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Progress Test 1 – page 9
PROGRESS TEST 1
Time allotted: 45 minutes
PART 1. INCOMPLETE SENTENCES
Choose the word or phrase that best completes the sentence.
1. I eat lunch ………… school every day.
A. once C. twice
B. now D. at
2. The train goes ………… many tunnels.
A. though C. through
B. at D. on
3. She ………… yawns in English class.
A. sometimes C. though
B. sometime D. some time
4. The bus ………… every twenty minutes.
A. run C. don’t run
B. runs D. doesn’t runs
5. Those are …………books.
A. her C. she’s
B. hers D. she
6. Water ………… at 100
0
C.
A. heats C. burns
B. boils D. cooks
7. My mother ………… in a bank.
A. work C. working
B. works D. worker
8. Where ………… he work?
A. is C. do
B. are D. does


9. ………… is funny.
A. Swimming C. Swim
B. A swimming D. Be swimming
10. Do you have ………… computer at
home?
A. a C. some
B. an D. those
11. I usually ………… the bus to school.
A. take C. take on
B. takes D. takes on
12. He works ………… a doctor in that
hospital.
A. at C. and
B. as D. any
13. We enjoy ………… in the mountains.
A. hike C. hiking
B. to hike D. to hiking
14. She’s waiting ………… her friend.
A. to C. about
B. for D. because
15. He ………… playing with his dog.
A. is loving C. was loving
B. loves D. love
16. We don’t have ………… problems.
A. a C. no
B. any D. none
17. Sue always ………… a walk in the morning.
A. takes C. goes
B. makes D. does
18. She ………… two brothers.

A. have C. does
B. has D. do
19. …………you like strawberry ice cream?
A. Do C. Are
B. Does D. Is
20. What time ………… go to bed?
A. usually do you C. do you usually
B. do usually you D. you usually
21. Every day, Frank ………… to work.
A. goes C. do go
B. goes out D. does go out
22. Excuse me! ………… to the city centre?
A. This bus goes C. Is this bus go
B. Does this bus go D. Are this bus go
23. I watch a lot of TV ………… .
A. every night C. many night
B. every nights D. each nights
24. George and Terry ………… speak
Portuguese. They speak English.
A. doesn’t C. do
B. don’t D. does
25. Mark and his ………… Sue often go
shopping with their mother.
A. sister C. brothers
B. cousin D. two


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Progress Test 1 – page 10
PART 2. INCOMPLETE TEXTS
Choose the best word or phrase for each blank.
Questions 1 through 3 refer to the following notes.
Questions 4 through 10 refer to the following letter.
28 Long Road, Brighton
Dear Pat,
22
nd
March
I arrived here three weeks ago. I’m studying at …………….…… language school …………………….

Brighton.
4. A. the 5. A. in
B. an B. on
C. a C. between
D. one D. from
The students …………………. from many different countries and I have made …………… of new friends.
6. A. come 7. A. many
B. comes B. lot
C. get C. a lot
D. gets D. some
There ………… classes for five hours every day. I like our teacher very much ……………
8. A. is 9. A. He
B. are B. Him
C. has C. His
D. have D. He’s
Andy,
Let’s go to the Film Club next week. Can you ……….………… the tickets from the college office?
1. A. get
B. bring
C. have
D. make
Remember we pay the cheaper price. I must study ……….………… home for our exam on 5
th
April. Thanks!
2. A. in
B. at
C. on
D. to
See you next Tuesday in the Coffee Bar at 7.45, before it …………………………… .
3. A. starts.

B. start.
C. starting.
D. will start.
Sheila


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Progress Test 1 – page 11
name is John and he ………………………… me when I make a mistake.

10. A. help
B. helps
C. don’t help
D. doesn’t help
I want to visit London next weekend because I am going back to my country on Monday. Can I
see you there? Please write to me soon.
With best wishes from
Maria
PART 3. READING COMPREHENSION
Choose the best answer.
Question 1 through 4 refer to the following text.
People in my family
My father’s name is Martin Hancock. He’s fifty-three years old and he’s an architect. He and my
mother aren’t married now – they’re divorced. His new wife’s name is Judy. They have a baby
daughter – her name’s Cassandra and she’s beautiful!!!
My sister, Caroline, is twenty-eight years old, and she’s a teacher. She’s married. Her husband’s
name is Marcos - he’s from Chile. They have two daughters: Rebecca, who’s five, and Annabel,
who’s two years old. I’m their aunt!
My cousin Martha is from Australia. She’s nineteen years old, and she isn’t married: she’s a student
at the University of Melbourne. She has a boyfriend – his name is Mark. He’s twenty. He isn’t a
student: he’s a professional musician. The name of his group is MC2.
My grandmother is about eighty years old. Her name is Beatrice. She has six children – four sons and
two daughters (they are all married) – and she has twenty-three grandchildren.
1. The writer’s parents are now ………… .
A. engaged C. separated
B. married D. divorced
2. The writer has ………… .
A. one sister C. one brother and one sister
B. two sisters D. one brother
3. Caroline’s children are ………… .

A. the writer’s nieces C. the writer’s grandchildren
B. the writer’s nephews D. the writer’s aunts
4. How many uncles and aunts does the writer have?
A. three uncles and two aunts C. five uncles and five aunts
B. four uncles and one aunts D. four uncles and two aunts


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Progress Test 1 – page 12

Questions 5 through 12 refer to the following information.
Read the information about three books and then answer the questions.
The long Night
This is David Reilly’s first
book. David became a writer
after teaching English for
several years.
Maha is a nurse in Northern
Australia, where she works in
a small hospital. One day a
baby is so ill that Maha has to
drive all night to get her to
the nearest big city. They
have a lot of problems getting
there and…
Hard Work
This exciting story is Joanna
Jone’s twentieth.
Hard Work is about Sombat,
who works with his father, a
carpenter, in Thailand. They
work long, hard hours
making tables and chairs,
but they do not have any
money. Then one day a man
dressed all in black buys the
most beautiful table in the
shop…
Hospital or cinema?
Marcie Jacome, who studies

English in London, wrote
this story earlier this year.
Tina is a young Brazilian
woman whose dream is to
become a doctor. She goes to
London to study English and
medicine but one day she
meets a man who asks her to
go to the USA with him to
become a film star… What
will Tina do?
5. Which book is about somebody who works with doctors?
A. The Long Night B. Hard Work C. Hospital or Cinema?
6. The author of this has written a lot of books?
A. The Long Night B. Hard Work C. Hospital or Cinema?
7. Which book is about somebody who is very poor?
A. The Long Night B. Hard Work C. Hospital or Cinema?
8. Which book is about somebody who would like to work in a hospital?
A. The Long Night B. Hard Work C. Hospital or Cinema?
9. Which book is by somebody who worked in a school?
A. The Long Night B. Hard Work C. Hospital or Cinema?
10. Which book is about a difficult journey?
A. The Long Night B. Hard Work C. Hospital or Cinema?
11. Which book is about a man and his son?
A. The Long Night B. Hard Work C. Hospital or Cinema?
12. The author of this is a student?
A. The Long Night B. Hard Work C. Hospital or Cinema?


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Progress Test 1 – page 13
Questions 13 through 15 refer to the following advertisement.
13. If you buy two giant cheeseburgers, what do you get free?
A. Two hamburgers and a drink.
B. Two cheeseburgers and a drink
C. One cheeseburger and one drink.
D. One cheeseburgers and two drinks
14. How long does the offer last?
A. All year. B. All month. C. Three months. D. Three weeks.

15. How often does this special offer happen?
A. Every year. B. Once a month. C. Not very often. D. Twice a year.
This is the end of Progress test 1
Hamburger House
Summer Special Offer!
That’s right; we’ve brought back our annual Summer Special Offer here at
Hamburger House.
Buy two juicy hamburger get one hamburger free!
Buy two giant cheeseburgers get one cheeseburger and one drink free!
Cool off with a Mountain Milkshake (Caramel or Raspberry) for only
$1.50 or a Glacier Sundae (Blueberry or double Chocolate) for only $2.50.
The summer Special Offer will last all summer, from June 1
st
to August 31
st


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Progress Test 2 – page 23
PROGRESS TEST 2
Time allotted: 45 minutes
PART 1. IMCOMPLETE SENTENCES
Choose the word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Then mark the letter A, B. C, or D on
your answer sheet.
1. Mr Brown invented the machine ……………… .
A. hisself B. itself C. himself D. A & B are correct
2. There is a ……………… shop for tourists at the airport.
A. memory B. saloon C. souvenir D. studio
3. Can you …….…… out what time the train leaves?
A. see B. find C. look D. seek
4. They are both good ………… because they type carefully.
A. typists B. typewriters C. typers D. typemen
5. In the end I …………… home.
A. got to B. arrived at C. got D. arrived in
6. I ……….…… you to clean your room yesterday.
A. remind B. reminded C. mind D. minded
7. The baby …….……… be hungry, because he just had milk.
A. cannot B. must C. isn’t D. wasn’t
8. We ……….…… at a party two months ago.

A. meet B. met C. have met D. meeting
9. Christine promised to meet …….……… at the theater.
A. our B. us C. we D. ours
10. The baby …….……… at all.
A. not eats B. eats not C. do not eat D. does not eat
11. They ……….…… running their own company in 1980.
A. started B. have started C. are starting D. start
12. The black leather jacket …….……… be Harley’s.
A. not B. can’t C. not must D. not can’t
13. I’m …….……… . Would you lend me some money?
A. borrow B. rich C. broke D. poor
14. What did he ….………… her to do this morning?
A. say B. tell C. speak D. question
15. I went to Los Angeles fifteen years …….……… .
A. before B. ago C. since D. next to
16. There used to be ten students ……….…… my class.
A. at B. on C. to D. in
17. She enjoys …….……… in her free time.
A. swim B. to swim C. swims D. swimming


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Progress Test 2 – page 24
18. I still can’t believe. Someone ……….……. my bicycle last night.
A. stole B. was stealing C. stolen D. stolen
19. All of the people there ……….……. from Japan.
A. were B. is C. be D. was
20. I went to the city ……….…… train.
A. by B. for C. before D. through
21. Linda……….…… skate really well when she was young.
A. can B. cans C. could D. couldn’t
22. Peter’s father ordered ……….…… not to stay out late again.
A. him B. to him C. that he D. for him
23. The trip to India was a lot of …….……… .
A. funny B. fun C. already D. yet
24. I spoke ……….…… my teacher after the exam.
A. on B. by C. to D. at
25. I didn’t …….……… whose car it was.
A. saw B. see C. look D. speak

PART 2. INCOMPLETE TEXTS
Choose the best word or phrase for each blank.
Question 1 through 3 refer to the following email.
Dear Mr. Brian,
You …………… not come to your appointment on January 5
th
. In the future, please
1. A. were
B. had
C. did
D. are
let us know if you need to cancel …………………… . Please try to call at least five hours before
2. A. a promise
B. a meeting
C. an appointment
D. an arrangement
your appointment time, so that we can give it to another ……………………… . Thank you for your
3. A. patience
B. patients
C. patient
D. patent
assistance.
Sincerely,
Everett Hughes


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Progress Test 2 – page 25
Questions 4 through 10 refer to the following notice.
New Opening Hours
Sun Valley Shopping Mall customers: please note our new opening hours.
As you know, we …………… open at 8.30a.m. (5) …………… weekdays, and at10 a.m. on
4. A. are used to 5. A. on
B. used to B. at
C. had to C. in
D. wanted to D. from
weekends ………… January 31
st
, we are opening at 10a.m every day. Last year, we ….…………

6. A. on 7. A. have
B. at B. had
C. in C. were
D. from D. was
few customers before 10 a.m., so we decided …………… our hours. We are sorry for
8. A. change
B. changes
C. to change
D. changing
this change, but ….…………. that shopping ….……………. the mall will be even more fun.
9. A. say 10. A. on
B. try on B. at
C. promise C. in
D. let D. from
Look out for some special events and offers coming soon!
PART 3. READING COMPREHENSION
Choose the best answer.
Questions 1 through 5 refer to the announcement.
Healthcliffe Sports center - Annual General Meeting
Date: June 25th
Time: 7p.m.
Location: 3rd floor conference room
Agenda
1. Annual report
2. Resurfacing of tennis courts- choose a contractor
3. Broken windows on first floor-how to punish offenders and how to prevent more
breakages
4. New policy on equipment rental
5. Membership cards
Any other business

To be followed by tea and coffee in the staff training room. All welcome!


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Progress Test 2 – page 26
Memo
To: Jennifer Martin, Sports Equipment Manager
From: Clive Wilbur, Management Committee Chairperson
Re: June 25 Annual General Meeting

I know that you will be unable to attend this year's meeting on the 25' so I am sending you
the agenda now. Please take a look at it before the meeting and give me your opinion on
the items.
We have decided to resurface the tennis courts and need to choose from three contractors.
I will send you their price lists and a voting form later. Everyone at the meeting will have
a chance to vote. As you know, we have suffered a lot of broken windows recently. I
would appreciate it if you could fax me your ideas on how to deal with this problem. The
fourth item on the agenda refers to renting equipment. We will limit rentals to one hour on
weekends and two hours during the week. Only members will be able to rent equipment
on weekends. This brings us to the next item: all members will be required to show their
membership card in order to use the sports center at a discounted price.
Please send me your thoughts as soon as possible, and I will talk to you in person when
you get back from your vacation.
Many thanks.
1. How often does Heathcliffe Sports Center hold a general meeting?
A. Once a month
B. Once a week
C. Once a year
D. Every other year
2. How will the centre choose someone to repair the tennis courts?
A. They will choose the cheapest company.
B. They will nor repair the tennis courts.
C. Everyone will vote for company.
D. They haven’t chosen a method.
3. Why will Jennifer Martin be unable to attend the meeting?
A. She is not a member of the sports center.
B. She will be on vacation.
C. She is sick.
D. She was not invited.
4. Which of the following statements about rentals is correct?

A. Members can rent equipment for four hours.
B. Members can rent equipment on Saturdays.
C. Only members can rent equipment on Saturdays.
D. Non-members can rent equipment for one hour on Saturdays.


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Progress Test 2 – page 27
5. What problem has the sports centre been having?

A. Members do not return equipment.
B. Windows have been broken.
C. There was not enough tea and coffee.
D. Staffs don’t get along with each other.
Questions 6 through 9 refer to the passage below.
This is a chart of the Food Pyramid. The Food Pyramid serves as a basic guide to make
healthy food choices. If you take a look at the guide you can easily see which food groups
you should be eating. According to the pyramid, most of your daily food should consist of
breads, rice, and cereals. These are the foods in the bottom level of the pyramid. Almost
equal to these, but not quite as much, should be vegetables and fruits. Therefore, you can
feel free to go ahead and eat lots of fruit and vegetables every day. Servings of meat, fish,
eggs, and dairy foods, which include milk and cheese, should be much smaller. Sugar should
be the smallest portion of all. Of course, your daily nutritional needs will vary according to
your activity level and life style. You do not have to follow the Food Pyramid, but it is a
good way to be sure you will get the healthiest benefits from your daily food. If you keep a
copy of the pyramid stuck to the door of your refrigerator, it will remind you to plan your
daily meals wisely every time you go into the kitchen.
6. Which of the followings are dairy products?
A. Milk and cheese
B. Fish and eggs
C. Sugar and spice
D. Breads and rice
7. What is the purpose of the Food Pyramid?
A. to sell food
B. to help make healthy food choices
C. to show which foods are bad for you
D. to help remember the names of foods
8. Which food group has the second smallest serving suggestion?
A. Sugars
B. Dairy, meat, fish and eggs

C. Vegetables and fruits
D. Breads, rice and cereals
9. What affects your daily food needs
A. your likes and dislikes
B. the food pyramid
C. your lifestyle and activity
D. small portions


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Progress Test 2 – page 28
Questions 10 to 15 refer to the passage below.
Compact discs (CDs) have revolutionized the music industry with their surprisingly realistic sound.
The six-inch discs look like thin plastic sandwiches with aluminum in the center. They have digitally
recorded material that is read by laser beams, so the sound has none of the cracking of vinyl records.
CDs are also virtually indestructible, and they are lighter and smaller than conventional records
(LPs). Since their introduction, CDs have become more affordable and widely available. In fact, they
are now sold in electronics and video stores that haven’t formally carried records or cassettes.
There has been a phenomenal growth in the sale of CDs. Sales climbed dramatically during the
second half of the 1980s. In the 1990s, sales have been even greater. CDs have all but replaced LPs
in stores and, in spite of their being less affordable than cassettes, continue to gain in popularity.
10. The main appeal of CDs is their …………. .
A. price B. availability C. sound D. size
11. The word “virtually” as used in the line 6 is most similar to which of the following?
A. almost B. completely C. rarely D. somewhat
12. The author refers to CDs as “sandwiches” because they …………. .
A. are light B. are layered C. don’t crackle D. are small
13. This passage states that it is difficult to …………. .
A. play a CD B. record a CD C. produce a CD D. destroy a CD
14. According to this passage, which one of the following is true?
A. Stores are losing money on their cassettes
B. New kinds of stores are selling CDs.
C. CDs are available as cassettes.
D. Stores are selling more CDs than cassettes.
15. The author’s main purpose is to …………. .
A. discuss the growth of CDs
B. compare CD to sandwiches
C. descried the stores that sell CDs
D. tell how CDs are made

This is the end of Progress test 2


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Progress Test 3– page 39
PROGRESS TEST 3
Time allotted: 45 minutes
PART 1. INCOMPLETE SENTENCES
Choose the word or phrase that best completes the sentence.

1. Mathematics ………… difficult.
A. is B. was C. are D. were
2. The film "Titanic" ………… very interesting.
A. is B. are C. was D. were
3. When my father was young, he ………… work in the garden for long hours.
A. can B. could C. will D. should
4. Would you like to stay for lunch with us?
A. They wanted me to stay for lunch with them.
B. They invited me to stay for lunch with them.
C. They promised to offer me a lunch.
D. They offered me to stay for lunch with them.
5. Take this road and you will ………… at the hotel in five minutes.
A. arrive B. come C. find D. reach
6. When she was at their flat last Sunday, Susan asked if she ………… use the phone.
A. could B. can C. may D. must
7. Would you like ………… some biscuits?
A. have B. to have C. having D. had
8. When did Mamiko arrive in Canada?
A. Next year B. Never C. Six months ago D. Lonely
9. Sit down , please! ………… a cup of tea?
A. Do you like B. Do you like to drink
C. Would you like D. Will you like
10. My cousin arrived ………… the hotel last week.
A. at B. in C. for D. to
11. Can you play ………… piano?
A. a B. an C. the D. no article
12. How much is this sewing …………?
A. machine B. machiner C. machinist D. machinery
13. After having ………… breakfast, Peter hurried to work.
A. a B. an C. the D. ø

14. You cannot do two jobs well ………… the same time.
A. in B. at C. on D. for
15. The bell every 45 minutes.
A. ring B. rings C. ringing D. rang
16. He sometimes ………… money from his parents.
A. lend B. borrow C. lends D. borrows
17. He put his hand ………… his back so that I couldn't see what was in it.
A. behind B. in C. into D. next to


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Progress Test 3– page 40
18. She is so different me.
A. with B. to C. from D. of
19. Could you give me information about flight times, please?
A. a B. some C. an D. Any
20. It's raining. Could you ………… me your umbrella?
A. borrow B. until C. lend D. remind
21. They like to sit ………… the fire?
A. by B. on C. for D. with
22. The ………… look very beautiful.
A. flowers B. flower C. flower pot D. flower garden
23. I met many interesting ………… on my vacation.
A. man B. person C. woman D. people
24. We saw ………… children in the park.
A. some B. much C. a D. any
25. Jane saw ………… movie you told her about.
A. these B. those C. that D. them
PART 2. INCOMPLETE TEXTS
Choose the best word or phrase for each blank.
Questions 1 through 3 refer to the following message.
MESSAGE
Jane,
Frank Green called while you were out. He wants you to …………. him back as soon as
1. A. tell
B. say
C. call
D. yell
you get this ……………. .He has met with the employees, and he would like to ……… ….

2. A. advertisement 3. A. talk
B. writing B. discuss
C. document C. speech
D. message D. speak
the schedule for the staffs sports day. He says he has some good ideas. He is looking
forward to talking to you.
Questions 4 through 7 refer to the following email.
To: Everyone
From:
Subject: Party
Date: October 20
th
Hi Everyone,


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Progress Test 3– page 41
As you know, the office Halloween party is coming up. As usual, we have a costume
competition. It is a ………………. for you all to have some fun and win some great prizes.
4. A. chance
B. change
C. concept
D. challenge
The party starts at 6 p.m. ………….…. Friday, October 30
th
. We will close the officer early,
5. A. in
B. on
C. at
D. about
so you will have one hour to get ………… …. I'm looking forward to some great costumes.
6. A. rest
B. real
C. ready
D. realize
This year, the first prize is free membership at the company sports club for one year.
Second prize is dinner ………… …. the Magic Chef restaurant for four people.
7. A. in
B. at

C. with
D. for
See you on the 30
th
.
Miranda Kim
Questions 8 through 10 refer to the following memo.
MEMO
To: All employees
From: Staff catering
Re: Staff cafeteria
Date: August 24
th
We regret to inform you that we have to close …………… new staff cafeteria. We do not
8. A. our
B. their
C. ours
D. mine
know when we can ………….…. it again. Yesterday, twenty people became very sick after


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Progress Test 3– page 42
9. A. close
B. open
C. redo
D. shut
eating their lunch at the cafeteria. They have food poisoning. Most of them are now
OK, but some of them are still in the hospital. This is terrible news, so to protect your
health, we have decided to close the cafeteria. The sandwich store in the basement will
stay open.
There have not been ……………… problems with their food products. We apologize for the
10. A. any
B. some
C. a
D. an
inconvenience and hope you all stay healthy.
PART 3. READING COMPREHENSION
Choose the best answers.

Questions 1 through 4 refer to the following advertisement and email.
Price Savers Supermarket
For one week only!
Monday September 5
th
to Saturday September 10
th
We are pleased to announce another of our super bargain events. Price Savers always saves
you money, and now you can save even more.
Special offers:
Dairy products
Monday - buy one liter of milk, get one free
Tuesday - Cheddar cheese 50% of recommended retailer's price
Wednesday - 6 fruit yogurts for the price of 4
Thursday - milkshake (individual 200ml cartons) 20% off until 3p.m
Friday - Price Savers' own brand real dairy ice cream ( vanilla, chocolate or toffee
crunch) 30% of regular price
Saturday - your choice of any one of the above!
Sunday - store closed
And that's not all. There's more!
Baked goods
Monday - Muffin variety 6 pack, buy 2 get second pack 50% off
Tuesday - Baguettes, 3 for the price of 2
Wednesday - chocolate chip cookies- everybody's favorite- 8 for the price of 6
Thursday - buy one ready- sliced white loaf, get another for free
Friday - 1 pound cake free to the first 100 customers
Saturday - your choice of any of the above (offer excludes free pound cake)


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Progress Test 3– page 43
Sunday - store closed- saving you this much money is hard work!
All offers are limited to one per customer per day. Sorry, but you can't enjoy the same offer
twice in the same day.
Price Savers Supermarket - Where prices and quality count.
1. How many days will this special offer last?
A.2
B. 7
C. 50% off

D.100
2. What is the weekend special offer?
A. There is no special offer.
B. Customers can choose the offer they prefer.
C. Customers can choose free fruit and vegetables.
D. It does not say.
3. How many customers can receive a free cake?
A. All of them B. 100 C. 8 for the price of 6 D. One
4. How many times can one customer take advantage of each offer?
A.As many times as he or she wants
B. Once a week
C. Once everyday
D.Customers cannot take advantage of each offer.
Questions 5 through 10 refer to the following paragraph.
Most people are afraid of sharks, but they usually do not know very much about them. For
example, there are 350 kinds of sharks, and all of them are meat eaters. Some sharks are very big.
The whale shark is 50 to 60 feet long. But some sharks are very small. The dwarf shark is only 6
inches long.
Sharks are 100 million years old. In fact, they lived at the same time as dinosaurs. Today, sharks
live in every ocean in the world, but most sharks live in warm water. They keep the oceans clean
because they eat sick fish and animals. Most sharks have four to six rows of teeth. When a shark’s
tooth falls out another tooth moves in from behind. Sharks do not have ears. However, they ‘hear’
sound and movements in the water. Any sound or movement makes the water vibrate. Sharks can
feel these vibrations, and they help the sharks find food. Sharks use their large eyes to find food,
too. Most sharks see best in low light. They often hunt for food at dawn, in the evening, or in the
middle of the night. Scientists want to learn more about sharks for several reasons. For example,
cancer is common in many animals, including people. However, it is rare in sharks. Scientists
want to find out why sharks almost never get cancer. Maybe this information can help people
prevent cancer too.
5. Where do most sharks live?

A. in every ocean in the world B. in warm water
C. in the North Pole D. in the South Pole
6. Sharks are important because……………… .


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Progress Test 3– page 44
A. they clean the ocean B. they are very big
C. they eat fish D. they are meat eaters

7. What happens when a shark’s tooth falls out?
A. It cannot eat B. Another tooth moves in
C. The shark dies D. New tooth appear
8. Sharks can find food because……………… .
A. they feel vibration B. they can see with their eyes.
C. they can hear D. A & B
9. Information about sharks may……………… .
A. help people prevent cancer B. help animals prevent cancer
C. help sharks live longer D. B & C
10. What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Sharks are dangerous . B. Sharks can help people prevent cancer.
C. Sharks are meat eaters. D.Sharks are important and useful animals.
Questions 11 through 15 refer to the following paragraph.
The shoemaker
Bill Brown is a shoemaker who cannot make shoes fast enough for his growing number of
customers- he charges more than £300 for a pair! Customers travel hundreds of kilometers to his
London shoe store or to his workshop in the countryside to have their feet measured. He makes
shoes for people with feet of unusual sizes: very large, very small, very broad or very narrow.
The shoes are at least as fashionable as those found in ordinary shops.
Mr. Brown says: “My problem is that I cannot find skilled workers. Young people all seem to
prefer to work with computers these days. We will lose the necessary skills soon because there
are fewer and fewer shoemakers nowadays. I am 45, and now I want to teach young people
everything I know about making shoes. It is a good job, and a lot of people want to buy beautiful
shoes made for them”. He started in the business 19 years ago and now he employs five other
people. His customers pay about £500 for their first pair of shoes. He says: “Our customers come
because they want comfortable shoes which are exactly the right size”. Pairs of shoes cost
between £320 and £450, and as it takes one employee a whole week to make just one shoe.
11. What is the writer trying to do in the text?
A. describe where Mr Brown finds his staff
B. encourage people to wear comfortable shoes

C. advertise a job selling expensive shoes
D. show Mr Brown’s worries about his trade
12. What can readers find out from this text?
A. how many customers Mr Brown has
B. how to make shoes like Mr Brown
C. how to get to Mr Brown’s London shop
D. how much Mr Brown shoes cost
13. What is Mr Brown’s opinion of young people?


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Progress Test 3– page 45
A. They want too much money
B. They are difficult to train
C. They prefer other jobs
D. They don’t work hard enough
14. Customers choose Mr Brown because his shoes
A. are the most fashionable
B. fit perfectly
C. look very unusual
D. are traditional in design
15. Which advertisement would Mr Brown put in a newspaper?
A. B.
Wanted - experienced
shoemakers to work in large
shoe company in London.
Good rates of pay
Wanted - young people to
train as shoemakers. Must be
able to use a computer.
C. D.
Wanted - young people to
train as shoemakers. Good
job with workshop.
Wanted - country workshop
needs people for unskilled
jobs working with shoes.



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Progress Test 3– page 46
This is the end of Progress test 3


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Progress Test 4– page 56
PROGRESS TEST 4
Time allotted: 45 minutes
PART 1. INCOMPLETE SENTENCES
Choose the word or phrase that best completes the sentence.
1. I have ………… friends.
A. much B. many C. any D. most
2. Would you like the doctor ……………….?
A. coming B. to come C. come D. comes
3. Billy is a …………. smoker.
A. heavy B. heavily C. bad D. badly
4. The football fans began cheering when the match ……………

A. started B. was starting C. was started D. to start
5. Ice hockey is ………………… than basketball or tennis.
A. a sport more danger B. a more sport dangerous
C. a more dangerous sport D. the most dangerous sport
6. All of your friends are nice, but George is certainly …………. .
A. nicest B. the nicest C. nicer D. the nicer
7. The movie that I saw last night was …………. .
A.interested B. more interested C. interesting D. more interesting
8. I still can’t believe. My bicycle , …………… of all, was stolen last night.
A. nicest B. the nicest C. nice D. nicer
9. Ask Jack to help. He is very good …………. repairing things.
A. with B. for C. at D. of
10. She is too………… with her work, so she doesn’t have time to go out with her friends.
A. bored B. busy C. fed up D. tired
11. My elder sister ………… younger than her age.
A. looks B. sees C. says D. asks
12. My neighbour’s dog barks …………
A. silently B. noisily C. lately D. dangerously
13. Jack is ………… than his sister.
A. much more B. much short C. much taller D. much intelligent
14. “The food tastes ………… .”
A. well B. delicious C. deliciously D. badly
15. His son drives as ………… as mine.
A. care B. careless C. careful D. carefully
16. Were you disappointed …………. your examination results?
A. of B. with C. for D. by
17. Peter’s father ordered ……………not to stay out late again.
A. him B. to him C. that he D. for him



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Progress Test 4– page 57
18. Jim is fond of doing ………… research.
A. science B. scientist C. scientific D. scientifically
19. Because the equipment is very delicate, so you should handle it with ………… .
A. care B. carefully C. careful D. to care
20. ………… the weather is! We can’t go out for a walk now.
A. How a terrible B. What terrible C. What a terrible D. How terrible
21. Television advertising is the most ………… way of promoting our products.

A. effectively B. effect C. effective D. effected
22. The cat was ………… to wait for the mouse to come out.
A. patiently enough B. so patient C. enough patient D. patient enough
23. They paid him ………… much money for his work.
A. enough B. so C. too D. that
24. Though I have ………… classes now, I have ………… free time than last week.
A. fewer …… less B. fewer …… fewer C. less …… fewer D. less …… less
25. I’ve done the same …………… you have.
A. like B. that C. as D. such
PART 2. INCOMPLETE TEXTS
Choose the best word or phrase for each blank.
Question 1 through 4 refer to the following letter.
Hi Mom,
You were ………… when I left, so I’m leaving this note for you to read. I am going to spend
1. A. off
B. out
C. over
D. in
the night at Anna’s, so don’t wait up for me. I have also taken the spare keys from the hook
in the kitchen, so don’t be ………… to find them missing. I can’t find my keys – don’t worry.
2. A. surprising
B. surprised
C. surprise
D. to surprise
Because I know they are in the house somewhere. I used them to let myself in earlier today.
My room is just ………… mess that I can’t find them in there. I’ll be sure to tidy up when I
3. A. such a
B. such
C. so
D. too

get back tomorrow evening. I know that you hate my room being so messy. Anyway, I’ll see


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Progress Test 4– page 58
you tomorrow. Hope you managed ………… the coat you wanted.
4. A. buy
B. buying
C. bought

D. to buy
Love,
Melanie
Question 5 through 8 refer to the following text.
You are never too young or too old to get involved in sports and exercises. In fact the
sooner you start to ……… , the better. According to some recent research, people who
started sports
5. A. exercising
B. sport
C. sporty
D. exercise
at a young age were more likely to keep it up as they got older. This applied whether they
were involved in ……… sports or not. In fact, people who did sports just for fun when they
were
6. A. competition
B. competitive
C. competing
D. competitions
…… to keep exercising when they were older. Researchers believe this might be because
7. A. like
B. likeable
C. likely
D. liking
some younger people get burnt out from competition. However, even people who gave up
sport because they felt burnt out tended to return to exercising ………. years later. So start
exercising now, if you want to be strong and healthy later!
8. A. few
B. a few
C. a
D. another



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Progress Test 4– page 59
Question 9 through 10 refer to the following letter.
Dear Customer,
Magneta Bank has merged with Pankki Bank to become the UJDF Bank. Being part of a
large
group will provide us with opportunities to serve each of our customers’ different ……….

9. A. best
B. better
C. better than
D. more better than
needs. We aim to find personally tailored solutions for the management of daily banking affairs.
In addition, you want to manage your banking, we will help you do it ………. and in a
10.A. system
B. systems
C. systematic
D. systematically
goal-directed way. We will continue to provide innovative solutions for the management of your
finances.
Sincerely,
Kavi Kamela
Regional General Manager
UJDF Bank
PART 3. READING COMPREHENSION
Choose the best answer.
Question 1 through 5 refer to the following passage.
Sleep is very important to human beings. An average person spends 220,000 hours of his life
sleeping. Until about 30 years ago, no one knew much about sleep. Although doctors and scientists
have done research in sleep laboratories, they have learnt a great deal by studying people as they
are sleeping, but there is still much that they don’t understand. Sleeping is a biological need, but
your brain never really sleeps. It is never actually blank. The things that were on your mind during
the day are still there at night. They appear as dreams which people have discussed for years.
Sometimes people believed that dreams had magical powers or that they could tell the future. You
may have sweet dreams or nightmares.
Sleep is very important to humans. We spend one third of your life sleeping, so we need to
understand everything we can about sleep.
1. How long does an average person sleep during his lifetime?

A. 220,000 hours B. a third of his life
C. 30 years D. A & B are correct


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Progress Test 4– page 60
2. Doctors and scientists ………………… .
A. don’t know anything about sleep
B. have learnt much about sleep

C. think there are still things that they don’t understand
D. B & C are correct
3. Sleeping is a …………………… need.
A. human B. physical
C. biological D. psychological
4. When we sleep, …………………… .
A. our brain sleeps too B. our brain still works
C. our brain doesn’t work anymore D. our brain is quite blank
5. Dreams are things ……………………… .
A. that people do not know anything about B. that never appear when we sleep
C. that were on our mind during the day D. that are called nightmares
Question 6 through 10 refer to the following passage.
A recent investigation by scientists at the U.S. Geography Survey shows that strange animal
behaviours might help predict future earthquakes. Investigators found such occurrences about ten
kilometers from where a fairly recent earthquake took place. Some birds made strange sounds and
flew wildly, dogs barked and ran around uncontrollably.
Scientists believe that animals can sense theses environmental changes as early as several days
before the disaster.
In 1976 after observing animal behaviours, the Chinese scientists were able to predict a terrifying
earthquake. Although hundreds of thousands of people were killed, the government was able to
evacuate millions of other people and thus keep the death toll at a lower level.
6. What can people predict by observing animal behaviours?
A. A likely earthquake.
B. The number of people who will be killed.
C. The number of people who will be evacuated.
D. Environmental changes.
7. Why are animals aware of these changes?
A. Animals are clever than humans.
B. Animals have certain special instincts.
C. Animals can feel the shaking of the earth by running around the house.

D. Humans don’t know where to look.
8. Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. Some animals may be able to sense a coming earthquake.
B. By observing animal behaviours, scientists can predict earthquakes.
C. The Chinese scientists have successfully predicted an earthquake and saved many lives.
D. All birds and dogs in surrounding areas went wild before the earthquake.


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Progress Test 4– page 61
9. In the passage, the word ‘evacuate’ most nearly means ……… .
A. remove B. replace C. move D. drive
10. If scientists can accurately predict earthquakes, there will be ……… .
A. fewer animals going wild.
B. a greater numbers of survivors.
C. fewer people who need to evacuate.
D. fewer environmental changes.
Question 11 through 15 refer to the following passage.
What is life like for today’s students? As the university and college terms began, I talked to a few
students about their lives.
Sarah James is a second year biology student. “Money is a big problem,” said Sarah. “I can eat
quite cheaply at the university, but I spend quite a lot on transport. I also spend quite a lot on
clothes, as I like to wear things that are in fashion.”
Colin Peters, who is studying engineering, disagrees. “I don’t spend anything on clothes,” he said,
“unless you count climbing boots. I’m very keen on climbing, and you really need special
equipment, some of which is very expensive. Luckily, my parents gave me money for my birthday
in November. Not much of my money goes on transport, because I have a bicycle.”
Diana Bell is a first year fashion student. “I make all my own clothes. This should save me money,
but in fact, the materials are very expensive. I don’t know how I would manage if I didn’t sell
some of the dresses and hats I make to the other students. Everything is expensive,” she said.
“That includes the rent, food, transport and heating of the flat in winter.”
Jack is a science student in his final year. “What do I spend money on? Well, not on clothes, and
not on going out in the evening. My rent is expensive, and I suppose I spend quite a lot on books.”
11. This passage is from …
A. a student’s notebook.
B. a letter to a friend.
C. a magazine article.
D. an advertisement.
12. The aim of the writer is to …

A. show how students live.
B. give advice to students.
C. explain that students work hard.
D. complain about students’ way of life.
13. The students’ main problem is …
A. deciding what to wear.
B. living on the money they receive.
C. finding enough time to study.
D. cooking their own food.
14. Colin is different from Sarah because …
A. He has generous parents who help him.
B. He doesn’t need to study very hard.
C. He is not a second year student.
D. His clothes and transport cost less.


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