20 đề THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA môn TIẾNG ANH 2016

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
HỘI ĐỒNG BỘ MÔN TIẾNG ANH THPT

ĐỀ THI MẪU – KỲ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2016
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút.

Đơn vị: THPT Đốc Binh Kiều
Đề thi cấu trúc 1
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 1:
A. food
B. shoot
C. book
D. boot
Question 2:
A. secure
B. police
C. council
D. socialize
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in the following question.
Question 3:
A. television
B. information
C. economic D. engineering
Question 4:
A. disappear
B. arrangement
C. opponent
D. contractual

Question 5:
A. respectable
B. affectionate
C. occasional D. kindergarten
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions
Question 6: Kelly wanted to have a live band _________ at her wedding.
A. to be played
B. play
C. played
D. been playing
Question 7: There is ____ in my bedroom.
A. a square wooden old table
B. an old square wooden table
C. a wooden old square table
D. an old wooden square table
Question 8: I am sure you are capable ________ guiding the tourists.
A. of
B. on
C. for
D. about
Question 9: Someone ____ here recently: these ashes are still warm.
A. should be
B. had to be
C. must have been D. might have been
Question 10: Who is responsible _______ the garbage – the husband of the wife?
A. to take out
B. for take out C. for taking out D. with taking out
Question 11: There were a lot people at the party, only few of ____ I had met before.
A. them

B. who
C. whom
D. whose
Question 12: The temperature inversions often occur when ________ in the late afternoon.
A. cooling the earth's surface
B. the earth's surface is cooling
C. the surface of earth cooled
D. the earth's surface is cooled
Question 13: _________ I'd like to help you out, I'm afraid I just haven't got any spare money at the
moment.
A. Even
B. Despite
C. Much as
D. Try as
Question 14: I certainly won’t be lending Bruce any books again anytime soon.
A. I may be lending some books to Bruce this time, but I probably won’t do so anymore.
B. It’s certain that I won’t let Bruce borrow any books for such a long time again.
C. Bruce definitely won’t be returning any books that he borrowed from me soon.
D. It’ll be definitely be a long time before I allow Bruce to borrow any more books.
Question 15: I/ one / old friends / meet / I / shop / supermarket / two days ago.
A. I met one of my old friends while I was doing shopping in the supermarket two days ago.
B. I met one of my old friends while I was shopping on the supermarket two days ago.


C . I m e t m y o n e o l d f r i e n d s w h i l e I w a s d o i n g s h o p p i n g i n t h e supermarket two days ago.
D. I met one of my old friends while I was shopping to the supermarket two days ago.
Question 16: When the unemployment rate is high, the crime rate is usually also high.
A. The unemployment rate and the crime rate are both higher.
B. The higher the unemployment rate is, the higher the crime rate is.
C. The unemployment rate is as high as the crime rate.

D. The high rate of unemployment depends on the high rate of crime.
Question 17: You can’t tell what someone is like just from their _____.
A. character
B. appearance
C. personality
D. looking
Question 18: Many people become _____ because of the natural disasters every year.
A. homeless
B. homesick
C. homework
D. homeland
Question 19: She ran in a marathon last week but………. after ten kilometers. {withdraw}
A. dropped out
B. closed down C. broke up
D. made up
Question 20: Are you sure you can do it on ___________?
A. Yourself
B. secret
C. your own
D. side
Question 21: We still meet up for a drink and a chat once ________.
A. at a time
B. in a while
C. in a blue moon
D. in a black mood
Question 22: Ballet dancers, _______ actors, must spend many hours a day practicing before a
performance.
A. like
B. the like
C. the same

D. same as
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) that is CLOSET in meaning
to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 23: In the future, many large corporations will be wiped out.
A. companies
B. services
C. supermarkets
D. farms
Question 24: They made no effort to hide their amusement.
A. didn’t afford
B. couldn’t afford C. didn’t have a trial D. didn’t try
Question 25: You should concentrate on what the interview is saying and make a real effort to answer
all the question
A. look at
B. listen to
C. try your best
D. focus your attention
Question 26: Peter didn’t mean to disrespectful to his teacher. He just couldn’t control his temper
A. showing lack of trust
B. showing nervousness
C. showing impolite behaviour
D. showing lack of attention
Question 27: This college emphasizes the primacy of teaching over research.
A. give it a primary stress
B. make it most important
C. make it most important at first
D. make it most importance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 28: A: Congratulations! You did great. B:______________

A. It's nice of you to say so.
B. It's my pleasure.
C. You're welcome.
D. That's okay.
Question 29: A: ___________
B: Oh, thank you. I just got it yesterday.
A. When have you got this beautiful dress?
B. You've just bought this beautiful dress, haven't you?
C. How a beautiful dress you're wearing!
D. That's a beautiful dress you have on!


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 30: Mrs. Steven, along with her cousins from Mexico, are planning to attend the festivities.
A
B
C
D
Question 31: One of her sons are a doctor in my mother’s hospital.
A B
C
D
Question 32: Because they had spent too many time considering the new contract, the students lost the
A
B
C
D
opportunity to lease the apartment.
Question 33: My sister has some close friends, two of them are teachers of English.

A
B
C
D
Question 34: The New Year Day is the day where all my family members gather and enjoy it together.
A
B
C
D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Like any other universities, the Open University can give you a degree. However, you dont have to
(35) _______ working to study. It can also open up a whole variety (36) ________ interest. If you have
(37) ________ studied before, you will enjoy the special, new pleasure of (38) ________your knowledge.
You will make friends of (39) ___________ kinds. You may also (40) ___________that your
qualification provides new career opportunities.
You dont actually (41) ___________ to the Open University for lectures, but study at home,
using television, radio and computer software. You can (42) ___________ one class a month if you wish
at an Open University center. Of course, there are exams to take, as is (43) ___________ university. If
you (44) ___________ like to know more, all you have to do is complete the form below. It could be the
start of a wonderful new period in your life.
Question 35: A. stop
B. end
C. leave
D. break
Question 36: A. of
B. from
C. for
D. in
Question 37: A. ever

B. always
C. often
D. never
Question 38: A. growing
B. changing
C. adding
D. increasing
Question 39: A. all
B. each
C. both
D. every
Question 40: A. suggest
B. find
C. wish
D. want
Question 41: A. join
B. enter
C. arrive
D. go
Question 42: A. give
B. attend
C. learn
D. study
Question 43: A. any
B. some
C. many
D. most
Question 44: A. did
B. will
C. would

D. Can
Reading the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
It takes a long time to raise a family of owlets, so the great horned owl begins early in the year. In
January and February, or as late as March in the North, the male calls to the female with a resonant hoot.
The female is larger than the male. She sometimes reaches a 5 body length of twenty-two to twenty-four
inches, with a wingspread up to fifty inches. To impress her, the male does a strange courtship dance. He
bobs. He bows. He ruffles his feathers and hops around with an important air. He flutters from limb to
limb and makes flying sorties into the air. Sometimes he returns with an offering of food. 10 They share
the repast, after which she joins the dance, hopping and bobbing about as though keeping time to the beat
of an inner drum.


Owls are poor home builders. They prefer to nest in a large hollow in a tree or even to occupy the
deserted nest of a hawk or crow. 15 These structures are large and rough, built of sticks and bark and
lined with leaves and feathers. Sometimes owls nest on a rocky ledge, or even on the bare ground. even
to occupy the deserted nest of a hawk or crow. These structures are large and rough, built of sticks and
bark and lined with leaves and feathers. Sometimes owls nest 20 on a rocky ledge, or even on the bare
ground. The mother lays two or three round, dull white eggs. Then she stoically settles herself on the nest
and spreads her feather skirts about her to protect her precious charges from snow and cold.
It is five weeks before the first downy white owlet pecks its way out of the shell. As the young birds
feather out, they look like wise old men with their wide eyes and quizzical expressions. They clamor for
food and keep the parents busy supplying mice, squirrels, rabbits, crayfish, and beetles. Later in the
season baby crows are 30 taken. Migrating songsters, waterfowl, and game birds all fall prey to the
hungry family. It is nearly ten weeks before fledglings leave the nest to search for their own food. The
parent birds weary of family life by November and drive the young owls away to establish hunting
ranges of their own.
Question 45. What is the topic of this passage?
A. Raising a family of great horned owls
B. Mating rituals of great horned owls

C. Nest building of great horned owls
D. Habits of young great horned owls
Question 46. In line 2-3, the phrase "a resonant hoot” is closest in meaning to__________.
A. an instrument
B. a sound
C. a movement
D. an offering of food
Question 47. It can be inferred from the passage that the courtship of great horned owls ______.
A. takes place on the ground
B. is an active process
C.happens in the fall
D. involves the male alone
Question 48. According to the passage, great horned owls
A. are discriminate nest builders
B. need big nests for their numerous eggs
C. may inhabit a previously used nest
D. build nests on tree limbs
Question 49. According to the passage, which of the following is the mother owl's job?
A. To initiate the courtship ritual
B. To feed the young
C. To sit on the nest
D. To build the nest
Question 50. The phrase "precious charges” in lines 15 refers to ____________.
A. the eggs
B. the nest
C. the hawks and crows
D. other nesting owls
Question 51. According to the passage, young owlets eat everything EXCEPT ____________
A. other small birds
B. insects

C. small mammals
D. nuts and seeds
Question 52. In line 17, the word "they” refers to _______________.
A. the wise old men
B. the adult birds
C. the young birds
D. the prey
Question 53. What can be inferred from the passage about the adult parents of the young great horned
owls?
A. They are sorry to see their young leave home.
B. They are lazy and careless about feeding the small owlets.
C. They probably don't see their young after November.
D. They don't eat while they are feeding their young.
Question 54. The phrase "weary of” in line 21 is closest in meaning to________________.
A. tire of
B. become sad about
C. support
D. are attracted to
Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer.
The influenza virus is a single molecule composed of millions of individual atoms. Although bacteria
can be considered a type of plant, secreting poisonous substances into the body of the organism they
attack, viruses, like the influenza virus, are living organisms themselves. We may consider them regular


chemical molecules since they have strictly defined atomic structure; but on the other hand, we must
consider them as being alive since they are able to multiply in unlimited quantities.
An attack brought on by the presence of the influenza virus in the body produces a temporary immunity,
but, unfortunately, the protection is against only the type of virus that caused the influenza. Because the
disease can be produced by any one of three types, referred to as A, B, or C, and many strains within each
type, immunity to one virus will not prevent infection by another type or strain.

Approximately every ten years, worldwide epidemics of influenza called pandemics occur. Thought to
be caused by new strains of type-A virus, these pandemic viruses have spread rapidly, inflecting millions
of people. Epidemics or regional outbreaks have appeared on the average every two or three years or
type-A virus, and every four or five years for type-B virus.
Question 55: With what topic is the passage primarily concerned?
A. the influenza virus
B. immunity to disease
C. bacteria
D. chemical molecules
Question 56: According to this passage, bacteria are
A. poisons
B. very small
C. larger than viruses D. plants
Question 57: The word “themselves” refers to
A. molecules
B. bacteria
C. substances
D. viruses
Question 58: The word “strictly” could best be replaced by
A. unusually
B. completely
C. broadly
D. exactly
Question 59: Why does the writer say that viruses are alive?
A. they have a complex atomic struture C. they multiply
B. they move
D. they need warmth and light
Question 60: The atomic structure of viruses
A. is variable
C. cannot e analyzed chemically

B. is strictly defined
D. is more complex than that of bacteria.
Question 61: The word “unlimited” could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. very small
B. very large
C. very similar
D. very different
Question 62: How does the body react to the influenza virus?
A. It prevents further infection to other types and strains of the virus.
B. It produces immunity to the type and strain of virus that invaded it.
C. It becomes immune to types A, B, and C viruses, but not to various strains within the types.
D. After a temporary immunity, it becomes even more susceptible to the type and strain that caused the
influenza.
Question 63: The author names all of the following as characteristics of pandemics except
A. they spread very quickly.
C. they are regional outbreaks.
B. they are caused by type-A virus.
D. they occur once every ten years.
Question 64: The word “strains” is closest in meaning to
A. theories
B. injuries
C. varieties
D. weakness
WRITING
Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it.
Question 65: I’ve never met such a famous person before.
 It’s _________________________________________________________________________
Question 66: I spent all my money and then I went home
 When I _____________________________________________________________________

Question 67: The teacher is going to tell a story
 A story _____________________________________________________________________


Question 68: I’m sorry I missed your birthday party
 I wish ______________________________________________________________________
Question 69: My sister can’t cook as well as my mother can.
 My mother can_______________________________________________________________
Part II. John, your pen pal, is going to spend his summer vacation in Vietnam. Write a letter to him
recommending a significant place you are familiar with.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

Người soạn:
1. Trần Ngọc Lựu
2. Võ Kim Phát
3. Võ Thị Hiền Thi


ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA 2016
ĐƠN VỊ THPT ĐỐC BINH KIỀU
I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM: (0.25/CÂU)
1. C
2. A
3. A
4. A
5. D
6. B
7. B
8. A

9. C
10. A
11. C
12. D
13. C
14. D
15. A
16. B

17. B
18. A
19. A

20. C
21. B
22. A
23. A
24. D

25. D
26. C
27. B
28. A
29. C
30. C
31. A
32. B

33. C
34. B
35. A
36. A
37. C
38. B
39. B
40. D

41. A
42. B
43. C
44. B
45. A
46. B

47. B
48. C

II. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN: (0.1/CÂU)
Part I:
Question 65: It’s the first time (that) I have met such a famous person.
Question 66: When I had spent all my money, I went home.
Question 67: A story is going to be told by the teacher.
Question 68: I wish I hadn’t missed your birthday party.
Question 69: My mother can cook better than my sister can.
Part II:
1. Nội dung:
- Đúng chủ đề: 0.25đ
- Viết logic, hợp lý: 0,25đ
2. Ngôn ngữ:
- Viết đúng cấu trúc ngữ pháp: 0,25đ
- Sử dụng từ vựng phù hợp và phong phú: 0,25đ
3. Trình bày:
- Viết đủ số từ: 0.25đ
- Mạch lạc, rõ rang, có ý sang tạo: 0.25đ
4. Điểm trừ:
- Ngữ pháp: trừ tối đa 0.125đ
- Chính tả: trừ tối đa 0.125đ
- Ít hơn số từ qui định: trừ 0.125đ

49. C
50. A
51. D
52. C
53. C

54. A
55. A
56. D

57. D
58. D
59. C
60. B
61. B
62. B
63. C
64. C


ĐỀ THI MẪU TỐT NGHIỆP THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2016
ĐƠN VỊ: THPT TAM NÔNG
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. technical
B. scholar
C. architect
D. achieve
Question 2: A. accused
B. followed
C. weighed
D. laughed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in
the position of the main stress in the following question.
Question 3: A. opinion
B. believable

C. interesting
Question 4: A. subject
B. retail
C. attend
D. pressure
Question 5: A. interview
B. supportive
C. graduate
D. average
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions
Question 6: When Carol _______ last night, I _______ my favorite show on television
A. was calling- watched
B. called- have watched
C. called- was watching
D. had called- watched
Question 7: Endangered species _______ by the World Wildlife Fund.
A. will protect
B. would protect
C. be protected
D. are protected
Question 8: I’ll get Minh _______ do this for you.
A. do
B. done
C. did
D. to do
Question 9: The voters were overwhelmingly against the candidate _______ proposals called for
higher taxes.
A. who his
B. who he had

C. whose
D. that his
Question 10: It is a top secret. You _______ tell anyone about it.
A. mustn’t
B. needn’t
C. mightn’t
D. need
Question 11: He said that he _______ the Titanic yet.
A. hasn’t seen
B. hadn’t seen
C. didn’t see
D. doesn’t see
Question 12: If it _______ an hour ago, the streets _______ wet now.
A. were raining / will be
B. had rained / would be
C. rained / would be
D. had rained / would have been
Question 13: "When _______?" - "In 1928."
A. penicillin was invented
B. did penicillin invented
C. was penicillin invented
D. did penicillin invent
Question 14: This exercise may ______ with a pencil.
A. be written
B. be to write
C. be writing
D. write
Question 15: He usually travels to _______ Philadelphia by _______ train.
A. Ø / Ø
B. the / a

C. the / the
D. Ø / a
Question 16: This is the first time I attend such an enjoyable wedding party.
A. The first wedding party I attended was enjoyable.


B. I had the first enjoyable wedding party.
C. My attendance at the first wedding party was enjoyable.
D. I have never attended such an enjoyable wedding party before.
Question 17: _______ he drank, _______ he became.
A. More / more violent
B. The most / the most violent
C. The more / the more violent
D. The less / less violent
Question 18: _______ this work _______ before you went to London?
A. Will - have been done
B. Has - been done
C. Will - be done
D. Had - been done
Question 19: Please send us a postcard as soon as you _______ in London.
A. will arrive
B. is going to arrive
C. arrive
D. arrived
Question 20: Books with good stories are often described as _______.
A. swallowing
B. tasting
C. hard-to-put-down
D. hard-to-pick-up
Question 21: The number of _______ for the new position has reached ninety.

A. application
B. applicants
C. apply
D. appliance
Question 22: Ann/ told/ me/ not /tell/ anyone /what/ happened/ night before.
A. Ann said to me please don't tell anyone what happened night before.
B. Ann told to me didn't tell anyone what had happened night before.
C. Ann said me not to tell anyone what happened the night before.
D. Ann told me not to tell anyone what had happened the night before.
Question 23: Of course you can come to the party. _______.
A. The more the merrier
B. The more and the merrier
C. The more and merrier
D. The more and more merrier
Question 24: Toxic chemicals from factories are one of the serious factors that leads wildlife to the
_______ of extinction.
A. wall
B. fence
C. verge
D. bridge
Question 25: At his last attempt, the athlete was successful _______ passing the bar.
A. in
B. for
C. with
D. on
Question 26: You can look up this word in the dictionary.
A. You should buy this dictionary to find the word you need.
B. There are a lot of words in the dictionary for you to look at.
C. The dictionary contains a lot of words except the one you need.
D. You can find the meaning of this word in the dictionary.

Question 27: A nuclear station may take risk going off due to unexpected incidents.
A. exploding
B. demolishing
C. developing
D. running


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) that is CLOSET in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 28: The ASEAN Para-Games are hosted by the same country where the SEA Games took
place.
A. organized
B. impressed
C. participated
D. defended
Question 29: I find it difficult to remain neutral where he’s concerned.
A. objective
B. negative
C. positive
D. middle
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 30: The consequences of the typhoon were disastrous due to the lack of precautionary
measures.
A. serve
B. beneficial
C. physical
D. damaging
Question 31: Unless the two signatures are identical, the bank won’t honor the check.
A. different

B. genuine
C. fake
D. similar
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 32: Lili: “What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary!” - Mary: “_______.”
A. Thank you very much. I am afraid
B. You are telling a lie
C. Thank you for your compliment
D. I don't like your sayings
Question 33: - Mary: “_______?”
- Alice: She is honest and sensitive .
A. What is the main character look like?
B. What is the main character like?
C. Who is the main character?
D. Do you like the main character?
Question 34: - Anna: “I think women are usually more sympathetic than men.”
- Jack: “_______.”
A. No, thanks
B. That’s right!
C. You’re welcome D. Yes, let’s
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 35: In order to be a good worker, you should be hard-working, patient and honesty.
A
B
C
D
Question 36: The larger the room is, more people can sit in it.
A

B
C
D
Question 37: John remembers to go to the circus when he was a child.
A
B
C
D
Question 38: Some underground water is enough safe to drink, but all surface water must be treated.
A
B
C
D
Question 39: It took me a very long time to get off the shock of her death.
A
B
C
D


Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
If women choose to pursue a career once they have children, they often miss out on a close (40)
_______ with their children. Helen Jamieson is a mother of three who has given (41) _______ work to
look after her children full-time. She strongly believes that women are pressurized to do too much,
driving themselves to the absolute limit. In her own case, after six years of paid employment, Helen
finally decided to call it a day. She says she initially found it hard being at home, though she never
misses the job itself. She admits that if she had had a brilliant career to begin (42) _______, she might
feel differently now. Financially, she is no worse off (43) _______ before, as the cost of childcare and
commuting exceeded her actual income. (44) _______ the government starts to give other tax

incentives to working parents, she says she will not return to the workplace until her children are grown
up.
Question 40: A. friendship
B. relationship
C. scholarship
D. membership
Question 41: A. out
B. in
C. to
D. up
Question 42: A. up
B. with
C. to
D. at
Question 43: A. as
B. so
C. than
D. then
Question 44: A. Unless
B. If
C. Provided
D. Even if
Reading the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
COLORS AND EMOTIONS
Colors are one of the most exciting experiences in life. I love them, and they are just as
important to me as emotions are. Have you ever wondered how the two are so intimately related?
Color directly affects your emotions. Color both reflects the current state of your emotions, and
is something that you can use to improve or change your emotions. The color that you choose to wear
either reflects your current state of being, or reflects the color or emotion that you need.

The colors that you wear affect you much more than they affect the people around you. Of
course they also affect anyone who comes in contact with you, but you are the one saturated with the
color all day! I even choose items around me based on their color. In the morning, I choose my clothes
based on the color or emotion I need for the day. So you can consciously use color to control the
emotions that you are exposed to, which can help you to feel better.
Color, sound and emotions are all vibrations. Emotions are literally energy in motion; they are
meant to move and flow. This is the reason that real feelings are the fastest way to get your energy in
motion. Also, flowing energy is exactly what creates healthy cells in your body. So, the fastest way to
be healthy is to be open to your real feelings. Alternately, the fastest way to create disease is to inhibit
your emotions.
Question 45: What is the purpose of the passage?
A. To prove the relationship between color and emotion.
B. To show that colors are important for a healthy life.
C. To persuade the reader that colors influence emotions and give a person more energy.
D. To give an objective account of how color affect emotions.
Question 46: The term intimately in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. simply
B. obviously
C. clearly
D. closely


Question 47: The phrase saturated with in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. in need of
B. lacking in
C. covered with
D. bored with
Question 48: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Emotions and colors are closely related to each other.
B. Colors are one of the most exciting experiences in life.

C. Colorful clothes can change your mood.
D. Colors can help you become more influenced.
Question 49: According to this passage, what creates disease?
A. Ignoring your emotions
B. Exposing yourself to bright color
C. Wearing the color black
D. Being open to your emotions
Question 50: Which of the following can be affected by color?
A. Your need for thrills
B. Your friend’s feelings
C. Your appetite
D. Your mood
Question 51: Why does the author mention that color and emotions are both vibrations?
A. Because they both affect how we feel.
B. Because vibrations make you healthy.
C. To prove the relationship between emotions and color.
D. To show how color can affect energy levels in the body.
Question 52: Who is more influenced by the color you wear?
A. You are more influenced.
B. The people next to you are more influenced.
C. The people far from you are more influenced
D. The people around you are more influenced.
Question 53: According to this passage, what do color, sound and emotions all have in common?
A. They all affect the cells of the body
B. They are all related to health
C. They are all forms of motions
D. None of the above
Question 54: The term they in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. affection
B. people

C. emotions
D. colors
Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer.
Since the dawn of time, people have found ways to communicate with one another. Smoke signals
and tribal drums were some of the earliest forms of communication. Letters, carried by birds or by
humans on foot or on horseback, made it possible for people to communicate larger amounts of
information between two places. The telegram and telephone set the stage for more modern means of
communication. With the invention of the cellular phone, communication itself has become mobile.
For you, a cell phone is probably just a device that you and your friends use to keep in touch with
family and friends, take pictures, play games, or send text message. The definition of a cell phone is more
specific. It is a hand- held wireless communication device that sends and receives signals by way of small
special areas called cells.
Walkie-talkies, telephones and cell phones are duplex communication devices. They make it
possible for two people to talk to each other. Cell phones and walkie-talkies are different from regular
phones because they can be used in many different locations. A walkie-talkie is sometimes called a
half-duplex communication device because only one person can talk at a time. A cell phone is a fullduplex device because it uses both frequencies at the same time. A walkie-talkie has only one channel.
A cell phone has more than a thousand channels. A walkie-talkie can transmit and receive signals


across a distance of about a mile. A cell phone can transmit and receive signals over hundreds of miles.
In 1973, an electronic company called Motorola hired Martin Cooper to work on wireless
communication. Motorola and Bell Laboratories (now AT&T) were in a race to invent the first portable
communication device. Martin Cooper won the race and became the inventor of the cell phone. On
April 3, 1973, Cooper made the first cell phone call to his opponent at AT&T while walking down the
streets of New York City. People on the sidewalks gazed at Cooper in amazement. Cooper's phone was
called A Motorola Dyna-Tac. It weighed a whopping 2.5 pounds (as compared to today's cell phones
that weigh as little as 3 or 4 ounces)
After the invention of his cell phone, Cooper began thinking of ways to make the cell phone
available to the general public. After a decade, Motorola introduced the first cell phone for commercial
use. The early cell phone and its service were both expensive. The cell phone itself cost about $ 3,500.

In 1977, AT&T constructed a cell phone system and tried it out in Chicago with over 2,000 customers.
In 1981, a second cellular phone system was started in the Washington D.C. and Baltimore area. It took
nearly 37 years for cell phones to become available for general public use. Today, there are more than
sixty million cell phone customers with cell phones producing over thirty billion dollars per years.
Question 55: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The increasing number of people using cell phone.
B. The difference between cell phones and telephones.
C. The history of a cell phone.
D. How Cooper competed with AT&T.
Question 56: What definition is true of a cell phone?
A. The first product of two famous corporation.
B. A hand-held wireless communication device.
C. Something we use just for playing games.
D. A version of walkie-talkie.
Question 57: What is wrong about a walkie-talkie?
A. It has one channel
B. It was first designed in 1973.
C. It can be used within a distance of a mile. D. Only one person can talk at a time.
Question 58: The word "duplex" is closest meaning to ________.
A. having two parts B. quick
C. modern
D. having defects
Question 59: To whom did Cooper make his first cell phone call?
A. His assistant at Motorola.
B. A person on New York street.
C. A member of Bell Laboratories.
D. The director of his company.
Question 60: How heavy is the first cell phone compared to today's cell phones?
A. ten times as heavy as
B. as heavy as

C. much lighter
D. 2 pounds heavier
Question 61: When did Motorola introduce the first cell phones for commercial use?
A. In 1981
B. In the same years when he first made a cell- phone call
C. In 1983
D. In the same year when AT& T constructed a cell phone system.


Question 62: When did AT&T widely start their cellular phone system?
A. In 2001
B. In 1977
C. In 1981
D. 37 years after their first design
Question 63: What does the word "gazed" mean?
A. looked with admiration
B. angrily looked
C. glanced
D. started conversation
Question 64: The phrase "tried it out" refers to _______.
A. made effort to sell the cell-phone
B. reported on AT& T
C. tested the cell-phone system
D. introduced the cell-phone system
WRITING
Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it.
Question 65: I started learning English seven years ago.
 I have …………………………………………………………………………..
Question 66: My mother prepared breakfast for us. Then she went to work.

 After my mother ……………………………………………………………….
Question 67: I didn’t know how to ride a bike until I was seven.
 It was not ………………………………………………………………………
Question 68: I didn’t have enough money, so I didn’t buy that house.
 Had …………………………………………………………………………….
Question 69: “I didn’t break your window,” the boy said.
 The boy denied ………………………………………………………………...
Part II. In about 120 words, write a paragraph about the formal education system in Vietnam.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………


Người soạn:
1. Trần Anh Tuấn
2. Lê Thị Thùy Trang
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA 2016
ĐƠN VỊ THPT TAM NÔNG
-----PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM: (0.25/CÂU)
1. D
2. D

3. C
4. D
5. D
6. C
7. D
8. D

9. C
10. A
11. B
12. B
13. C
14. A
15. A
16. D

17. C
18. D
19. C
20. C
21. B
22. D
23. A
24. C

25. A
26. D
27. A
28. A
29. A

30. B
31. A
32. C

33. B
34. B
35. D
36. C
37. A
38. B
39. C
40. B

41. D
42. B
43. C
44. A
45. C
46. D
47. C
48. A

49. A
50. D
51. D
52. A
53. D
54. D
55. C
56. B

PHẦN TỰ LUẬN: (0.1/CÂU)
Part I:
Question 65: I have learnt English for seven years.
Question 66: After my mother had prepared breakfast fro us, she went to bed.
Question 67: It was not until I was seven that I knew how to ride a bike.
Question 68: Had I had enough money, I would have bought that house.
Question 69: The boy denied breaking/having broken my window.
Part II:
1. Nội dung:
- Đúng chủ đề: 0.25đ
- Viết logic, hợp lý: 0,25đ
2. Ngôn ngữ:
- Viết đúng cấu trúc ngữ pháp: 0,25đ
- Sử dụng từ vựng phù hợp và phong phú: 0,25đ
3. Trình bày:
- Viết đủ số từ: 0.25đ
- Mạch lạc, rõ ràng, có ý sáng tạo: 0.25đ
4. Điểm trừ:
- Ngữ pháp: trừ tối đa: 0.125đ
- Chính tả: trừ tối đa: 0.125đ
- Ít hơn số từ qui định: trừ 0.125đ

57. B
58. A
59. D
60. A
61. C
62. C
64. A

64. D


SỞ GD - ĐT ĐỒNG THÁP ĐỀ THI THỬ
HĐBM TIẾNG ANH THPT
KỲ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2016
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút
Đơn vị ra đề: Trường THPT Lấp Vò 2 (Cấu trúc 1)
Mark the letter A, B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined sound that is
pronounced differently from the rest:
Question 1: A. eradicate
Question 2: A. reindeer

B. character
B. engineer

C. malaria
C. pioneer

D. spectacular
D. referee

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. disaster
B. encounter
C. determine
D. consonant
Question 4: A. referee
B. agriculture

C. personality
D. mathematics
Question 5: A. familiar
B. redundant
C. customary
D. reluctant
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions:
Question 6: ________ in the hospital for 4 years, he has decided to give up his work.
A. To work
B. Working
C. Being working D. Worked
Question 7: This is a ______________________.
A. wooden spoon brown soup
C. brown soup spoon wooden
B. brown wooden soup spoon
D. spoon brown soup wooden
Question 8: I think women are suited ________ many important things, besides childbearing
and homemaking.
A. of
B. on
C. for
D. about
Question 9: I think the match ________. Everybody's gone into the stadium and you can hear
them cheering.
A. was started
B. will be started
C. must started
D. must have started
Question 10: I’m reading a Stephen King’s novel. It’s really exciting and I couldn’t ___.

A. get it off
B. put it down
C. take it on
D. look it up
Question 11: Last week I met Mr. Lam, ______________.
A. who’s oldest son is studying abroad
B. the oldest son of who is studying abroad
C. whose oldest son is studying abroad
D. of whom the oldest son is studying abroad
Question 12: You can eat _____________________________
A. whatever you want.
B. you want
C. it you want
D. whatever you don’t want.
Question 13: __________ had I arrived home than it began to rain.
A. No sooner
B. Hardly
C. Scarcely
D. Rarely
Question 14: _______ some German and British management styles are similar, there are
many differences between them.
A. In spite
B. In spite of
C. Despite
D. Despite the fact that
Question 15: I'm ____________I can't keep my eyes open.
A. so tired that
B. such a tired
C. too tired that
D. very tired that

Question 16: Winning a place at university _________ for most students.
A. has become as difficult
B. becomes the most difficulty


C. is becoming more and more difficult D. will become more difficult
Question 17: Because of heavy rain, the game was ______ for a few days.
A. taken out
B. put off
C. set up
D. gotten away
Question 18: The company offers its employees free language training but not many people
_______ advantage of it.
A. make
B. do
C. take
D. keep
Question 19: I don't think we should ________ a decision yet; we should wait.
A. do
B. make
C. take
D. create
Question 20: Only 31% of the students who ________ the final exam passed it.
A. had
B. made
C. took
D. wrote
Question 21: The players’ protests_____ no difference to the referee’s decision at all.
A. did
B. made

C. caused
D. created
Question 22: Not many students know the _________ of English learning.
A. importance
B. importantment
C. important
D. import
Question 23: What’s your hobby, Hoa?” – “_________.”
A. Well, I like collecting stamps
B. Oh, with computers
C. Well, I want stamps
D. Oh, on the phone
Question 24: -“You look nice today. I like your new hair style.” – “_________.”
A. It’s nice of you to say so
B. Shall I? Thanks.
C. Oh, well done!
D. I feel interesting to hear that.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 25: Scientists warn of the impending extinction of many species of plants and
animals.
A. irrefutable
B. imminent
C. formidable
D. absolute
Question 26: The aircraft carrier is indispensable in naval operations against sea or shore
based enemies.
A. unique
B. novel
C. exotic

D. vital
Question 27: The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively commonplace in recent years.
A. absolutely
B. relevantly
C. almost
D. comparatively
Question 28: Everything was in a thorough mess.
A. utter
B. full
C. complete
D. appalling
Question 29: The service station at Shiel Bridge has a good range of groceries.
A. coach station
B. railway station
C. power station
D. petrol station
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 30: It was obvious that he was thorough interested in the subject.
A
B
C
D
Question 31: The woman of whom the red car is parked in front of the bank is a famous pop
star.
A
B
C
D
Question 32: Either you or the headmaster are handing the prizes to these gifted students at the

meeting.
A
B
C
D
Question 33: The boy and the dog which you saw lived here in 1990.
A
B C
D
Question 34: What I say about these problems are my own affair.
A
B
C
D


Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
Who talk more – men or women? Most people believe that women talk more. However,
linguist Deborah Tannen, who has studied the communication style of men and women, says
that this is a stereotype. According to Tannen, women are more verbal - talk more - in private
situations, where they use conversation as the “glue” to hold relationships together. But, she
says, men talk more in public situations, where they use conversation to exchange information
and gain status. Tannen points out that we can see these differences even in children. Little
girls often play with one “best friend”, their play includes a lot of conversation. Little boys
often play games in groups; their play usually involves more doing than talking. In school,
girls are often better at verbal skills, boys are often better at mathematics.
A recent study at Emory University helps to shed light on the roots of this difference.
Researchers studied conversation between children age 3-6 and their parents. They found
evidence that parents talk very differently to their son than they do to their daughters. The

startling conclusion was that parents use more language with their girls. Specifically, when
parents talk with their daughters, they use more descriptive language and more details. There is
also far more talk about emotions, especially sadness, with daughters than with sons.
Question 35. Which sentence best expresses the main idea of the first paragraph?
A. Little girls and little boys have different ways of playing.
B. Women talk more than men.
C. It’s stereotype that women talk more than men.
D. Women talk more in private , and men talk more in public.
Question 36. Which word is similar in meaning to “glue” in line 4 ?
A. means
B. sticky substance C. game
D. rope
Question 37. Which sentence best expresses the main idea of the second paragraph?
A. Researchers have studied the conversations of children and their parents.
B. Parents do not talk much about sadness with their sons.
C. Study at Emory University can help to explain the differences between
communication styles of boys and girls.
D. An Emory University found that parents talk more with their daughters than with their
sons.
Question 38 . Which of the following phrases best explains the meaning of the word
“verbal”?
A. connected with the use of spoken language
B. being very talkative
C. deriving from verbs
D. using very loud noise
Question 39. The word they in line 4 refers to ___________.
A. situations
B. women
C. men and women D. men
Question 40. Which can be used as a synonym of the word “feelings” ?

A. anger
B. emotions
C. thinking
D. worries
Question 41. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the first paragraph ?
A. Men and women have different styles of talking, which may begin in childhood.
B. Men are more sociable than women.
C. According to Tannen, the belief that women talk more is partly right but most wrong
and oversimplified.
D. Women talk more in some situations, men talk more in others.
Question 42. Which word could best replace “startling” ?
A. beginning
B. annoying
C. surprising
D. interesting


Question 43. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the second paragraph?
A. Girls have more practice discussing sadness than boys do.
B. Parents don’t enjoy talking with their sons as much as with their daughters.
C. A recent study found that parents talk differently to their sons and daughters.
D. Boys don’t like to be with their parents as much as girls do.
Question 44. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the passage?
A. Parents use more language to talk with their daughters.
B. Boys don’t like showing their emotions.
C. Parents give more love to their daughters than their sons.
D. Girls are thought to be more talkative than boys.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
The Planets of Jupiter

The largest of the giant gas planets, Jupiter, with a volume 1,300 times greater than Earth’s,
contains more than twice the mass of all the other planets combined. It is thought to be a
gaseous and fluid planet without solid surfaces, Had it been somewhat more massive, Jupiter
might have attained internal temperatures as high as the ignition point for nuclear reactions,
and it would have flamed as a star in its own right. Jupiter and the other giant planets are of a
low-density type quite distinct from the terrestrial planets: they are composed predominantly
of such substances as hydrogen, helium, ammonia, and methane, unlike terrestrial planets.
Much of Jupiter’s interior might be in the form of liquid, metallic hydrogen, Normally,
hydrogen is a gas, but under pressures of millions of kilograms per square centimeter, which
exist in the deep interior of Jupiter, the hydrogen atoms might lock together to form a liquid
with the properties of a metal. Some scientists believe that the innermost core of Jupiter might
be rocky, or metallic like the core of Earth.
Jupiter rotates very fast, once every 9.8 hours. As a result, its clouds, which are composed
largely of frozen and liquid ammonia, have been whipped into alternating dark and bright
bands that circle the planet at different speeds in different latitudes. Jupiter’s puzzling Great
Red Spot changes size as it hovers in the Southern Hemisphere. Scientists speculate it might be
a gigantic hurricane, which because of its large size (the Earth could easily fit inside it), lasts
for hundreds of years.
Jupiter gives off twice as much heat as it receives from the Sun. Perhaps this is primeval
heat or beat generated by the continued gravitational contraction of the planet. Another star
like characteristic of Jupiter is its sixteen natural satellites, which, like a miniature model of the
Solar System, decrease in density with distance from rocky moons close to Jupiter to icy
moons farther away. If Jupiter were about 70 times more massive, it would have become a star,
Jupiter is the best-preserved sample of the early solar nebula, and with its satellites, might
contain the most important clues about the origin of the Solar System.
Question 45: The word attained in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. attempted
B. changed
C. lost
D. reached

Question 46: The word they in paragraph 1 refers to _____.
A. nuclear reactions
B. giant planets
C. terrestrial
D. substances
Question 47: According to the passage, hydrogen can become a metallic-like liquid when it is
__________.
A. extremely hot
B. combined with helium
C. similar atmospheres
D. metallic cores


Question 48: According to the passage, some scientists believe Jupiter and Earth are similar in
that they both have _____.
A. solid surfaces
B. similar masses
C. similar atmospheres D. metallic cores
Question 49: The clouds surrounding Jupiter are mostly composed of _____.
A. ammonia
B. helium
C. hydrogen
D. methane
Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that the appearance of alternating bands
circling Jupiter is caused by _____.
A. the Great Red Spot
B. heat from the Sun
C. the planet’s fast rotation
D. Storms from the planet’s Southern Hemisphere
Question 51: The author uses the word puzzling in paragraph 2 to suggest that the Great Red

Spot is _____.
A. the only spot of its kind
B. not well understood
C. among the largest of such spots
D. a problem for the planet’s continued existence
Question 52: Paragraph 3 supports which of the following conclusions?
A. Jupiter gives off twice as much heat as the Sun.
B. Jupiter has a weaker gravitational force than the other planets.
C. Scientists believe that Jupiter was once a star.
D. Scientists might learn about the beginning of the Solar System by Studying Jupiter.
Question 53: Why does the author mention primeval heat in paragraph 3?
A. To provide evidence that Jupiter is older than the Sun
B. To provide evidence that Jupiter is older than the other planets
C. To suggest a possible explanation for the number of satellites that Jupiter has
D. To suggest a possible source of the quantity of heat that Jupiter gives off
Question 54: Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?
A. If Jupiter had fewer satellites, it would be easier for scientists to study the planet itself.
B. If Jupiter had had more mass, it would have developed internal nuclear reactions.
C. If Jupiter had been smaller, it would have become a terrestrial planet.
D. if Jupiter were larger, it would give off much less heat.
Read the passage and choose one word or phrase marked A, B, C or D that best fits each of
the gaps:
When you read something in a foreign language, you frequently come across words you
do not (55)______ understand. Sometimes you (56)______ the meaning in a dictionary and
sometimes you guess. The strategy you adopt depends very much upon the (57)______ of
accuracy you require and the time at your disposal.
If you are the sort of person who tends to turn to the dictionary frequently, it is
(58)______ remembering that every dictionary has its limitations. Each definition is only an
approximation and one builds up an accurate picture of the meaning of a word only after
meeting it in a (59)______ of contexts. It is also important to recognize the special dangers of

dictionaries that translate from English into your native language and vice versA. If you must
use a dictionary, it is usually far safer to (60)______ an English-English dictionary.
In most exams you are not permitted to use a dictionary. (61)______ you are allowed to use
one, it is very time-consuming to look up words, and time in exams is usually limited. You are,
(62)______ , forced to guess the meaning of unfamiliar words.


When you come across unknown words in an exam text, it is very
easy to panic.
However, if you develop efficient techniques for guessing the meaning, you will (63)______ a
number of possible problems and help yourself to understand far more of the text than you at
first thought likely.
Two strategies which may help you guess the meaning of a word are: using contextual
clues, both within the sentence and outside, and making use of clues (64)______ from the
formation of the word.
Question 55. A. wholly
B. fully
C. totally
D. completely
Question 56. A. inspect
B. control
C. check
D. examine
Question 57. A. extent
B. level
C. degree
D. range
Question 58. A. worth
B. essential
C. valuable

D. vital
Question 59. A. multiple
B. variation
C. variety
D. diversity
Question 60. A. survey
B. consult
C. refer
D. inquire
Question 61. A. In case
B. Provided
C. Although
D. Even if
Question 62. A. therefore
B. so
C. however
D. so that
Question 63. A. go over
B. overcome
C. get over
D. surpass
Question 64. A. coming
B. extracted
C. derived
D. originated
WRITING
Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same
as the sentences printed before it:
Question 65. It was late, so I did not call you.
If________________________________________________________________________

Question 66. No one but the seven-year-old boy saw the accident.
Only______________________________________________________________________
Question 67. As soon as he arrived at the airport, he called phone.
No sooner_________________________________________________________________
Question 68. It is believed that the man escaped in a stolen car.
The man___________________________________________________________________
Question 69. Joan finally managed to get a good job.
Joan finally succeeded_______________________________________________________
Part II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the way how people should protect and
preserve the natural resources

- THE END -


ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA MÔN TIẾNG ANH NĂM 2016
ĐƠN VỊ RA ĐỀ: TRƯỜNG THPT LẤP VÒ 2
MULTIPLE CHOICE:
1. C
2. D
3. D
4. B
5. C
6.B
7. B
8. C

9. D
10. B
11. C
12. A

13. A
14. D
15. A
16. C

17. B
18. C
19. B
20. C
21. B
22. A
23. A
24. A

25. B
26. D
27. D
28. C
29. D
30. A
31. A
32. B

33. A
34. C
35. D
36. B
37. D
38. A
39. B

40. B

41. D
42. D
43. C
44. A
45. D
46. B
47. C
48. D

49. A
50. C
51. B
52. D
53. D
54. B
55. B
56. C

57. C
58. A
59. D
60. B
61. D
62. A
63. B
64. C

WRITING:

Part I:
Question 65. If it hadn’t been late, I would have called you.
Question 66. Only the seven-year-old boy saw the accident.
Question 67. No sooner had he arrived at the airport than he called home.
Question 68. The man is believed to have escaped in a stolen car.
Question 69. Joan finally succeeded in getting a good job.
Part II:
Model
Conservation concerns men’s safeguarding and preservation of natural resources and his
responsibility for improving the environmental conditions in which he lives. An important task
of conservation is the prevention of waste – waste of forests, soil, minerals, wildlife and human
life. Trees help to preserve land because their roots bind the soil and retain water. Without
trees, heavy rains will cause soil erosion. Forest conservation also means the prevention of
bush fires and the attention to planting and looking after new, young trees. Not only should
man preserve forests but he should also realize the importance of wildlife protection. Unless
governments have a good system of control or pass laws restricting the hunting, eradicating of
rare animals and plants, they slowly disappear. Natural resources such as coal, gas and mineral
ores are limited but the need for them is growing day by day. Therefore, man should use them
widely on the one hand, and look for alternative fuels on the other hand.
- THE END -


SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ THI MẪU – KỲ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2016
HỘI ĐỒNG BỘ MÔN TIẾNG ANH THPT
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút
Đơn vị: THPT Lấp Vò 1
Đề thi cấu trúc 1
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. challenge
B. manage
C. natural
D. human
Question 2: A. determine
B. university
C. undermine
D. visitors
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from that of the
rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. miraculous
B. diversity
C. defensive
D. occupation
Question 4: A. delivery
B. ornamental
C. climatic
D. environment
Question 5: A. magnificent
B. photography
C. proverbial
D. advantageous
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 6: Sometimes I do not feel like ________ to my brother about my troubles.
A. talk
B. to talk
C. talking
D. talked
Question 7: Where did you buy that ___________ handbag?

A. funny leather purple
B. purple funny leather
C. funny purple leather
D. leather funny purple
Question 8: As I was _______ of the change in the program, I arrived half an hour late for the
rehearsal.
A. unaware
B. unconscious
C. unable
D. unreasonable
Question 9: He said that the plane had already left and that I _______ an hour earlier.
A. should have arrived
B. must have arrived
C. was supposed to arrive
D. had to arrive
Question 10: Deborah is going to take extra lessons to ________ what she missed while she was
away.
A. catch up on
B. cut down on
C. put up with
D. take up with
Question 11: World War II ______ millions of people were killed ended in 1945.
A. when
B. in which
C. which
D. during that
Question 12: _______ you should do first is to make a list of all the things you have to do.
A. That
B. What
C. As

D. If
Question 13: _______ the ringing phone when it went dead.
A. Hardly I reached
B. I had no sooner reached
C. Just as I reached
D. Scarcely had I reached
Question 14: He always did well at school ________ having his early education disrupted by illness.
A. on account of
B. in addition to
C. in spite of
D. even though
Question 15: She was ________ she could not say anything.
A. so surprised at the news that
B. such surprised at the news that
C. so surprised of the news that
D. so that surprised for the news


Question 16: The more he tried to explain, _______ we got.
A. the much confused
B. the much confusing
C. the more confusing
D. the more confused
Question 17: If you ________ Peter, could you tell him to ring me up?
A. come into
B. come over
C. come across
D. come back
Question 18: Doctors are supposed to _______ responsibility for human life.
A. do

B. take
C. rush
D. join
Question 19: “Out of sight, out of ________.” Do you remember this proverb?
A. memory
B. mind
C. heart
D. head
Question 20: When there are small children around, it is better to put breakable ornaments out of
_______.
A. reach
B. hold
C. hand
D. place
Question 21: Candidates have to attach their birth ________ to their applications for this position.
A. certificates
B. diplomas
C. degrees
D. qualifications
Question 22: The lecturer explained the problem very clearly and is always _______ in response to
questions.
A. attention
B. attentively
C. attentive
D. attentiveness
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 23: I am concerned about my children.
A. angry
B. worried

C. happy
D. sad
Question 24: Be careful! The tree is going to fall.
A. Look up
B. Look on
C. Look after
D. Look out
Question 25: Within a week on display at the exhibition, the painting was hailed as a masterpiece.
A. an expensive work of art
B. a down-to-earth work of art
C. an excellent work of art
D. a large work of art
Question 26: It will take more or less a month to prepare for the wedding.
A. approximately
B. simply
C. frankly
D. generally
Question 27: During the earthquake, a lot of buildings collapsed, which killed thousands of people.
A. fell down unexpectedly
B. went off accidentally
C. exploded suddenly
D. erupted violently
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 28: Waiter: “_______________?”
Mr. Smith: “I ordered boiled chicken. This is fried chicken.”
A. How would you like it?
B. Is something the matter, Sir?
C. Would you like boiled chicken or fried chicken?
D. What would you like?

Question 29: David: “How have you been recently?”
Alex: “_____________.”
A. By bus, I think
B. It’s too late now
C. Pretty busy
D. No, I’m not that busy


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 30: Hundred of scientists have been involved in the research.
A
B
C D
Question 31: Without the particularly habitat, the species could not survive.
A
B
C
D
Question 32: I usually talk to a man that ideas are very interesting and creative.
A
B
C
D
Question 33: What we know about certain diseases are still not sufficient to prevent them
A
B
from spreading easily among the population.
C
D

Question 34: George Washington, his portrait appears on the quarter coin and the dollar bill, served
A
B
C
two terms as president.
D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Most people go to a doctor in their own town or suburbs. But people in the Australian outback
can’t get to a doctor quickly. The nearest doctor is sometimes hundreds of kilometers away so they
have to call him on a two-way radio. This special doctor is called the “flying doctor”. He visits sick
people by plane for a special examination.
When someone is sick, the doctor has to fly to the person’s home. His plane lands on a flat
piece of ground near the person’s house. Sometimes the doctor has to take the patient to hospital.
Flying doctors take about 8,600 people to hospital each year.
However, most of the time the person isn’t very sick, and the doctor doesn’t have to visit. He
can give advice on the radio from the office at the flying doctor center. He can tell the patient to use
some medicine from a special medicine chest. There is one of these chests in every home in the
outback. Eachbottle, tube and packet in the chest has a number. The doctor often says something like
this, “Take two tablets from bottle number 5 every four hours.”
A man called John Flynn started the Royal Flying Doctor service in 1927. he had only one
plane. Today there are 14 flying-doctor centers, 29 planes, 14 full-time doctors and several part-time
doctors, nurses and dentists.
Question 35: The flying doctors mentioned in this article treat their patients ____________.
A. in clinics
B. by old methods
C. over great distances
D. by telepathy
Question 36: Which happens first?
A. The doctor flies to the sick person’s home

B. The sick person or his family calls the doctor on a two-way radio
C. The plane lands near the patient’s house
D. The doctor treats the sick person on a two-way radio
Question 37: From the article, we can assume that Australia has quite a number of __________
A. remote areas
B. good highways
C. mountainous regions
D. strange animals