Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 2013

Môn thi: Toán học
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Ngày thi: 16 - 2 - 2013
Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút
Câu I. (2 điểm)
Cho
1
1
−
−
=
x
xx
A
; B =
4
44
−
+−
x
xx
. Với x
0
≥
, x
1≠
, x
4≠
1. Rút gọn các biểu thức A và B
2. Tìm x để A = B
Câu II. (2 điểm)
Giải bài toán sau bằng cách lập hệ phương trình:

Một ca nô chạy xuôi dòng một khúc sông dài 80 km, sau đó chạy ngược dòng 80 km hết
tất cả 9 giờ. Nếu ca nô ấy chạy xuôi dòng 100 km sau đó chạy ngược dòng 64 km cũng
hết tất cả 9 giờ. Tính vận tốc riêng của ca nô và vận tốc dòng nước.
Câu III. (2 điểm)
1. Cho đường thẳng d: y = 2x + m + 1 và parabol (P): y = x
2
. Tìm m sao cho đường thẳng
d cắt parabol (P) tại hai điểm phân biệt bên phải trục tung.
2. Giải hệ phương trình x
2
= y + 2 (1)
y
2
= x + 2 (2)
Câu IV. (3,5 điểm)
Cho đường tròn (O; R), đường kính AC cố định. Kẻ tia tiếp tuyến Ax với đường tròn.
Trên Ax lấy điểm M. Qua M kẻ tiếp tuyến MB tới đường tròn (B khác A). Tiếp tuyến của
đường tròn tại C cắt AB tại D. Nối OM cắt AB tại I, cắt cung nhỏ AB tại E.
1. Chứng minh: OI DC là tứ giác nội tiếp.
2. Chứng minh tích AB. AD không đổi khi M chuyển động trên Ax.
3. Tìm vị trí của M trên Ax để AOBE là hình thoi.
4. Chứng minh OD
⊥
MC.
Câu V. (0,5 điểm)
Tìm giá trị nhỏ nhất của biểu thức:
S = 5x
2
+ 9y
2

– 12xy + 24 x – 48y + 2014.
……………….Hết………………
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu
Giám thị không được giải thích gì thêm.
LUYỆN THI HÀ ĐÔNG.COM.VN KỲ THI THỬ TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN
NĂM HỌC 2013 – 2014
Lần thứ nhất
Môn thi: Toán học
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC (Dành cho hệ chuyên Toán)
Ngày thi: 17 - 2 - 2013
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút
Câu I. (2 điểm)
a) Tìm số n tự nhiên sao cho n
2
+ 7 là một số chính phương.
b) Cho a, b là hai số tự nhiên. Biết rằng (a
2
+ b
2
)

3. Chứng minh rằng a và b cùng chia
hết cho 3.
Câu II. (2 điểm)
Giải các phương trình, hệ phương trình sau:
a) x
2
+ x -
12
2

−+ xx
= 9 (V)
b) x - 1 + y = 3 (1)
x - 2 - y = 1 (2)
Câu III. (1,5 điểm)
Cho a, b >
0
, a + b = 1. Tìm giá trị nhỏ nhất của biểu thức:
M =
2
1






+
a
a
+
2
1






+

b
b
Câu IV. (3,5 điểm)
Cho tam giác đều ABC nội tiếp đường tròn (O; R). Điểm M thuộc cung lớn BC sao cho
tam giác MBC có 3 góc nhọn. Các đường cao BE, CF của tam giác MBC cắt nhau tại H.
Gọi I là trung điểm MH, J là trung điểm BC.
a) Chứng minh rằng: IJ
⊥
EF
b) Tính theo R bán kính đường tròn ngoại tiếp tam giác HEF
c) Tìm vị trí M để tam giác MBC có chu vi lớn nhất.
Câu V. (1 điểm)
Chứng minh rằng:
3
5
2013
1

3
1
2
1
1
222
<++++
……………….Hết………………
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu
Giám thị không được giải thích gì thêm.
LUYỆN THI HÀ ĐÔNG.COM.VN KỲ THI THỬ TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 THPT
NĂM HỌC 2013 – 2014

Lần thứ nhất
Môn thi: Ngữ văn
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Ngày thi: 16 - 2 - 2013
Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút
PHẦN I : (5 điểm)
Đoạn thơ:
‘‘Câu hát căng buồm với gió khơi,
Đoàn thuyền chạy đua cùng mặt trời.
Mặt trời đội biển nhô màu mới,
Mắt cá huy hoàng muôn dặm phơi.’’
(Đoàn thuyền đánh cá - Ngữ văn 9 tập I - Trang 140)
Câu 1: Nêu hoàn cảnh ra đời của bài thơ ? (1 điểm).
Câu 2: Sự lặp lại của ‘‘câu hát’’ trong suốt bài thơ ‘‘Đoàn thuyền đánh cá’’ mang
ý nghĩa gì ? (0,5 điểm).
Câu 3: Trong câu thơ : ‘‘Đoàn thuyền chạy đua cùng mặt trời’’, tác giả sử dụng
những nghệ thuật tu từ gì ? Hiệu quả nghệ thuật của những biện pháp tu từ ấy ?
(1 điểm).
Câu 4: Bằng một đoạn văn quy nạp (khoảng 10 – 12 câu) trong đó có sử dụng
phép nối, một câu ghép có quan hệ bổ sung và một câu sử dụng thành phần biệt lập tình
thái (ghi các câu trên ra tờ giấy thi), trình bày cảm nhận của em về đoạn thơ trên ? (2,5
điểm).
PHẦN II : (5 điểm)
Cho đoạn văn bản:
‘‘Trong lúc đó, nó vẫn ôm chặt lấy ba nó. Không ghìm đuợc xúc động và không
muốn cho con thấy mình khóc, anh Sáu một tay ôm con, một tay rút khăn lau nuớc mắt,
rồi hôn lên mái tóc con:
- Ba đi rồi ba về với con.
- Không ! – Con bé hét lên, hai tay nó siết chặt lấy cổ, chắc nó nghĩ hai tay không
thể giữ đuợc ba nó, nó dang cả hai chân rồi câu chặt lấy ba nó, và đôi vai nhỏ bé của nó
run run.’’

(Chiếc luợc ngà - Nguyễn Quang Sáng - Ngữ văn 9 tập I – Trang 199)
Câu 1: Nêu tình huống truyện của văn bản có đoạn văn trên và ý nghĩa của việc
xây dựng tình huống ấy? (1 điểm).
Câu 2: Đoạn văn là lời kể của ai ? Cụm từ ‘‘ Trong lúc đó’’ cho ta biết sự việc
nói đến trong đoạn văn ở thời điểm nào của câu chuyện ? Nó liên kết đoạn văn này với
đoạn truớc đó bằng phép liên kết nào ? (1,5 điểm).
Cõu 3: Da vo s hiu bit ca em v vn bn cú on trớch trờn, trỡnh by ngn
gn nhng cm nhn ca em v hỡnh tung nhõn vt anh Sỏu? (Bi vit khụng quỏ 01
trang giy thi). (2,5 im).

Ht
LUYN THI H ễNG.COM.VN K THI TH TUYN SINH VO LP 10 THPT CHUYấN
NM HC 2013 2014
Ln th 1
Mụn thi: Văn hc (chuyên văn)
CHNH THC Ngy thi: 17 - 02 - 2013
Thi gian lm bi: 150 phỳt
Câu 1 (3 điểm):
Hãy viết đoạn văn tổng - phân - hợp (khoảng 15 đến 20 câu) trình bày suy nghĩ của
em về ý kiến sau : Cám ơn và xin lỗi là nét đẹp trong văn hóa ứng xử của mỗi con ngời.
Câu 2 (7 điểm): Lặng lẽ Sa pa (Nguyễn Thành Long) đợc xếp vào hàng những
truyện ngắn tiêu biểu nhất của nền văn học cách mạng Việt Nam.
Hãy chứng minh rằng : Một trong những yếu tố quan trọng tạo nên sức hấp dẫn và
góp vào thành công của tác phẩm Lặng lẽ Sa pa là chất trữ tình.

HT
Thớ sinh khụng c s dng ti liu. Giỏm th khụng gii thớch gỡ thờm.
H v tờn thớ sinh: S bỏo danh:
Ch kớ ca giỏm th 1: Ch kớ ca giỏm th 2:
LUYỆN THI HÀ ĐÔNG.COM.VN KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10

THPT CHUYÊN
NĂM HỌC 2013-2014
Lần thứ nhất
Môn thi : Tiếng Anh (Phổ thông)
Ngày thi: 17/02/2013
Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (đề thi
gồm 4 trang)
Chú ý: - Học sinh không được sử dụng bất kì tài liệu nào có liên quan hoặc từ điển,
không viết hai màu mực.
- Thí sinh làm bài vào đề thi này.
- Giám thị không giải thích đề thi.
Part A- PHONETIC
I. Circle the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other
words.
1. A. passed B. watched C. played D. washed
2. A. meeting B. seen C. cheer D. been
3. A. forest B. pollute C. foreign D. honest
4. A. cancer B. process C. science D. democracy
5. A. global B. folk C. economic D. compose
II. Circle the word with the position of the streessed syllable different from that of
the others in each line.
6. A. arrive B. media C. village D. wagon
7. A. produce B. believe C. repair D. suffer
8. A. discover B. cinema C. instrument D. industry
9. A. museum B. musical C. heritage D. operate
10. A. tropical B. comedy C. terrific D. memory
Part B- VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
I.Circle the correct answer A, B, C or D for each of the following sentences.
11. She hasn’t come here _________.
A. still B. already C. yet D. till

12. These trousers are my size, they perfectly __________me.
A. match B. correspond C. suit D. fit
13. John was just _________to have a bath when the telephone rang.
A. up B. about C. over D. on
14. At the show, we saw many different schools of _________.
A. birds B. cattle C. fish D. beads
15. Glenn is so _________. He always helps out the poor people in our community.
A. creative B. reticent C. sociable D. generous
16. If she can make up such stories, she is certainly a very _________girl.
A. imaginable B. imaginary C. imaginative D. imagining
17. __________! I had no idea you were in Paris.
A. What surprise B. What a surprise C. How much a
surprise
D. such surprise
18. I asked a _________on the plane to bring me a newspaper and a cup of coffee.
A. waitress B. stewardess C. servant D. maid
19. I bought a _________ticket, as I was going to return by car.
A. simple B. return C. single D. double
20. The hotel room _________over a beautiful beach.
A. viewed out B. faced up C. opened up D. looked out
21. On the first day of our holiday we just _________by the hotel pool.
A. enjoyed B. calmed C. comforted D. relaxed
22. She’s only here for three weeks, because it’s a/ an _________job.
A. part-time B. full time C. temporary D. overtime
23. The thief wore gloves so that his fingerprints didn’t __________.
A. give him in B. give him away C. give him out D. give him up
24. He took the wrong book _________mistake.
A. by B. for C. with D. on
25. When you return to your country, don’t forget to _________.
A. keep in hand B. keep contact C. keep in touch D. keep touch

26. Mr. Orson __________a car if he had enough money.
A. will buy B. would buy C. bought D. has bought
27. He __________book the tickets, but he had no time to call at the cinema.
A. would B. might C. could D. was going to
28. Joe wins every time. He always _________Bill.
A. wins B. beats C. gains D. scores
29. I’ve always enjoyed travelling. My brother, __________, prefers to stay at home.
A. but B. although C. however D. even
30. I think your suggestion is probably the best one __________the long run.
A. at B. over C. in D. for
II. Choose the correct preposition or particle to complete each sentence.
31. That’s the shop assistant who was really rude _________me last week.
32. I’m sorry _________the smell in this room. It’s just been painted.
33. Damage to the building resulted _________an unusually high wind.
34. I’ve seen the Prime Minister _________television, but I’ve never seen him
_________person.
35. Mr. Foster’s new job seems to take _________all of his spare time.
36. _________the time being, I think you’d better not say anything to him.
III. Circle the correct answer A, B, C or D to choose the underlined part in each
sentence and correct.
37. Antibiotics can be convenience grouped according to the species of micro-organisms
they inhabit.
A B C
D
38. Not single alphabet has ever perfectly represented the sounds of any of Earth’s
natural sounds.
A B C D
39. I will make some sandwiches before I’ll leave for the office in the morning.
A B C D
40. Our new pocket calculator is enough small to be kept in the wallet.

A B C D
41. Some was knocking at the door when I was doing the washing up.
A B C D
42. When he was a student, David used to working hard all day at the university library.
A B C D
IV. Use the verbs in brackets in the correct tense or form.
43. He (not finish) his work yet. He only (start) an hour ago.
44. I recommend that Bob (study) much more if he wants to go pass all his classes.
45. If I (have) a typewriter, I would type it myself.
46. I tried (explain) but he refused to listen.
47. A lot of people (kill) by AIDS recently, and I wish nobody would die any more.
48. Only yesterday I (realise) what was going on.
49. George as well as his brothers (not go) to the cinema very often.
50. We are going (have) our house (repaint) next month.
V. Use the correct form of the word in brackets.
51. Please (fast) ________________your seat-belt. The plane is taking off.
52. Her (anxious) _________________was so great that she broke a glass.
53. This document requires a (sign) _________________.
54. The software (able) _________________you to access the Internet in seconds.
55. (Fortune) _________________I won’t be able to join you for dinner this evening.
Part C- READING
I. Read this passage carefully and circle the best answers.
Music is a very important part of our lives. Music is for dancing, drinking, eating,
loving and thinking. Some songs remind us of our childhood or youth. Others remind us
of the people we love. Many important occasions, like wedding and funerals have special
music. Every nation has a national song like the American “The Star-Spangled Banner”.
In the U.S, high schools and colleges have school songs,too.
Music is a part of the history of America. It expresses the problems and feelings of its
people. As the years pass, the music grows and changes. Modern science has also
changed music. Inventions like records, radio, movies, electric instruments, tape

recorders and video have changed the way we play and listen to music. They have helped
to make music an important form of international communication.
American music, from the earliest folk songs to modern “pop”, is known around the
world. Music is one of America’s most important exports. It brings the people of the
world together. Even when people cannot understand the same language, they can share
the same music. Many people learn and pratice English by singing songs. Understanding
American music can help you understand American people, their history and culture.
56. What is true about “The Star-Spangled Banner”?
A. It is played in weddings.
B. It is liked by every nation.
C. It is the U.S. nation song
D. It is one of the American school songs.
57. According to the passage, music is changed thanks to the invention of the following
except__________.
A. videos B. electric instruments
C. tape recorders D. international communication
58. The word exports in the last paragraph is nearest in meaning to __________.
A. things that can be bought B. things that can be sold
C. things that can be enjoyed D. things can be changed
59. What is the earliest form of music in America?
A. school music B. nation music
C. folk music D. pop music
60. What can be the title of this article?
A. An introduction to American music.
B. The development of American music.
C. The history of American music.
II. Fill each of the numbered blanks in the following passage. Use only ONE word in
each space.
Everyone is becoming aware that the environment is a serious issue. However, we
have not done (61)_____________to deal with this problem because we seem to wait for

governments to (62)_____________actions. In my opinion, individuals can do many
things to help (63)_____________ the problem. To begin (64)______________, we can
be more responsible in the (65)______________ we dispose of waste. We should not
throw rubbish into lakes and (66)_____________. Moreover, we also need to
(67)_____________the water we use. Fresh water (68)_____________drinking is
running out in many (69)_____________of the world. Finally, I think that if we use
(70)____________transport more we can reduce air pollution in cities.
III. Read the following passage, then decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each
numbered space.
Most of us take cheese for granted. When we go to the supermarket, we expect to see
a (71)__________ of different cheeses to choose from. But have you ever wondered
(72)__________these differences came about?
Cheese has been produced and eaten for many thousands of years. No one knows for
sure how we (73)__________how to make cheese, but some animals, like lambs, produce
cheese naturally in their stomachs. It’s possible that our ancestors found this cheese-like
substance (74)__________the stomach of a dead lamb or calf and liked the taste.
Certainly, cheese is very practical. Milk (75)___________very quickly, but turning it into
a solid means that it can be kept for much longer. Cheese is also healthy, full of protein,
calcium and (76)__________acids.
Cheese can be (77)__________from the milk of animals such as goats, sheep, cows
and (78)_________ horses and reindeer. By far the most popular cheese in the world is
Cheddar, an English cheese made from cow’s milk.
The amount of water and fat used in the production of cheese determines whether it is
hard or soft. The flavor of cheese (79)__________on the kind of bacteria used in the
ripening process. All cheese has bacteria in it, but this is not (80)__________to humans.
71. A. sort B. range C. kind D. total
72. A. where B. which C. what D. how
73. A. discovered B. invented C. worked D. succeeded
74. A. onto B. into C. in D. on
75. A. goes off B. takes out C. takes in D. ends up

76. A. famous B. noteworthy C. essential D. significant
77. A. made B. taken C. got D. received
78. A. still B. even C. yet D. too
79. A. decides B. results C. relies D. depends
80. A. bad B. harmful C. destructive D. unhelpful
Part D- WRITING
Rewrite the following sentences using the word given.
81. There aren’t a lot of cars on this road today.(traffic)
There isn’t
82. I thought this meal would cost more than it did. (much)
This meal
83. Carol would rather not come to the beach with us today. (feel)
Carol
84. I can’t wait to go in the submarine. (forward)
I’m really
85. Promise to look after it and you can borrow my tennis racquet. (long)
You can
86. The film camera was invented by an American. (who)
It
87. I wish you would grow up and act responsibly.
It’s high time
88. I can’t give you a lift because I haven’t got a car.
If
89. She does not pass the exams. She fails and this depresses her.
Her
90. Peter regretted not attending the lecture.
Peter wished
……… Hết…………
LUYỆN THI HÀ ĐÔNG.COM.VN KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10
THPT CHUYÊN

NĂM HỌC 2013-2014
Lần thứ nhất
Môn thi : Tiếng Anh (Chuyên)
Ngày thi: 17/02/2013
Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (đề thi gồm
5 trang)
Chú ý: - Học sinh không được sử dụng bất kì tài liệu nào có liên quan hoặc từ điển,
không viết hai màu mực.
- Thí sinh làm bài vào đề thi này.
- Giám thị không giải thích đề thi.
Part A- PHONETIC
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others
in each group.
1. A. solid B. mine C. kind D. fine
2. A. fashionable B. parade C. management D. passage
3. A. cough B. enough C. tough D. thorough
4. A. noon B. tool C. blood D. spoon
5. A. watching B. matches C. machine D. kitchen
II. Choose the word that has a different stress position in each group.
6. A. decision B. reference C. refusal D. important
7. A. product B. purpose C. postcard D. postpone
8. A. intelligent B. comfortable C. necessary D. secretary
9. A. continent B. constant C. consider D. contents
10. A. relevant B. descendent C. redundant D. consultant
Part B - GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY
I. Choose the best answer to complete the sentence.
11. I was tired after _________so I went straight to bed.
A. my journey long B. my long journey C. long my journey D. journey long my
12. Before having the main courses, you often have some ________.
A. desserts B. drink C. starters D. supper

13. What _________you like for dinner this evening?
A. would B. do C. did D. will
14. Jimmy sang the song “Flying without wings” so _________.
A. beautiful B. lovely C. beautifully D. goodly
15. He spends hours __________the Internet every day.
A. surfing B. visiting C. clicking D. downloading
16. The film __________us to the beginning of the century.
A. takes B. travels C. sees D. puts
17. “How many pages __________so far?” “Ten”.
A. do you study B. did you study C. have you studied D. had you study
18. My teacher can write a beautiful poem in __________.
A. little than half an
hour
B. a little than half
an hour
C. less than half an
hour
D. least than half an
hour
19. She looks so ____________in her new blue dress.
A. fashion B. fashionable C. fashioned D. fashionably
20. If I __________be somebody else, I __________to be a film star.
A. could/ would B. can/ would like C. could/ would like D. can/ like
21. Don’t forget to give Mr. Brown my message, __________?
A. do you B. are you C. shall you D. will you
22. Look at these two pieces of material I have just bought. Which do you like
__________?
A. most B. more than C. best D. better
23. Remember to go __________your test paper to check for grammar and spelling
mistakes.

A. on B. over C. off D. into
24. When the clock __________twelve, we raised our glasses and drank to celebrate the
New Year.
A. struck B. beat C. hit D. shot
25. I got very nervous during the exam. When the examiner asked my name, my mind
went completely __________.
A. empty B. blank C. white D. void
26. We got on the plane and waited about 10 minutes before it __________.
A. take off B. land C. took off D. landed
27. By the time we __________, we had driven six hundred miles.
A. stopped B. were stopping C. has stopped D. had stopped
28. Ann was __________of John’s behaviour at the party yesterday. He talked and
smiled strangely.
A. worried B. interested C. concerned D. suspicious
29. The _________in some countries get allowance from the government.
A. unemployed B. unemployment C. unemploying D. unemploy
30. He was standing by an electric heater, and his nightdress _________fire.
A. took B. caught C. started D. set
31. In spite of the thunderstorm, the children slept __________all night.
A. noisily B. sensitively C. soundly D. quickly
32. At first, I didn’t recognize her because she __________at least fifty pounds.
A. lost B. might lose C. had lost D. would lose
33. The next afternoon I went to __________Miss Barkley again.
A. call on B. call forth C. call by D. call off
34. We have to produce more food to __________the demand of the ever-growing
population.
A. suit B. fill C. meet D. respond
35. His father retired early ___________unhealthy.
A. on behalf of B. ahead of C. on account of D. in my view
II. Use the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the following

paragraph.
Computers have had the ability to play chess for many years now, and their (36.
PERFORM) _________________games against the best players in the world has shown
steady (37. IMPROVE) _________________. However, it will be years before the
designers of computer games machines can beat their (38. BIG)
_________________challenge yet- the ancient board game called Go. The playing area is
(39. CONSIDERABLE) __________________larger than in chess and there are far
more pieces, so that the (40. COMBINE) __________________of moves is almost (41.
END) __________________. The game involves planning so many moves ahead that
even the (42. IMPRESS) __________________calculations of the fastest modern
computers are (43. SUFFICIENT) ___________________to deal with the problems of
the game.
In a recent (44. COMPETE) __________________for computer Go machines, the
best machine beat all its computer rivals, but lost (45. HEAVY)
____________________to three young schoolchildren , so there is obviously still a lot of
work to do!
III. Fill in the gaps with a suitable word.
HISTORY OF MEDICINE
Since the earliest time, people have looked for ways of curing their illnesses. Early
people believed that (46)______________was a punishment from the Gods. They also
believed that priests and (47)______________could heal them. In
(48)______________Greece, people visited temples when they were
(49)_____________and sacrificed animals to Ascleplus, the Greek God of healing. They
also drank and bathed in medicinal water and followed (50)____________diets in the
hope of being cured. During the fifth century B.C the Greek doctor Hippocrates declared
that it was nature, not magic, (51)_____________ caused and cured disease.
Hippocrates was famed as “the father of medicine” and he and his followers
wrotemany medical books. Scientists began to (52)______________the body of death
people to learn more about disease and how to treat it. Since then, there have been many
more (53)______________in medicine, and the battle against disease continues.

Part C- READING
I. Choose A, B, C or D to complete the following passage.
HOW THE POP SONGS OF TOMMORROW ARE CHOSEN
Teenagers in American buy millions of records every year so it is
(54)__________surprising that manufacturers find it (55)__________to try out the
recordings they have made in front of live audiences before (56)__________the records
on the market. The (57)__________way of doing this is the one employed in Hollywood,
where hundreds of (58)__________are invited to listen to test records and given ideals
that measure their response to them electrically. Everyone who goes to the sessions
enjoys them, (59)_________they are not paid for their help. They think they are being
given an opportunity to (60)_________the manufacturers what they like. They say that
there (61)________be more sessions like this. If there (62)_________, the songs that are
published wouod be better and they (63)________hear so much rubbish on the radio.
54. A. almost B. hardly C. even D. nearly
55. A. being useful B. to be useful C. useful D. that it is useful
56. A. put B. they are putting C. to put D. putting
57. A. most B. more effective C. effectiveness D. effectiver
effective
58. A. youngs B. young people C. the youth D. the youths
59. A. although B. in spite of C. however D. nevertheless
60. A. explain B. inform C. tell D. say
61. A. would B. should C. shall D. ought
62. A. are B. were C. was D. had
63. A. shouldn’t B. wouldn’t have to C. ought not to D. mustn’t
II. Choose from sentences A-H the one which fits each gap 64-70
A. Industries have polluted the water, fishing has destroyed sea life and divers have
damaged large parts of the coral.
B. The crew were helpful and pleasant and the price was also very reasonable.
C. Altogether, it was a wonderful trip.
D. I’m not sure I would go train.

E. It stretches for 200 kilometres and is up to 800 metres wide.
F. However, I didn’t think I could take part in a dive cruise and not dive.
G. At no point were we permitted to swim away on our own.
H. I was right it was an incredible sight.
A Natural Wonder
When I was asked to visit and write about the Great Barrier Reef, I was thrilled. I had
heard reports of damage done by tourism and other industries, but felt that the Reef
would still be a wonderful place to see. (64 -…… )
From the air, the Great Barrier Reef seems huge. (65 - …… ) I wasn’t sure how best
to explore such a giant place, so after I had landed, I made enquiries and was told the best
way to see the Reef is to take a dive cruise. I booked a place on three-day cruise, and,
despite warnings about the state of some of these boats, the boat I was on was
comfortable and clean. (66 - …….). I was entitled to eight dives plus use of wet suit,
flippers and other equipment, three meals a day and two nights’accommodation.
Although i have been diving before, I am not an experienced diver. (67 - …… ) I was
nervous to begin with, but soon felt completely safe. We were devided into groups
according to our ability and each group was given an instructor. They had very strict rules
(68 - …….).
With our guides, we saw some amazing sea life including small sharks, crabs and
thousands of colorful tropical fish swimming around in the coral. The other divers were
friendly and the evenings on board were very plesant. (69 - ….…)
While I was at the Great Barrier Reef, it became perfectly clear from the conservation
programmes I came across, that the damage I had heard about had been done. (70 -
…… ) Environmental groups have done much to stop this damage, but sadly it
continues.
Despite this, the Great Barrier Reef is a wonderful place to go. For me at least it is
one of the most significant natural wonders our earth has to offer.
III. Read the following passage and circle the best option (A, B, C or D).
It was the first photograph that I had ever seen, and it fascinated me. I can remember
holding it at every angle in order to catch the flickering light from the oil lamp on the

dresser. The man in the photograph was unsmiling, but his eyes were kind. I had never
met him, but I felt that I knew him. One evening when I was looking at the photograph,
as I always did before I went to sleep, I notice a shadow across the man’s thin face. I
moved the photograph so that the shadow lay perfectly around his hollow cheeks. How
different he looked!
That night I couldn’t sleep, thinking about the letter that I would write. First, I would
tell him that I was eleven years old, and that if he had a little girl my age, she could write
to me instead of him. I knew that he was a very busy man. Then I would explain to him
the real purpose of my letter. I would tell him how wonderful he looked with the shadow
that I had seen across his photograph, and i would most carefully suggest that he grow
whiskers.
Four months later when I met him at the train station near my home in Westfield,
New York, he was wearing a full beard. He was so much taller than I had imagined from
my tiny photograph.
“Ladies and gentlemen,” he said, “I have no speech to make and no time to make it
in. I appear before you that I may see you and that you may see me”. Then he picked me
right up and kissed me on both cheeks. The whiskers scratched “Do you think I look
better, my little friend?” he asked me
My name is Grace Bedell, and the man in the photograph was Abraham Lincoln.
71. What is the author’s main purpose in the passage?
A. To explain how Grace Bedell took a photograph of Abraham Lincoln.
B. To explain why Abraham Lincoln wore a beard.
C. To explain why the first photographs were significant in American life
D. To explain why Wesfield is an important city.
72. The word “fascinated” in the first paragraph could best be replaced by _________.
A. interested B. frightened C. confused D. disgusted
73. The word “flickering” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. burning
constantly
B. burning

unsteadily
C. burning very
dimly
D. burning brightly
74. The man in the photograph _________.
A. was smiling B. had a beard C. had a round, fat
face
D. looked kind
75. What did Grace Bedell do every night before she went to sleep?
A. She wrote letters B. She looked at the photograph
C. She made shadow figures on the wall D. She read stories
76. The title girl could not sleep because she was ________.
A. sick B. excited C. lonely D. sad
77. Why did the title girl write the man a letter?
A. She was lonely B. She wanted his daughter to write to her
C. She wanted him to grow a beard D. She wanted him to visit her
78. The word “it” in the fourth paragraph refers to _________.
A. time B. speech C. photograph D. station
79. From this passage, it may be inferred that ________.
A. Grace Bedell was the only one at the train station when Lincoln stopped at Westfield.
B. There were many people waiting for Lincoln to arrive on the train.
C. Lincoln made a long speech at the station in Westfield.
D. Lincoln was offended by the letter.
80. Why did the author wait until the last line to reveal the identity of the man in the
photograph?
A. The author did not know it.
B. The author wanted to make the reader feel foolish.
C. The author wanted to build the interest and curiosity of the reader.
D. The author was just a little girl.
Part D – WRITING

I. Write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence,
but using the words given in black letters.
81. In the end, I felt I had been right to leave the club. REGRETS
82. The only thing they could do was to look for a new flat. ALTERNATIVE
83. His fast letter to me was written three years ago. HEARD
84. If only one could rely on what she says. PITY
85. An open fire can’t be compared to central heating. COMPARISON
86. Nobody could possibly believe the story he told us. BEYOND
87. The project received the unanimous approval of the committee. FAVOUR
88. She apologised for having to go so early, and left. APOLOGIES
II. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the
same as the sentence printed before it
89. It’s sad, but unemployment is unlikely to go down this year.
Sad
90. Since we had nothing else to do, we decided to go for a walk.
Having
91. We regret to inform you that your application has not been successful.
Much to
92. I’m absolutely sure that they weren’t playing in this weather.
They can’t
93. I only made that terrible mistake because I wasn’t thinking.
If I
94. As television programmes become more popular, they seem to get worse.
The more
95. It would have been a super weekend if it hadn’t been for the weather.
But
Choose the underlined word or phrase in each of sentences that need correcting and
correct it.
96. It has a population of more than 26 million and is considered as the largest city in the
country.

A B C D
97. Now Hanoi has been totally transformed and visitors are entranced by the city and it’s
residents.
A B C
D
98. Scientists said that nuclear power and other things were complete harmless.
A B C D
99. Drug abuse have become one of America’s most serious social problems.
A B C D
100. If protect, a solar cell lasts for a long time and is a good source of energy.
A B C D
…………Hết…………
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NĂM HỌC 2013 – 2014
Lần thứ nhất
Môn thi: Hóa học
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Ngày thi: 17/2/2013
Thời gian làm bài: 120. phút

Câu 1: (2,25điểm) Cho một luồng khí H
2
(dư) lần lượt đi qua các ống mắc nối tiếp (như
hình vẽ) đựng các oxít được nung nóng sau đây:
Ống 1 đựng 0,01mol CaO, ống 2 đựng 0,02mol CuO,
ống 3 đựng 0,02mol Al
2
O
3
, ống 4 đựng 0,01mol Fe
2

O
3

và ống 5 đựng 0,05mol Na
2
O. Sau khi các phản ứng xảy ra hoàn toàn, lấy từng chất rắn
còn lại trong mỗi ống lần lượt cho tác dụng với dung dịch: NaOH, CuCl
2
. Hãy viết các
phương trình phản ứng xảy ra.

Câu 2: (1,0điểm) Chỉ dùng một kim loại duy nhất hãy phân biệt các dung dịch chứa
trong các ống nghiệm riêng biệt mất nhãn sau: K
2
SO
4
, FeCl
3
, Al(NO
3
)
3
, NaCl.
Câu 3: (2,0điểm) Có 2 dung dịch H
2
SO
4
và NaOH. Biết rằng 20ml dung dịch H
2
SO

4
tác
dụng vừa đủ với 60ml dung dịch NaOH. Mặt khác cho 20ml dung dịch H
2
SO
4
trên tác
dụng với 5,91gam BaCO
3
, để trung hòa lượng H
2
SO
4
dư sau phản ứng ta cần 10ml dung
dịch NaOH nói trên. Tính nồng độ mol/l của hai dung dịch đó.
Câu 4: (2,25 điểm) Hỗn hợp X gồm CaCO
3
, MgCO
3
và Al
2
O
3
, trong đó khối lượng của
Al
2
O
3
bằng 1/10 khối lượng các muối cacbonat. Nung X ở nhiệt độ cao đến khối lượng
không đổi thu được chất rắn Y có khối lượng bằng 56,80% khối lượng hỗn hợp X.

a. Tính phần trăm khối lượng mỗi chất trong X.
b. Hòa tan chất rắn thu được sau khi nung 22,44 gam X trên bằng dung dịch HCl
1,6M. Hãy xác định thể tích dung dịch HCl đã dùng.
Câu 5: 1,0 điểm) Một dãy hydrocacbon được biểu diễn bởi công thức chung C
n
H
2n+2
.
Hãy cho biết thành phần % của Hidro biến đổi như thế nào khi giá trị n thay đổi.
Câu 6 (1,5 điểm) Hỗn hợp khí X gồm C
x
H
y
(A) và oxi (có thể tích gấp đôi thể tích oxi
cần để đốt cháy A). Đốt cháy hỗn hợp X đến khi kết thúc phản ứng thì thể tích khí sau thí
nghiệm không đổi (các khí đo ở cùng điều kiện nhiệt độ và áp suất), nhưng nếu cho
ngưng tụ hơi nước thì thể tích giảm 40%.
a. Xác định A.
b. Nếu đốt cháy hoàn toàn 4,48 lít khí A (đktc) rồi cho toàn bộ sản phẩm vào dung
dịch chứa 11,1 gam Ca(OH)
2
. Hỏi sau khi hấp thụ hoàn toàn, khối lượng dung dịch tăng
hay giảm bao nhiêu gam?
CaO CuO
Al
2
O
3
Fe
2

O
3
Na
2
O
1 2 3 4 5
H
2
HẾT
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu.
Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.