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KHÓA LUYỆN ðỀ THI ðẠI HỌC MÔN TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát ñề
GV phụ trách : Thầy ðặng Thanh Tâm

ðỀ SỐ 1

ðỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ QUESTION 1 ðẾN QUESTION 80)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions from 1 to 2.
Question 1: A. i
diot B. idol C. icon D. item
Question 2: A. mo
ment B. opponent C. component D. monitor

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions from 3 to 5.
Question 3: A. nature B. culture C. measure D. mature
Question 4: A. shortcoming B. computing C. windsurfing D. homemaking
Question 5: A. democracy B. inheritance C. agriculture D. redundancy

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 6 to 8.
Question 6: Flight MH370 of Malaysia Airlines is reported to vanish
on the way from Kuala Lumpur to
Beijing.
A. land B. control C. cancel D. disappear
Question 7: A calculating machine can do calculation with lightning speed
.
A. very quickly B. very slowly C. perfectly D. surprisingly
Question 8: My uncle, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play.
A. skillful B. famous C. popular D. modest

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 9 to 10.
Question 9: Your experience with oil well fires will be invaluable
to the company in cash of trouble.
A. worthless B. valuable C. precious D. priceless
Question 10: You need to dress neatly and elegantly for the interview. The first impression is very
important.
A. formally B. beautifully C. comfortably D. shabbily

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 11 to 20.
BELIEVE THE EYES

How do you know when someone is lying? Scientists studying the human face with sensitive
cameras may have discovered the answer, almost by accident. When someone in the laboratory dropped a
book, …(11)… a loud noise, the camera they were using to study someone’s face showed an unexpected
…(12)… . The sudden fear had caused the …(13)…of the person’s face around the eyes to change. This
led the researchers to come up with the idea that if a super-sensitive camera could spot fear, it would be
quite …(14)… of showing when people were telling a lie.

The researchers then …(15)… up an experiment to test out their theory. Some volunteers were
told a secret which they were forbidden to …(16)… with another set of volunteers, who were told to find
out what it was. The results were …(17)…, with the camera correctly identifying which of the volunteers
was lying.

Some people believe that these tests could lead to the development of a camera which would
…(18)… airport security staff who, at the moment, have to rely on their own judgement when asking
passengers about the contents of their luggage. However, although the camera could be more …(19)…
than traditional ways of discovering whether people are lying, most scientists believe that more …(20)…
tests are needed before it goes into widespread use.

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Question 11:A. getting B. having C. making D. doing
Question 12:A. reaction B. relation C. reply D. remark
Question 13:A. example B. description C. variety D. appearance
Question 14:A. talented B. clever C. skillful D. capable
Question 15:A. held B. put C. set D. gave
Question 16:A. argue B. spill C. inform D. share
Question 17:A. famous B. amazed C. wondering D. impressive
Question 18:A. assist B. appeal C. attract D. accept
Question 19:A. right B. correct C. accurate D. honest

Question 20:A. convincing B. persuading C. proving D. agreeing

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in each of the
following questions from 21 to 45.
Question 21: Our national parks should be put under stronger _________ .
A. protect B. protectively C. protection D. protective
Question 22: The little boy was punished because he _______his mother a lie.
A. says B. tells C. said D. told
Question 23:We are a very ________ family, so we support each other when facing troubles.
A. old-aged B. well-done C. close-knit D. hard-up
Question 24: He devoted most of his time __________novels.
A. to having written B. to have written C. to writing D. to write
Question 25: Salesperson :” Can I help you, Sir ?- Customer :”_________.”
A. Yes, it’s our summer sale B. It’s very cheap
C. No, thanks. I’m just looking D. Right. It looks a bit small
Question 26: Jack: " ________" − Anne: "In bamboo forests in central and western China".
A. How do giant pandas live? B. Do giant pandas live in bamboo forests?
C. Where do giant pandas live? D. Giant pandas live in bamboo forests, do they?
Question 27: He's in Melanie's bad _______ because he arrived two hours late.
A. eyes B. books C. likes D. treats
Question 28:They get ________ to understand what the professor has explained.
A. more and more difficult B. more difficult than
C. the most difficult D. the more difficult
Question 29:You had your house repaired last month, __________?
A. hadn’t you B. isn’t it C. didn’t you D. hadn’t it
Question 30:Mary ________ to feel more confident after she had heard the result.
A. begin B. have begun C. began D. had begun
Question 31:She will have to ________her holiday if she is too ill to travel.
A. call off B. cut down C. go on D. back off
Question 32: The VCTV tries to ________ for all tastes with its 4 national programs.

A. cater B. suit C. furnish D. regard
Question 33: Luckily, you are ______ time for the meeting.
A. at B. by C. in D. on
Question 34: She is ______ that I’m surprised she didn’t go into music professionally.
A. too good a pianist B. a very good pianist C. so good a pianist D. such good pianist
Question 35: My uncle wishes he _______time when he was young.
A. wouldn't waste B. didn't waste C. hasn't wasted D. hadn't wasted
Question 36: Our form teacher gave us a(n)________impossible problem to solve.
A. very B. absolutely C. quite D. extremely
Question 37:________ have been chosen for the national football team.
A. John is said to B. John is said that
C. People say that John D. People told John that he
Question 38:I _____ understand this letter. Will you translate it for me?
A. needn’t B. can’t C. shouldn’t D. mustn’t
Question 39: _____he gets home before us and can’t get in ?
A. As if B. What if C. If only D. Only If

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Question 40: Not until 1865__________ the first antiseptic treatment on a compound fracture.
A. when Joseph Lister tried B. when did Joseph Lister try
C. did Joseph Lister try D. that Joseph Lister tried
Question 41: Laser disc provide images of ___________ either television signals or video tapes.
A. better than B. better quality than
C. better quality than those of D. better quality than of
Question 42: _________in the atmosphere is the temperature falling below freezing.
A. Frost is produced B. What is frost produced
C. What produces frost D. Frost produces
Question 43: _________cause extensive damage to Pacific Island nations each year.
A. Because of the high tides and winds during hurricanes.

B. The high tides and winds of hurricanes.
C. The high hurricane tides and winds which.
D. That the high tides and winds of hurricanes.
Question 44: Not only_________ atoms with their microscopes, but they now can also “feel” them with
the aid of a versatile sensing device called the “ magic wrist”.
A. are today’s scientists able to see B. able to see today’s scientists are
C. today’s scientists are able to see D. are able to see today’s scientists
Question 45: Overexposure to the sun can produce _________can some toxic chemicals.
A. more than damage to the skin B. more damage than to the skin
C. damage more than to the skin D. more damage to the skin than

The letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions from 46 to 50.
Question 46: The manager was honest
, clean, well-dress and clever but he never tried to be polite to us.

A B C D
Question 47: Could
you tell me how your new friend looks like?
A B C D
Question 48: Having
had a good rest, the cowboy set out to cover other 20 miles.
A B C D
Question 49: Thanksgiving Day, a uniquely
North American holiday, is celebrated
in the United
A B
States on the four
Thursday in November.
C D

Question 50: A British usually have some butter on their bread for breakfast.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
the sentence given in each of the following questions from 51 to 56.
Question 51: We receive about twenty letters a day.
A. One day, we will receive twenty letters.
B. About twenty letters are sent to us every day.
C . It takes one day for about twenty letters to be sent to us.
D. There are about twenty letters we send every day.

Question 52: During my childhood, our home was in Bristol.
A. I wasn’t a child any more while we were living in Bristol.
B. We used to live in Bristol when I was a child.
C. We have lived in Bristol since I was a child.
D. We had to leave Bristol in my childhood.

Question 53: The injury has made it impossible for Jose to play baseball .
A. Jose was a good baseball player before he had the injury.
B. Jose is unable to play baseball because of his injury.
C. If Jose played baseball well, he wouldn’t have an injury.
D. Jose is not allowed to play baseball because he has an injury.

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Question 54: If there is a fire, you should phone number 114.
A. The phone number of the fire brigade is 114 if necessary.
B. In case of fire, phone number 114.
C. You should phone number 114 in case there is a fire.
D. Please, phone number 114 because there is a fire.

Question 55: I never want to see another film about space travel.
A. I haven't seen a film about space travel.
B. I have enjoyed all the film I have seen about space travel.
C. I am anxious not to miss the next film about space travel.
D. I am tired of seeing films about space travel.

Question 56: The bank was open until 9 o’clock and the department store until ten.
A. The bank closed at 9 and the department store at 10.
B. The bank opened at 9 and the department store at 10.
C. The bank closed an hour later than the department store.
D. The bank and the department store closed at almost the same time.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best joins each of the
following pairs of sentences in each of the following questions from 57 to 60.
Question 57: He felt very tired. However, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
A. He felt so tired that he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
B. Feeling very tired, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
C. As the result of his tiredness, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
D. Tired as he might feel, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.

Question 58: The student next to me kept chewing gum. That bothered me a lot.
A. The student next to me kept chewing gum and bothered me a lot.
B. The student next to me kept chewing gum, which bothered me a lot.
C. The student next to me kept chewing gum because he wanted to bother me a lot.
D. Although the student next to me kept chewing gum, he didn’t bother me a lot.

Question 59: He was suspected to have stolen credit cards. The police have investigated him for
days.
A. He has been investigated for days, suspected to have stolen credit cards.

B. Suspecting to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
C. Having suspected to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
D. Suspected to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.

Question 60: He wishes he had studied harder last night.
A. He didn’t study hard enough last night.
B. He wishes to study hard last night.
C. He didn’t study hard last night.
D. He had studied harder than he used to .

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 61 to 70.
The miracle therapy of blood transfusion was invented by an English doctor, James Blundell. In 1818
he performed the first transfusion, on a patient said to be incurable. Using a syringe, he successfully
injected blood taken from one of his students. In 1829 , he saved a woman suffering from a severe
hemorrhage. About 1900 Dr. Karl Landsteiner of Vienna found that some people’s blood was not
compatible
with others’ and that these blood variations could be classified into groups. When portable
transfusion apparatus was invented, direct transfusions between persons of the same blood type could be
performed on the battlefield. In 1914 the discovery of anticoagulants made possible the storage of blood
for future use.
But to save lives, the right blood had to be in the right place at the right time. The first blood service
was established by the British red Cross in 1921. During War World II, Red Cross blood banks saved
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countless human lives. Now the Red Cross engages in transfusion work in sixty-eight countries. It

recruits donors, collects, stores, and distributes blood, determines blood groups, and prepares blood
derivatives.

Question 61:In the first blood transfusion the donor was__________.
A. Dr. James Blundell B. a laboratory animal
C. Dr. James Blundell’s student D. a Red Cross volunteer

Question 62:The substance used in this transfusion was__________ .
A. an anticoagulant B. whole blood C. blood serum D. plasma
Question 63: Blood could not be stored for emergency use until____________.
A. 1818 B. 1914 C. 1921 D. 1900

Question 64: The word "compatible" in line 5 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. comparable B. possible C. well-matched D. well-prepared

Question 65: Portable transfusion apparatus was invented by ________ .
A. Dr. James Blundell B. Dr Karl Lansteiner
C. the Red Cross D. a person not identified in the article

Question 66: This invention made it possible to ________ .
A. give any type of blood to any person B. save lives right on the battlefield
C. prepare blood derivatives D. store blood for emergencies

Question 67: Blood must be classified into groups because________.
A. some types will not mix B. some people have blue blood
C. disease attacks certain groups D. the donor's age makes a difference

Question 68: The first Red Cross blood bank was established in ________.
A.1829 B.1900 C.1914 D.1921

Question 69: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true
about The Red Cross's role in
transfusion service.

A. storage and distribution B. laboratory testing
C. recruiting of volunteers D. fund raising

Question 70: The word "It" in line 11 refers to__________________.
A. The Red Cross B. The British Red Cross
C. a blood bank D. blood service

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 71 to 80.
It is estimated over 99 percent of all species that ever existed have become extinct. What causes extinction?
When a species is no longer adapted to a changed environment, it
may perish. The exact causes of a species’
death vary from situation to situation. Rapid ecological change may render an environment hostile to a species.
For example, temperatures may change and a species may not be able to adapt. Food resources may be affected
by environmental changes, which will then cause problems for a species requiring these resources. Other
species may become better adapted to an environment, resulting in competition and, ultimately
, in the death of
a species.

The fossil record reveals that extinction has occurred throughout the history of Earth. Recent analyses have also
revealed that on some occasions many species became extinct at the same time – a mass extinction. One of the
best- known examples of mass extinction occurred 65 million years ago with the demise
of dinosaurs and many
other forms of life. Perhaps the largest mass extinction was the one that occurred 225 million years ago, when
approximately 95 percent of all species died. Mass extinctions can be caused by a relatively rapid change in the
environment and can be worsened by the close interrelationship of many species. If, for example, something
were to happen to destroy much of the plankton in the oceans, then the oxygen content of Earth would drop,
affection even organisms not living in the oceans. Such a change would probably lead to a mass extinction.
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One interesting, and controversial, finding
is that extinctions during the past 250 million years have tended to
be more intense every 26 million years. This periodic extinction might be due to intersection of the Earth’s
orbit with a cloud of comets, but this theory is purely speculative. Some researchers have also speculated that
extinction may often be random. That is, certain species may be eliminated and others may survive for no
particular reason. A species’ survival may have nothing to do with its ability or inability to adapt. If so, some of
evolutionary history may reflect a sequence of essentially random events.

Question 71: The word “it” in line 2 refers to
A. environment B. species C. extinction D. 99 percent

Question 72: The word “ultimately” in line 6 is closest in meaning to
A. exceptionally B. dramatically C. eventually D. unfortunately

Question 73: What does the author say in paragraph 1 regarding most species in Earth’s history?
A. They have remained basically unchanged from their original forms.
B. They have been able to adapt to ecological changes.
C. They have caused rapid change in the environment.
D. They are no longer in existence.

Question 74: Which of the following is NOT mentioned
in paragraph 1 as resulting from rapid ecological
change?
A. Temperature changes C. Availability of food resources
B. Introduction of new species D. Competition among species

Question 75: The word “demise” in line 10 is closest in meaning to
A. change B. recovery C. help D. death

Question 76: According to paragraph 2, evidence from fossils suggests that
A. extinction of species has occurred from time to time throughout Earth’s history.
B. extinction on Earth have generally been massive.
C. there has been only one mass extinction in Earth’s history.
D. dinosaurs became extinct much earlier than scientists originally believed.

Question 77: The word “finding” in line 16 is closest in meaning to
A. published information C. research method
B. ongoing experiment D. scientific discovery

Question 78: Which of the following can be inferred from the theory of periodic extinction mentioned in
paragraph 3?
A. Many scientists could be expected to disagree with it.
B. Evidence to support the theory has recently been found.
C. The theory is no longer seriously considered.
D. Most scientists believe the theory to be accurate.

Question 79: In paragraph 3, the author makes which of the following statements about a species’ survival?
A. It reflects the interrelationship of many species. B. It may depend on chance events.
C. It does not vary greatly from species to species. D. It is associated with astronomical conditions.

Question 80: According to the passage, it is believed that the largest extinction of a species occurred
A.26 million years ago C. 65 million years ago
B.225 million years ago D. 250 million years ago


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KHÓA LUYỆN ðỀ THI ðẠI HỌC MÔN TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát ñề
GV phụ trách: Thầy ðặng Thanh Tâm

ðỀ SỐ 2

ðỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ QUESTION 1 ðẾN QUESTION 80)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions from 1 to 2.
Question 1: A. mer
chant B. sergeant C. servant D. mercury
Question 2: A. blessed
B. sacred C. booked D. crooked

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions from 3 to 5.
Question 3: A. wildlife B. reserve C. rubbish D. justice
Question 4: A. lunatic B. nomadic C. aroma D. heroic
Question 5: A. photography B. intensity C. technology D. intimacy

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 6 to 8.
Question 6: The animals are allowed to wander in the park as much as they wish
.
A. at hand B. at length C. at will D. at a loss

Question 7: Every woman who has enough criteria can join the beauty contest irrespective of their
background.
A. regardless of B. on account of C. under guarantee D. in consideration of
Question 8: He was asked to account for
his presence at the scene of crime.
A. complain B. exchange C. explain D. arrange

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE
in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 9 to 10.
Question 9: If you are at a loose end this weekend, I will show you round the city.
A. confident B. free C. occupied D. reluctant
Question 10: We offer a speedy and secure
service of transferring money in less than 24 hours.
A. unsure B. uninterested C. slow D. open

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 11 to 20.
(11)………popular belief, one does not have to be a trained programmer to work on line. Of course,
there are plenty of jobs available for people with high-tech computer skills, but the growth of new media
has (12)……up a wide range of Internet career opportunities requiring only a minimal level of technical
(13)……. . Probably one of the most well-known online job opportunities is the job of webmaster.
However, it is hard to define one basic job description for this position. The qualifications and
responsibilities depend on what tasks a particular organization needs a webmaster to (14)………. .
To specify the job description of a webmaster, one needs to identify the hardware and software that the
website will manage to run (15)……… .Different types of hardware and software require different skill
set to manage them. Another key factor is whether the website will be running internally or externally.
Finally, the responsibilities of a webmaster also depend on whether he or she will be working
independently, or whether the firm will provide people to help. All of these factors need to be considered
before one can create requiring ( 16)……knowledge of the latest computer applications. (17)……, there

are also online jobs available for which traditional skills remain in high (18)…… . Content jobs require
excellent writing skills and a good sense of the web as a “ new media”.
The term “ new media” is difficult to define because it encompasses a (19)… growing set of new
technologies and skills. Specifically, it includes websites, emails, Internet technologies, CD-ROM, DVD,
streaming audio and video, interactive multimedia presentations, e-books, digital music, computer
illustration, video games, (20)…… reality, and computer artistry.
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Question 11: A. Apart from B. Contrary to C. Prior to D. In contrast to
Question 12: A. taken B. sped C. set D. opened
Question 13: A. expertise B. master C. efficiency D. excellency
Question 14: A. conduct B. perform C. undergone D. overtake
Question 15: A. on B. over C. in D. with
Question 16: A. built-in B. up-market C. in-service D. in-depth
Question 17: A. However B. Therefore C. Moreover D. Then
Question 18: A. content B. demand C. reference D. requirement
Question 19: A. constantly B. continually C. increasingly D. invariably
Question 20: A. fancy B. imaginative C. inclusive D. virtual

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in each of the
following questions from 21 to 45.
Question 21: He felt ______when he failed the exams the second time.
A. discouraged B. discouraging C. encouraged D. encourage
Question 22: I would like to thank you, _______my colleagues , for the welcome you have given us.
A. on account of B. on behalf of C. because of D. instead of
Question 23: I love this painting of an old man. He has such a ________ smile.
A. childhood B. childish C. childlike D. childless
Question 24: I don’t enjoy _____ care of as if I were a child.
A. taking B. being taken C. to take D. to be taken

Question 25: Mark:” Another cup of coffee ?- Linda:” No, but thanks _________.”
A. Not at all B. For all C. all the same D. for you all
Question 26: Jack: "I think women are better at cooking than men ." − Anne: "_________."
A. Nothing much B. I’ll say C. Good idea D. Don’t mention it
Question 27: Joe wrote a best-seller in 1995, ________he hasn’t produced very much good work.
A. by which time B. although C. since when D. which is when
Question 28: _________that we decided to cancel the polo match.
A. Such was a weather B. Such terrible weather was it
C. So terrible a weather D. The weather was such
Question 29: Mr. Green supposes, __________ , that he will retire at 60.
A. like most people did B. as most of people C. as do most people D. like most people do
Question 30: We seldom _________ for a picnic together when we lived in New Jersey.
A. were going B. had gone C. go D. went
Question 31: It’s no good pretending; you’ve got to _______reality.
A. bargain for B. come up against C. face up to D. get down to
Question 32: Could you possibly________ me at the next committee meeting?
A. stand in for B. make up for C. fall back on D. keep in with
Question 33: ______ I had nothing for breakfast but an apple, I had lunch early.
A. However B. Since C. Due to D. Therefore
Question 34: We are aware that he has tried his best; _____ , his work is just not good enough.
A. let alone B. albeit C. be that as it may D. come what may
Question 35: I would rather _______my holiday in Egypt than in Turkey. I really couldn’t stand the food.
A. take B. had taken C. to have taken D. have taken
Question 36: “There is no further treatment we can give”, said Dr. John.” We must let the disease take its
________”.
A. end B. term C. course D. way
Question 37:_________ that Columbus sailed to America.
A. It was in 1492 B. That was in 1492 C. It is in1492 D. In 1492
Question 38: You ____ out yesterday without a coat. No wonder you caught a cold.
A. mustn’t have gone B. haven’t gone C. hadn’t gone D. shouldn’t have gone

Question 39: One of the basic principles of wildlife conservation involves ______adequate natural food
and shelter to maintain populations to each species in a given habitat.
A. the provision B. that provision C. to provide D. providing

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Question 40: He is a coward _______ his own admission.
A. by B. with C. within D. at
Question 41: ___________, he remained optimistic.
A. Though badly wounded he was B. Badly wounded as he was
C. As he was badly wounded D.As badly wounded he was
Question42: Probably no man had more effect on the daily lives of most people in the United States_____.
A. as Henry Ford, a pioneer in automobile production.
B. rather than Henry Ford, a pioneer in automobile production.
C. than did Henry Ford, a pioneer in automobile production.
D. more than Henry Ford, a pioneer in automobile production.
Question 43: The picking of the fruit,_________, takes about a week.
A. whose work they receive no money B. as the receive no money for that work
C. for which work they receive no money D. they receive no money for it
Question 44: The news of his death was like a bolt ___________ .
A. from the red B. from the blue C. from the black D. from the white
Question 45: The facilities of the old health centre ___________ .
A. are as good as or better than the new centre.
B. are as good or better than the new centre.
C. is as good or better than the new centre.
D. are as good as or better than those of the new centre.

The letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions from 46 to 50.
Question 46: Most sand dunes are always in motion

as wind pushes sand upward one side of each dune,
A B
over the top, and down the other side.
C D
Question 47: It may be argued that genetics, the study of heredity and variation, underwent the most
A B C
rapid development of any science biological
in the twentieth century.
D
Question 48: The federal system of the government in Canada is similar to it of the United States.
A B C D
Question 49: Geometric figures first appeared
more than 15,000 years ago in both practically and
A B
decorative forms, such as shapes of building, cave paintings and decorations on pottery.
C D
Question 50:
When coming
back, I saw that the shirt I wanted to buy had sold.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
the sentence given in each of the following questions from 51 to 56.
Question 51: Mark can hardly see at all without glasses.
A. Mark can see without glasses if he tries hard. B. Mark can see even if he doesn't wear glasses.
C. Mark can't see everything without glasses. D. Mark is practically blind without glasses.
Question 52: I wish you would change your mind about selling your house.
A. You made a big mistake by selling your house.
B. I’m glad that, in the end, you decided not to sell your house.
C. I want you to give up the idea of selling the house.

D. When you sold your house, I was very upset.
Question 53: She happened to run into her old friend on her way to the bookstore.
A. Fortunately, she met her old friend just before she entered the bookstore.
B. She was quite surprised when she met her old friend in the bookstore.
C. She happened to see her old friend going into the bookstore.
D. She met her old friend by chance as she was going to the bookstore.

4

Question 54: Something is wrong with my car, and it seems to me to be the battery.
A. I suspect that the trouble with my car is the battery.
B. When my car doesn’t work, it is usually because of the battery.
C. If my car doesn’t work, it is probably because of the battery.
D. If the battery wasn’t dead, my car would be working.
Question 55: The game will be held, rain or shine.
A. The game is delayed because of the rain.
B. There will be no game if it rains.
C. There will be a game regardless of the weather.
D. It rains every time there is a game.
Question 56: "Why don't we go out for a dinner?" said Mary.
A. Mary suggested a dinner out. B. Mary requested a dinner out.
C. Mary order a dinner out. D. Mary demanded a dinner out.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best joins each of the
following pairs of sentences in each of the following questions from 57 to 60.
Question 57: Mark is very intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time.
A. So intelligent is Mark that he can solve all the problems in no time.
B. Mark is too intelligent to solve all the problems in no time.
C. Although Mark is very intelligent, he can’t solve all the problems in no time.
D. So intelligent a student Mark is that he can solve all the problems in no time.

Question 58: We cut down many forests. The Earth becomes hot.
A. The more forests we cut down, the hotter the Earth becomes.
B. The more we cut down forests, the hotter the Earth becomes.
C. The more forests we plant, the hotter the Earth becomes.
D. The earth becomes hotter and hotter because many forests are not planted.

Question 59: After Louie had written his composition, he handed it to his teacher.
A. Handed the composition to his teacher, Louie wrote it.
B. Having written his composition, Louie handed it to his teacher.
C. Writing the composition, Louie handed it to his teacher.
D. Handing the composition, Louie had written his composition.

Question 60: Mike didn’t take his father’s advice. That’s why he is out of work.
A. If Mike had taken his father’s advice, he would not have been out of work.
B. Unless Mike had taken his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.
C. Mark is unemployed because he didn’t take his father’s advice.
D. Although Mark took his father’s advice, he is unemployed.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 61 to 70.
Music can bring us to tears or to our feet, drive us into battle or lull us to sleep. Music is indeed
remarkable in its power over all humankind, and perhaps for that very reason, no human culture on earth
has ever lived without it. From discoveries made in France and Slovenia even Neanderthal man, as long
as 53,000 years ago, had developed surprisingly sophisticated
, sweet-sounding flutes carved from animal
bones. It is perhaps then, no accident that music should strike such a chord with the limbic system- an
ancient part of our brain, evolutionarily speaking, and one that we share with much of the animal
kingdom. Some researchers even propose that music came into this world long before the human race
ever did. For example, the fact that whale and human music have so much in common even though our

evolutionary paths have not intersected for nearly 60 million years suggests that music may predate
humans. They assert that rather than being the inventors of music, we are latecomers to the musical scene.

Humpback whale composers employ many of the same tricks that human songwriters do. In
addition to using similar rhythms, humpbacks keep musical phrases to a few seconds, creating themes out
of several phrases before singing the next one. Whale songs in general are no longer than symphony
5

movements, perhaps because they have a similar attention span. Even though they can sing over a range
of seven octaves, the whale typically sing in key, spreading adjacent notes no farther apart than a scale.
They mix percussive and pure tones in pretty much the same ratios as human composers- and follow their
ABA form, in which a theme is presented, elaborated on and then revisited in a slightly modified form.
Perhaps most amazing, humpback whale songs include repeating refrains that rhyme. It has been
suggested that whales might use rhymes for exactly the same reasons that we do: as devices to help them
remember. Whale songs can also be rather catchy. When a few humpbacks from the Indian Ocean strayed
into the Pacific, some of the whales they met there quickly changed their
tunes- singing the new whales’
songs within three short years. Some scientists are even tempted to speculate that a universal music awaits
discovery.

Question 61: Why did the author write the passage?
A. To describe the music for some animals, including humans.
B. To illustrate the importance of music to whales.
C. To show that music is not a human or even modern invention.
D. To suggest that music is independent of life forms that use it.
Question 62: The word “sophisticated” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to_______________.
A. complex B. intricate C. well-developed D. entangled
Question 63: The word “one” in the first paragraph can be replaced by____________________.
A. the chord B. the left brain C. the right brain D. the limbic system
Question 64: According to the passage, which of the following is true of humpback whales?

A. Their tunes are distinctively different from human tunes.
B. They can sing over a range of seven octaves.
C. They do not use rhyme, unlike humans.
D. Whale songs of a particular group cannot be learned by other whales.
Question 65: The word “they” in the second paragraph refers to______________.
A. human composers B. whole songs C. octaves D. whales
Question 66: Which of the following is NOT true
about humpback whale music?
A. It uses similar patterns to human songs.
B. It’s comparative in length to symphony movements.
C. It’s easy to learn by other whales.
D. It’s in a form of creating a theme, elaborating and revisiting in rhyming refrains.
Question 67: The word “refrains” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to_________.
A. tunes B. notes C. musical phrases D. sounds
Question 68: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The earliest human beings came from France and Slovenia.
B. Music helped to shape the whale brain.
C. Humpback whales imitate the way human composers so in creating their own music.
D. The research of musical brain will lead to a discovery of a universal music.
Question 69: Where in the passage does the author first mention whales?
A. Lines 5-9 B. Lines 10-14 C. Lines 15-19 D. Lines 20-24
Question 70: The word “their” in the second paragraph refers to______________.
A. Indian Ocean humpbacks B. Pacific Ocean humpbacks
C. all whales D. whale songs

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 71 to 80.
The education of deaf people has a long history. Some educators preferred to teach sign language, a
method of communicating with one's hands. While others emphasized to teach deaf people to speak.
The first known teacher of the deaf was Pedro Ponce De Leon, a Benedictine monk, who tutored

children of the nobility in the 1570s. He had some success in teaching deaf children to speak and write. A
former pupil of his indicated that Ponce de Leon used both a manual Alphabet and oral methods.
France was one of the leaders in education of the deaf. There, around 1600, Juan Bonet and Manuel
Ramirez de carrion worked with a young child who had lost his hearing. Bonet later wrote and published
the first book on teaching the deaf. Bonet taught his pupil a signed alphabet that is very close to the one
6

used today in the United States. In 1775 in Paris, Abbe Charles Michel de I'Epee founded a free school
for deaf pupils that taught sign language. Over the school for deaf people that taught sign language. Over
the next several decades, this school's method
of teaching students sign language became famous as the
"French method".
In America, the first school for deaf students was not founded Until April 15, 1817, probably
because that was when an American city had a concentration of people large enough to sustain a
permanent institution
. Thomas Gallaudet founded this first school, the American Asylum for the
education of the Deaf and Dumb, located in Hartford, Connecticut, and now called the American School
for the Deaf. Gallaudet hired a deaf French man, Laurent Clerc, to teach at his school. Clerc created the
sign language system used in the school, and trained many of the first teachers in his techniques. Hence
Clerc was one of the most influential
educator in early American deaf education.
In 1857, Edward Minor Gallaudet, a son of Thomas Gallaudet, became principal of the Columbia
Institution for the Deaf and Dumb in Washington, D.C, which eventually became Gallaudet college, the
only liberal arts institution for the deaf. Edward Gallaudet advocated
a combination of oral and manual
methods of deaf education.
Question 71: What is the main topic of this passage ?
A. The “French” method of educating deaf students
B. The oral method of deaf education
C. Gallaudet College

D. The history of deaf education
Question 72 : Why is Pedro Ponce de Leon mentioned ?
A. He was the first known teacher of the deaf
B. He advocated a combination of oral and manual methods ?
C. He taught a manual alphabet similar to the one used today in the United States.
D. He was an influential educator at Gallaudet College.
Question 73: The word “tutored“ in line 3 is closest in meaning to which of the following ?
A. taught B. supported C. led D. encouraged
Question 74: According to the passage, what was the principal achievement of Juan Boner ?
A. He taught sign language at a free school
B. He was the first to combine oral and manual methods
C. He wrote the first book on educating the deaf.
D. He opened the first American school for the deaf.
Question 75: “This school’s method” in line 11 refers to which school ?
A. Ponce de Leon’s school B. Charles Michel de I'Epee’s school
C. Gallaudet College D. Laurent Clerc’s school
Question 76: In line 15, the word “institution” refers to
A. a large group of people B. a method of teaching
C. a hospital D. a school
Question 77: The word “influential” in line 19 is closest in meaning to
A. convincing B. positive C. important D. noticeable
Question 78: What is the distinction of Gallaudet College ?
A. It is the first school to use the French method.
B. It used a combination of a manual alphabet and oral methods.
C. It is only the liberal arts college for deaf students.
D. It is located in Washington D.C.
Question 79: The word “ advocated ” in line 22 is closest in meaning to which of the following ?
A. predicted B. dominated C. classified D. promoted
Question 80: The tone of the passage can best be described as
A. angry B. informative C. urgent D. argumentative

For further information
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7




1

KHÓA LUYỆN ðỀ THI ðẠI HỌC MÔN TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát ñề
GV phụ trách : Thầy ðặng Thanh Tâm

ðỀ SỐ 3

ðỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ QUESTION 1 ðẾN QUESTION 80)


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions from 1 to 2.
Question 1: A. relig
ion B. energy C. gesture D. gorilla
Question 2: A. entra
nce B. bamboo C. banyan D. paddy

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions from 3 to 5.
Question 3: A. sandal B. dental C. canal D. rental

Question 4: A. vigorous B. scandalous C. victorious D. dangerous
Question 5: A. proficiency B. inheritance C. automobile D. deficiency

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 6 to 8.
Question 6: Teaching is a

challenging but rewarding career.
A. different B. creative C. natural D. difficult
Question 7: She was brought up in a well-off
family. She can’t understand the problems we are facing .
A. kind B. broken C. wealthy D. poor
Question 8: Sperm Whales, which are carnivores, can eat up to 1,500 kg of food each day.
A. animals that live in the lake B. animals that only eat plants
C. fish that aren’t born from eggs D. animals that eat meat

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 9 to 10.
Question 9: Military is compulsory
in this country. Every man who reaches the age of 18 has to serve in the
army for two years.
A. dissatisfied B. optional C. illegal D. unnecessary
Question 10: Mr. Smith’s new neighbors appear to be very friendly.

A. amicable B. hostile C. easy-going D. sociable

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 11 to 20.

Environmental Concerns

Earth is the only place we know of in the universe that can support human life(11)______ human activities
are making the planet less fit to live on. As the western world (12)______on consuming two-thirds of the
world's resources while half of the world's population do so just to stay alive we are rapidly destroying the
(13)______ resource we have by which all people can survive and prosper. Everywhere fertile soil is
(14)______ built on or washed into the sea. Renewable resources are exploited so much that they will never
be able to recover (15)______ We discharge pollutants into the atmosphere without any thought of the
consequences. As a (16)______ the planet's ability to support people is being reduced at the very time when
rising human numbers and consumption are (17)______increasingly heavy demands on it.

The Earth's (18)______ resources are there for us to use. We need food, water, air, energy, medicines,
warmth, shelter and minerals to (19)______ us fed, comfortable, healthy and active. If we are sensible in how
we use the resources they will (20)______ indefinitely. But if we use them wastefully and excessively they
will soon run out and everyone will suffer.



2

Question 11: A. Although B. Yet C. Still D. Despite
Question 12: A. continues B. repeats C. carries D. follows
Question 13: A. individual B. alone C. only D. solitary
Question 14: A. neither B. sooner C. either D. rather
Question 15: A. utterly B. greatly C. quite D. completely
Question 16: A. result B. reaction C. development D. product
Question 17: A. making B. doing C. having D. taking
Question 18: A. living B. real C. natural D. genuine
Question 19: A. keep B. stay C. hold D. maintain
Question 20: A. remain B. go C. last D. stand

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in each of the following

questions from 21 to 45.
Question 21: There's still no ______ about the reason why the Malaysian plane was mysteriously lost.
A. clarity B. clear C. clarify D. clearance
Question 22: It’s not true. He’s _______________ a lot of nonsense.
A. speaking B. saying C. talking D. telling
Question 23:If you want to be a successful teacher, you must be able to think_______your feet.
A. on B. off C. around D. by
Question 24: Richard started the race well but ran out of_________ in the later stages.
A. power B. steam C. force D. effort
Question 25: Mark: "Let's have a pizza." –Mike: "______"
A. Not again B. It doesn't matter C. Not really D. It’s a good idea
Question 26: Mark : “Oh, it is time for me to leave, John.”-John: “______.”
A. Long time no see B. Me neither C. Speaking D. So long
Question 27: We took ____________ of the fine weather and spent the day on the beach.
A. chance B. advantage C. occasion D. effect
Question 28: Phone me before ten; ________I’ll be too busy to talk to you.
A. unless B. whether C. otherwise D. if
Question 29: She has a part time job, she works ___________ day.
A. each other B. every other C. one the other D. the other every
Question 30: Over the past few years the cost of leaving ___________ considerably.
A. has risen B. was rising C. have risen D. had risen
Question 31: The teacher won't stand __________cheating. When she caught one student cheating on the
midterm exam, she gave him a zero on the test.
A. with B. on C. for D. out
Question 32: The Minister called a(n) _______to announce journalists a new project.
A. assembly line B. opinion poll C. press conference D. training session
Question 33: ___________ I agree with you that the proposal is a good one.
A. By any means B. In view of the fact that
C. To a certain extent D. Under some circumstances
Question 34: ___________ broken into when we were away on holiday.

A. Thieves had our house B. We had our house
C. Our house had D. It was our house
Question 35: The children sing loudly ______________________________ .
A. as though they are the winners C. though they are the winners
C. as if they were the winners D. were they the winners
Question 36: Bob spent fifteen months alone on his yacht. Ann,_____, took care of the children on her own.
A. meanwhile B. nevertheless C. otherwise D. furthermore
Question 37: Conservationists ______that experiments on animals be stopped.
A. recommended B. banned C. said D. complained
Question 38: The ground is wet. It ______ rained last night.
A. may have B. might have C. must D. must have
Question 39: He would have played_________ a knee injury.
A. but for B. in addition to C. next to D. on the basis of
Question 40: Having opened the bottle, ______ for everyone.


3

A. Mike pouring the drink B. The drink was poured
C. Mike poured the drink D. The drink was being poured
Question 41: What’s all this crying __________?
A. without the aid of B. with the aid of C. in aid of D. within the aid of
Question 42: __________ that you don’t cut yourself - that knife’s very sharp!
A. Attend B. Head C. Mind D. Think
Question 43:
Daisy's marriage has been arranged by her family. She is marrying a man __________.
A. she hardly knows him B. whom she hardly know
C. she hardly knows D. that she hardly know
Question 44: _________all citrus fruit originated with the Chinese orange .
A. That the belief B. The belief that C. To believe that D. It is believed that

Question 45: The doctor had been _______ for 48 hours and was exhausted.
A. on call B. on turn C. on work D. on tour

The letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
the following questions from 46 to 50.
Question 46: We should be responsible for
the destructive humans are doing to the environment.

A B C D

Question 47: We are working
very hard lately as we are negotiating an important contract.
A B C D
Question 48: As medical costs soar and get higher, the idea of a complete physical check up has come
A B C
under fire as a waste of both time and money.
C D
Question 49: Even in countries which have low proportions of women paid workers, such as Arab
A B
countries, the number of women who have jobs is raising.
C D
Question 50: John is the only
of the candidates who have just passed the final exam.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the
sentence given in each of the following questions from 51 to 56.
Question 51: No matter how hard I tried, I couldn't open the door.
A. Try as hard as I might, I couldn't open the door.
B. If I had tried hard enough, I could have opened the door.

C. It is very difficult for me to open the door.
D. I could open the door with difficulty.

Question 52: I wasn't in time to say goodbye to Mike.
A. I didn’t want to say goodbye to Mike before he left.
B. I was too late to say goodbye to Mike.
C. I wanted to say goodbye to Mike, but I couldn’t see him.
D. I was early enough to say goodbye to Mike.

Question 53: Diana ran into her former teacher on the way to the stadium yesterday.
A. Diana’s teacher got run over whole she was going to the stadium.
B. Diana’s car ran over her teacher on the way to the stadium.
C. Diana caused an accident to her teacher while she was going to the stadium.
D. Diana happened to meet her teacher while she was going to the stadium.

Question 54 : "You’re always making terrible mistakes", said the teacher.
A. The teacher complained about his student making terrible mistakes.
B. The teacher realized that his students always made terrible mistakes.
C. The teacher asked his students why they always made terrible mistakes.
D. The teacher made his students not always make terrible mistakes


4

Question 55: Not until I left home did I realize how much my dad meant to me.
A. I left home after knowing how much my dad meant to me.
B. Before leaving home, I realized the value of my dad.
C. I left home and didn't realize how much my dad meant to me.
D. It was only when I left home that I realized how much my dad meant to me.

Question 56: I found myself at a loss to understand my closest friend’s words.
A. I found my closest friend’s words easy to understand.
B. I understood my closest friend’s words completely.
C. I lost heard and didn’t understand my closest friend’ words.
D. I found my closest friend’s word quite incomprehensible.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best joins each of the
following pairs of sentences in each of the following questions from 57 to 60.
Question 57: He behaved in a very strange way. That surprised me a lot.
A. He behaved very strangely, which surprised me very much.
B. I was almost not surprised by his strange behaviour.
C. What almost surprised me was the strange way he behaved.
D. His behaviour was a very strange thing, that surprised me most.

Question 58: No one but the experts was able to realize that the painting was an imitation. It greatly
resembled the original.
A. It was hard for ordinary people to judge between the fake painting and the real one, but not for the experts.
B. It was obvious that only a person with great talent could fake a painting so successfully.
C. It was almost impossible for amateurs to realize that the painting was not authentic, though the experts
could judge it quite easily.
D. The painting looked so much like the authentic one that only the experts could tell it wasn't genuine.

Question 59: The unemployment rate is high. The crime rate is usually also high.
A. The unemployment rate is as high as the crime rate.
B. The high rate of unemployment depends on the high rate of crime.
C. The higher the unemployment rate is, the higher the crime rate is.
D. The unemployment rate and the crime rate are both higher.

Question 60: We chose to find a place for the night. We found the bad weather very inconvenient.
A. Because the climate was so severe, we were worried about what we'd do at night.

B. The bad weather prevented us from driving any further.
C. Seeing that the bad weather had set in, we decided to find somewhere to spend the night.
D. Bad weather was approaching, so we started to look for a place to stay.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 61 to 76.

The Stone Age was a period of history which began in approximately 2 million B.C. and lasted until 3000
B.C .Its name was derived
from the stone tools and weapons that modern scientists found .This period was
divided into the Paleolethic ,Mesolithic ,and Neolithic Ages. During the first period (2 million to 8000 B.C),
the first hatchet and use of fire for heating and cooking were developed. As a result of the Ice Age, which
evolved about 1 million years into the Paleolithic Age, people were forced to seek shelters in caves, wear
clothing and develop new tools.

During the Mesolithic Age (8000 to 6000 B.C ), people made crude
pottery and the first fish hooks, took
dog hunting, and developed the bow and arrow, which were used until the fourteen century A.D.

The Neolithic Age ( 6000 to 3000 B.C) saw humankind domesticating sheep, goats, pigs, and cattle, being
less nomadic
than in previous eras, establishing permanent settlements, and creating governments.



5

Question 61: In how many periods was the Stone Age divided ?
A.2 B.3 C.4 D.5
Question 62: In line 2, the word “derived” is closest in meaning to ………….

A. originated B. destroyed C. hallucinated D. discussed
Question 63: Which of the following was developed earliest ?
A. Fish hook B. Bow and arrow C. Hatchet D. Pottery
Question 64: Which of the following developments is NOT related to the conditions of the Ice Age ?
A. Farming B. Clothing C. Living indoors D. Using fire
Question 65: The word “crude” in line 7 is closest in meaning to…………
A. extravagant B. complex C. vulgar D. primitive
Question 66: The Author states that the Stone Age was so named because
A. it was very durable like stone B. the tools and weapons were made of stone
C. there was little vegetation D. the people lived in stone caves
Question 67: In line 11, “nomadic” is closest in meaning to…………
A. sedentary B. primitive C. wandering D. inquisitive
Question 68: Which what subject is the passage mainly concerned ?
A. The Neolithic Age B. The Stone Age
C. The Paleolithic Age D. The Ice Age
Question 69: Which of the following best describes the Mesolithic Age ?
A. People were inventive B. People stayed indoors all the time
C. People were warriors D. People were crude
Question 70: In line 11, the word “eras” is closest in meaning to………………
A. families B. periods C. herds D. tools

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 71 to 80.
Matching the influx
of foreign immigrants into the larger cities of the United States during the late
nineteenth century was a domestic migration, from town and farm to city, within the United States. The
country had been overwhelmingly rural at the beginning of the century, with less than 5 percent of Americans
living in large towns or cities. The proportion of urban population began to grow remarkably after 1840,
increasing from 11 percent that year to 28 percent by 1880 and to 46 percent by 1900. A country with only 6
cities boasting a population of more than 8,000 in 1800 had become one with 545 such cities in 1900. Of

these, 26 had a population of more than 100,000 including 3 that held more than a million people. Much of the
migration producing an urban society came from smaller towns within the United States, but the combination
of new immigrants and old American "settlers" on America's "urban
frontier" in the late nineteenth century proved extraordinary
.

The growth of cities and the process of industrialization fed on each other. The agricultural revolution
stimulated
many in the countryside to seek a new life in the city and made it possible for fewer farmers to feed
the large concentrations of people needed to provide a workforce for growing numbers of factories. Cities also
provided ready and convenient markets for the products of industry, and huge contracts in transportation and
construction-as well as the expanded market in consumer goods-allowed continued growth of the urban sector
of the overall economy of the United States.

Technological developments further stimulated the process of urbanization. One example is the Bessemer
converter (an industrial process for manufacturing steel), which provided steel girders for the construction of
skyscrapers. The refining of crude oil into kerosene, and later the development of electric lighting
as well as
of the telephone, brought additional comforts to urban areas that were unavailable to rural Americans and
helped attract many of them
from the farms into the cities. In every era the lure of the city included a major
psychological element for country people; the bustle and social interaction of urban life seemed particularly
intriguing to those raised in rural isolation.
Question 71: What aspects of the United States in the nineteenth century does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Technological developments
B. The impact of foreign immigrants on cities
C. Standards of living
D. The relationship between industrialization and urbanization

6

Question 72: The word "influx" in line 1 is closest in meaning to
A. working B. processing C. arrival D. attraction

Question 73: What proportion of population of the United States was urban in 1900?
A. Five percent B. Eleven percent C. Twenty-eight percent D. Forty-six percent

Question 74: The word "extraordinary" in line 10 is closet in meaning to
A. expensive B. exceptional C. supreme D. necessary

Question 75: The phrase "each other" in line 11 refers to
A. foreign immigrants and domestic migrants B. farms and small towns
C. growth of cities and industrialization D. industry and transportation

Question 76: The word "stimulated" in line 12 is closest in meaning to
A. forced B. prepared C. limited D. motivated

Question 77: Why does the author mention "electric lighting" and "the telephone" in lines 19-20?
A. They contributed to the agricultural revolution B. They are examples of the conveniences of city life
C. They were developed by the same individual. D. They were products of the Bessemer converter.

Question 78: The word "them" in line 21 refers to
A. urban areas B. rural Americans C. farms D. cities

Question 79: The word "era" in line 21 is closest in meaning to
A. period of time B. location C. action D. unique situation

Question 80: The word "intriguing" in line 23 is closest in meaning to
A. profitable B. attractive C. comfortable D. challenging

For further information
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1


KHÓA LUYỆN ĐỀ THI ĐẠI HỌC MÔN TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
GV phụ trách: Thầy Đặng Thanh Tâm

ĐỀ SỐ 4

ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions from 1 to 2.
Question 1: A. deservedly B. supposedly C. markedly D. determinedly
Question 2: A. anxious B. luxurious C. exemplify D. exhibit

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions from 3 to 5.
Question 3: A. argue B. discuss C. precede D. advance
Question 4: A. introduce B. understand C. pioneer D. continue
Question 5: A. advisable B. admirable C. reliable D. desirable

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 6 to 10.
Question 6: John F. Kennedy was born into a well-to-do Massachusetts family in 1917.
A. privileged B. prosperous C. famous D. respected
Question 7: Einstein’s theory of relativity seemed incredible at the time that he first introduced it.
A. unbelievable B. complicated C. brilliant D. famous
Question 8: No other newspaper columnist has managed as yet to rival Ann Landers’ popularity in terms
of readership.
A. up to the present time B. for the time being C. from time to time D. at times
Question 9: The twins look so much alike that no one can tell them apart.
A. distinguish between them B. point out with them
C. tell them what to do D. communicate with them
Question 10: City taxes are based on an estimate of the value of one’s property.
A. appraisal B. forecast C. diagnosis D. outline

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 11 to 20.

PET PASSPORTS

Going abroad has never been easier. Today, thanks to the UK’s Pet Travel Scheme (PETS), you
can safely and easily take your pet with you when you travel to many European countries and to a number
of long haul destinations …(11)… Australia and New Zealand. First of all your pet needs to have a
microchip …(12)… . This means that a small microchip, about the size of a grain of rice, is inserted
…(13)…the loose skin on the back of the neck. The microchip has a special code on it which is stored to
each animal and is used for identification …(14)… . Information about the animal such as name, age,
breed and vaccination details, along with details about the owner, are …(15)… on a central computer .
The next step is to have your pet vaccinated …(16)… rabies. Then after a follow-up blood …(17)…a
PETS Certificate or passport will be issued and your pet can set off with you. Of course, this new
convenience doesn’t come cheap, with the …(18)…cost of the procedure amounting to £ 200.

However, when compared to the old way, a quarantine …(19)… of six months at a cost of £2,000,
it is certainly a …(20)… in the right direction.
Question 11:A. counting B. plus C. including D. plus
Question 12:A. installed B. fitted C. built-in D. fixed
Question 13:A. to B. into C. beside D. by
Question 14:A. individual B. only C. unique D. same
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Question 15:A. reasons B. intentions C. functions D. purposes
Question 16:A. against B. to C. for D. through
Question 17:A. examination B. test C. research D. investigation
Question 18:A. total B. sum C. added D. complete
Question 19:A. stretch B. stage C. period D. time
Question 20:A. pace B. strike C. step D. walk

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in each of the
following questions from 21 to 45.
Question 21: Parents are often disappointed when their children don’t _______them .
A. obey B. obedient C. obedience D. obediently
Question 22: He was _______with an extraordinary ability.
A. entrusted B. ensured C. endowed D. entreated
Question 23: I declare here to the best of my ____________.
A. ability B. capacity C. knowledge D. strength
Question 24: “___________ have you studied English ?” – “I want to read books in English.”
A. What B. Why C. How D. When
Question 25: What is the population of pandas in the world?” – “__________.”
A. About 25 years B. Only about 600 C. about 160 kg D. 1.2 to 1.5 m
Question 26: Cindy:” Your hairstyle is terrific, Mary !”- Mary: “_______________.”
A. Yes, all right B. Thanks. Cindy. I had it done yesterday
C. Never mention it D. Thanks, but I’m afraid

Question 27: Linda ___________her father for giving her a nice present on her birthday party
A. thanked B. apologized C. insisted D. advised
Question 28: I’m sure you’ll have no _______ the exam .
A. difficulties of passing B. difficulty passing
C. difficulties to pass D. difficulty to pass
Question 29: The Taj Mahal, ____ is recognized one of the wonders of the world, was built by an Indian
King in memory of his beloved wife.
A. which B. that C. where D. when
Question 30: I’d have told you if I _______ the book.
A. had seen B. should have seen C. saw D. would have seen
Question 31: I can’t come to your party because something has________.
A. done away with B. come off C. dropped off D. cropped up
Question 32: There were two small rooms in the beach house , ___________ .
A. the smaller of which served as a kitchen B. the smaller of them was served as a kitchen
C. the smallest of which served as a kitchen D. smallest of that was served as a kitchen
Question 33: What people ________ Levis’s is that the quality is always high.
A. like B. like very much C. like about D. like a lot
Question 34: The more I tried my best to help her, ____.
A. she became lazier B. the lazier she became
C. the lazier did she become D. the lazier does she become
Question 35: Mr. Pike _______ English at our school for 20 years before he retired last year.
A. is teaching B. had been teaching C. was teaching D. has been teaching
Question 36: I’ll buy something __________ for my little nephew’s birthday. He is a very little boy.
A. mental B. instrumental C. educational D. professional
Question 37: It’s about time ___________care of yourself.
A. you took B. you take C. to talking D. you talking
Question 38: In recent years, more and more people _______ for things with credit card.
A. pay B. paid C. are paying D. have been paying
Question 39: I just took it _________that he’d always be available.
A. for granted B. into consideration C. easy D. into account

Question 40: _________ and you will succeed.
A. Work hard B. Working hard C. If you work hard D. If only you work hard
Question 41: While attempting to reach his home before the storm, __________.
A. the bicycle of John broke down B. John had an accident on his bicycle
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C. it happened that John’s bicycle broke down D. the storm caught John
Question 42: When __________ is not known.
A. was the wheel invented B. the invention of the wheel
C. it was invented the wheel D. the wheel was invented
Question 43: Hockey players wear lots of protective clothing so that they don’t get hurt, ________?
A. don’t they B. didn’t they C. doesn’t it D. do they
Question 44: Never before ______ as accelerated as they are now during the technological age.
A. historical changes have been B. have been historical changes
C. have historical changes been D. historical have changes been
Question 45: In 1870, _______, John D. Rockefeller and others created the Standard Oil Company.
A. that oil prices fluctuated B. despite fluctuating oil prices
C. but the oil prices fluctuated D. oil prices were fluctuating

The letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions from 46 to 50.
Question 46: Geometric figures first appeared more than 15,000 years ago in both practically and
A B
decorative forms, such as shapes of building, cave paintings and decorations on pottery.
C D
Question 47: It is high time we are leaving for school now, so don’t hang on like that.
A B C D
Question 48: You should concentrate on how the interviewer is saying and make a real effort to answer
A B
all the questions he or she asks.

C D
Question 49: Things tend to be disappeared when he’s around but people have never caught him in the act.
A B C D
Question 50: In terms of the aftermath, few buildings survived after the war intact.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
the sentence given in each of the following questions from 51 to 56.
Question 51: Should he refuse you , come and see me.
A. Refuse him ,and come to see me.
B. Come and see me in case he refuses you.
C . If he ever refuses you, come and see me.
D. You should come and see me because he refuses you.
Question 52: Mark had eaten the whole cake, so he felt sick.
A. Unless Mark had eaten the whole cake, he would have felt sick.
B. If Mark hadn’t eaten the whole cake, he wouldn’t have felt sick.
C. Mark felt sick although he hadn’t eaten the whole cake.
D. If Mark hadn’t eaten the whole cake, he wouldn’t feel sick.
Question 53: No one but Mike knew how to solve the problem .
A. The problem couldn’t be solved by anyone .
B. Everyone, including Mike knew how to solve the problem.
C. Mike was the only one who couldn’t solve the problem.
D. Only Mike could solve the problem.
Question 54: One of the things I hate is noisy children.
A. I hate being in a place where there are noisy kids.
B. Children who make a lot of noise are terrible.
C. Among other things, I can’t stand children who make noise.
D. I hate both children and the noise they make.
Question 55: Susan had the TV on when her parents entered the room.
A. Susan 's parents told her to turn on the T.V. B. Susan noticed her parents watching T.V.

C. Susan 's parents found her watching T.V. D. The T.V was on a table in Susan 's room.
Question 56: Mary takes after her mother.
A. Mary and her mother are alike. B. Mary likes her mother very much.
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C. Mary resembles her mother in action. D. Mary and her mother don’t look alike.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best joins each of the
following pairs of sentences in each of the following questions from 57 to 60.
Question 57: The plan may be ingenious. It will never work in practice.
A. Ingenious as it may be, the plan will never work in practice.
B. Ingenious as may the plan, it will never work in practice.
C. The plan may be too ingenious to work in practice.
D. The plan is as impractical as it is ingenious.

Question 58: The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room. He opened the window.
A. Wanting to get some fresh air in the room , the window was opened by the man.
B. The man opened the window in order to get some fresh air in the room.
C. The man got some fresh air in the room, even though he opened the window.
D. Having opened the window, the room could get some fresh air.

Question 59: Nobody could move the piano. It was too heavy.
A. The piano was heavy, but everybody was able to move it .
B. So heavy was the piano that it could be moved.
C. It was such a heavy piano that nobody could move it
D. The piano could be move although it was heavy.

Question 60: The missing boy could not be found. His dog could not be found.
A. Neither the boy nor his dog could be found.
B. Both the boy and his dog could be found.

C. Either the boy or his dog could be found.
D. Not only the boy but also his dog could be found.
.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 61 to 70.
The peregrine falcon, a predatory bird indigenous to North America, was once in danger of
extinction. In the 1960s, scientists discovered byproducts of the pesticide DDT in the birds' eggs, which
caused them to be too soft to survive. The use of the pesticide had been banned in the United States, but
the falcons were eating migratory birds from other places where DDT was still used. In order to increase
the survival rate, scientists were raising the birds in laboratories and then releasing them into
mountainous areas. This practice achieved only moderate success, however, because many of the birds
raised in captivity could not survive in the wild.
There is now, however, a new alternative to releases in the wild. A falcon that has been given the
name Scarlett chose to make her home on a ledge of the 33rd floor of a Baltimore, Maryland, office
building rather than in the wild, and, to the surprise of the scientists, she has managed to live quite well in
the city. Following this example, programs have been initiated that release birds like Scarlett into cities
rather than into their natural wild habitat. These urban releases are becoming a common way to strengthen
the species. Urban homes have several benefits for the birds that wild spots do not. First, there is an
abundance of pigeons and small birds as food sources. The peregrine in the city is also protected from its
main predator, the great horned owl. Urban release programs have been very successful in reestablishing
the peregrine falcons along the East Coast. Though they are still an endangered species, their numbers
increased from about 60 nesting pairs in 1975 to about 700 pairs in 1992. In another decade the species
may flourish again, this time without human help.

Question 61: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. survival of peregrine falcons B. releases into the wild
C. endangered species D. harmful effects of pesticides
Question 62: In line 1, the phrase "indigenous to" could be best replaced by
A. typical of B. protected by C. adapted to D. native to
Question 63: The word "byproducts" in line 2 could best be replaced by which of the following?

A. derivatives B. proceeds C. chemicals D. elements
Question 64: In line 3, the word "banned" could be best replaced by
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A. authorized B. developed C. disseminated D. prohibited
Question 65: Which of the following words is closest in meaning to the word "rate," as used in line 5?
A. speed B. percentage C. continuation D. behavior
Question 66: Why were the peregrine falcons in danger?
A. because of pesticides used by American farmers
B. because they migrated to countries where their eggs could not survive
C. because they ate birds from other countries where DDT was still used
D. because they were prized by hunters and hunted to near extinction
Question 67: The word "ledge" in line 9 is closest in meaning to
A. window B. wall C. terrace D. shelf
Question 68: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT a reason why a falcon might
choose to live in a city?
A. There are high places to nest. B. There are other falcons nearby.
C. There is a lack of predators. D. There is abundant food.
Question 69: According to the passage, which of the following are the falcon's main predators?
A. pigeons B. rattlesnakes C. owls D. humans
Question 70: According to the passage, where have the release programs been the most successful?
A. in office buildings B. on the East Coast C. in mountainous areas D. in the wild

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 71 to 80.
The word robot first appeared in a 1921 stage play by Czech writer Karel Capek. In the play, a man
makes a machine that can think, which he calls a robot and which ends up killing its owner. In the 1940s,
the American science fiction writer Issac Asimov wrote a series of stories about robots and invented the
term robotics, the science of robots. Meanwhile, in the real world, the first robots were developed by an
engineer, Joseph F. Engelberger, and an inventor, George C. Devol. Together they started Unimation, a

manufacturing company that produced the first real robot in 1961, called the Unimate. Robots of this type
were installed at a General Motors automobile plant and proved to be a success. They worked reliably
and saved money for General Motors, so other companies were soon acquiring robots as well.
These industrial robots were nothing like the terrifying creatures that can often be seen in science
fiction films. In fact, these robots looked and behaved nothing like humans. They were simply pieces of
computer – controlled machinery, with metal “arms” or “hands”. Since they were made of metal, they
could perform certain jobs that were difficult or dangerous for humans, particularly jobs that involve high
heat. And since robots were tireless and never got hungry, sleepy, or distracted, they were useful for tasks
that would be tiring or boring for humans. Industrial robots have been improved over the years, and today
they are used in many factories around the world. Though the use of robots has meant the loss of some
jobs, at the same time other jobs have been created in the design, development, and production of the
robots.
Question 71: What is Unimation?
A. It’s the name of a robot inventor B. It’s the name of a robot
C. It’s the producer of the first robot. D. It’s a robot making program
Question 72: When did the word “robot” appear?
A. In the 1960s B. In the 1920s
C. In the 19
th
century D. In the 1940s
Question 73: What can be said about robots?
A. They take away some jobs but offer some in return.
B. Their appearance negatively affects the job market.
C. They put jobs in relation to designers in danger.
D. They develop weapon industry.
Question 74: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of robots?
A. They are not distracted B. They are tiring
C. They can do jobs involving high heat D. They don’t need food
Question 75: Which of the following best paraphrases the final sentence in bold of the first paragraph?
A. Because robots were reliable and economical to General Motors, other companies started to use robots

B. Robots only worked well for General Motors.
C. Other companies produced reliable and efficient robots for General Motors.