many inconveniences.
Question 53: According to the passage, when James Monroe came to the White House, it had been
__________.
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A. repressed B. reconstructed C. relocated D. reserved
Question 54: The paragraphs in the passage likely discuss __________.
A. the details of the destruction of the White House by the British
B. James Monroe’s policies as president
C. modifications by presidents who followed
D. other presidents who were unable to occupy the White House
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64.
A pilot cannot fly a plane by sight alone. In many conditions, such as flying at night and landing in
dense fog, a pilot must use radar, an alternative way of navigating. Since human eyes are not very good at
determining speeds of approaching objects, radar can show a pilot how fast nearby planes are moving.
The basic principle of radar is exemplified by what happens when one shouts in a cave. The echo of the
sounds against the walls helps a person determine the size of the cave. With radar, however, the waves are
radio waves instead of sound waves. Radio waves travel at the speed of light, about 300,000 kilometers in one
second. A radar set sends out a short burst of radiation waves. Then it receives the echoes produced when the
waves bounce off objects. By determining the time it takes for the echoes to return to the radar set, a trained
technician can determine the distance between the radar set and other objects. The word “radar”, in fact, gets
its name from the term “radio detection and ranging”. “Ranging” is the term for detection of the distance
between an object and the radar set. Besides being of critical importance to pilots, radar is essential for air
travel control, tracking ships at sea, and for tracking weather systems and storms.
Question 55: What is the main topic of this passage?
A. the nature of radar B. types of ranging
C. alternatives to radar D. history of radar
Question 56: According to the passage, what can radar detect besides location of objects?
A. size B. weight C. speed D. shape
Question 57: Which of the following words best describes the tone of this passage?
A. argumentative B. imaginative C. explanatory D. humorous
Question 58: The phrase “a burst” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to which of the followings?
A. an attachment B. a discharge C. a stream D. a ray
Question 59: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to which of the followings?

A. a radar set B. a short burst C. a radiation wave D. light
Question 60: Which of the followings could best replace the word “bounce”?
A. overturn B. groove C. extend D. rebound
Question 61: Which type of waves does radar use?
A. sound B. heat C. radio D. light
Question 62: The word “tracking” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to which of the followings?
A. repairing B. searching for C. glancing at D. fighting
Question 63: Which of the followings would most likely be the topic of the next paragraph?
A. other uses of radar B. uses of sonar technology
C. other technology used by pilots D. a history of flying
Question 64: What might be inferred about radar?
A. It takes the place of a radio.
B. It gave birth to the invention of the airplane.
C. It developed from a study of sound waves.
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D. It has improved navigational safety.
PHẦN TỰ LUẬN: (2 điểm)
Part I/- Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it.
Question 65: Trang didn’t know how to solve the problem, so she got bad marks.
 If Trang _____________________________________________________________________.
Question 66: Long found it difficult to concentrate on his lesson because of the noise.
 Long had ____________________________________________________________________.
Question 67: Let’s visit the National Park this morning.
 Why _______________________________________________________________________?
Question 68: The lights failed the moment they began work.
 Hardly ______________________________________________________________________.
Question 69: “Thanks. It was very kind of you to show me the way,” she said to me.
 She thanked _________________________________________________________________.
Part II/- In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the role of women in the family and in society

nowadays.
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THE END
SUGGESTED KEY
PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM (8 điểm)
Câu số Đáp án Câu số Đáp án Câu số Đáp án
1 B 23 C 45 B
2 A 24 B 46 D
3 C 25 D 47 D
4 C 26 B 48 B
5 B 27 D 49 D
6 D 28 C 50 C
7 B 29 D 51 A
8 B 30 B 52 A
9 D 31 D 53 B
10 D 32 A 54 C
11 B 33 C 55 A
12 A 34 A 56 C
13 A 35 B 57 C
14 C 36 C 58 B
15 C 37 A 59 A
16 D 38 D 60 D
17 D 39 A 61 C
18 C 40 C 62 B
19 B 41 A 63 A
20 C 42 B 64 D
21 A 43 D
22 D 44 B
PHẦN VIẾT (2 điểm)
I/- (0,5 điểm)
Câu 65: If Trang had known how to solve the problem, she wouldn’t have got bad marks/ would have got good
marks.

Câu 66: Long had difficulty (in) concentrating on his lesson because of the noise.
Câu 67: Why don’t we go to the National Park this morning?
Câu 68: Hardly had they begun work when the lights failed.
Câu 69: She thanked me for showing her the way.
II/- (1,5 điểm)
1. Bố cục (0,40)
- Câu đề dẫn chủ đề mạch lạc
- Bố cục hợp lí rõ ràng phù hợp yêu cầu của đề bài
- Bố cục uyển chuyển từ mở bài đến kết luận
2. Phát triển ý (0,25)
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- Phát triển ý có trình tự logic
- Có dẫn chứng, ví dụ,…đủ để bảo vệ ý kiến của mình
3. Sử dụng ngôn từ (0,30)
- Sử dụng ngôn từ phù hợp nội dung
- Sử dụng ngôn từ đúng văn phong/ thể loại
- Sử dụng từ nối các ý cho bài viết uyển chuyển
4. Nội dung (0,30)
- Đủ thuyết phục người đọc
- Đủ dẫn chứng, ví dụ, lập luận
- Độ dài: Số từ không nhiều hơn hoặc ít hơn so với quy định 5%
5. Ngữ pháp, dấu câu và chính tả (0,25)
- Sử dụng đúng dấu câu
- Chính tả: Viết đúng chính tả
+ Lỗi chính tả gây hiểu nhầm/ sai lệnh ý sẽ bị tính một lỗi (trừ 1% điểm của bài viết)
+ Cùng một lỗi chính tả lặp lại chỉ tính là một lỗi
- Sử dụng đúng thì, thể, cấu trúc câu đúng ngữ pháp. (Lỗi ngữ pháp gây hiểu nhầm/ sai lệch ý sẽ bị trừ 1%
điểm bài viết)
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