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ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA LẦN 4

TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN TRÃI

NĂM HỌC 2015 - 2016
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút
Mã đề thi 132

Họ, tên thí sinh:..........................................................................
Số báo danh:...............................................................................
I. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
pronunciation in each of the following questions .
Question 1: A. concentrate
B. confine
C. convention
D. conceal
Question 2: A. booked
B. missed
C. described
D. pronounced
II. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the
main stress in each of the following questions .
Question 3: A. capture
B. ensure
C. pleasure
D. picture
Question 4: A. particular

B. circumstances
C. advertisement
D. environment
Question 5: A. museum
B. recommend
C. commitment
D. position
III.Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions .
Question 6: I ______ work last week, but I changed my mind.
A. have started
B. was going to start C. had started
D. would start
Question 7: He came ______ a lot of criticism for the remarks he made in a television interview.
A. out of
B. in for
C. off
D. over
Question 8: When she died, she gave _________ all her money to a charity for cats.
A. off
B. on
C. away
D. out
Question 9: Anna is holding her shopping bag with one hand and turning the door handle
with ______.
A. the other
B. another
C. others
D. other
Question 10: This is valuable _________ chair which dates back to the eighteeth century.

A. traditional
B. old-fashioned
C. antique
D. ancient
Question 11: “What’s the matter? You don’t look very well.” – “I feel a little _____________.”
A. under the weather
B. out of the blue
C. out of order
D. under the impression
Question 12: There's a good film _______ town.
A. in on
B. on in
C. at
D. over
Question 13: Now that Susan has moved to the country, her visits to see in the city are________
A. between few and far
B. far and betwwen
C. between and far
D. few and far between
Question 14: It is a ___________ .
A. blue polyester sleeping bag
B. polyester sleeping blue bag
C. blue sleeping polyester bag
D. sleeping blue polyester bag
Question 15: Where is he? He should __________ at home hours ago.
A. were
B. had been
C. be
D. have been
Question 16: I never read ________ newspapers during the week, but I buy ______Observer every

Sunday and I read it in ________bed.
A. the / the / no article
B. the / a / the
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C. no article / the / no article
D. a / a / the
Question 17: _______ imaginative stories about the origin of the game of chess.
A. Of the many
B. Many of the
C. There are many
D. Many
Question 18: In a formal interview, it is essential to maintain good eye _______ with the
interviewers.
A. touch
B. link
C. contact
D. connection
Question 19: Oil shale is a soft, fine-grained sedimentary rock _______ oil and natural gas are
obtained.
A. is from
B. from which
C. from
D. is which
Question 20: The government was finally ______ by a minor scandal.
A. taken down
B. brought down

C. put back
D. pulled down
Question 21: Ann: “Do you need any help?”
Kate: “______.”
A. No, thanks. I can manage
B. I haven’t got a clue
C. That’s all for now
D. That’s fine by me
Question 22: Unfortunately, the company closed down because it couldn’t keep ________ with
rapidly changing technology
A. speed
B. fast
C. time
D. pace
Question 23: I ______ with my aunt when I am on holiday in Ho Chi Minh City next month.
A. will have been staying
B. stay
C. will be staying
D. will have stayed
Question 24: Never before _______ such a wonderful child.
A. I saw
B. have I seen
C. I had seen
D. I have seen
IV. Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the
underlined words in each of the following sentences.
Question 25: I hope to have the privilege of working with them again.
A. right
B. favor
C. honor

D. advantage
Question 26: Many scientists agree that global warming poses great threats to all species on Earth.
A. irritations
B. annoyances
C. fears
D. risks
Question 27: The works of such men as the English philosophers John Locke and Thomas Hobbes
helped pave the way for academic freedom in the modern sense.
A. prevent
B. terminate
C. lighten
D. initiate
V. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following sentences .
Question 28: Population growth rates vary among regions and even among countries within the
same region.
A. restrain
B. fluctuate
C. remain unstable
D. stay unchanged
Question 29: In some countries, the disease burden could be prevented through environmental
improvements.
A. something to entertain
B. something sad
C. something enjoyable
D. something to suffer
Choose the option among A, B, C, D which needs correcting to make a complete sentence.
Question 30: The camp on the inhospitable, mosquito-infested banks of the River Sekonyer, was set
up to track the primates and learn from their habitat, diet and behavior.
A. diet and behavior. B. mosquito-infested C. set up

D. learn from
Question 31: After writing it, the essay must be duplicated by the student himself and handed into
the department secretary before the end of the month.
A. be
B. into
C. After writing it
D. the end of
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Question 32: Question 55: Professor Jones said that a good way to improve your language are
learning to practise it.
A. to practise
B. said
C. are
D. to improve
Question 33: Abraham Lincoln's boyhood home resembled that of many other mid-western pioneers
with its dirt floor, sleeping loft, and crude fireplace.
A. boyhood home
B. dirt floor
C. crude fireplace
D. that
Question 34: A smile can be observed, described, and reliably identify; it can also be elicited and
manipulated under experimental conditions.
A. experimental
B. smile
C. conditions
D. identify

VI. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions .
The term “art deco” has come to encompass three distinct but related design trends of the 1920’s
and 1930’s. The first was what is frequently referred to as “zigzag moderne” –the exotically
ornamental style of such skyscrapers as the Chrysler Building in New York City and related
structures such as the Paramount Theater in Oakland, California. The word “zigzag” alludes to the
geometric and stylized ornamentation of zigzags, angular patterns, abstracted plant and animal motifs,
sunbursts, astrological imagery, formalized fountains, and related themes that were applied in mosaic
relief and mural form to the exterior and interior of the buildings. Many of these buildings were
shaped in the ziggurat form, a design resembling an ancient Mesopotamian temple tower that
recedes in progressively smaller stages to the summit, creating a staircase-like effect.
The second manifestation of art deco was the 1930’s “streamlined moderne” style—a
Futuristic-looking aerodynamic style of rounded corners and horizontal bands known as “speed
stripes.” In architecture, these elements were frequently accompanied by round windows, extensive
use of glass block, and flat rooftops.
The third style, referred to as “ international stripped classicism” also came to the forefront
during the Depression, a period of severe economic difficult in the 1930’s. This was a more
conservative style, blending a simplified modernistic style with a more austere form of geometric and
stylized relief sculpture and other ornament, including interior murals. May buildings in this style
were erected nationwide through government programs during the Depression .
Although art deco in its many forms was largely perceived as thoroughly modern, it was
strongly influenced by the decorative arts movements that immediately preceded it. For example, like
“art nouveau” (1890-1910), art deco also used plant motifs, but regularized the forms into abstracted
repetitive patterns rather than presenting them as flowing, asymmetrical foliage, Like the Viennese
craftspeople of the Wiener Werkstatte, art deco designers worked with exotic materials,
geometricized shapes, and colorfully ornate patterns. Furthermore, like the artisans of the Arts and
Crafts Movement in England and the United States, art deep practitioners considered it their mission
to transform the domestic environment through well-designed furniture and household accessories.
Question 35: What aspect of art deco does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The influence of art deco on the design of furniture and household accessories

B. Ways in which government programs encouraged the development of art deco
C. Reasons for the popularity of art deco in New York and California
D. Architectural manifestations of art deco during the 1920’s and 1930’s
Question 36: The word “encompass” in line 1 is closest in meaning to ___________ .
A. include
B. Enhance
C. separate
D. replace
Question 37: The phrase “The first” in line 2 refers to __________ .
A. the 1920’s and 1930’s
B. design trends
C. the term “art deco”
D. Skyscrapers
Question 38: In line 8, the author mentions “an ancient Mesopotamian temple tower ” in order to
__________ .
A. emphasize the extent of architectural advances
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B. explain the differences between ancient and modern architectural steles
C. describe the exterior shape of certain “art deco” buildings
D. argue for a return to more traditional architectural design
Question 39: The streamlined moderne style is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT
___________ .
A. animal motifs
B. “speed stripes”
C. round windows
D. flat roofs

Question 40: The phrase “came to the forefront” in line 15 is closest in meaning to _________ .
A. went through a process
B. grew in complexity
C. changed its approach
D. became important
Question 41: According to the passage, which of the following statements most accurately describes
the relationship between art deco and art nouveau?
A. Art deco became important in the United States while art nouveau became popular in England.
B. Art nouveau preceded art deco and influenced it.
C. They were art forms that competed with each other for government support during the
depression era.
D. They were essentially the same art form.
Question 42: According to the passage, a building having an especially ornate appearance would
most probably have been designed in the style of ____________ .
A. classical modern
B. zigzag modern
C. streamlined moderne
D. the Arts and Crafts Movement
Question 43: According to the passage, which of the following design trends is known by more than
one name ?
A. Arts and Crafts Movement
B. International stripped classicism
C. Streamlined modern
D. Zigzag modern
Question 44: The passage is primarily developed as _____________ .
A. an analysis of various trends within an artistic movement
B. the historical chronology of a movement
C. an argument of the advantages of one artistic form over another
D. a description of specific buildings that became famous for their unusual beauty
VII. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate

the correct word for each of the blanks.
British families started going on holiday to the seaside around the middle of the 19th century.
The invention of the railways (45) ____ this possible. The first holidaymakers were quite rich and
went for their health and education. The seaside was a place to be (46) ____ of illness, and doctors
recommended bathing in the sea and drinking sea water. Also to (47) ____ their knowledge, families
attended concerts and read books from the library.
At that time, ordinary working people had very little time (48) ____ work. However, in 1871,
the government introduced four ‘Banking Holiday’ - national holiday days. This (49) ____ people to
have a day or two out, which now and then gave them a taste for leisure and the seaside. At first, they
went on day-trips, taking (50) ____ of special cheap tickets on the railways. By the 1880s, rising
incomes (51) ____ that many ordinary workers and their families could have a week’s holiday at the
seaside. Rail fares were reduced and cheap hotels were built to (52) ____ them. Holidaymakers
enjoyed being idle, sitting on the beach, bathing in the sea, and eating ice-cream. Cheap entertainment
was (53) ____ offer and holidaymakers went to have fun.
Today the English seaside (54) ____ popular, with more than 18 million holidays taken there
each year.
Question 45: A. got
B. had
C. let
D. made
Question 46: A. recovered
B. improved
C. cured
D. remedied
Question 47: A. add
B. increase
C. raise
D. spread
Question 48: A. from
B. out

C. off
D. away
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Question 49: A. allowed
Question 50: A. opportunity
Question 51: A. meant
Question 52: A. board
Question 53: A. on
Question 54: A. stays

B. provided
B. advantage
B. resulted
B. accommodate
B. to
B. continues

C. opened
C. profit
C. produced
C. lodge
C. in
C. lasts

D. offered
D. benefit

D. caused
D. cater
D. for
D. remains

VIII. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions .
An air pollutant is defined as a compound added directly or indirectly by humans to the
atmosphere in such quantities as to affect humans, animals, vegetation, or materials adversely.
Air pollution requires a very flexible definition that permits continuous change. When the first
air pollution laws were established in England in the fourteenth century, air pollutants were
limited to compounds that could be seen or smelled - a far cry from the extensive list of harmful
substances known today. As technology has developed and knowledge of the health aspects of
various chemicals has increased, the list of air pollutants has lengthened. In the future, even
water vapor might be considered an air pollutant under certain conditions.
Many of the more important air pollutants, such as sulfur oxides, carbon monoxide, and
nitrogen oxides, are found in nature. As the Earth developed, the concentration of these
pollutants was altered by various chemical reactions; they became components in
biogeochemical cycles. These serve as an air purification scheme by allowing the compounds to
move from the air to the water or soil. On a global basis, nature's output of these compounds
dwarfs that resulting from human activities.
However, human production usually occurs in a localized area, such as a city. In such a
region, human output may be dominant and may temporarily overload the natural purification
scheme of the cycles. The result is an increased concentration of noxious chemicals in the air.
The concentrations at which the adverse effects appear will be greater than the concentrations
that the pollutants would have in the absence of human activities. The actual concentration need
not be large for a substance to be a pollutant; in fact, the numerical value tells us little until we
know how much of an increase this represents over the concentration that would occur naturally
in the area. For example, sulfur dioxide has detectable health effects at 0.08 parts per million
(ppm), which is about 400 times its natural level. Carbon monoxide, however, has a natural

level of 0.1 ppm and is not usually a pollutant until its level reaches about 15 ppm.
Question 55: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. What constitutes an air pollutant
B. The economic impact of air pollution.
C. How much harm air pollutants can cause.
D. The effects of compounds added to the
atmosphere
Question 56: The word "adversely" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. admittedly
B. quickly
C. considerably
D. negatively
Question 57: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that _______.
A. water vapor is an air pollutant in localized areas
B. the definition of air pollution will continue to change
C. most air pollutants today can be seen or smelled
D. a substance becomes an air pollutant only in cities
Question 58: The word "These" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to_.
A. the components in biogeochemical cycles
B. the various chemical reactions
C. the pollutants from the developing Earth
D. the compounds moved to the water
Question 59: For which of the following reasons can natural pollutants play an important role
in controlling air pollution?
A. They function as part of a purification process.
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B. They occur in greater quantities than other pollutants.
C. They have existed since the Earth developed
D. They are less harmful to living beings than other pollutants.
Question 60: According to the passage, human-generated air pollution in localized regions
_______.
A. will damage areas outside of the localized regions
B. will react harmfully with natural pollutants
C. can be dwarfed by nature's output of pollutants
D. can overwhelm the natural system that removes pollutants
Question 61: The word "localized" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. circled
B. encircled
C. surrounded
D. specified
Question 62: According to the passage, the numerical value of the concentration level of a
substance is only useful if _______.
A. the natural level is also known
B. it can be calculated quickly
C. it is in a localized area
D. the other substances in the area are known
Question 63: The word "detectable" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to_________.
A. beneficial
B. special
C. measurable
D. separable
Question 64: Which of the following is best supported by the passage?
A. Human activities have been effective in reducing air pollution.
B. Scientists should be consulted in order to establish uniform limits for all air pollutants.
C. One of the most important steps in preserving natural lands is to better enforce air pollution
laws.

D. To effectively control pollution, local government should regularly review their air pollution
laws.
WRITING
PART 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the
sentences printed bepore it.
Question 65: He left quietly, so that he wouldn’t disturb the children.
→ So as ....................................................................................................................
Question 66 : There is a rumour that you stole it.
→ It is ………………………………………………………………………………
Question 67: If Mike hadn’t been interested, the trip would have been cancelled.
→ But …………………………………………………………………………
Question 69: Jenny finds it very much relaxing to listen to this wonderful type of music.
→ It’s very much …………………………………………………………………
Question 68: This button mustn’t be touched under any circumstances.
→ Under no.........................................................................................................
Part II. Write a letter to a pen pal about the importance of family in your life and your family
rules ( about 140 words ) .
...........................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................................
- - - THE END - - PART 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the
sentences printed bepore it.
Question 65: He left quietly, so that he wouldn’t disturb the children.
→ So as not to disturb the children, he left quietly.
Question 66 : There is a rumour that you stole it.
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→ It is rumoured that you stole it.
Question 67: If Mike hadn’t been interested, the trip would have been cancelled.
→ But for Mike's interest, the trip would have been cancelled
Question 68: Jenny finds it very much relaxing to listen to this wonderful type of music.
→ It’s very much relaxing for Jenny to listen to this wonderful type of music.
Question 68: This button mustn’t be touched under any circumstances.
→ Under no circumstances should this button be touched.
Part II. Write a letter to a pen pal about the importance of family in your life and your family
rules.
87 Tran Hung Dao street
Thai Binh, Vietnam
23th January, 2016
Dear John,
I have received your letter and I feel so glad when knowing that you had passed your
examinations with good marks. You want me to tell you about my family rules, and the importance of
family in my life? I am always willing to tell you all about my family.
Family rules? It's an interesting topic, isn't it? It may be obvious that every family has its own
rules. Mine has a few, apart from our traditional rules, especially for this school year as I'm in the
final year.First, I'm not allowed to watch TV, nearly no, except when there is a good or interesting
movie or when I have finished all my homework and exercises. And never do my parents let me stay
up so much late at night.Next my parents don't permit me to go out with my friends without necessary
reason for example birthdays.Besides, I have to take a balanced diet to keep fit for my coming exam.
And one more thing I have to keep up is talking on the phone, that is I have to set a limit to my using
of the phone.
For me, family is very important part of my everyday life. It helps me in improving my
personality. It also helps me in shaping my life. It teaches me the value of love, affection, care,
truthfulness and self-confidence and provides me tools and suggestions which are necessary to get
success in life.Family is a place where I can be myself. It is a place where I am accepted for what I

am. This is where I am completely tension free and everyone is there to help me. Family encourages
me when I am surrounded by problems. It helps me survive through tough times and bring joy and
happiness into my life. Now I am preparing for my GCSE examination and the entrance examination.
They are very hard for me, but I try my best to pass the exams with good marks.
I have told you something about my family rules. How about your family rules? Are you ready
to let me know about it? I am really excited to hear about it. And I look forward to hearing from you
soon.
Best wishes to you,
Love,
Nam

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ĐỀ THI MẪU TỐT NGHIỆP THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2016
ĐƠN VỊ: THPT TAM NÔNG
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. technical
B. scholar
C. architect
D. achieve
Question 2: A. accused
B. followed
C. weighed
D. laughed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in
the position of the main stress in the following question.

Question 3: A. opinion
B. believable
C. interesting
Question 4: A. subject
B. retail
C. attend
D. pressure
Question 5: A. interview
B. supportive
C. graduate
D. average
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions
Question 6: When Carol _______ last night, I _______ my favorite show on television
A. was calling- watched
B. called- have watched
C. called- was watching
D. had called- watched
Question 7: Endangered species _______ by the World Wildlife Fund.
A. will protect
B. would protect
C. be protected
D. are protected
Question 8: I’ll get Minh _______ do this for you.
A. do
B. done
C. did
D. to do
Question 9: The voters were overwhelmingly against the candidate _______ proposals called for
higher taxes.

A. who his
B. who he had
C. whose
D. that his
Question 10: It is a top secret. You _______ tell anyone about it.
A. mustn’t
B. needn’t
C. mightn’t
D. need
Question 11: He said that he _______ the Titanic yet.
A. hasn’t seen
B. hadn’t seen
C. didn’t see
D. doesn’t see
Question 12: If it _______ an hour ago, the streets _______ wet now.
A. were raining / will be
B. had rained / would be
C. rained / would be
D. had rained / would have been
Question 13: "When _______?" - "In 1928."
A. penicillin was invented
B. did penicillin invented
C. was penicillin invented
D. did penicillin invent
Question 14: This exercise may ______ with a pencil.
A. be written
B. be to write
C. be writing
D. write
Question 15: He usually travels to _______ Philadelphia by _______ train.

A. Ø / Ø
B. the / a
C. the / the
D. Ø / a
Question 16: This is the first time I attend such an enjoyable wedding party.
A. The first wedding party I attended was enjoyable.

B. I had the first enjoyable wedding party.
C. My attendance at the first wedding party was enjoyable.
D. I have never attended such an enjoyable wedding party before.
Question 17: _______ he drank, _______ he became.
A. More / more violent
B. The most / the most violent
C. The more / the more violent
D. The less / less violent
Question 18: _______ this work _______ before you went to London?
A. Will - have been done
B. Has - been done
C. Will - be done
D. Had - been done
Question 19: Please send us a postcard as soon as you _______ in London.
A. will arrive
B. is going to arrive
C. arrive
D. arrived
Question 20: Books with good stories are often described as _______.
A. swallowing
B. tasting
C. hard-to-put-down

D. hard-to-pick-up
Question 21: The number of _______ for the new position has reached ninety.
A. application
B. applicants
C. apply
D. appliance
Question 22: Ann/ told/ me/ not /tell/ anyone /what/ happened/ night before.
A. Ann said to me please don't tell anyone what happened night before.
B. Ann told to me didn't tell anyone what had happened night before.
C. Ann said me not to tell anyone what happened the night before.
D. Ann told me not to tell anyone what had happened the night before.
Question 23: Of course you can come to the party. _______.
A. The more the merrier
B. The more and the merrier
C. The more and merrier
D. The more and more merrier
Question 24: Toxic chemicals from factories are one of the serious factors that leads wildlife to the
_______ of extinction.
A. wall
B. fence
C. verge
D. bridge
Question 25: At his last attempt, the athlete was successful _______ passing the bar.
A. in
B. for
C. with
D. on
Question 26: You can look up this word in the dictionary.
A. You should buy this dictionary to find the word you need.
B. There are a lot of words in the dictionary for you to look at.

C. The dictionary contains a lot of words except the one you need.
D. You can find the meaning of this word in the dictionary.
Question 27: A nuclear station may take risk going off due to unexpected incidents.
A. exploding
B. demolishing
C. developing
D. running

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) that is CLOSET in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 28: The ASEAN Para-Games are hosted by the same country where the SEA Games took
place.
A. organized
B. impressed
C. participated
D. defended
Question 29: I find it difficult to remain neutral where he’s concerned.
A. objective
B. negative
C. positive
D. middle
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 30: The consequences of the typhoon were disastrous due to the lack of precautionary
measures.
A. serve
B. beneficial
C. physical
D. damaging

Question 31: Unless the two signatures are identical, the bank won’t honor the check.
A. different
B. genuine
C. fake
D. similar
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 32: Lili: “What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary!” - Mary: “_______.”
A. Thank you very much. I am afraid
B. You are telling a lie
C. Thank you for your compliment
D. I don't like your sayings
Question 33: - Mary: “_______?”
- Alice: She is honest and sensitive .
A. What is the main character look like?
B. What is the main character like?
C. Who is the main character?
D. Do you like the main character?
Question 34: - Anna: “I think women are usually more sympathetic than men.”
- Jack: “_______.”
A. No, thanks
B. That’s right!
C. You’re welcome D. Yes, let’s
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 35: In order to be a good worker, you should be hard-working, patient and honesty.
A
B
C
D

Question 36: The larger the room is, more people can sit in it.
A
B
C
D
Question 37: John remembers to go to the circus when he was a child.
A
B
C
D
Question 38: Some underground water is enough safe to drink, but all surface water must be treated.
A
B
C
D
Question 39: It took me a very long time to get off the shock of her death.
A
B
C
D

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
If women choose to pursue a career once they have children, they often miss out on a close (40)
_______ with their children. Helen Jamieson is a mother of three who has given (41) _______ work to
look after her children full-time. She strongly believes that women are pressurized to do too much,
driving themselves to the absolute limit. In her own case, after six years of paid employment, Helen
finally decided to call it a day. She says she initially found it hard being at home, though she never
misses the job itself. She admits that if she had had a brilliant career to begin (42) _______, she might

feel differently now. Financially, she is no worse off (43) _______ before, as the cost of childcare and
commuting exceeded her actual income. (44) _______ the government starts to give other tax
incentives to working parents, she says she will not return to the workplace until her children are grown
up.
Question 40: A. friendship
B. relationship
C. scholarship
D. membership
Question 41: A. out
B. in
C. to
D. up
Question 42: A. up
B. with
C. to
D. at
Question 43: A. as
B. so
C. than
D. then
Question 44: A. Unless
B. If
C. Provided
D. Even if
Reading the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
COLORS AND EMOTIONS
Colors are one of the most exciting experiences in life. I love them, and they are just as
important to me as emotions are. Have you ever wondered how the two are so intimately related?
Color directly affects your emotions. Color both reflects the current state of your emotions, and

is something that you can use to improve or change your emotions. The color that you choose to wear
either reflects your current state of being, or reflects the color or emotion that you need.
The colors that you wear affect you much more than they affect the people around you. Of
course they also affect anyone who comes in contact with you, but you are the one saturated with the
color all day! I even choose items around me based on their color. In the morning, I choose my clothes
based on the color or emotion I need for the day. So you can consciously use color to control the
emotions that you are exposed to, which can help you to feel better.
Color, sound and emotions are all vibrations. Emotions are literally energy in motion; they are
meant to move and flow. This is the reason that real feelings are the fastest way to get your energy in
motion. Also, flowing energy is exactly what creates healthy cells in your body. So, the fastest way to
be healthy is to be open to your real feelings. Alternately, the fastest way to create disease is to inhibit
your emotions.
Question 45: What is the purpose of the passage?
A. To prove the relationship between color and emotion.
B. To show that colors are important for a healthy life.
C. To persuade the reader that colors influence emotions and give a person more energy.
D. To give an objective account of how color affect emotions.
Question 46: The term intimately in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. simply
B. obviously
C. clearly
D. closely

Question 47: The phrase saturated with in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. in need of
B. lacking in
C. covered with
D. bored with
Question 48: What is the main idea of the passage?

A. Emotions and colors are closely related to each other.
B. Colors are one of the most exciting experiences in life.
C. Colorful clothes can change your mood.
D. Colors can help you become more influenced.
Question 49: According to this passage, what creates disease?
A. Ignoring your emotions
B. Exposing yourself to bright color
C. Wearing the color black
D. Being open to your emotions
Question 50: Which of the following can be affected by color?
A. Your need for thrills
B. Your friend’s feelings
C. Your appetite
D. Your mood
Question 51: Why does the author mention that color and emotions are both vibrations?
A. Because they both affect how we feel.
B. Because vibrations make you healthy.
C. To prove the relationship between emotions and color.
D. To show how color can affect energy levels in the body.
Question 52: Who is more influenced by the color you wear?
A. You are more influenced.
B. The people next to you are more influenced.
C. The people far from you are more influenced
D. The people around you are more influenced.
Question 53: According to this passage, what do color, sound and emotions all have in common?
A. They all affect the cells of the body
B. They are all related to health
C. They are all forms of motions
D. None of the above
Question 54: The term they in paragraph 3 refers to _______.

A. affection
B. people
C. emotions
D. colors
Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer.
Since the dawn of time, people have found ways to communicate with one another. Smoke signals
and tribal drums were some of the earliest forms of communication. Letters, carried by birds or by
humans on foot or on horseback, made it possible for people to communicate larger amounts of
information between two places. The telegram and telephone set the stage for more modern means of
communication. With the invention of the cellular phone, communication itself has become mobile.
For you, a cell phone is probably just a device that you and your friends use to keep in touch with
family and friends, take pictures, play games, or send text message. The definition of a cell phone is more
specific. It is a hand- held wireless communication device that sends and receives signals by way of small
special areas called cells.
Walkie-talkies, telephones and cell phones are duplex communication devices. They make it
possible for two people to talk to each other. Cell phones and walkie-talkies are different from regular
phones because they can be used in many different locations. A walkie-talkie is sometimes called a
half-duplex communication device because only one person can talk at a time. A cell phone is a fullduplex device because it uses both frequencies at the same time. A walkie-talkie has only one channel.
A cell phone has more than a thousand channels. A walkie-talkie can transmit and receive signals

across a distance of about a mile. A cell phone can transmit and receive signals over hundreds of miles.
In 1973, an electronic company called Motorola hired Martin Cooper to work on wireless
communication. Motorola and Bell Laboratories (now AT&T) were in a race to invent the first portable
communication device. Martin Cooper won the race and became the inventor of the cell phone. On
April 3, 1973, Cooper made the first cell phone call to his opponent at AT&T while walking down the
streets of New York City. People on the sidewalks gazed at Cooper in amazement. Cooper's phone was
called A Motorola Dyna-Tac. It weighed a whopping 2.5 pounds (as compared to today's cell phones
that weigh as little as 3 or 4 ounces)
After the invention of his cell phone, Cooper began thinking of ways to make the cell phone

available to the general public. After a decade, Motorola introduced the first cell phone for commercial
use. The early cell phone and its service were both expensive. The cell phone itself cost about $ 3,500.
In 1977, AT&T constructed a cell phone system and tried it out in Chicago with over 2,000 customers.
In 1981, a second cellular phone system was started in the Washington D.C. and Baltimore area. It took
nearly 37 years for cell phones to become available for general public use. Today, there are more than
sixty million cell phone customers with cell phones producing over thirty billion dollars per years.
Question 55: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The increasing number of people using cell phone.
B. The difference between cell phones and telephones.
C. The history of a cell phone.
D. How Cooper competed with AT&T.
Question 56: What definition is true of a cell phone?
A. The first product of two famous corporation.
B. A hand-held wireless communication device.
C. Something we use just for playing games.
D. A version of walkie-talkie.
Question 57: What is wrong about a walkie-talkie?
A. It has one channel
B. It was first designed in 1973.
C. It can be used within a distance of a mile. D. Only one person can talk at a time.
Question 58: The word "duplex" is closest meaning to ________.
A. having two parts B. quick
C. modern
D. having defects
Question 59: To whom did Cooper make his first cell phone call?
A. His assistant at Motorola.
B. A person on New York street.
C. A member of Bell Laboratories.
D. The director of his company.
Question 60: How heavy is the first cell phone compared to today's cell phones?

A. ten times as heavy as
B. as heavy as
C. much lighter
D. 2 pounds heavier
Question 61: When did Motorola introduce the first cell phones for commercial use?
A. In 1981
B. In the same years when he first made a cell- phone call
C. In 1983
D. In the same year when AT& T constructed a cell phone system.

Question 62: When did AT&T widely start their cellular phone system?
A. In 2001
B. In 1977
C. In 1981
D. 37 years after their first design
Question 63: What does the word "gazed" mean?
A. looked with admiration
B. angrily looked
C. glanced
D. started conversation
Question 64: The phrase "tried it out" refers to _______.
A. made effort to sell the cell-phone
B. reported on AT& T
C. tested the cell-phone system
D. introduced the cell-phone system
WRITING
Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it.
Question 65: I started learning English seven years ago.

 I have …………………………………………………………………………..
Question 66: My mother prepared breakfast for us. Then she went to work.
 After my mother ……………………………………………………………….
Question 67: I didn’t know how to ride a bike until I was seven.
 It was not ………………………………………………………………………
Question 68: I didn’t have enough money, so I didn’t buy that house.
 Had …………………………………………………………………………….
Question 69: “I didn’t break your window,” the boy said.
 The boy denied ………………………………………………………………...
Part II. In about 120 words, write a paragraph about the formal education system in Vietnam.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Người soạn:
1. Trần Anh Tuấn
2. Lê Thị Thùy Trang
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA 2016
ĐƠN VỊ THPT TAM NÔNG
-----PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM: (0.25/CÂU)

1. D
2. D
3. C
4. D
5. D
6. C
7. D
8. D

9. C
10. A
11. B
12. B
13. C
14. A
15. A
16. D

17. C
18. D
19. C
20. C
21. B
22. D
23. A
24. C

25. A
26. D
27. A

28. A
29. A
30. B
31. A
32. C

33. B
34. B
35. D
36. C
37. A
38. B
39. C
40. B

41. D
42. B
43. C
44. A
45. C
46. D
47. C
48. A

49. A
50. D
51. D
52. A
53. D
54. D

55. C
56. B

PHẦN TỰ LUẬN: (0.1/CÂU)
Part I:
Question 65: I have learnt English for seven years.
Question 66: After my mother had prepared breakfast fro us, she went to bed.
Question 67: It was not until I was seven that I knew how to ride a bike.
Question 68: Had I had enough money, I would have bought that house.
Question 69: The boy denied breaking/having broken my window.
Part II:
1. Nội dung:
- Đúng chủ đề: 0.25đ
- Viết logic, hợp lý: 0,25đ
2. Ngôn ngữ:
- Viết đúng cấu trúc ngữ pháp: 0,25đ
- Sử dụng từ vựng phù hợp và phong phú: 0,25đ
3. Trình bày:
- Viết đủ số từ: 0.25đ
- Mạch lạc, rõ ràng, có ý sáng tạo: 0.25đ
4. Điểm trừ:
- Ngữ pháp: trừ tối đa: 0.125đ
- Chính tả: trừ tối đa: 0.125đ
- Ít hơn số từ qui định: trừ 0.125đ

57. B
58. A
59. D
60. A
61. C

62. C
64. A
64. D

SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO TP. HCM

ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC - 2015-2016

TRƯỜNG THPT PHÚ NHUẬN

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – KHỐI D, A1
Thời gian làm bài:

Mã đề thi 357

90phút

(80 câu trắc nghiệm)

Họ, tên thí sinh:............................................................................... Số báo danh: ............................. Lớp: 12 A ……..
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from that of the rest in each of the following sentences from 1 to 2.
Question 1: A. development

B. entertainment

C. comment

D. environment

Question 2: A. question

B. institution

C. congestion

D. suggestion

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best way to complete each of the sentences from 3
to 7.
Question 3: The car _________ was a white Cadillac.
A. in which the man got

B. which the man got in it

C. the man got in it

D. got in by the man

Question 4: I’d have spent more money in food _________.
A. if I had a job last year

B. were I to have a job last year

C. had I had a job last year

D. should I have a job last year

Question 5: Not until I brought it home, _________.

A. did I recognize the hat was second-hand

B. than I recognized the hat was second-hand

C. that I recognized the hat was second-hand

D. I did recognize the hat was second-hand

Question 6: The children sing loudly _________.
A. were they the winners

B. though they are the winners

C. as if they were the winners

D. as though they are the winners

Question 7: Kate is committed to _________.
A. buying goods from that shop

B. buy goods from that shop

C. that shop for buying goods

D. that shop to buy goods

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that has that same meaning as the
original one from 8 to 12.
Question 8: You are supposed to dress yourself now.
A. You are going to dress yourself.

B. It is time you dressed yourself.

C. You must dress yourself now.

D. It is supposed that you dress yourself.

Question 9: Sam speaks Chinese well and his Japanese is good too.
A. Sam is good at either Chinese or Japanese.

B. Not only does Sam speak Chinese but also Japanese.
C. Sam not only speaks Chinese well but also is good at Japanese.
D. Not only Chinese but also Japanese Sam is good at.
Question 10: Flooding in this region was the result of heavy rain.
A. Flooding in this region was the cause of heavy rain.
B. Heavy rain resulted in flooding in this region.
C. Because of flooding in this region, there was heavy rain.
D. Heavy rain causes flooding in this region.
Question 11: His car has just been stolen.
A. He had had his car stolen

B. He has got someone steal his car.

C. He has just had his car stolen.

D. He has his car stolen

Question 12: “Sorry, Madam. Looking after the garden is not my duty.”
A. He apologized to the woman for not looking after the garden.

B. He said that he was not responsible for looking after the garden.
C. He regretted that he had not looked after the garden.
D. He asked the woman whether looking after the garden was his duty.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 13
to 37.
Question 13: There are many __________ history books in our school library.
A. interesting old American

B. American interesting old

C. interesting American old

D. old American interesting

Question 14: No matter how often I explain it, he doesn’t seem to __________.
A. put it through

B. put it in

C. take it on

D. take it in

Question 15: I’ve got to go – something has just __________ at home and I’m needed there.
A. brought up

B. come up

C. put up

D. turned up

Question 16: They __________ hands to bring up their children.
A. join

B. shake

C. take

D. give

Question 17: She felt _________ to invite all her staff to the party, although she didn’t really want to.
A. required

B. obliged

C. demanded

D. requested

Question 18: Granny is completely deaf. You’ll have to __________ her.
A. put up with

B. bring about

C. make allowance for

D. take advantage of

Question 19: Most comets have two kinds of tails, one made up of dust, __________ made up of electrically

charged particles called plasma.
A. another

B. other ones

C. one another

D. the other

Question 20: She was a __________ little girl who was always playing tricks on people.
A. mischievous

B. ill-behaved

C. well-behaved

Question 21: Social attitudes __________ teacher authority appear to be changing.

D. disobedient

A. for

B. at

C. towards

D. with

Question 22: We are confident that the future may bring about changes, but it will be __________.

A. on hand

B. hand in hand

C. at hand

D. in our hands

Question 23: __________ we have finished the course, we shall start doing more revision work.
A. Now that

B. Ever since

C. By now

D. For now

Question 24: __________ most fruits, cherries must ripen on the vine.
A. Unlike

B. Different

C. Dislike

D. Unlikely

Question 25: I haven’t decided where to spend my holidays. I __________ go to Hawaii.
A. must

B. may

C. will

D. can

Question 26: The last man __________ the office was always Mr. Smith.
A. to leave

B. to be leaving

C. leaving

D. left

Question 27: That restaurant __________ be very good. It’s always full of people.
A. must

B. should

C. can

D. will

Question 28: Mr. Lopes was much disappointed to find the bike he had had __________ went wrong again.
A. repaired it

B. repaired

C. to be repaired

D. it repaired

Question 29: The next train to Manchester__________ at 12:05. So, we still have 15 minutes for lunch.
A. is leaving

B. will leave

C. is going to leave

D. leaves

Question 30: __________ art appreciation is an individual matter, no work of art is ever perceived by two persons
in exactly the same way.
A. Perhaps

B. Because of

C. Since

D. According to

Question 31: I __________ him the truth, for he is telling it to everyone else.
A. should have told

B. mustn’t have told

C. shouldn’t tell

D. can’t have told

Question 32: Up northwest of the US __________ of Washington, although the city of Washington D.C is in the
east.
A. the state is

B. is the state

C. the state are

D. are the state

Question 33: __________when the phone rang.
A. Hardly I came into the room

B. Not until I came into the room

C. No sooner had I come into the room

D. Hardly had I come into the room

Question 34: __________ the population growth, we would not have to face problems of food shortage.
A. If it hadn’t been

B. Were it not for

C. Had it not been

D. Weren’t it for

Question 35: “_________.” – “Thank you for your compliment.”
A. I’m glad you’re well again

B. You look pretty in this dress

C. You’ve done your work

D. This is a present for you

Question 36: “Would you mind helping me?” – “__________.”
A. No, I wouldn’t

B. Yes, I would

C. No, a problem

Question 37: “__________” - “Oh, thank you. I just got it yesterday.”
A. How a beautiful dress you’re wearing!
B. When have you got this beautiful dress?

D. Sure, no problem

C. That’s a beautiful dress you have on!
D. You have just bought this beautiful dress, haven’t you?
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 38 to 47.
The air above our head is becoming cleaner. A breath of fresh air has been running right round the planet for
the past five years. The planet is apparently purging itself of pollution. Paul Novell of the University of Colorado,
the co-author of a report on this phenomenon says, “It seems as if the planet’s own cleaning service has suddenly
got a new lease of life. Suddenly, there are a lot of changes going on up there”.
Estimates of the death toll from urban smog have been steadily rising, so the new cleaner trend could have

significant consequences for life expectancy in cities as well as for the planet itself. The sudden and unexpected
reversal of several decades of worsening pollution extends from the air in city streets to the remotest mid-Pacific
Ocean and Antarctica.
Among the pollutants which have begun to disappear from the atmosphere are carbon monoxide, from car
exhaust and burning rain forests, and methane from the guts of cattle, paddy fields, and gas fields. Even carbon
dioxide, the main gas behind global warning, has fallen slightly.
There are two theories about why pollution is disappearing. First that there is less pollution to start with due to
laws to cut down urban smogs and acid rain starting to have a global impact. Second, that the planet may be
becoming more efficient at cleaning up.
The main planetary clean-up agent is a chemical called hydroxyl. It is present throughout the atmosphere
in tiny quantities and removes most pollutants from the air by oxidizing them. The amount of hydroxyl in the air has
fallen by a quarter in 1980s. Now it may be reviving for two reasons: ironically, because the ozone hole has
expanded, letting in more ultraviolet radiation into the lower atmosphere, where it manufactures hydroxyl. Then
the stricter controls on vehicle exhausts in America and Europe may have cut global carbon monoxide emissions,
thereby allowing more hydroxyl to clean up other pollutants.
Question 38: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The changing pollutants in the atmosphere.

B. The decreasing pollution of the atmosphere.

C. Hydroxyl’s influence on the atmosphere.

D. The oxygenation of the atmosphere.

Question 39: The word “purging” in line 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. filtering

B. refining

C. destroying

D. ridding

Question 40: According to the passage, life expectancy partly depends on people having __________.
A. recommendations from university research

B. improvement in atmosphere conditions

C. access to details about atmospheric pollution

D. changes in their lifestyle

Question 41: The word “toll” in line 5 could best be replaced by__________.
A. count

B. damage

C. costs

D. loss

Question 42: What does the author suggest is the main cause of pollution reduction?
A. Fewer cattle and gas fields.

B. A smaller number of cars.

C. A curtailment of chemicals.

D. Less impact from burning forests.

Question 43: The word “it” in paragraph 5 refers to __________.
A. urban smog

B. the ozone hole

C. acid rain

D. a clean-up agent

Question 44: It can be inferred from the passage that the cleansing of the planet is __________.
A. inexplicable

B. predictable

C. surprising

D. confusing

Question 45: Based on information in the passage, all of the following information referring to hydroxyl is true
EXCEPT __________.
A. oxidization of pollutants is carried out by hydroxyl.
B. there is difficulty in destroying carbon dioxide by hydroxyl.
C. ultraviolet radiation increases production of hydroxyl.
D. the reduction in the ozone layer is beneficial to hydroxyl.
Question 46: The word “reviving” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. reproducing

B. repeating

C. reappearing

D. refreshing

Question 47: The passage supports which of the following conclusions?
A. The decrease of methane has enabled ultraviolet radiation to enter the atmosphere.
B. The beneficial effect of hydroxyl has aided the cleaning process.
C. The reduction in carbon dioxide has produced a cleaner atmosphere.
D. An expansion in hydroxyl has enlarged the ozone hole.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction from 48 to
52.
Question 48: Oil strikes on the (A) North Slope in the (B) Alaska provided the fuel to drive its (C) economic (D)
growth.
Question 49: The sale of pet turtles were banned (A) because of (B) the disease risk they posed to (C) young
children. (D)
Question 50: Belgian chocolate is (A) considered by many (B) to be more finer (C) than any other (D) in the
world.
Question 51: Scientists (A) worry that the continued (B) use of certain pollutions (C) may damage the Earth’s
(D) ozone layer.
Question 52: By the time Jane, the (A) editor and copywriter, (B) comes (C) back, things will change (D)
completely.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best option for
each of the blank from 53 to 62.
2026
We may not be driving around in hover cars or eating tablets instead of (53)__________ food, but in 10 years’
time some things will be very different.
The four – day working week will certainly be a (54)__________, so we’ll have a lot more time for leisure
activities. But what else will be different?

If you ask a hundred people to look (55)__________ the future, you will probably get a hundred different
answers. But two major themes seem to emerge from almost every prediction made.
The first is (56)__________ in every aspect of our lives. We’ll probably be living in what futurologists have
called a ‘multi-option society’. You may be married with two children, but this won’t be the norm any more. It will
simply be one of a number of choices, along with living in groups and living alone.
The other huge (57)__________ on our lives will be micro technology – computers and telecommunications.
Take work, for instance. Factories will be run largely by robots, so they’ll be cleaner places for the few people who
work in them. Offices, too, will go electronic with the result that paper will almost completely disappear. More
people will work from home at computers (58)__________ to a head office. Their homes may even be turned into
‘electronic cottages’, with Mum, Dad and even the children all sharing one or maybe two jobs.
(59)__________ travel, it’s likely that space-shuttle technology will be used in normal air travel, with rocket
motors being used to get an aircraft (60)__________ the Earth’s atmosphere to a height of 300 kilometers. Here
the plane could accelerate up to 15.000 kph before re-entering the atmosphere and landing normally. This would
(61)__________ it possible to go from London to New York for the evening.
Cars will still be with us, although their body panels will probably be plastic so that we can fit on new ones
when they are damaged, or when we get bored with the colour or style. They’ll be fitted with computers to tell us
how efficiently we are driving, and if there’s anything wrong with the engine. And, instead of petrol, they could run
on anything from electricity to methane gas.
One of the most exciting ideas of all is the hologram – a three-dimensional image created by lasers. Eventually
you might be able to watch holograms (62)__________ actually move. Can you imagine watching miniature tennis
players playing the Australian Open finals in your own living-room?
Question 53:

A. tasteful

B. taste

C. tasty

D. tasteless

Question 54:

A. fact

B. truth

C. certainly

D. reality

Question 55:

A. at

B. for

C. into

D. in

Question 56:

A. variability

B. variableness

C. variation

D. variety

Question 57:

A. result

B. effect

C. pressure

D. influence

Question 58:

A. linked

B. fixed

C. attached

D. related

Question 59:

A. As for

B. As if

C. As well as

D. As it is

Question 60:

A. to

B. on

C. through

D. in

Question 61:

A. let

B. make

C. find

D. get

Question 62:

A. which

B. when

C. what

D. who

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position
of the main stress in each of the following sentences from 63 to 65.
Question 63:

A. supportive

B. secondary

C. compulsory

D. contractual

Question 64:

A. category

B. compliment

C. counterpart

D. commitment

Question 65:

A. novel

B. wildlife

C. swallow

D. precede

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 66 to 75.
The period from the late 1930s to the middle 1940s is known as the Golden Age of comic books. The modern
comic book came about in the early 1930s in the United States as a giveaway premium to promote the sales of a
whole range of household products such as cereal and cleansers. The comic books, which were printed in bright
colors to attract the attention of potential customers, proved so popular that some publishers decided to produce
comic books that would come out on a monthly basis and would sell for a dime each. Though comic strips had been
reproduced in publications priors to this time, the famous Funnies comic book, which was started in 1934, marked
the first occasion that a serialized book of comics was attempted.
Early comic books reprinted already existing comic strips and comics based on known characters;
however, publishers soon began introducing original characters developed specifically for comic books. Superman
was introduced in Action Comics in 1938, and Batman was introduced a year later. The tremendous success of
these superhero comic books led to the development of numerous comic books on a variety of topics, though
superhero comic books predominated. Astonishingly, by 1945 approximately 160 different comic books were being
published in the United States each month, and 90 per cent of the U.S children were said to read comic books on a
regular basis.
Question 66: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Heroes of comic books
B. The rise in popularity of comic books in the U.S
C. The variety of topics in comic books
D. The main difference between comic strips and comic books in the U.S
Question 67: It can be inferred from the passage 1 that, at the beginning of the 1930s, comic books most likely
cost __________.
A. 25 cents

B. nothing

C. 10 cents

D. 5 cents

Question 68: Comic books would least likely have been used to promote __________.
A. soap

B. bread

C. cookies

D. jewelry

Question 69: It is implied that Famous Funnies _________.
A. appeared in a magazine

B. had been produced prior to 1934

C. was published on a regular basis

D. was a promotion item

Question 70: The early comic books were mostly based on _________.
A. known characters and reprinted comic strips

B. reprinted books

C. original characters and famous people

D. common events and reprinted stories

Question 71: From the information in paragraph 2, it appears that Superman most likely _________.
A. was a character that first appeared in a comic book
B. first appeared in promotional comic strip
C. first appeared in famous funnies
D. was introduced sometime after Batman
Question 72: It is implied in paragraph 2 that _________.

A. 90 per cent of U.S children did not read comics

B. superheroes were not too popular

C. comic books developed so quickly

D. comic strips were more popular than comic books

Question 73: The word astonishingly is closest in meaning to _________.
A. surprisingly

B. shockingly

C. therefore

D. soon

Question 74: Batman was first introduced _________.
A. in 1939

B. much later than other superhero comic books

C. in a comic strip

D. in 1934

Question 75: The phrase on a regular basis means __________.
A. popularly

B. largely

C. basically

D. regularly

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 76 to 78.
Question 76: Everyone likes him because he is an industrious student.
A. prompt

B. excellent

C. energetic

D. diligent

Question 77: Those who have stressful jobs are vulnerable to depression.
A. susceptible

B. invincible

C. weak

D. defensive

Question 78: To prepare for a job interview, you should jot down your qualifications.
A. what you have experienced

B. your own qualities in real life

C. your big data and special qualities

D. what you have earned through study

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 79 to 80.
Question 79: Names of people in the book were changed to preserve anonymity.
A. conserve
Question 80:

B. reveal

C. cover

D. presume

Polluted water and increased water temperatures have driven many species to the verge of

extinction.
A. Strengthened

B. Enriched

C. Purified

--------------------------------------------------------- THE END OF THE TEST ----------

D. Contaminated

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC NĂM 2016 MÔN ANH
CÂU

MÃ 132

MÃ 209

MÃ 357

MÃ 485

1

C

D

C

B