Đề thi thử Tiếng Anh 2016 Chuẩn

DIỄN ĐÀN HSSV-VN
ĐỀ LUYỆN TẬP

ÔN THI KÌ THI THPT QUỐC GIA 2016
ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
(STUDENTVN- Lần 1- 11-2015)
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

SECTION A (8 POINTS)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. delicate
Question 2: A. cultivation

B. pirate
B. consumption

C. narrate
C. subscriber

D. considerate
D. shuttle

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. dependence
Question 4: A. instruction
Question 5: A. achievement

B. prediction
B. computer

B. arrangement

C. disastrous
C. accurate
C. enclosure

D. compliment
D. destroy
D. reference

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 6: _______ raiding for camels was a significant part of Bedouin life has been documented in Wilfed
Thesiger’s Arabian Sands.
A.That
B. Which
C. What
D. Where
Question 7: I had to be early the next morning, so I _____ myself and left the party.
A. refused
B. apologized
C. excused
D. thanked
Question 8: Our teacher said “The Second World War broke out in 1939”. Indirect speech: _________
A. Our teacher said us that the Second World War had broken out in 1939.
B. Our teacher said that the Second World War broke out in 1939.
C. Our teacher told that the Second World War had broken out in 1939.
D. Our teacher told us that the Second World War had broken out in 1939.
Question 9: Advertising on TV is very expensive now. ______, there is no shortage of companies competing for
air time.
A. moreover

B. whereas
C. nonetheless
D. consequently
Question 10: This part of the country seldom ________ such hot weather.
A. experiences
B. was experienced C. is experiencing
D. experiencing
Question 11: ________ my opinion, French cheese is better than English cheese.
A. For
B. To
C. By
D. In
Question 12: The Greens never stay at home at weekends, _______?
A. do they
B. does he
C. don’t they
D. doesn’t he
Question 13: It is just as well you didn't put your money in that company, because it would have been an
absolute________ if you had.
A. Mistake
B. catastrophe
C. error
D. miscalculation
Question 14: Mr. Ralph _________Mathematics before he ________ to literature.
A. had taught/ had changed
B. was teaching/ changed
C. taught/ was changing
D. had taught/ changed
Question 15: It’s really hard to ______ on less than a million VND a month.
A. make a fuss

B. make ends meet C. make a mess
D. make up your mind
Question 16: We didn't like John when we first met him, but he has turned ______ to be a good friend to us.
A. down
B. up
C. on
D. out
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Question 17: At present, the rate of economic growth is very satisfactory, but _____ when foreign
competition makes itself felt , this will not be the case.
A. effectively
B. eventually
C. enthusiastically
D. considerably
Question 18: The Ford Theater where Lincoln was shot ________.
A. must restore
B. must be restoring
C. must have been restored
D. must restored
Question 19: She would take charge of me. She was ______.
A. dutiful
B. commanding
C. charging
D. responsible
Question 20: After applying the glue, you should wait a _______ amount of time before testing the strength of
the bond.
A. reasonable
B. reasoning

C. reason
D. reasonably
Question 21: The public has ________ the Ministry did not well prepared for the process and the methodology
was unscientific while information technology was bad.
A. exonerated
B. been exonerated C. criticized
D. been criticized
Question 22: I haven’t had a _______ week. I seem to have done nothing at all.
A. extensive
B. productive
C. enthusiastic
D. economic
Question 23: "I'm afraid I need to reschedule my lesson." "______"
A. Sure, for what time?
B. OK, let me know if you change your mind.
C. That's great news.
D. Math, please.
Question 24: A: "______"
B: "Yes, it was terrible."
A. I study earthquakes.
B. How many people died in the earthquake?
C. I heard something happened.
D. Did you hear about yesterday's earthquake?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 25: The cotton gin was commonplace on many nineteenth century farms.
A. often required
B. sorely needed
C. frequently seen
D. visibly absent

Question 26: In the field of artificial intelligence, scientists study methods for developing computer programs
that display aspects of intelligent behavior.
A. exhibit
B. classify
C. depend on
D. conform to
Question 27: She lost her temper with a customer and shouted at him.
A. had a temperature B. kept her temper
C. became very angry D. felt worried
Read the following passage and mark the letter ABCD to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
from 28 to 37.
Smallpox was the first widespread disease ever to be eliminated by human. A highly contagious viral
disease, it broke out in Europe, causing the deaths of millions of people until the vaccination was invented by
Edward Jenner around 1800. In many nations, it was a terror, a fatal disease until very recently. Its victims
suffered high fever, vomiting and painful, itchy, pustules that left scars. In villages and cities all over the world,
people were worried about suffering smallpox.
In May, 1966, the World Health Organization (WHO), an agency of the UN, was set up to start a global
campaign to eradicate small pox in one decade. At the time, the disease caused a serious threat to people in
thirty nations. More than 700 doctors, nurses, scientists and other personals from WHO with about 200.000
health workers in the nations joined the battle against the disease. Very few people believed that a disease as
widespread as smallpox could actually be eradicated but eleven years after the anti. Smallpox campaign, no
smallpox cases were reported.
First, there was an education campaign so that people in all countries could know more about how the
disease spread and took active part in the fight against smallpox. Other steps included not only providing mass
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vaccination but also isolating patients with active smallpox in order to limit the spread of the disease. Money
rewards would be given to one informing about smallpox cases to motivate the public to help health workers.
One by one, each smallpox victim was found out and treated. At the same time, the entire village where the

victim had lived was vaccinated.
By April of 1978, WHO officials announced that they had isolated the last case of smallpox but health
workers continued to search for new cases for two additional years to be completely sure that there weren’t any
existed smallpox cases. In May 1980 WHO formally stated that the smallpox was completely eradicated. Today
smallpox is no longer a threat to humanity. Routine vaccinations have been stopped worldwide.
Question 28: Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. The eradication of smallpox.
B. The World Health Organization.
C. Infectious diseases.
D. Smallpox vaccinations.
Question 29: The word “contagious” is closest in meaning to_________
A. courteous
B. arresting
C. numerous
D. catching
Question 30: The global community considered the smallpox__________
A. a serious illness B. a deadly illness
C. a widespread illness D. a rare illness
Question 31: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “eradicate”?
A. spread
B. initiate
C. eliminate
D. cancel
Question 32: The word “threat” could best be replaced by__________
A. risk
B. debate
C. announce
D. bother
Question 33: According to the passage, what way was used to eliminate the spread of smallpox?
A. Vaccination of entire villages

B. Treatment of individual victims
C. Isolation of victims and mass vaccinations
D. Extensive reporting of outbreaks
Question 34: The word “isolating” is closest in meaning to__________
A. restoring
B. attending
C. separating
D. locating
Question 35: How was the public motivated to help the health workers?
A. By educating them.
B. By rewarding them for reporting smallpox cases.
C. By isolating them from others.
D. By giving them vaccinations.
Question 36: Which one of the statements doesn’t refer to smallpox?
A. Previous project had failed
B. People are no longer vaccinated for it.
C. The WHO set up a worldwide campaign to eradicate the disease.
D. It was a fatal threat.
Question 37: It can be inferred from the passage that__________
A. yellow fever have been reported this year.
B. no new cases of smallpox have been reported this year.
C. smallpox victims no longer die when they contact the disease.
D. smallpox is not transmitted from one person to another.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 38 to 47
Course numbers are an indication of which courses are to various categories of students at the University.
Undergraduate courses with the numbers 100 or 200 are generally introductory courses appropriate for freshmen
or sophomores, whereas courses with the numbers 300 or 400 often have prerequisites and are often to juniors
and seniors only. Courses with the numbers 800 or above are open only to graduate students. Certain graduate
courses, generally those devoted to introductory material, are numbered 400 for undergraduate students who

qualify to take them and 600 for graduate students. Courses designed for students seeking a professional degree
carry a 500 number for undergraduate students and a 700 number for graduate students. Courses numbered 99 or
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below are special interest courses that do not carry academic credit. If students elect to take a special interest
course, it will not count toward the number of hours needed to complete graduation requirements.
Full-time undergraduate student is expected to take courses that total twelve to eighteen credit hours. A fulltime graduate student is expected to take courses that total ten to sixteen credit hours. Student holding
assistantships are expected to enroll for proportionately fewer hours. A part-time graduate may register for
minimum of three credit hours. An overload, that is, more than the maximum number of hours, may be taken
with the approval of an academic advisor. To register for an overload, students must submit the appropriate
approval form when registering. Overloads above 24 hours will not be approved under any circumstances.
(Source: Practice Exercises for the TOEFL iBT, by Pamela J. Sharpe, Ph.D)
Question 38: Where would the passage most likely be found?
A. In a graduate course
B. In an undergraduate course
C. In a college catalog
D. In a syllabus
Question 39: What is the purpose of the passage?
A. To apologize
B. To inform
C. To persuade
D. To criticize
Question 40: The word "categories" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to______.
A. teachers
B. courses
C. jobs
D. groups
Question 41: The word "those" in paragraph 1 refers to_______.
A. graduate courses

B. course numbers
C. introductory courses D. graduate students
Question 42: Which classification of students would be eligible to enroll in Mechanical Engineering 850?
A. A part- time student
B. An undergraduate student
A
fulltime
student
C.
D. A graduate student
Question 43: If an undergraduate student uses the number 520 to register an accounting course, what number
would a graduate student probably use to register for the same course?
A. Accounting 620
B. Accounting 820
C. Accounting 520
D. Accounting 720
Question 44: How is a student who registers for eight credit hours classified?
A. Full- time student
B. Graduate student
C. Part- time student
D. Non-degree student
Question 45: Which of the following courses would NOT be included in the list of courses for graduation?
A. English 90
B. English 100
C. English 300
D. English 400
Question 46: A graduate student may NOT_________.
A. enroll in a course numbered 610
B. register for only one one-hour course
C. enroll in an introductory course

D. register for courses if he has an assistantship
Question 47: The word "appropriate" in the LAST paragraph is closest in meaning to______.
A. wrong
B. interest
C. suitable
D. denial
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
Question 48: The Charles Dickens’ character Wilkins Micawber lived in optimistic expectation of a best fortune.
A
B
C
D
Question 49: Many charity organizations have brought food supplies and clothes to flood-effecting areas in the
A
B
C
D
Mekong Delta
Question 50: Hardly he had got downstairs when the phone stopped ringing yesterday afternoon.
A
B
C
D
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Question 51: The need for a well-rounded education was an idea espoused by the Greeks in time of Socrates.
A
B

C
D
Question 52: Believed that Jack had got home safely, we felt relieved.
A
B
C
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 53: I’d like to pay some money into my bank account.
A. withdraw some money from
B. put some money into
C. give some money out
D. leave some money aside
Question 54: There is growing concern about the way man has destroyed the environment.
A. ease
B. attraction
C. consideration
D. speculation
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word for each of the
blanks from 55 to 64.
HIGH DAYS AND HOLIDAYS
In the UK holidays began as religious festival days or ‘holy days’. The idea of a holiday as a ‘no-work’
day seems to have first (55) ______ around five hundred years ago. In 1871 the Bank Holidays Act established
(56) ______ days when, by law, banks closed. Bank Holidays soon became public holidays, but by (57) ______,
not law.
In fact, working people (58) ______ took holidays. For many people, paid holidays remained a (59)
______ until the second half of the twentieth century. Instead, people enjoyed outings for the day to (60) ______
places.
The (61) ______ of the railways made it possible for working people and their families to go further

afield on their day trips, (62) ______ wealthy people had, for many years, taken holidays. As soon as outings
became possible for more people, (63) ______ of them travelled to the seaside. Seaside towns started to boom.
Piers were built out over the sea, funfairs opened and boat trips were (64) ______ by local fishermen. Many of
the towns that benefited from all these day trippers were near to large cities or were at the end of railway lines.

Question 55:
Question 56:
Question 57:
Question 58:
Question 59:
Question 60:
Question 61:
Question 62:
Question 63:
Question 64:

A. appeared
A. absolute
A. tradition
A. ever
A. prize
A. away
A. rise
A. because
A. blocks
A. raised

B. grown
B. possible
B. habit

B. quite
B. comfort
B. next
B. increase
B. so
B. piles
B. offered

C. arrived
C. odd
C. practice
C. rarely
C. reward
C. nearby
C. growth
C. despite
C. rows
C. done

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D. come
D. certain
D. desire
D. gradually
D. luxury
D. close
D. size
D. although
D. crowds

D. performed


SECTION B (2 POINTS)
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed
before it. Write your answers on your answer sheet.

Question 1: My book is not as expensive as yours.
 Your book is more_______________________________________________________
Question 2: In 2016 my parents will celebrate twenty-five years of marriage.
 By 2015 my parents______________________________________________________
Question 3: I had no sooner closed the door than somebody knocked.
 Hardly had ____________________________________________________________
Question 4: It took him two hours to drive to London.
 He spent ______________________________________________________________
Question 5: It isn't worth waiting for the bus.

 There_________________________________________________________________

II. Topic: Human are said to greatly benefit from destroying their environment. Do you really think so?
You should write in about 140 words.

----THE END---

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1. B
9. D
17. D

25. C
33. C
41. A
49. C
57. A

2. C
10. A
18. C
26. A
34. C
42. D
50. A
58. C

3. D
11. D
19. D
27. C
35. B
43. D
51. D
59. D

4. C
12. A
20. A
28. A
36. A
44. C

52. A
60. C

5. D
13. B
21. C
29. D
37. B
45. A
53. A
61. C

6. A
14. D
22. B
30. B
38. C
46. B
54. A
62. D

Question 1: Your book is more expensive than mine/my book.
By 2015 my parents will have been married for 25 years.

Question 5: Hardly had I closed the door when somebody knocked.
Question 2: He spent two hours driving to London.
69. There is no point in waiting for the bus.

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7. C
15. B
23. A
31. C
39. B
47. C
55. A
63. D

8. B
16. D
24. D
32. A
40. D
48. D
56. D
64. B