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20001 TOEFL
Section One: Listening Comprehension
1. (A) Spend more time working on calculus
problems.
(B) Talk to an advisor about dropping the
course.
(C) Work on the assignment with a classmate.
(D) Ask the graduate assistant for help.

8. (A) She disagrees with the man.
(B) She doesn't enjoy long speeches.
(C) She hadn't known how long the speech
would be.
(D) She doesn't have a strong opinion about the
speaker

2. (A) Go home to get a book.
(B) Return a book to the library.
(C) Pick up a book at the library for the woman.
(D) Ask the librarian for help in finding a book.

9. (A) He makes more money than the woman.
(B) He's satisfied with his job.
(C) He had trouble finding a job.
(D) He doesn't like working outdoors.

3. (A) The woman could use his metric ruler.
(B) He'll finish taking the measurements for the
woman.
(C) The woman's ruler is better than his.
(D) He's faster at making the conversions than

the woman.

10. (A) He has already finished his report.
(B) He hasn't chosen a topic for his report.
(C) The woman's report is already long
enough.
(D) The woman will have time to finish her
report

4. (A) She wants the man to attend the
tournament with her.
(B) The tournament begins next week.
(C) The man should check with his doctor again
(D) She hopes the man will be able to play in
the tournament.

11. (A) She'll speak to Larry about the problem.
(B) Larry has apologized to his roommate.
(C) Larry should find a new roommate.
(D) Larry's roommate may be partly
responsible for the problem.
12. (A) The man should take his vacation
somewhere else.
(B) She doesn't know when her semester ends.
(C) She hasn't called the travel agent yet
(D) The man may have to reschedule his trip.

5. (A) The advisor has already approved the
man's class schedule.
(B) The man should make an appointment to

see his advisor.
(C) The man should change his course schedule.
(D) The man should sign the document before
leaving.

13. (A) She didn't work hard enough on it
(B) It wasn't as good as she thought
(C) Her professor was pleased with it.
(D) It was written according to the professor's
guidelines.

6. (A) She didn't teach class today.
(B) She noticed that the students didn't do their
homework.
(C) She usually assigns homework.
(D) She usually talks quietly.

14. (A) Go to the ballet later in the year.
(B) Take ballet lessons with his sister.
(C) Get a schedule of future performances.
(D) Get a ticket from his sister.

7. (A) It started to rain when she was at the
beach.
(B) She'd like the man to go to the beach with
her.
(C) The forecast calls for more rain tomorrow.
(D) She won't go to the beach tomorrow if it
rains.

15. (A) Her hotel is located far from the
conference center
(B) She didn't want to stay at the Gordon.
(C) The man should consider moving to a
different hotel.
(D) She isn't sure how to get to the conference

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24. (A) His house can accommodate a meeting
of the entire committee.
(B) The woman should find out when the
meeting starts.
(C) The meeting should be held at the library.
(D) A smaller committee should be formed.

center.
16. (A) Few readers agreed with his ideas.
(B) Very few people have read his article.
(C) He doesn't expect the article to be
published.
(D) The woman doesn't fully understand the
article,

25. (A) She doesn't have time to collect the data.
(B) She prefers to wait until after the election.
(C) She needs to decide on a method soon.
(D) She'll send out the questionnaire in a
month.

17. (A) He'll go with the woman to the next
hockey game.
(B) He missed the hockey game because he
was ill.
(C) He forgot about the hockey game.
(D) He doesn't like to go to hockey games.

26. (A) He's angry with the woman,
(B) He feels sick.
(C) He doesn't get along well with some
people.
(D) He prefers to study alone.

18. (A) Karen can drive to the airport on
Tuesday.
(B) Karen can attend the meeting on Tuesday.
(C) Karen had to change her plans at the last
minute.
(D) Karen is returning from a trip on Tuesday.

27. (A) It provides reading material for people
waiting to get in.
(B) He had to wait a long time for a seat there.
(C) He wasn't able to find a seat there.
(D) The seats used there are uncomfortable.

19. (A) Call her after five.
(B) Make calls from her phone.
(C) Go to the meeting with her.

(D) Fix her phone.

28. (A) Students still have time to apply for a
loan.
(B) Students must wait until next month to
submit loan applications.
(C) The woman should find out whether
her loan application was accepted.
(D) The woman should ask for an extension
on the application deadline.

20. (A) Look for more information for their
financial plan.
(B) Ask for more time to finish their financial
plan.
(C) Finish their financial plan with the
material available to them.
(D) Turn in their financial plan late.

29. (A) The casserole usually contains fewer
vegetables.
(B) She wishes she hadn't ordered the
casserole
(C) The cafeteria usually uses canned
vegetables.
(D) She doesn't usually eat in the cafeteria,

21. (A) He doesn't want to drive anymore.
(B) The road to Bridgeport just opened.
(C) It doesn't take long to get to Bridgeport.

(D) He has memorized every part of the drive.
22. (A) She doesn't have time to work in a
garden.
(B) She'll consider the man's invitation.
(C) She doesn't want to join a gardening club.
(D) She was never formally invited to join a
gardening club.

30. (A) Stay in the dormitory.
(B) Find out the cost of living in the dormitory.
(C) Ask for a reduction in her rent.
(D) Move into an apartment with a roommate.
31. (A) They're classmates.
(B) They're roommates.
(C) They're cousins.
(D) They're lab partners.

23. (A) She's enjoying the music.
(B) The music will keep her awake.
(C) The music doesn't bother her .
(D) She would prefer a different style of music.

32. (A) He couldn't decide on a topic for his

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paper.
(B) He thought his paper was late.
(C) He hadn't heard from his family in a while.

(D) He thought the woman had been ill.

(C) It's familiar to most audiences in the
United States.
(D) The students heard it performed in
New York City.

33. (A) To find their way back to the nest.
(B) To locate plant fibers.
(C) To identify kinds of honey.
(D) To identify relatives.

41. (A) The director is of African ancestry.
(B) The director wanted the songs in the
Broadway version to be identical to the
songs in the film.
(C) The Broadway version was first performed
in Africa.
(D) The story takes place in Africa.

34. (A) Visit his parents.
(B) Write a paper.
(C) Observe how bees build nests
(D) Plan a family reunion.

42. (A) A type of music that originated in
Indonesia.
(B) The meaning of non-English words used in
a song
(C) The plot of The Lion King

(D) Popular rock and jazz music performed in

35. (A) An alternative use of fuel oil.
(B) A way to make fuel oil less polluting.
(C) A new method for locating underground
oil.
(D) A new source of fuel oil

43. (A) How ancient philosophers measured the
distance between heavenly bodies.
(B) How ancient philosophers explained the
cause of an eclipse of the Moon.
(C) Why ancient philosophers thought the
Earth was a sphere.
(D) Why ancient philosophers thought the
Earth moved around the Sun.

36. (A) She was doing research for a paper on it,
(B) She read a newspaper article about it.
(C) She was told about it by her roommate.
(D) She heard about it in class.
37. (A) To produce a gas containing carbon and
hydrogen.
(B) To remove impurities from methanol.
(C) To heat the reactors
(D) To prevent dangerous gases from forming

44. (A) How the natural world was described
in Greek mythology.
(B) What they observed directly.

(C) The writings of philosophers from other
societies.
(D) Measurements made with scientific
instruments.

38. (A) It hasn't been fully tested.
(B) It's quite expensive.
(C) It uses up scarce minerals.
(D) The gas it produces is harmful to the
environment.

45. (A) They noticed an apparent change in the
position of the North Star.
(B) They observed eclipses at different times
of the year.
(C) They were the first to estimate the distance
between heavenly bodies.
(D) They wanted to prove that the Earth was
flat.

39. (A) The influence of European popular
music
on non-Western music.
(B) The musical background of the director of
the Broadway version of The Lion King
(C) The types of music used in the Broadway
version of The Lion King.
(D) Differences between the music of the
film version and the Broadway version
of The Lion King.

46. (A) A place for making astronomical
observations.
(B) An instrument used for observing stars.
(C) A unit of measurement.
(D) The North Star.

40. (A) It was performed by the Zulu people of
South Africa.
(B) It developed outside the musical
traditions of Europe.

47. (A) One of the students asked him about it in

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the previous class.
(B) He read about it the previous day.
(C) He had just read Dr. Frederick Cock's
travel log
(D) The students were required to read about
it for that day's class

49. (A) They talked to one of Peary's
companions.
(B) They interviewed Peary.
(C) They conducted a computer analysis of
photographs.
(D) They examined Peary's navigation tools,

48. (A) That Peary bad announced his success
prematurely.
(B) That the investigation of Peary's
expedition wasn't thorough.
(C) That Peary wasn't an experienced explorer.
(D) That he had reached the pole before Peary
did.

50. (A) Dr. Cook's expedition.
(B) The conclusions of the Navigation

Foundation.
(C) Exploration of the Equator.
(D) Exploration of the South Pole.

Section Two: Structure and Written Expression
5. Protein digestion begins in the stomach
____ends in the small intestine.
(A) while
(B) and
(C) how
(D) because

1. Amanda Way's career as a social
reformer____ in 1851 when, at an antislavery
meeting
in Indiana, she called for a state woman's rights
convention.
(A) begin

(B) began
(C) have begun
(D) to have begun

6. When natural gas burns, its___ into atoms of
carbon and hydrogen.
(A) hydrocarbon molecules, breaking up
(B) broke up by hydrocarbon molecules
(C) hydrocarbon molecules break up
(D) broken up hydrocarbon molecules

2. The celesta, an orchestral percussion
instrument, resembles___
(A) a small upright piano
(B) how a small upright piano
(C) a small upright piano is
(D) as a small upright piano

7. _____ ballet dancers learn five basic positions
for the arms and feet.
(A) All of
(B) Of every
(C) All
(D) Every

3. Thomas Paine, _____, wrote Common Sense,
a pamphlet that identified the American colonies
with the cause of liberty.
(A) writer of eloquent
(B) whose eloquent writing

(C) an eloquent writer
(D) writing eloquent

8. Some colonies of bryozoans, small marine
animals, form ___with trailing stems.
(A) creeping colonies
(B) which colonies creep
(C) creeping colonies are
(D) colonies creep

4. Although beavers rarely remain submerged
for more than two minutes, they can stay
underwater ___fifteen minutes before having to
surface for air.
(A) as long
(B) as long as
(C) so long
(D) so long that

9. Ruth Bader Ginsburg argued six women's
rights cases before the United States Supreme
Court in the 1970's,____
(A) of five winning them
(B) five winning of them
(C) of them five winning

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(D) winning five of them

(D) that not

10. Natural selection is defined as the process
___the course of evolution by preserving those
traits best adapted for an organism's survival.
(A) to which directs
(B) of which directs it
(C) directs it
(D) that directs

13. ____ is rooted in experiments in iron and
steel conducted in the nineteenth century.
(A) While the history of twentieth-century
architecture
(B) The history of twentieth-century architecture
(C) That the history of twentieth-century
architecture
(D) Both twentieth-century architecture and its
history

11. ____ 363 miles between the cities of Albany
and Buffalo in New York State, the Eric Canal
helped link the Atlantic Ocean with the Great
Lakes.
(A) The extension of
(B) The extension
(C) Extending
(D) Extends

14.The primary source of energy for tropical
cyclones is the latent heat released when ____
(A) does water vapor condense
(B) condensed water vapor
(C) water vapor condenses
(D) the condensation of water vapor
15. Manufacturing is Canada's most important
economic activity, ____17 percent of the
workforce.
(A) engages
(B) and to engage
(C) that it engage
(D) engaging

12.The chief sources of B12,a water-soluble
vitamin ____ stored in the body, include meat,
milk and eggs.
(A) is not
(B) that is not
(C) not that is

16. The outer layer of the heart, called the pericardium, forms a sac in what the
A
B
C
D
heart lies.
17. Wood from the ash tree becomes extremely flexibly when it is exposed to steam.
A
C

D
18. The ability to talk is one of the skill that make humans different from the
A
B
C
rest of the animal world.
D
19. In plane geometry, the sum of the internal angles of any triangle
A
B
C
has always equal to 180 degrees.
D
20. Polar bears are bowlegged and pigeon-toed, adaptations that enable this
A
B
massive animals to maintain their balance as they walk.
C
21. Caves are formed by the chemical or action mechanical of water on soluble

5

B

D


A
B
rock, by volcanic activity, and by earthquakes.

C
D
22. Celery, an edible plant is having long stalks topped with feathery leaves,
A
B
grows best in cool weather.
D
23. The first fiction writer in the United States to achieve international fame
A
B
was Washington Irving, who wrote many stories, included " Rip Van Winkle" and

C

C

D
"The Legend of Sleepy Hollow".
24. Three fundamental aspects of forest conversation are the protection of
A
immature trees, the use of proper harvesting methods, and provide for an
B
C
environment that supports reproduction.
D
25. For each enzyme reaction there is an optimum temperature which maximum
A
B
C
efficiency is achieved.

D
26. Adolescence is a transitional stage in human development from the beginning
A
B
of puberty to the attainment of the emotion, social, and physical maturity of
C
adulthood.
D
27. The people native to the northwest coast of North American have long
A
be known for wood carvings of stunning beauty and extraordinary quality.
B
C
D
28. Colonial efforts to manufacture glass at Jamestown---- and later attempts
A
B
near Philadelphia and Boston---failed despite the abundant of fuel and good raw
C
materials.
D
29. The orbit of a celestial body is usually in the shape of ellipse.
A
B
C
D
30. Chicago is the third largest publishing center in the United States,

6

A
B
C
exceeding only by New York City and San Francisco.
D
31. North American bison differ from domestic cattle in have 14 rather than 13
A
B
C
D
pairs of ribs.
32. Female sea turtles, before laying her eggs, swim as much as 2,000 kilometers
A
B
to return to the beaches where they themselves were hatched.
C
D
33. Water is the only substance that occur at ordinary temperatures in all three
A
B
C
states of matter: solid, liquid and gas.
D
34. Despite the growth of manufacturing and other industries, the economy
A
B
of the state of Texas has remained heavily dependence on oil and gas.
C
D

35. Lyndon B. Johnson was the only United States President who oath of office was
A
B
C
administered by a woman Judge Sarah Tilghman Hughes.
D
36. It took more than fourteen years to carve the faces of four United States
A
B
C
Presidents into the granite cliffs to Mount Rushmore, South Dakota.
D
37.Charles Bullfinch was the architect who design the original red brick core of
A
B
C
the State House in Boston.
D
38.Rarely has a technological development had as great an impact on as much
A
B
aspects of social, economic, and cultural development as the growth of
C
D
electronics.
39. Lowell, Massachusetts, known as the "Spindle City" since 1822 when its first
A
B
textile mills were built, attracted worldwide attention as textile center.
C

D
40.Strange Victory, Sara Teas dale's smallest and most perfect collection
A
B
of poems, appear in print in 1933.
C
D

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Section Three: Reading Comprehension
Questions 1-10
As Philadelphia grew from a small town into a city in the first half of the eighteenth
century, it became an increasingly important marketing center for a vast and growing
agricultural hinterland. Market days saw the crowded city even more crowded, as
line fanners from within a radius of 24 or more kilometers brought their sheep, cows, pigs,
(5) vegetables, cider, and other products for direct sale to the townspeople. The High Street
Market was continuously enlarged throughout the period until 1736, when it reached
from Front Street to Third. By 1745 New Market was opened on Second Street
between Pine and Cedar. The next year the Callowhill Market began operation.
Along with market days, the institution of twice-yearly fairs persisted in
(10) Philadelphia even after similar trading days had been discontinued in other colonial
cities. The fairs provided a means of bringing handmade goods from outlying places to
would-be buyers in the city. Linens and stockings from Germantown, for example,
were popular items.
Auctions were another popular form of occasional trade. Because of the
(15) competition, retail merchants opposed these as well as the fairs. Although
governmental attempts to eradicate fairs and auctions were less than successful, the
ordinary course of economic development was on the merchants' side, as increasing

business specialization became the order of the day. Export merchants became
differentiated from their importing counterparts, and specialty shops began to appear in
(20) addition to general stores selling a variety of goods.
One of the reasons Philadelphia's merchants generally prospered was because the
surrounding area was undergoing tremendous economic and demographic growth.
They did their business, after all, in the capital city of the province. Not only did they
cater to the governor and his circle, but citizens from all over the colony came to the
(25) capital for legislative sessions of the assembly and council and the meetings of the
courts of justice.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) Philadelphia's agriculture importance
(B) Philadelphia's development as a marketing
center
(C) The sale of imported goods in Philadelphia
(D) The administration of the city of
Philadelphia

(D) region

2. It can be inferred from the passage that new
markets opened in Philadelphia because
(A) they provided more modem facilities than
older markets
(B) the High Street Market was forced to close
(C) existing markets were unable to serve the
growing population
(D) farmers wanted markets that were closer
to the farms.

5. The word "persisted" in line 9 is closest in

meaning to
(A) returned
(B) started
(C) declined
(D) continued

4. The word "it" in line 6 refers to
(A) the crowded city
(B) a radius
(C) the High Street Market
(D) the period

6. According to the passage, fairs in
Philadelphia
were held
(A) on the same day as market says
(B) as often as possible
(C) a couple of times a year
(D) whenever the government allowed it

3. The word "hinterland " in line 3 is closest in
meaning to
(A) tradition
(B) association
(C) produce

8


17 that "economic development was on the

merchants' side "?
(A) Merchants had a strong impact on
economic expansion.
(B) Economic forces allowed merchants to
prosper.
(C) Merchants had to work together to
achieve economic independence
(D) Specialty shops near large markets were
more likely to be economically
successful.

7. It can be inferred that the author mentions
"Linens and stockings" in line 12 to show that
they were items that
(A) retail merchants were not willing to sell
(B) were not available in the stores in
Philadelphia
(C) were more popular in Germantown man
in Philadelphia
(D) could easily be transported
8. The word "eradicate" in line 16 is closest in
meaning to
(A) eliminate
(B) exploit
(C) organize
(D) operate

10. The word "undergoing" in line 22 is closest
in meaning to
(A) requesting

(B) experiencing
(C) repeating
(D) including

9. What does the author mean by stating in line

Questions 11-22
Aviculturists, people who raise birds for commercial sale, have not yet learned
how to simulate the natural incubation of parrot eggs in the wild. They continue
to look for better ways to increase egg production and to improve chick survival rates.
line When parrots incubate their eggs in the wild, the temperature and humidity of the
(5) nest are controlled naturally. Heat is transferred from the bird's skin to the top portion
of the eggshell, leaving the sides and bottom of the egg at a cooler temperature. This
temperature gradient may be vital to successful hatching. Nest construction can
contribute to this temperature gradient Nests of loosely arranged sticks, rocks, or dirt
are cooler in temperature at the bottom where the egg contacts the nesting material.
(10) Such nests also act as humidity regulators by allowing rain to drain into the bottom
sections of the nest so that the eggs are not in direct contact with the water. As the
water that collects in the bottom of the nest evaporates, the water vapor rises and is
heated by the incubating bird, which adds significant humidity to the incubation
environment
(15) In artificial incubation programs, aviculturists remove eggs from the nests of parrots
and incubate them under laboratory conditions. Most commercial incubators heat the
eggs fairly evenly from top to bottom, thus ignoring the bird's method of natural
incubation, and perhaps reducing the viability and survivability of the hatching chicks.
When incubators are not used, aviculturists sometimes suspend wooden boxes outdoors
(20) to use as nests in which to place eggs. In areas where weather can become cold after
eggs are laid, it is very important to maintain a deep foundation of nesting material to
act as insulator against the cold bottom of the box. If eggs rest against the wooden
bottom in extremely cold weather conditions, they can become chilled to a point where

the embryo can no longer survive. Similarly, these boxes should be protected from
(25) direct sunlight to avoid high temperatures that are also fatal to the growing embryo.
Nesting material should be added in sufficient amounts to avoid both extreme
temperature situations mentioned above and assure that the eggs have a soft, secure
place to rest.
11. What is the main idea of the passage?
(A) Nesting material varies according to the
parrots' environment.

(B) Humidity is an important factor in
incubating parrots' eggs.
(C) Aviculturists have constructed the ideal

9


eggshell

nest box for parrots.
(D) Wild parrots' nests provide information
useful for artificial incubation.

17. The word "suspend" in line 19 is closest in
meaning to
(A) build
(B) paint
(C)hang
(D) move

12. The word "They" in line 2 refers to

(A) aviculturists
(B)birds
(C)eggs
(D) rates

18. The word "fatal" in line 25 is closest in
meaning to
(A) close
(B) deadly
(C) natural
(D) hot

13. According to paragraph 2, when the
temperature of the sides and bottom of the egg
are cooler than the top, then
(A) there may be a good chance for
successful incubation
(B) the embryo will not develop normally
(C) the incubating parent moves the egg to
a new position.
(D) the incubation process is slowed down

19. The word "secure" in line 27 is closest in
meaning to
(A) fiesh
(B)diy
(C)safe
(D)warm

14. According to paragraph 2, sticks, rocks, or

dirt are used to
(A) soften the bottom of the nest for the newly
hatched chick
(B) hold the nest together
(C) help lower the temperature at the bottom of
the nest
(D) make the nest bigger

20. According to paragraph 3, a deep foundation
of nesting material provides
(A) a constant source of humidity
(B) a strong nest box
(C) more room for newly hatched chicks
(D) protection against cold weather

15. According to paragraph 2, the construction
of the nest allows water to
(A) provide a beneficial source of humidity
in the nest
(B) loosen the materials at the bottom of the
nest
(C) keep the nest in a clean condition
(D) touch the bottom of the eggs

21. Which of the following is a problem with
commercial incubators?
(A) They lack the natural temperature changes
of the outdoors.
(B) They are unable to heat the eggs evenly
(C) They do not transfer heat to the egg in the

same way the parent bird does.
(D) They are expensive to operate.

16. All of the following are part of a parrot's
incubation method EXCEPT
(A) heating the water vapor as it rises from the
bottom of the nest
(B) arranging nesting material at the bottom of
the nest
(C) transferring heat from the parent to the top
of the eggshell
(D) maintaining a constant temperature on the

22. Which of the following terms is defined in
the passage?
(A) Aviculturists (line I)
(B) Gradient (line 8)
(C) Incubation (line 15)
(D) Embryo (line 24)

Questions 23-33
The mineral particles found in soil range in size from microscopic clay particles
to large boulders. The most abundant particles—sand, silt, and clay—are the focus
of examination in studies of soil texture. Texture is the term used to describe the
line composite sizes of particles in a soil sample, typically several representative handfuls.

10


(5) To measure soil texture, the sand, silt, and clay particles are sorted out by size and

weight. The weights of each size are then expressed as a percentage of the sample
weight.
In the field, soil texture can be estimated by extracting a handful of sod and
squeezing the damp soil into three basic shapes; (1) cast, a lump formed by squeezing
(10) a sample in a clenched fist; (2) thread, a pencil shape formed by rolling soil between
the palms; and (3) ribbon, a flatfish shape formed by squeezing a small sample between
the thumb and index finger. The behavioral characteristics of the soil when molded into
each of these shapes, if they can be formed at all, provides the basis for a general
textural classification. The behavior of the soil in the hand test is determined by the
(15) amount of clay in the sample. Clay particles are highly cohesive, and when dampened,
behave as a plastic. Therefore the higher the clay content in a sample, the more refined
and durable the shapes into which it can be molded.
Another method of determining soil texture involves the use of devices called
sediment sieves, screens built with a specified mesh size. When the soil is filtered
(20) through a group of sieves, each with a different mesh size, the particles become
grouped in corresponding size categories. Each category can be weighed to make a
textural determination. Although sieves work well for silt, sand, and larger particles,
they are not appropriate for clay particles. Clay is far too small to sieve accurately;
therefore, in soils with a high proportion of clay, the fine particles are measured on the
(25) basis of their settling velocity when suspended in water .Since clays settle so slowly,
they are easily segregated from sand and silt. The water can be drawn off and
evaporated, leaving a residue of clay, which can be weighed.
shapes

23. What does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) Characteristics of high quality soil
(B) Particles typically found in most soils
(C) How a high clay content affects the
texture of soil
(D) Ways to determine the texture of soil

27. The word "dampened" in line 15 is closest in
meaning to
(A) damaged
(B) stretched
(C) moistened
(D) examined

24. The author mentions "several representative
handrals" in line 4 in order to show
(A) the range of soil samples
(B) the process by which soil is weighed
(C) the requirements for an adequate soil
sample
(D) how small soil particles are

28. Which of the following can be inferred from
the passage about a soil sample with little or
no clay in it?
(A) It is not very heavy.
(B) It may not hold its shape when molded.
(C) Its shape is durable
(D) Its texture cannot be classified

25. The phrase "sorted out" in line 5 is closest in
meaning to
(A) mixed
(B) replaced
(C) carried
(D) separated

29. The word "they" in line 23 refers to
(A) categories
(B) sieves
(C) larger particles
(D) clay particles

26. It can be inferred mat the names of the three
basic shapes mentioned in paragraph 2 reflect
(A) the way the soil is extracted
(B) the results of squeezing the soil
(C) the need to check more than one
handful
(D) the difficulty of forming different

30. It can be inferred from the passage that the
sediment sieve has an advantage over the hand
test in determining soil texture because
(A) using the sieve takes less time
(B) the sieve can measure clay
(C) less training is required to use the sieve

11


meaning to
(A) tiny
(B) many
(C) excellent
(D) various

(D) the sieve allows for a more exact
measure
31. During the procedure described in paragraph
3, when clay particles are placed into water
they
(A) stick to the sides of the water container
(B) take some time to sink to the bottom
(C) separate into different sizes
(D) dissolve quickly

33. All of the following words are defined in the
passage EXCEPT
(A) texture (line 3)
(B) ribbon (line 11)
(C) sediment sieves (line 19)
(D) evaporated (line 27)

32. The word "fine" in line 24 is closest in

Questions 34-43
A number of factors related to the voice reveal the personality of the speaker.
The first is the broad area of communication, which includes imparting information
by use of language, communicating with a group or an individual, and specialized
line communication through performance. A person conveys thoughts and ideas through
(5) choice of words, by a tone of voice that is pleasant or unpleasant, gentle or harsh, by
the rhythm that is inherent within the language itself, and by speech rhythms that are
flowing and regular or uneven and hesitant, and finally, by the pitch and melody of the
utterance. When speaking before a group, a person's tone may indicate unsureness or
fright, confidence or calm. At interpersonal levels, the tone may reflect ideas and

(10) feelings over and above the words chosen, or may belie them. Here the conversant's
tone can consciously or unconsciously reflect intuitive sympathy or antipathy, lack of
concern or interest, fatigue, anxiety, enthusiasm or excitement, all of which are .usually
discernible by the acute listener. Public performance is a manner of communication
that is highly specialized with its own techniques for obtaining effects by voice and /or
(15) gesture. The motivation derived from the text, and in the case of singing, the music, in
combination with the performer's skills, personality, and ability to create empathy will
determine the success of artistic, political, or pedagogic communication.
Second, the voice gives psychological clues to a person's self-image, perception of
others, and emotional health. Self-image can be indicated by a tone of voice that is
(20) confident, pretentious, shy, aggressive, outgoing, or exuberant, to name only a few
personality traits. Also the sound may give a clue to the facade or mask of that person,
for example, a shy person hiding behind an overconfident front. How a speaker
perceives the listener's receptiveness, interest, or sympathy in any given conversation
can drastically alter the tone of presentation, by encouraging or discouraging the
(25) speaker. Emotional health is evidenced in the voice by free and melodic sounds of the
happy, by constricted and harsh sound of the angry, and by dull and lethargic qualities
of the depressed
(A) Feelings are expressed with different words
than ideas are.
(B) The tone of voice can cany information
beyond the meaning of words.
(C) A high tone of voice reflects an emotional
communication.
(D) Feelings are more difficult to express than
ideas.

34. What does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) The function of the voice in performance
(B) The connection between voice and

personality
(C) Communication styles
(D) The production of speech
35. What does the author mean by staring that,
"At interpersonal levels, tone may reflect ideas
and feelings over and above the words chosen"
(lines 9-10)?

36. The word "Here" in line 10 refers to
(A) interpersonal interactions

12


front may hide
(A) hostility
(B) shyness
(C) friendliness
(D) strength

(B) the tone
(C) ideas and feelings
(D) words chosen
37. The word "derived" in line 15 is closest in
meaning to
(A) discussed
(B) prepared
(C) registered
(D) obtained

41. The word "drastically" in line 24 is closest in
meaning to
(A) frequently
(B) exactly
(C) severely
(D) easily

38. Why does the author mention "artistic,
political, or pedagogic communication" in line
17?
(A) As examples of public performance
(B) As examples of basic styles of
communication
(C) To contrast them to singing
(D) To introduce the idea of self-image

42. The word "evidenced" in line 25 is closest in
meaning to
(A) questioned
(B) repeated

(C) indicated
(D) exaggerated

39. According to the passage, an exuberant tone
of voice, may be an indication of a person's
(A) general physical health
(B) personality
(C) ability to communicate
(D) vocal quality

43. According to the passage, what does a
constricted and harsh voice indicate?
(A) Lethargy
(B) Depression
(C) Boredom
(D) Anger

40. According to the passage, an overconfident

Questions 44-50
As the twentieth century began, the importance of formal education in the United
States increased The frontier had mostly disappeared and by 1910 most Americans
lived in towns and cities. Industrialization and the bureaucratization of economic
line life combined with a new emphasis upon credentials and expertise to make schooling
(5) increasingly important for economic and social mobility. Increasingly, too, schools
were viewed as the most important means of integrating immigrants into American
society.
The arrival of a great wave of southern and eastern European immigrants at the turn
of the century coincided with and contributed to an enormous expansion of formal
(10) schooling. By 1920 schooling to age fourteen or beyond was compulsory in most
states, and the school year was greatly lengthened. Kindergartens, vacation schools,
extracurricular activities, and vocational education and counseling extended the
influence of public schools over the lives of students, many of whom in the larger
industrial cities were the children of immigrants. Classes for adult immigrants were
(15) sponsored by public schools, corporations, unions, churches, settlement houses, and
other agencies.
Reformers early in the twentieth century suggested that education programs should
suit the needs of specific populations. Immigrant women were one such population.
Schools tried to educate young women so they could occupy productive places in the

(20) urban industrial economy, and one place many educators considered appropriate for
women was the home.
Although looking after the house and family was familiar to immigrant women,
American education gave homemaking a new definition. In preindustrial economies,

13


homemaking had meant the production as well as the consumption of goods, and it
(25) commonly included income-producing activities both inside and outside the home,
in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States, however,
overproduction rather than scarcity was becoming a problem. Thus, the ideal American
homemaker was viewed as a consumer rather than a producer. Schools trained women
to be consumer homemakers cooking, shopping, decorating, and caring for children
(30) "efficiently" in their own homes, or if economic necessity demanded, as employees
in the homes of others. Subsequent reforms have made these notions seem quite
out-of-date.
44. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that one
important factor in the increasing importance
of education in the United States was
(A) the growing number of schools in frontier
communities
(B) an increase in the number of trained
teachers
(C) the expanding economic problems of
schools
(D) the increased urbanization of the entire
country

(C) new regulations were imposed on

nontraditional education
(D) adults and children studied in the same
classes
48. Vacation schools and extracurricular
activities
are mentioned in lines 11-12 to illustrate
(A) alternatives to formal education
provided by public schools
(B) the importance of educational changes
(C) activities that competed to attract new
immigrants to their programs.
(D) the increased impact of public schools on
students.

45. The word "means" in line 6 is closest in
meaning to
(A) advantages
(B) probability
(C) method
(D) qualifications

49. According to the passage, early-twentieth
century
education reformers believed that
(A) different groups needed different kinds of
education
(B) special programs should be set up in
frontier communities to modernize them
(C) corporations and other organizations
damaged educational progress

(D) more women should be involved in
education and industry

46. The phrase "coincided with" in line 9 is
closest in meaning to
(A) was influenced by
(B) happened at the same time as
(C) began to grow rapidly
(D) ensured the success of
47. According to the passage, one important
change in United States education by the
1920's was that
(A) most places required children to attend
school
(B) the amount of time spent on formal
education was limited

50. The word "it" in line 24 refers to
(A) consumption
(B) production
(C) homemaking
(D) education

14


20005 TOEFL
Section One: Listening Comprehension
1. (A) They don’t enjoy swimming.
(B) They won’t go swimming in the lake today.

(C) They don’t know how to swim.
(D) They’ll swim in the lake tomorrow.

9. (A) He doesn’t know how to find the student’s
grade.
(B) He doesn’t know if Dr. Wilson has finished
grading the midterm exams.
(C) He isn’t allowed to tell the student her
grade.
(D) Dr. Wilson doesn’t want to be contacted
while she’s away.

2. (A) The style of sweater she’s wearing is very
common.
(B) The man saw Jill wearing the sweater.
(C) She wore the sweater for the first time
yesterday.
(D) She usually doesn’t borrow clothes from
Jill.

10. (A) She had to wait even longer than the man
did to have her car inspected.
(B)The man should have had his car inspected
sooner.
(C)The auto inspection center will be closed
at the end of the month.
(D)The man doesn’t need to have his car
inspected until next month.

3. (A) He went to see the dentist a week ago.

(B) The woman should cancel her appointment
with the dentist.
(C) The woman’s toothache will go away by
itself.
(D) The woman should have seen the dentist by
now.

11. (A) He can act as a subject in the experiment.
(B) He thinks the woman’s experiment is
difficult to understand.
(C) He’s busy working on his own
experiment.
(D) He’s willing to help the woman run the
experiment.

4. (A) She’s planning a trip to Antarctica.
(B) She thinks attending the lecture will be
helpful to her.
(C) Her geography class is required to attend
the lecture.
(D)She has already finished writing her report.

12. (A) Look for the misplaced check.
(B) Ask the bookstore for a refund.
(C) Borrow some cash from the woman.
(D) Repair his desk.

5. (A) The woman should join the chess club.
(B) He’s not a very good chess player.
(C) The woman needs a lot of time to play

chess.
(D) He’s willing to teach the woman how to
play chess.

13. (A) He hadn’t heard that Karen had a new
roommate.
(B) Karen wouldn’t give specific reasons for
her feelings.
(C) He thinks that Karen shouldn’t be angry.
(D) Karen won’t be getting a new roommate
after all.

6. (A) Ask Alice if the man can borrow the novel.
(B) Return the novel to Alice immediately.
(C) Help the man find this own copy of the
novel.
(D) Find out how much the novel costs.

14. (A)The woman didn’t submit the thesis
proposal to him on time.
(B) He returned the thesis proposal to the
woman a week ago.
(C) He hasn’t read the thesis proposal yet.
(D) The thesis proposal isn’t acceptable.

7. (A) He has already tasted the chocolate
pudding.
(B) Chocolate is his favorite flavor.
(C) He doesn’t want any chocolate pudding
(D) There is no more chocolate pudding left.

15. (A) It only cost $400.
(B) He bought it a year ago.

8. (A) See the movie at a theater close by.
(B) Wait until later to see the movie.
(C) Consider seeing an English version of the
movie.
(D) Call the Pine Street Cinema to see what
time the movie starts.

C) It has broken down.
D) It's not as bad as his last car.

16. (A) Purchase some ingredients.
-1-


York this year.
(B) She doesn’t know where the man can buy
theater tickets.
(C) Dr. Luby is performing in a play on
Broadway.
(D) She’s going on a theater trip with Dr.
Luby.
Elizabeth.

(B) Give the man a recipe.
(C) Write down the directions to the
supermarket.

(D) Check to see if the stew is ready.
17. (A) He arrived at the theater late.
(B) He left his watch in the theater.
(C) The production seemed much shorter than
it actually was.
(D) He did not enjoy the production.

25. (A) The woman’s source of information is
reliable.
(B) He didn’t enjoy taking history with Dr.
Parker.
(C) He thought Dr. Parker’s tests were easy.
(D) Dr. Parker is no longer teaching history.

18. (A) He can’t understand the instructions.
(B) He doesn’t have a computer.
(C) He has a degree in computer science.
(D) He needs to take his computer to be
repaired.

26. (A) The man doesn’t have air-conditioning.
(B)The man’s air conditioner is broken.
(C) The man hasn’t been using his air
conditioner.
(D) The summer has been unusually hot.

19. (A) Arrange by phone to have a bucket
delivered.
(B) Deliver the papers herself.
(C) Take her recycling to the town office.

(D) Return the bucket to the recycling
department.

27. (A) He has decided how he’s going to spend
the prize money.
(B) He doesn’t know how much his rent is
going to increase.
(C) He’s already planning to enter next year’s
essay contest.
(D) He has already paid his landlord for next
year’s rent.

20. (A) She prefers her eggs fried.
(B) She never eats breakfast.
(C) She gets an allergic reaction when eating
eggs.
(D) She doesn’t eat a lot for breakfast.
21.(A) He doesn’t know anything about
engineering.
(B) He wants the woman to postpone the talk.
(C) He hasn’t finished preparing for his
presentation.
(D) He regularly gives talks to high school
students.

28. (A) He’ll probably postpone the test until
after he talks
(B) He usually tells the students ahead of time
what will be on his tests.
(C) He’ll probably talk about chapter 16 in

class today.
(D) He might test the students on material not
discussed in class

22. (A) He told the woman to take seven courses
this semester.
(B) He knew that the woman’s schedule
would
be too difficult for her.
(C) His current schedule is also very
demanding.
(D) Taking so many classes will enable the
woman to graduate early.

29. (A) He has been applying only for advertised
jobs.
(B) He’s convinced that there’s a shortage of
jobs.
(C) He doesn’t have time to read all the job
ads.
(D) He’ll help the woman find a job.

23. (A) He needs help repairing his truck.
(B) He doesn’t want to use his truck for the
field trip.
(C) The woman can use his truck if she
agrees to drive.
(D) He doesn’t think all the telescopes will fit
in his truck.

30.

(A) To make plans for the evening.
(B) To ask her about the assignment.
(C) To talk to her roommate.
(D) To give her some information.

31. (A) A class presentation they’re preparing.
(B) A television program the man is
watching.
(C)Visiting a close fiend of theirs.

24. (A) Dr. Luby won’t be taking students to New

2


(B) How a poem’s images relate to its
meaning.
(C) The musical quality of modern poetry.
(D) The poems of Gertrude Stein.

(D) Studying for a test.
32. (A) He’s taking a break from studying.
(B) He has already finished studying.
(C) He was assigned to watch a program by
his professor.
(D) He’s finding out some information for a
friend.

41. (A) She’s the most famous of the modern
poets.
(B) She didn’t publish any of her works in her
lifetime.
(C) She was better known as a prose writer
than as a poet.
(D) She began her career as a writer relatively
late in her life.

33. (A) He didn’t know that she was enrolled in a
linear algebra course.
(B) He thought she preferred to study alone.
(C) He thought she had made arrangements to
study with
(D) He had told her that he had done poorly
on
a recent test.

42. (A) It reflects poetic techniques that were
rejected by modern poets.
(B) It’s from a poem that the students have
read.
(C) It’s the title of a poem by John Ashbery.
(D) It’s an example of a statement that is
“empty” but pleasing to hear.

34. (A) He and Elizabeth argued recently.
(B) He heard Elizabeth did poorly on the last
test.
(C) He doesn’t want to bother Elizabeth so

late in the evening.
(D) He’d rather study in his own dormitory.

43. (A) Read some poems out loud.
(B) Research the life of Gertrude Stein.
(C) Compare the poems of Gertrude Stein to
the poems of John Ashbery.
(D) Write a few lines of poetry.

35. (A) A more economical diesel fuel.
(B) Characteristics of a new type of fuel.
(C) Where a new energy source is located.
(D) How to develop alternative energy
sources.

44. (A) Employment in the fishing and whaling
industries.
(B) Nineteenth-century sea captains.
(C) The economic importance of sailing ships.
(D) The development of the steamship.

36. (A) He’s studying for a test.
(B) He lost his notes.
(C) He missed the class.
(D) He’s doing research on alternative.

45. (A) They were protected by a strong United
States Navy.
(B) They were supported by a well-developed
railroad

(C) Most crew members had experience on
foreign ships.
(D) As part owners of the ships, captains got
some of the profits.

37. (A) It will reduce the amount of pollutants in
the air.
(B) It will increase the amount of unpleasant
odors from vehicles.
(C) It will eventually destroy the ozone layer.
(D) It will reduce the cost of running large
vehicles.

46. (A) They carried passengers ,but not cargo.
(B) They were large, but surprisingly fast.
(C) They were the first successful
steam-powered ships.
(D) They were more reliable than other ships
of the 1860’s.

38. (A) It’s expensive to manufacture.
(B) It’s hasn’t been adequately tested.
(C) It damages car engines.
(D) It’s dangerous to transport.
39. (A) To help him explain the information to his
roommate.
(B) To help him write a paper.
(C) To prepare for a test.
(D) To tell her if the notes are accurate.

47. (A) It’s now taught with the aid of computers.
(B) It isn’t considered as important today as it
was in the past.
(C) Children today learn it earlier than
children
did in the past.
(D) A lot of times is spent teaching it.

40. (A) The life and times of an important modern
poet.

3


curricula.
(D) The effects of rewarding good
penmanship.

48. (A) To indicate the emphasis teachers once
placed on penmanship.
(B) To criticize a technique used to motivate
children.
(C) To illustrate the benefits of competition.
(D) To suggest that teachers be recognized for
their efforts.

50. (A) The number of hours per week that must
be spent teaching penmanship.
(B) The level of penmanship a child is
expected to have.

(C) The recommended method for teaching
penmanship.
(D) The reason computers should be used to
help in the teaching of penmanship

49. (A) How educators create a curriculum.
(B) Why some parents object to the teaching
of penmanship.
(C) The standards for penmanship in state

Section Two: Structure and Written Expression
1. From 1949 onward ,the artist Georgia O’keeffe
made New Mexico -----.
(A) her permanent residence was
(B) where her permanent residence
(C) permanent residence for her
(D) her permanent residence

(B) applies also
(C) it also applies
(D) but it also applies
7. The first transatlantic telephone cable system
was not established --- 1956.
(A) while
(B) until
(C) on
(D) when

2. Just as remote-controlled satellites can be
employed to explore outer space, ---- employed

to investigate the deep sea.
(A) can be robots
(B) robots can be
(C) can robots
(D) can robots that are

8. ---- on two people think exactly alike, there
will always be disagreement, but disagreement
should not always be avoided: it can be healthy
if handled creatively.
(A) There are
(B) Why
(C) That
(D) Because

3. In --- people, the areas of the brain that control
speech are located in the left hemisphere.
(A) mostly of
(B) most
(C) almost the
(D) the most of

9. Drinking water ---- excessive amounts of
fluorides may leave a stained or mottled effect
on the enamel of teeth.
(A) containing
(B) in which containing
(C) contains
(D) that contain

4. Stars shine because of ---- produced by the
nuclear reactions taking place within them.
(A) the amount of light and heat is
(B) which the amount of light and heat
(C) the amount of light and heat that it is
(D) the amount of light and heat

10. In the 1820’s physical education became --- of
the curriculum of Harvard and Yale
Universities.
(A) to be part
(B) which was part
(C) was part
(D) part

5. ---- is not clear to researchers.
(A) Why dinosaurs having become extinct.
(B) Why dinosaurs became extinct
(C) Did dinosaurs become extinct
(D) Dinosaurs became extinct
6. Although many people use the word “milk” to
refer to cow’s milk,--- to milk from any
mammal, including human milk and goat’s
milk.
(A) applying it also

11. Pewter, ---- for eating and drinking utensils in
colonial America, is about ninety percent tin,
with copper or bismuth added for hardness.
(A) was widely used

4


(B) widely used it
(C) widely used
(D) which widely used

14. The Woolworth Building in New York was the
highest in America when --- in 1913 and was
famous for its use of Gothic decorative
detail.
(A) built
(B) it built
(C) was built
(D) built it

12. A moth possesses two pairs of wings --- as a
single pair and are covered with dislike
scales.
(A) function
(B) are functioning
(C) that function
(D) but functions

15. Humans,----, interact through communicative
behavior by means of signs or symbols used
conventionally.
(A) like other animals
(B) how other animals
(C) other animals that

(D) do other animals

13. Soap operas, a type of television drama series,
are so called because, at first they were ----.
(A) often which soap manufacturers
(B) sponsored often soap manufactures
(C) often sponsored by soap manufacturers
(D) soap manufactures often sponsored them

16. More and 90 percent of the calcium in the human body is in the skeleton.
A
B
C D
17. Perhaps the most popular film in movie history, Star Wars was written and direction by George
A
B
C
D
Lucas.
18. Some animal activities, such as mating, migration, and hibernate have a nearly cycle.
A
B
C
D
19. Geographers were once concerned largely with exploring areas unknown to them and from
A
B
C
describing distinctive features of individual places.
D

20. In his animated films, Walt Disney created animals that talk and act like people while retaining its
A
B
C
D
animal traits.
21. The first city in the United States that put into effect major plan for the clustering of government
A
B
C
buildings was Washington,
D
22. In a microwave oven, radiation penetrates food and is then absorbed primarily by water molecule,
A
B
caused heat to spread through the food .
C
D
23. The cultures early of the genus Home were generally distinguished by regular use of stone tools and
A
B
C
by a hunting and gathering economy.
D
24.Dolphins are sleek and powerful swimmers that found in all seas and unlike porpoises, have
A
B
C
well-defined beaklike snouts and conical teeth.
D

25.The velocity of a river is controlled by the slope, the depth, and the rough of the riverbed.
A
B
C
D
26.The phonograph record was the first successful medium for capturing, preservation, and reproducing
A
B
C
sound.
D
27. Generally, the pattern of open space in urban areas has shaped by commercial systems, governmental
A
B
C
D

5


actions, and cultural traditions.
28. A liquid that might be a poor conductor when pure is often used to make solutions that readily
A
B
C
transmits electricity.
D
29.The initial discovery by humans almost 10,000 years ago that they could exploit metallic mineral
A
B

deposits was an important milestone in the development civilization.
C
D
30. In 1989 Tillie Fowler, a Republican, became the first member of her party to serving as president of
A
B C
the city council of Jacksonville, Florida.
D
31.General anesthesia, which is usually used for major surgery, involves a complete loss
A
B
consciousness and a relaxed of the muscles.
C
D
32.After first establishment subsistence farms along the Atlantic seaboard, European settlers in North
A
B
C
America developed a maritime and shipbuilding industry.
D
33.The legs of a roadrunner are enough strong that it can run up to 24 kilometers per hour to catch
A
B
C
D
lizards and small rodents.
34. For the immune system of a newborn mammal to develop properly, the presence of the thymus gland
A
B
C

is essentially.
D
35. Physicians working in the field of public health are mainly concerned with the environmental causes
A
B
of ill and how to eliminate them.
C
D
36. By 1850, immigration from distance shores, as well as migration from the countryside, had caused
A
B
C
New York City’s population to swell.
D
37. By identifying similar words or structures in different languages, we find evidence that those
A
B
languages are related and may be derived from same ancestor.
C
D
38. Astronomers use photography and sighting telescopes to study the motions of all of the bright stars
A
B
C
and many of the faint one .
D
39. In the nineteenth century a number of Native American tribe, such as the Comanches, lived a
A
B
C

nomadic existence hunting buffalo
D
40.The average elevation of West Virginia is about 1,500 foot above sea level.
A
B
C
D

Section Three: Reading Comprehension
Question 1-9
The canopy ,the upper level of the trees in the rain forest, holds a plethora of climbing
mammals of moderately large size, which may include monkeys, cats, civets, and
6


line
(5)

(10)

(15)

(20)

(25)

porcupines. Smaller species, including such rodents as mice and small squirrels ,are not
as prevalent overall in high tropical canopies as they are in most habitats globally.
Small mammals, being warm blooded, suffer hardship in the exposed and turbulent
environment of the uppermost trees. Because a small body has more surface area per unit

of weight than a large one of similar shape, it gains or loses heat more swiftly. Thus, in
the trees, where shelter from heat and cold may be scarce and conditions may fluctuate, a
small mammal may have trouble maintaining its body temperature.
Small size makes it easy to scramble among twigs and branches in the canopy for
insects, flowers, or fruit, but small mammals are surpassed, in the competition for food,
by large ones that have their own tactics for browsing among food-rich twigs. The weight
of a gibbon (a small ape) hanging below a branch arches the terminal leaves down so that
fruit-bearing foliage drops toward the gibbon’s face. Walking or leaping species of a
similar or even larger size access the outer twigs either by snapping off and retrieving the
whole branch or by clutching stiff branches with the feet or tail and plucking food with
their hands.
Small climbing animals may reach twigs readily, but it is harder for them than for large
climbing animals to cross the wide gaps from on tree crown to the next that typify the
high canopy. A macaque or gibbon can hurl itself farther than a mouse can: it can achieve
a running start, and it can more effectively use a branch as a springboard, even bouncing
on a climb several times before jumping. The forward movement of a small animal is
seriously reduced by the air friction against the relatively large surface area of its body.
Finally, for the many small mammals that supplement their insect diet with fruits or seeds
an inability to span open gaps between tree crowns may be problematic, since trees that
yield these foods can be sparse.

1. The passage answers which of the following
questions?
(A) How is the rain forest different from other
habitats?

(B) They prefer the temperature and climate of
the canopy to that of other environments.
(C) They have difficulty with the changing
conditions in the canopy.

(D) They use the trees of the canopy for shelter
from heat and cold.

(B) How does an animal’s body size influence
an animal’s need for food?
(C) Why does the rain forest provide an
unusual variety of food for animals?

5. In discussing animal size in paragraph 3, the
author indicates that
(A) small animals require proportionately more
food than larger animals do
(B) a large animal’s size is an advantage in
obtaining food in the canopy
(C) small animals are often attacked by large
animals in the rain forest
(D) small animals and large animals are
equally adept at obtaining food in the
canopy

(D) Why do large animals tend to dominate the
upper canopy of the rain forest?
2.Which of the following animals is less common
in the upper canopy than in other
environments?
(A) Monkeys
(B) Cats
(C) Porcupines
(D) Mice
3. The word “they” in line 4 refers to

(A) trees
(B) climbing mammals of moderately large size
(C) smaller species
(D) high tropical canopies

6. The word “typify” in line 19 is closest in
meaning to
(A) resemble
(B) protect
(C) characterize
(D) divide

4. According to paragraph 2, which of the
following is true about the small mammals in
the rain forest?
(A) They have body shapes that are adapted to
life in the canopy.

7. According to paragraph 4, what makes
jumping from one tree crown to another
difficult for small mammals?
(A) Air friction against the body surface

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(C) look for
(D) add to
9. Which of the following terms is defined in the
passage?

(A) canopy(line 1)
(B) warm blooded(line 5)
(c) terminal leaves(line13)
(D) springboard(line 21)

(B) The thickness of the branches
(C) The dense leaves of the tree crown
(D) The inability to use the front feet as hands
8. The word ‘supplement” in line 24 is closest in
meaning to
(A) control
(B) replace

Question 10-19
During the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, almost nothing was written about the
contributions of women during the colonial period and the early history of the newly
formed United States. Lacking the right to vote and absent from the seats of power, women
line were not considered an important force in history. Anne Bradstreet wrote some significant
5)
poetry in the seventeenth century, Mercy Otis Warren produced the best contemporary
history of the American Revolution, and Abigail Adams penned important letters showing
she exercised great political influence over her husband, John, the second President of the
United States. But little or no notice was taken of these contributions. During these
Centuries, women remained invisible in history books.
(10)
Throughout the nineteenth century, this lack of visibility continued, despite the efforts
of female authors writing about women. These writers, like most of their male counterparts,
were amateur historians. Their writings were celebratory in nature, and they were uncritical
in their selection and use of sources.
During the nineteenth century, however, certain feminists showed a keen sense of

(15)
history by keeping records of activities in which women were engaged. National, regional,
and local women’s organizations compiled accounts of their doings. Personal
correspondence, newspaper clippings, and souvenirs were saved and stored. These sources
from the core of the two greatest collections of women’s history in the United States one at
the Elizabeth and Arthur Schlesinger Library at Radcliffe College, and the other the Sophia
(20)
Smith Collection at Smith College. Such sources have provided valuable materials for later
Generations of historians.
Despite the gathering of more information about ordinary women during the nineteenth
Century, most of the writing about women conformed to the “great women” theory of
History, just as much of mainstream American history concentrated on “great men.” To
(25)
demonstrate that women were making significant contributions to American life, female
authors singled out women leaders and wrote biographies, or else important women
produced their autobiographies. Most of these leaders were involved in public life as
reformers, activists working for women’s right to vote, or authors, and were not
representative at all of the great of ordinary woman. The lives of ordinary people
(30)
continued, generally, to be untold in the American histories being published.
(C) thoughtful
(D) faultfinding

10. What does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) The role of literature in early American
histories
(B) The place of American women in written
histories
(C) The keen sense of history shown by
American women

(D)The “great women” approach to history
used by American historians

12. In the first paragraph, Bradstreet, Warren, and
Adams are mentioned to show that
(A) a woman’s status was changed by marriage
(B) even the contributions of outstanding
women were ignored
(C) only three women were able to get their
writing published
(D) poetry produced by women was more
readily accepted than other writing by
women

11. The word “contemporary” in line 5 means
that the history was
(A) informative
(B) written at that time

8


13. The word “celebratory” in line 12 means that
the writings referred to were
(A) related to parties
(B) religious
(C) serious
(D) full of praise

advising her how to handle a family

problem
(D) Books about famous graduates of the
country’s first college
17. What use was made of the nineteenth-century
women’s history materials in the Schlesinger
Library and the Sophia Smith Collection?
(A) They were combined and published in a
multivolume encyclopedia
(B) They formed the basis of college courses in
the nineteenth century.
(C) They provided valuable information for
twentieth—century historical researchers.
(D) They were shared among women’s colleges
throughout the United States.

14. The word “they” in line 12 refers to
(A) efforts
(B) authors
(C) counterparts
(D) sources
15. In the second paragraph, what weakness in
nineteenth-century histories does the author
point out?
(A) They put too much emphasis on daily
activities
(B) They left out discussion of the influence of
money on politics.
(C) The sources of the information they were
based on were not necessarily accurate.
(D) They were printed on poor-quality paper.

18. In the last paragraph, the author mentions all
of the following as possible roles of
nineteenth-century “great women” EXCEPT
(A) authors
(B) reformers
(C) activists for women’s rights
(D) politicians

16. On the basis of information in the third
paragraph, which of the following would
most likely have been collected by
nineteenth-century feminist organizations?
(A) Newspaper accounts of presidential
election results
(B) Biographies of John Adams
(C) Letters from a mother to a daughter

19. The word “representative” in line 29 is closest
in meaning to
(A) typical
(B) satisfied
(C) supportive
(D) distinctive

Question 20-29
The end of the nineteenth century and the early years of the twentieth century were
Marked by the development of an international Art Nouveau style, characterized by sinuous
Lines, floral and vegetable motifs, and soft evanescent coloration. The Art Nouveau style
Line was an eclectic one, bringing together elements of Japanese art, motifs of ancient cultures,

(5) and natural forms. The glass objects of this style were elegant in outline, although often
deliberately distorted, with pale or iridescent surfaces. A favored device of the style was to
imitate the iridescent surface seen on ancient glass that had been buried. Much of the Art
Nouveau glass produced during the years of its greatest popularity had been generically
Termed “art glass.” Art glass was intended for decorative purposes and relied for its effect
(10) pon carefully chosen color combinations and innovative techniques.
France produced a number of outstanding exponents of the Art Nouveau style; among
The most celebrated was Emile Galle (1846-1904). In the United States, Louis Comfort
Tiffany (1843-1933) was the most noted exponent of this style, producing a great variety of
Glass forms and surfaces, which were widely copied in their time and are highly prized
(15) today. Tiffany was a brilliant designer, successfully combining ancient Egyptian, Japanese,
and Persian motifs.
The Art Nouveau style was a major force in the decorative arts from 1895 until 1915,
Although its influence continued throughout the mid-1920’s. It was eventually to be
Overtaken by a new school of thought known as Functionalism that had been present since
(20) the turn of the century. At first restricted to a small avant-garde group of architects and
designers, Functionalism emerged as the dominant influence upon designers after the First
World War. The basic tenet of the movement-that function should determine from-was

9


not a new concept. Soon a distinct aesthetic code evolved: from should be simple, surfaces
plain, and any ornament should be based on geometric relationships. This new design
(25) concept, coupled with the sharp postwar reactions to the styles and conventions of the
preceding decades, created an entirely new public taste which caused Art Nouveau types of
glass to fall out of favor. The new taste demanded dramatic effects of contrast, stark outline
and complex textural surfaces.
(A) A useful object should not be attractive.
(B) The purpose of an object should influence

its form.
(C) The design of an object is considered more
significant than its function.
(D) The form of an object should not include
decorative elements.

21. What does paragraph 1 mainly discuss?
(A) Design elements in the Art Nouveau style
(B) The popularity of the Art Nouveau style
(C) Production techniques for art glass
(D) Color combinations typical of the Art
Nouveau style
22. The word “one” in line 4 refers to
(A) century
(B) development
(C) style
(D) coloration

27. It can be inferred from the passage that one
reason Functionalism became popular was
that it
(A) clearly distinguished between art and
design
(B) appealed to people who liked complex
painted designs
(C) reflected a common desire to break from
the past
(D) was easily interpreted by the general public

23. Paragraph 1 mentions that Art Nouveau glass

was sometimes similar to which aspect of
ancient buried glass？
(A) The distortion of the glass
(B) The appearance of the glass surface
(C) The shapes of the glass objects
(D) The size of the glass objects

28. Paragraph 3 supports which of the following
statements about Functionalism?
(A) Its design concept avoided geometric
shapes.
(B) It started on a small scale and then
spread gradually.
(C) It was a major force in the decorative arts
before the First World War.
(D) It was not attractive to architects all
designers.

24. The word “prized” in line 14 is closest in
meaning to
(A) valued
(B) universal
(C) uncommon
(D) preserved
25. The word “overtaken” in line 19 is closest
in meaning to
(A) surpassed
(B) inclined
(C) expressed
(D) applied

29. According to the passage, an object made in
the Art Nouveau style would most likely
include
(A) a flowered design
(B) bright colors
(C) modern symbols
(D) a textured surface

26. What does the author mean by stating that
“function should determine form” (line 22)?

Question 30

line
(5)

During most of their lives, surge glaciers behave like normal glaciers, traveling perhaps
only a couple of inches per day. However, at intervals of 10 to 100 years, these glaciers
move forward up to 100 times faster than usual. The surge often progresses along a glacier
like a great wave, proceeding from one section to another. Subglacial streams of melt water
water pressure under the glacier might lift it off its bed, overcoming the friction between ice
and rock, thus freeing the glacier, which rapidly sliders downhill Surge glaciers also might
be influenced by the climate, volcanic heat, or earthquakes. However, many of these

10


(10)

(15)

(20)

(25)

glaciers exist in the same area as normal glaciers, often almost side by side.
Some 800 years ago, Alaska’s Hubbard Glacier advanced toward the sea, retreated, and
advanced again 500 years later. Since 1895, this secentry-mile-long river of ice has been
flowing steadily toward the Gulf of Alaska at a rate of approximately 200 feet per year. In
June 1986, however, the glacier surged ahead as much as 47 feet a day. Meanwhile, a
western tributary, called Valerie Glacier, advanced up to 112 feet a day. Hubbard’s surge
closed off Russell Fiord with a formidable ice dam, some 2,500 feet wide and up to 800
feet high, whose caged waters threatened the town of Yakutat to the south.
About 20 similar glaciers around the Gulf of Alaska are heading toward the sea. If
enough surge glaciers reach the ocean and raise sea levels, West Antarctic ice shelves could
rise off the seafloor and become adrift. A flood of ice would then surge into the Southern
Sea. With the continued rise in sea level, more ice would plunge into the ocean, causing sea
levels to rise even higher, which in turn would release more ice and set in motion a vicious
cycle. The additional sea ice floating toward the tropics would increase Earth’s albedo and
lower global temperatures, perhaps enough to initiate a new ice age. This situation appears
to have occurred at the end of the last warm interglacial (the time between glacations),
called the Sangamon, when sea ice cooled the ocean dramatically, spawning the beginning
of the Ice Age.
(D) draining

30.What is the main topic of the passage?
(A) The classification of different types of
surge glaciers
(B) The causes and consequences of surge

glaciers
(C) The definition of a surge glacier
(D) The history of a particular surge glacier

35. According to the passage, the Hubbard
Glacier
(A) moves more often than the Valerie Glacier
(B) began movement toward the sea in 1895
(C) is 800 feet wide
(D) has moved as fast as 47 feet per day
36. Yakutat is the name of
(A) an Alaskan town
(B) the last ice age
(C) a surge glacier
(D) an Antarctic ice shelf

31.The word “intervals” in line 2 is closest in
meaning to
(A) records
(B) speeds
(C) distances
(D) periods

37.The word “plunge” in line 20 is closest in
meaning to
(A) drop
(B) extend
(C) melt
(D) drift

32.The author compares the surging motion of a
surge giacier to the movement of a
(A) fish
(B) wave
(C) machine
(D) boat

38.The term “vicious cycle” in lines 21-22 refers
to the
(A) movement pattern of surge glaciers
(B) effect surge glaciers could have on the
temperature of tropical areas
(C) effect that repeated rising sea levels might
have on glacial ice
(D) constant threat surge glaciers could pose to
the Gulf of Alaska

33.Which of the following does the author
mention as a possible cause of surging
glaciers?
(A) The decline in sea levels
(B) The occurrence of unusually large ocean
waves
(C) The shifting Antractic ice shelves
(D) The pressure of melt water underneath the
glacier

39.The author provides a definition for which of
the following terms?
(A) Tributary (line 14)

(B) Ice dam (line 15)
(C) Albedo (line 22)
(D) Interglacial (line 24)

34.The word “freeing” in line 7 is closest in
meaning to
(A) pushing
(B) releasing
(C) strengthening

11