Đề thi vào chuyên anh lam sơn từ năm 20092014

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
THANH HOÁ
Đề chính thức

KỲ THI VÀO LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN LAM SƠN

Đề thi có 04 trang

NĂM HỌC 2009-2010

Môn thi : Tiếng Anh
( Dành cho học sinh thi vào chuyên Anh)
Thời gian : 120 phút ( Không kể thời gian giao đề )
Ngày thi : 19 tháng 06 năm 2009

Question I: (5points).
Part A: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently
from the rest of the group.
1. A. bear
B. stream
C. each
D. piece
2. A. country
B. though
C. enough
D.
encourage
3. A. cheap
B. clean
C. heat
D. near

Part B : Choose a word whose stress pattern is different from the rest of the
group.
4. A. border
5. A. behave

B. decorate
B. order

C. predict
C. occur

D. label
d. destroy

Question II: Supply the correct forms of the verbs in parentheses. (10 points)

1. Her throat is really sore. She (sing) all night.
2. I phoned you at 8 o'clock last night but you didn’t answer. What you (do) then?
3. The cat (not eat) the fish as he was outside all that night.
4. When did you last have your hair (style)?
5. Stop! Don’t risk (run) over by that lorry.
6. He stopped (go) out in the evening to have more time with his children.
7. Somebody (steal) your bike if you leave it unlocked.
8. In the 18th century, jean cloth (make) completely from cotton.
9. I wish I (not, listen) to you before.
10. I think you (take) a shower instead of a bath to save energy.
Question III: Supply the correct forms of the words in capital letters. (10
points)
1. The danger that the earth is quickly getting hotter and hotter is ____. DENY
2. In Malaysia, English is a _______ second language.

COMPEL
3. The Internet is time-consuming, _______ and dangerous.
COST
4. Trung sent his friend Michael in the USA a small ______ of stamps.
COLLECT
5. In the 1990s the _______economic situation got worse and
WORLD
the sale of jeans stopped growing.
6. People can get the latest information and enjoy interesting
programs in an ______ and convenient way from television.
expensive


7. Many foreign ______ enjoy festival in Nha Trang in June every year.
8. If we go on wasting water, there will be a _______ of fresh water
in a few decades.
9. It is _____ of him not to help us.
10. Her grandmother is ________ ill.

tour
short
kind
danger

Question IV: Fill in the blank in each of the following sentences with one
suitable
preposition.( 5 points )
1. We usually go to our home village ______ least once in the summer
2. Her new novel will probably be translated ______ English.
3. The oranges should be cut ______ a knife.

4. The T- shirt is too tight _______ him to wear.
5. We might find life ______ another planet.
Question V: Choose the best option to complete each of the following
sentences.
(10 points).
1. I’d love to play soccer ______ I have to complete an assignment.
A. and
B. but
C. or
D. so
2. Open the door, _______?
A. do you
B. don’t you
C. will you
D. have you
3. The soles of my shoes have ________. I think I’ll have to buy a new pair.
A. gone off
B. come off
C. cut off
D. seen off
4. Ann cannot go with us because she has to _______ her little brother.
A. look after
B. look for
C. look up
D. look into
5. As a child, I took the things my parents did for me for _______.
A. nothing
B. a change
C. ages
D. granted

6. He was made ______ his case by the policeman.
A. open
B. opening
C. opened
D. to open
7. Thirty-five dollars _______ too much for this shirt.
A. are
B. is
C. were
D. was
8. He _______ the office when I arrived.
A. was leaving
B. has left
C. should leave
D. leaves
9. She said that she _______ the gardening since 7 o’clock.
A. did
B. was doing
C. has done
D. had
done


10. The hotel _______ has 40 floors is very comfortable.
A. which
B. where
C. who

D. where

Question VI: Read the passage and choose the best answer. (5 points)
Every nation and every country has its own customs and traditions. In Britain traditions
play a more important part in the life of the people than in other countries. Englishmen are proud
of their traditions and carefully keep them up. It has been the law for about 300 years that all
theaters are closed on Sundays. No letters are delivered, only a few Sunday papers are published.
To this day an English family prefers a house with a garden to a flat in a modern house with
central heating. English people like gardens. Sometimes, the garden in front of the house is a
little square covered with cement painted green in imitation of grass and a box of flowers.
Holidays are especially rich in old traditions and are different in Scotland, Ireland, Wales
and England. Christmas is a great English national holiday, and in Scotland it is not kept, except
by clerks in banks, all shops and factories are working.

1. What do Englishmen think of customs and traditions?
A. They think every nation should have its own traditions and customs.
B. They think customs and traditions of their country are more
important than those of other countries.
C. They think customs and traditions are important to their life.
D. They don’t like customs and traditions.
2. Which of the following can’t people do on Sundays in Britain?
A. post letters.
B. buy Sunday newspapers.
C. talk about the law.
D. watch a play in a theater.
3. English people think _______ is important to their house.
A. central heating
B. a garden
C. grass
D. a box of flowers
4. It can be implied that people in Britain ________ .
A. celebrate holidays in the same way throughout the country.

B. celebrate holidays to become rich.
C. celebrate holidays differently in different regions.
D. only celebrate Christmas.
5. Which of the following people are most unlikely to work on Christmas Day
in Scotland?
A. factory workers.


B. shop assistants.
C. bank clerks.
D. postmen.
Question VII: Fill in each of the numbered blanks in the following passage
with one
suitable word. (10 points).
Language is a (1) _____ of communication so each nation has its (2) _____
language. However some nations have the same language. According to the
speakers' use of language, it is called the first, second or (3) ______ language.
Among the languages used by most people in the world (4) ______ English. This
does not mean that English is spoken by greater number of speakers (5) ______
any other languages, for it is easily (6) ______ by Chinese in this respect.
However, it is (7) _____ most international of languages because it provides ready
access to the world scholarship and world trade. That is the (8) _____ why millions
of men (9) _____ women try (10) _____ master it.

Question VIII: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it
means
exactly the same as the sentence printed before it.(10 points).
1. I will forgive you if you promise not to do it again.
Unless.......................................................................................................................
2. He said: "We must have a party to celebrate this".

He said that ............................................................................................................
3. The poor farmer was tired but he kept working.
In spite of .................................................................................................................
4. Let's go abroad for our holiday this year.
Why.........................................................................................................................?
5. It is said that he died by his own hand.
He is........................................................................................................................
6. Harry broke his leg, and also injured his shoulder.

Not only ..................................................................................................................
7. The noise next door didn’t stop until after midnight.
It was .....................................................................................................................
8.Janet is the best tennis-player in the club.
No one...................................................................................................................


9. Peter regrets buying that old car.
Peter wishes ...........................................................................................................
10. He was so tired that he couldn’t see the end of the film.
He was too .............................................................................................................

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

Question IX: There is one mistake in each of the following sentences. Find out
and
correct it. (5 points).

Marry suggests to use energy - saving bulbs.
Ba is studying hardly in order to pass the final exam.
I have the lovely puppy. I call it Rex.
The music on a compact disk is record by lasers.
We can usually predict when a volcano will eruption.
.................................................. The end ..................................................................
Họ và tên thí sinh : ......................................................... Số báo danh : ....................

SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO
THANH HOÁ

ĐÁP ÁN- HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI VÀO
LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN LAM SƠN


Đề thi chính thức

Môn thi : Tiếng Anh
( Dành cho học sinh thi vào chuyên

Anh )
Ngày thi : 19 tháng 06 năm 2009
Question I: ( 5 points )
Part A: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently
from the rest of the group.
1. A.
2. B.
3. D.
Part B: Choose a word whose stress pattern is different from the rest of the
group

4. C.
5. B.
Question II : Supply the correct forms of the verbs in parentheses. ( 10
points )
1. has been singing/has sung
2. were you doing
3. can’t have eaten
4. styled
5. being run
6. going
7. will steal
8. was made
9. hadn’t listened
10. should take
Question III : Supply the correct forms of the words in capital letters. (10
points)
1. undeniable
2. compulsory
3. costly
4. collection
5. worldwide
6. inexpensive
7. tourists
8. shortage
9. unkind
10. dangerously


Question IV: Fill in the blank in each of the following sentences with one
suitable preposition( 5 points )

1. at
2. into
3. with
4. for
5. on
Question V :Choose the best option to complete each of the following
sentences (10 points).
1. B. 2. C. 3. B. 4. A. 5. D.
6. D.
7. B. 8. A. 9. D. 10. A.
Question VI: .Read the passage and choose the best answer.( 5 points)
1. B.
2.D.
3. B.
4. C.
5. C.
Question VII : Fill in each of the numbered blanks in the following passage
with one suitable word (10 points)
1. means/medium
2. own
3. foreign
4. is
5. than
6. outnumbered 7. the
8. reason
9. and
10. to
Question VIII: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it
means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it.(10 points).
1. Unless you promise not to do it again, I won't forgive you.

2. He said that they had to have a party to celebrate that.
3. In spite of the tiredness/ his tiredness/ being tired, the poor farmer kept working.
4. Why don’t we go abroad for our holiday this year?
5. He is said to have died by his own hand.
6. Not only did Harry break his leg, he also injured his shoulder.
7. It was not until after midnight that the noise next door stopped.
8.No one plays tennis as well as Janet in the club.
9. Peter wishes he hadn’t bought that old car.
10. He was too tired to see the end of the film.
Question IX: There is one mistake in each of the following sentences. Find out
and correct it (5 points)
1. to use  using
2. hardly  hard
3. the
a
4. record recorded
5. eruption erupt
B/ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
Điểm của bài thi = Tổng số câu, từ hoặc cụm từ đúng
7
Thang điểm 10
............ THE END .............


SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
SƠN
THANH HÓA
§Ò thi chÝnh thøc

KỲ THI VÀO LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN LAM

NĂM HỌC 2010-2011
M«n: TiÕng Anh
(dµnh cho thÝ sinh thi vµo líp chuyªn TiÕng

Anh)
§Ò thi gåm cã 04 trang
giao ®Ò)

Thêi gian lµm bµi: 120 phót(kh«ng kÓ thêi gian
Ngµy thi: 20 th¸ng 6 n¨m 2010

Question I : Phonetics (5 points)
A. Choose and write in your answer sheet the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from the rest of the group.
1. beat
climb
debt
doubt
2. within
seventh
death
width
3. doors
design
please
conclusion
B. Choose and write in your answer sheet the word whose stress pattern is different
from the rest of the group.
4. economic
especially

environment
solution
5. memory
biology
chemistry
favorite
Question II: Verb forms ( 10 points)
Supply the correct form of the verbs in parentheses.
1. Did you remember (turn)……. off the light when you left?
2. Do you think her parents will let her (go)……….. for a picnic?
3. Many people in the countryside still (work)…….… seven days a week.
4. I have no objection to (listen)……. to your story again.
5. If I had had breakfast this morning, I (not be)………… so hungry now.
6. Why you all (laugh)…….? Tom (tell)……… his jokes again?
7. The robbers tried to get in without (notice)……
8. By the time the train arrives, we (wait)……. here for two hours.
9. - It was rude of you to shout at the reception yesterday.
- You are right. I (not act) ……….. like that.
Question III: Word forms ( 10 points)
Supply the correct form of the words in capital letters.
1. Articles and reports in newspapers talk a lot about UFO ……….
2. You need a lot of ………. to be a teacher.
3. His parents always ………. him to study harder.
4. My sister wants to be a/an ……….
ENVIRONMENT

APPEAR
PATIENT
COURAGE

5. The singer won a lot of ………. from the audience.
ADMIRE
6. The Internet has ………. developed and become part of our everyday life. INCREASE
7. Thanks to your ………. intervention, the problem has been solved. TIME
8. Some of the photographers said they saw man-like ………. get out of the saucers.
CREAT
9. If there were flying saucers, there would be traces of their ………. LAND
10. Sadly, we are pouring billions of tons of ………. into the atmosphere every year.
POLLUTE
Question IV : Multiple-choice ( 15 points)
Choose the best option marked A, B, C or D to complete each of the following
sentences.
1. I was late for work yesterday because the alarm clock didn’t ……….
A. go away
B. go off
C. go out
D. go about
2. We ………. to prepare our homework carefully before ……….
A. tell - going to school
B. are told - school
C. must tell - going to school
D. are told - to go to school.
3. The World Cup is ………. every four years.
A. had
B. held
C. taken
D. made
4. What is the time now? It’s ………. twelve o’clock.
A. at

B. near
C. nearly
D. most
5. His secretary ……… he would be back in an hour.
A. said
B. spoke
C. told
D. asked
6. “……….?” - “Well, I passed anyway”.
A. How did you do on the English exam.
B. What did you do on the English exam.
C. How did you do with the English exam.
D. What did you do at the English exam.
7. Open the door, ……….?
A. do you
B. don’t you
C. will you
D. can you
8. The villagers are interested in ………. natural resources but they do not know how to
do so.
A. fixing
B. keeping
C. conserving
D. reducing
9. Linh and Lan stayed home watching TV ………… most children went to see the
firework.
A. although
B. so
C. therefore
D. because

10. I don’t mind when you go on holiday. It doesn’t ………. me.
A. effect
B. affect
C. matter
D. suit
11. The university ……… a school for men, but now it is coeducational, serving as many
women as men.
A. was used
B. used to be
C. was used to be
D. was used to
12. Everyone knows about pollution problems, but not many people have …….. any
solutions.
A. thought over
B. got round to
C. looked into
D. come up with


13. ……. students in our class are looking forward to going for a picnic.
A. The all
B. Whole the
C. All the
D. Most the
14. The scientists …… invention was a success became famous.
A. who
B. whose
C. which
D. that
15. We could not keep on cleaning the beach ………. it started to rain.

A. although
B. so
C. therefore
D. because
Question V : Reading ( 15 points )
Part A- Fill each of the numbered blanks in the following passage. Use only one
suitable word for each space. ( 10 points )
Every year, the village of Pettineo celebrates its unique arts festival. For a few
days each summer, (1) ………. from all over Europe gather at this village near the north
coast of Sicily to enjoy the creative atmosphere. (2) ............. their stay, the artists get
together with the local people (3) ……….. paint a one- kilometre long picture that runs
the length of the high street. Once the painting is done, (4) .......... visiting artist joins a (5)
………. family for a big lunch and, in exchange (6) ............. the meal, the family receives
the section of the (7) ……….. that the artist has painted. As a result, though few villagers
are (8) ………., almost every home has at least one painting (9) ............. a well-known
European artist. Visitors to the village are eagerly invited into homes to see (10) ……….
paintings.
Part B - Read the text and choose the best option ( 5 points )
A recent investigation by scientists at the U.S Geological Survey shows that
strange animal behavior might help predict future earthquakes. Investigators found such
occurrences in a ten-kilometer radius of the epicenter of a fairly recent quake, Some birds
screeched and flew about wildly, dogs yelped and ran around uncontrollably.
Scientists believe that animals can perceive these environmental changes as early as
several days before the mishap.
In 1976, after observing animal behavior, the Chinese were able to predict a
devastating quake. Although hundreds of thousands of people were killed, the
government was able to evacuate millions of other people and thus keep the death toll at
a lower level.
1.What prediction may be made by observing animal behavior?
A. An impending earthquake.

B. The number of people who will die.
C. The ten-kilometer radius of the epicenter.
D. Environmental changes.
2. Why can animals perceive these changes when humans cannot ?
A. Animals are smarter than humans.
B. Animals have certain instincts that humans don’t possess.
C. By running around the house, they can feel the vibrations.
D. Humans don’t know where to look.
3. Which of the following is NOT true?


A. Some animals may be able to sense an approaching earthquake.
B. By observing animal behavior scientists perhaps can predict earthquakes.
C. The Chinese have successfully predicted an earthquake and saved many lives.
D. All birds and dogs in a ten-kilometer radius of the epicenter went wild before the
earthquake.
4. In this passage the word “evacuate” most nearly means: ……………..
A. remove
B. destroy
C. warn
D. visit
5. If scientists can accurately predict earthquakes, there will be ……………………….
A. fewer animals going crazy
B. a lower death rate
C. fewer people evacuated
D. fewer environmental changes
Question VI : Prepositions ( 5 points)
Fill in the blank in each of the following sentences with one suitable preposition.
1. Don’t be so sure ......... yourself.
2. They strolled along the beach ........... the moon light.

3. John reached a cigarette before he continued .......... his story.
4. We argue with the waiter ……. the prices of the meals.
5. He takes ……. his uncle. They are both tall and thin.
Question VII : Writing ( 20 points )
Part A - Rewrite each sentence, beginning as shown, so that the meaning stays the
same.
( 10 points)
1. Both my brother and I are too young to drive.
Neither my brother .................................................................................
2. Although Judy was severely disabled, she participated in many sports.
Despite her .............................................................................................
3. People say that the man robbed the biggest bank in the town.
The man …………………………………………………………..
4. Shall we go out for dinner this evening?
How …………………………………………………………………….?
5. I was late, so I didn’t see the beginning of the play.
If I ……………………………………………………………………..
6. I lost the keys, so I couldn’t get into the house.
Having …………………………………………………………………
7. “ Will you look after the child when I go to the market?” she said to her husband.
She asked ……………………………………………………………..
8. I can’t go to the cinema tonight because I do not have my car.
The reason I ……………………………………………………………
9. It was such bad news that Helen burst into tears.
The news ……………………………………………………………….
10. Robert and Catherine have been married for four years.
It’s ………………………………………………………………………


Part B - Complete each of the second sentences so that it has a similar meaning to

the first one, using the word given. DO NOT CHANGE THE WORD GIVEN. You
must use between TWO AND FIVE WORDS, including the word given.( 5 points)
1. Why don’t you install a burglar alarm in your house? SUGGEST
I ......................................... a burglar alarm in your house.
2.“ Are you leaving for New York tomorrow ?” he said to me. LEAVING
He asked me ........................ New York the following day.
3. The heavy fog prevented us from driving to work in time. IMPOSSIBLE
The heavy fog ...................... to drive to work in time.
4. It was easy for us to get tickets for the concert. NO
We ................................................. tickets for the concert.
5. The owners of the restaurants are usually very rich. WHO
The people ........................................ usually very rich.
Part C - There is one mistake in each of the following sentences. Find out and
correct it.
( 5 points )
1. After leaving from university my brother moved to Ho Chi Minh City and started to
train as an accountant.
2. The teacher felt angrily when he saw what was happening in the classroom.
3. Unfortunately my company does not produce recycling paper since it is more
expensive to make than regular paper.
4. The picture is too high for the boy to reach it.
5. My friend, an actor and a singer, earn a lot of money.
……………………..…….THE END………………………………………….
Họ và tên thí sinh:…………………………
Chữ ký giám thị 1………………………

Số báo danh:……………………….
Chữ ký giám thị 2……………………

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
SƠN
THANH HÓA

KỲ THI VÀO LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN LAM
NĂM HỌC 2010-2011

ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI VÀO LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN LAM
SƠN

Môn: Tiếng Anh
(dµnh cho thÝ sinh thi vµo líp chuyªn TiÕng Anh)
§¸p ¸n gåm cã 02 trang

A/ ĐÁP ÁN :
Question I :
Phonetics ( 5 points )
Part A : ( 3 points )
1. beat
2. within
3. conclusion
Part B : ( 2 points )
4. economic
5. biology
Question II : Verb forms ( 10 points )
1. to turn
2. go
3. work
4. listening
5. would not be

6. are……laughing – Has ….. been telling
7. being noticed
8. will/shall have been waiting
9. shouldn’t have acted
Question III : Word forms ( 10 points )
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.

appearance
patience
encourage
environmentalist
admiration
increasingly
timely
creatures
landing


10. pollutants
Question IV : Multiple-choice ( 15 points )
1. B
6. A

11. B

2. B
7. C
12. D

3. B
8. C
13. C

Question V : Reading ( 15 points )
Part A : ( 10 points )
1. artists
2. During 3. to / and
6. for
7. painting/ picture
the/ those
Part B : ( 5 points )
1. A
2. B

3. D

4. C
9. A
14. B

5. A
10. B
15. D

4. each
8. rich/wealthy

4. A

5. local
9. by 10. these/

5. B

Question VI : Prepositions ( 5 points )
1. of
2. in
3. with
4. about
5. after
Question VII: Writing (20 points).
Part A : ( 10 points).
1. Neither my brother nor I am old enough to drive.
2. Despite her severe disability, Judy participated in many sports.
3. The man is said to have robbed the biggest bank in the town.
4. How about going out for dinner this evening?
5. If I hadn’t been late, I would have seen the beginning of the play.
6. Having lost the keys, I couldn’t get into the house.
7. She asked her husband to look after the child when she went to the market.
8. The reason I can’t/cannot go to the cinema is that I do not have my car.
9. The news was so bad that Helen burst into tears.
10. It is four years since Robert and Catherine got married.
Part B : ( 5 points )

1. I suggest you ( should) install a burglar alarm in your house.
2. He asked me if/whether I was leaving for New York the following day.
3. The heavy fog made it impossible for us to drive to work in time.
4. We had no difficulty (in) getting tickets for the concert.
5. The people who own/ have restaurants are usually very rich.


Part C : (5 points)
1. leaving from > leaving
2. angrily > angry
3. recycling > recycled
4. to reach it > to reach
5. earn > earns
B/ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
Điểm của bài thi = Tổng số câu, từ hoặc cụm từ đúng
8
Thang điểm 10 ( điểm bài thi lấy đến 2 số thập phân)
............ THE END ..............


SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
THANH HOÁ

KỲ THI VÀO LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN LAM SƠN
NĂM HỌC: 2011 – 2012

Môn: TiếngAnh
Đề chính thức
Đề thi gồm có: 04 trang

(Dành cho thí sinh thi vào lớp chuyên Anh)

Thời gian làm bài:120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi: 19 tháng 6 năm 2011

I. Phonetics: (5 points):
Part A: Choose and write in your answer sheet the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from the rest of the group . ( 3 points )
1. A. predict
B. environment
C. exist
D. precious
2. A. procedure
B. soldier
C. education
D. credit
3. A. east
B. great
C. lead
D. seat
Part B: Choose and write in your answer sheet the word whose stress pattern is different from
the rest of the group. ( 2 points )
4. A. fashion
B. unique
C. label
D. novel
5. A. computer
B. expression
C. instantly
D. appliance

II. Verb forms. (15 points):
Supply the correct form of the verb in the parentheses.
1. I can smell smoke. You (smoke) again! Lucy, you (not quit) last week?
2. Tom can’t come with us on Sunday. He (play) basketball. He does so every Sunday.
3. Tomorrow, the actors (rehearse) the play for two months.
4. I have painted the house. It looks great! Those colours (go) well together.
5. She claims (meet) the Prince.
6. Imagine you ( be) in London now, where you (like) to visit?
7. It’s about time something (do) about traffic problems in big cities.
8. I still remember (take) to Thu Le zoo once.
9. Don’t panic, Sir. The doctor is due to arrive any minute. You see, he (be) here
earlier but something (come) up at the hospital and he (have) to stay longer than usual.
But don’t worry. He (examine) you as soon as he (get) here.
III. Word formation. (10 points)

Fill in each blank with the correct form of the word in capital letters. Write the
correct word in your answer sheet.
SNAKES
The (1. BELIEVE ) ......................... that all snakes are poisonous is wrong.
Of the 3,000 or so snake species (2. KNOW ) ....................... , 400 are dangerous
and only a few are (3. DEAD ) ...............................
Why do snakes bite? It’s a (4. DEFEND ) .................... mechanism to protect
themselves. Another reason is to kill their prey, a (5. NECESSARY ) ................... if
they are to live. In general, snakes won’t bite unless a (6. DISTURB ) .....................
of some sort is caused.


Snake bites can cause severe (7. SWELL) ...................... , pain, dizziness and
difficulties in breathing. (8. RESTRICT) ........................
in the victim’s

movements and a feeling of
(9. EXHAUST) .......................... are common.
Of course there are many (10. EFFECT) ........................ antidotes available, which
should be given as soon as possible.

IV. Multiple- choice: (15 points).Choose the best option ( A, B, C or D) to complete each
sentence below and write in your answer sheet.
1. The woman and the dog ..................... passed my house yesterday made a lot of noise.
A. who
B. which
C. that
D. they
2. We travelled ................... 6.45 train, which arrived at 8.30.
A. in the
B. on the
C. by the
D .by
3. - What should we do to help the poor in the neighborhood ?
- I ............. organizing a show to raise money.
A. suggest
B. say
C. talk
D ask
4. Banks in the United Kingdom don’t close at ........................
A. morning
B. lunchtime
C. lunch
D. evening
5. I ........................ sports to keep fit, not because I like it.
A. do

B. make
C. practise
D. train
6. Unlike other central provinces, Thanh Hoa has ................ raw materials.
A. hardly no
B. hardly some
C. hardly any
D. any hardly
7. He knew he really let his parents .................. when he failed the exam again.
A. out
B. of
C. in
D. down
8. In six years’ time those youngsters will become .......................
A. growns-ups
B. grown-ups
C. growing-up
D. growns-up
9. Articles and reports in newspapers ................. lots about UFO appearance.
A. tell
B. talk
C. speak
D. mention
10. Do you feel like going to the cinema tonight?
A. I don’t agree. I’m afraid
B. You’re welcome
C. That would be great D. I feel very bored.
11. We are playing a game. Why don’t you ..........................?
A. join in
B. come in

C. get in
D. break in
12. I rarely go swimming ............................ my house is near the beach.
A. however
B. so
C. but
D. although
13. When I rang the bell, Mary .......................... the door.
A. received
B. responded
C. replied
D. answered
14. He looks thin, but ...................... he is very healthy.
A. practically
B. also
C. actually
D. consequently
15. – I think we should invite 40 guests in stead of 20.
– I agree. The more the ..........................
A. merrier
B. nicer
C. happier
D. greater


V. Reading comprehension. (15 points).
Part A. (10 points). Read the following passage then fill in each gap with ONE
suitable word. Write in your answer sheet.

THE WEIGHT PROBLEM

Being overweight is a common problem nowadays. People are endlessly ( 1.
......... ) and are usually unsuccessful as afterwards they gain it all back and are
even heavier than ( 2. ............. ) were originally. They ( 3. ............ ) constantly
complain of being hungry during the diet.
People are willing to try different methods in order to reach their ideal
(4. .............. ). But some of these ( 5. ..................) can be very harmful indeed.
Astonishing as it may seem, we are ( 6. .............. ) less than we did fifty
years ago but are more obese. Why ? The explanation that researchers give, is
that most of us have a desk-job and a car, and so burn ( 7. ............. ) calories.
This discovery has led to some very simple advice from the medical profession.
They urge people to take the stairs and travel on foot whenever (8. ........), in
order to make (9. ..........) a part of everyday life. This is considered more
sensible than pre-booking an ( 10. ..... ) at a gym.
Part B. (5 points). Read the following passage. Choose and write the best option (A, B ,C or D)
in your answer sheet.

Before ballpoint pens or fountain pens, pens were made from goose feathers.
These goose feathers, called quills, were sharpened and dipped into inkwells,
where they absorbed enough ink to write a few words. It was necessary to keep an
inkwell very close by, as frequent dipping was necessary.
These quill pens were one of the earliest products “ designed” specifically
for left and right- handed people. Feathers from the left wing of the goose worked
best for the right-handers because of the way that the feathers arched. Feathers
from the right wing were preferred by left-handers.
1. Which of the following is the best title for this passage?
E. Early Ballpoint and Fountain Pens.
F. Quill Pens for Lefties and Righties.
G. Where Quill Pens Came from.
H. Various Users for goose Feathers.
2. The passage indicates that a quill pen could hold enough ink to write ............

A. one or two pages.
B. for about one hour.
C. a couple of words.
D. numerous sentences.
3. The word “ designed” in paragraph two could best be replaced by ...........
A. defined
B. devised
C. deformed
D. deferred


4. Which of the following is NOT true about quill pens, according to the passage?
A. Left- handers were unable to use quill pens.
B. Left- handed people generally preferred quills from the right wing.
C. Right- handers could use quill pens.
D. Right- handed people generally preferred quills from the left wing.
5. It can be inferred from the passage that quill pens ................
A. are still used regularly today.
B. are preferred over ballpoint pens.
C. are the best pens for the left- handers.
D. are no longer used much.
VI. Writing: (20 points)
Part A (10 points): Rewrite each sentence, beginning as shown, so that the meaning stays
the same.
1. The station clock showed half past ten.
According ..............................................................................................
2. The fridge was so heavy that we couldn’t move it.
The fridge was too ...................................................................................
3. The heavy rain made it impossible for us to have our picnic.
We were .................................................................................................

4. Let’s go abroad for our holiday this year .
Why............................................................................................................
5. Lucy hasn’t worn that dress since Barbara’s wedding.
The last ...................................................................................................

Part B. ( 5 points) Complete each of the second sentences so that it has a similar
meaning to the first one, using the word given. DO NOT CHANGE THE WORD
GIVEN. You must use between TWO AND FIVE WORDS, including the word
given.
1. We couldn’t find a safer spot to pitch our tent.
That ................................ we could find to pitch our tent.
THE
2. My friends hadn’t eaten, so we decided to go out for dinner.
My friends ............................ , so we decided to go out for dinner. NOT
3. Although he had trained hard, he didn’t manage to win the race.
No ................... he had trained, he didn’t manage to win the race. MATTER
4. There is a possibility that Karen won’t find the time to type those letters
today.
Karen ............................ typing those letters today.
GET
5. Lucy, does the hairdresser style your hair every month?
Lucy, .......................... styled every month?
HAVE


Part B. (5 points)
There are 5 mistakes in the following passage. Find out and correct.
Nobody can deny the benefits of the Internet in our life. However there is a pity for me as
well as for the most of my friends in the countryside. The Internet is available only in cities,
therefore I cannot easy get access to them. I sometimes visit my uncle in the city on weekends,

and this is a good occasion for me to explore the net. I spend most of the time wandering
because I just not know which website is useful for me.
Part C. (5 points )
Write a paragraph of 100 - 120 words to support the argument that secondary school children
should wear casual clothes.

THE END

Họ và tên thí sinh:................................................

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
THANH HOÁ

SBD:...........................

KỲ THI VÀO LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN LAM SƠN
NĂM HỌC: 2011 – 2012

ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ CHUYÊN ANH
MÔN TIẾNG ANH
PHẦN A: ĐÁP ÁN
I. Phonetics: (5 points):
Part A: Choose and write in your answer sheet the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from the rest of the group . ( 3 points )
1. D. precious
2. D. credit
3. B. great
Part B: Choose and write in your answer sheet the word whose stress pattern is different from
the rest of the group. ( 2 points )
4. B. unique

5. C. instantly
II. Verb forms. (15 points):
Supply the correct form of the verb in the parentheses.
1. have been smoking ............ didn’t you quit
2. will be playing
3. will have been rehearsing


4. go
5. to have met
6. were ............ would you like
7. was done
8. being taken
9. was going to be ....... came .......... had .......... will examine ......... gets
III. Word formation. (10 points)

Fill in each blank with the correct form of the word in capital letters. Write the
correct word in your answer sheet.
11. belief
2. known
3. deadly
4. defence/defense 5.
necessity
6. disturbance 7. swelling
8. restriction
9. exhaustion 10. effective
IV. Multiple- choice: (15 points).Choose the best option ( A, B, C or D) to complete each
sentence below and write in your answer sheet.
1. C
2. B

3. A
4. B
5. A
6. C
7. D
8. B
9. B
10. C
11. A
12. D
13. D
14. C
15. A
V. Reading comprehension. (15 points).
Part A. (10 points). Read the following passage then fill in each gap with ONE
suitable word. Write in your answer sheet.

1. dieting
6. eating

2. they
7. fewer

3. also
4. weight
8. possible 9. exercise

5. ways/ methods
10. activity

Part B. (5 points). Read the following passage. Choose and write the best option (A, B ,C or D)
in your answer sheet.

1. B

2. C

3. B

4. A

5. D

VI. Writing: (20 points)
Part A (10 points): Rewrite each sentence, beginning as shown, so that the meaning stays
the same.
1. According to the station clock it was half past ten.
2. The fridge was too heavy for us to move.
4. We were not able/unable to have our picnic
We were prevented from having our picnic because of the heavy rain.
4. Why don’t we go abroad for our holiday this year?
5. The last time Lucy wore that dress was at Barbara’s wedding
when Barbara got married

Part B. ( 5 points) Complete each of the second sentences so that it has a similar
meaning to the first one, using the word given. DO NOT CHANGE THE WORD
GIVEN. You must use between TWO AND FIVE WORDS, including the word
given.

1. That was the safest spot we could find to pitch our tent.
2. My friends not having eaten, so we decided to go out for dinner.
3. No matter how hard he had trained, he didn’t managed to win the race.
4. Karen may / might not get round to typing those letters today.
5. Lucy, do you have your hair styled every month?
Part B. (5 points)
There are 5 mistakes in the following passage. Find out and correct.

1. there is
it is
2. the most of my friends
most of my friends
3. easy
easily
4. to them
to it
5. not know
don’t know
Part C. (5 points ) (Content + grammar + vocabulary 3 points, Genre 2 points )
Bài viết phải đảm bảo đúng qui cách ( presenting one side of an argument ), có
đủ 3 phần sau :
- Introduction : Introduction lets the reader know the writer’s point of view.
( My opinion is .............. / I think ......................
- Series of arguments : Series of arguments presents arguments in a logical way
( one in each paragraph), give examples where possible. ( Firstly,..................,
Secondly,..................... Finally, ..................
- Conclusion : Conclusion sums up the argument. ( Therefore, .............. / In
conclusion,
................... )
PHẦN B: HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

Tổng điểm toàn bài thi: 80 điểm
Điểm bài thi = Tổng số câu, từ hoặc cụm từ đúng
8
( không làm tròn điểm, lấy hai số thập phân)
Thang điểm bài thi: 10


SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
THANH HOÁ
Đề thi chính thức
Đề thi gồm có 05 trang

KÌ THI VÀO LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN LAM SƠN
NĂM HỌC 2012-2013
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh
(Dành cho thí sinh thi vào lớp chuyên Anh)
Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi: 18 tháng 6 năm 2012

I. PHONETICS: (5 POINTS)
Part A: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest
of the group. (3 points)
1. A. threaten
B. smoothly
C. theory
D. cloth
2. A. material
B. attraction
C. access
D. applicant

3. A. most
B. purpose
C. only
D. photo
Part B: Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the rest of the group.
(2 points)
1. A. recent
B. replace
C. defeat
D. describe
2. A. extensive
B. considerate
C. confident
D. destroy
II. VERB FORMS: (20 POINTS)
Supply the correct form of the verb in the brackets.
1. Finally the chocolate is wrapped in paper. It’s now ready ……….. ( sell).
2. When he was a student, he always ……….. (chat) with his friends in the class,
which annoyed his teachers very much.
3. I pretended ……….. (not hear) his question. I didn’t want to answer it.
4. Rarely we ……….. (have) free time when we were upper secondary students.
5. “It was wrong of them to touch the gun of the robber.”


- “You are right. Nothing ……….. (touch) before the police arrived.”
6. A: “I’d like to see your new flat.”
B: -“Well, come tomorrow, but it ……….. (not look) its best, for the painters will
still be working on it.”
7. If it……….. (not be) for Mary’s help, I ……….. (not be) able to take part in the
competition. As it ……….. (be), I managed to win the first prize, so I ………..

(be) eternally indebted to her now.
8. The fire ……….. (spread) to the next building before the firemen ……….. (arrive).
9. By the time he gets back I ……….. (finish) my homework, and then I ………..
(help) him with his.
10. She demands that the garden ……….. (weed) now.
11. The lift ……….. (be) full, I decided to take the stairs.
12. “I saw Peter on the way home yesterday afternoon.” – “You ………..(see)
someone else. He is abroad now.”
13. You ………… (see) Mary, tell her to phone me.
14. A: “Did you remember ……….. (give) him the key of the safe?”
B: - “No, I didn’t. I ………. (do) it now.”
III. WORD FORMATION: (10 POINTS)
Fill in each blank with the correct form of the word in capital letters.
1. As a child I had an ……….. friend called Polly. (IMAGINE)
2. The competitor was ……….. even though his denial of having used the steroids
was so firm. (QUALIFICATION)
3. Parents often choose …………. software for their children to use. (EDUCATE)
4. Chemical ……….. from factories have destroyed our environment. (POLLUTE)
5. Whether there’s life in the other galaxies seems to be an ………..question.
(ANSWER)
6. Energy - ……….. bulbs should be used to save electricity. ( SAVE )
7. ……….., the train had left when we arrived at the station. (LUCKY)
8. What foreign languages do they learn ……….. English? (SIDE)
9. Do you want to send this letter by ………….mail?
(FACE)
10. The university has ……….. the use of dictionaries during language examinations.
(AUTHOR)
IV. MULTIPLE - CHOICE: (15 POINTS)
Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to complete each sentence below.
1. Is it possible to ……….. the twin brothers apart?

A. recognize
B. tell
C. distinguish
D. see
2. ………..its busy nightlife, Amsterdam also offers great shops and many interesting
museums.
A. In addition to
B. More than
C. As well
D. Apart to
3. “Those students study a lot.” – “Yes, ……….. students here are very serious.”
A. most
B. almost
C. most of
D. almost of


4. The whole situation is getting out of _____. Let’s do something before it turns into
a bitter row.
A. capacity
B. charge
C. hand
D. discipline
5. “I am terribly sorry for my being late.” - “………..”
A. Sorry
B. No harm done C. No, thanks
D. Why not
6. I think it was completely thoughtless of you to have turned your back ……….. the
friends asking for your help.
A. behind

B. against
C. on
D. off
7. He stood on one leg, ………..against the wall, while he took off his shoe.
A. stopping
B. staying
C. leaning
D. supporting
8. The girl …………. mother won the first prize in the contest is my best friend.
A. whose
B. who
C. that
D. whom
9. We ……….. at about seven o’clock this morning and we eventually arrived at
eleven.
A. set in
B. set up
C. set out
D. set to
10. Just keep an eye on the baby while I cook dinner, ………..?
A. will you
B. won’t you
C. do you
D. don’t you
11. It was Sunday. ……….. shop was open, all the others were closed.
A. One
B. A
C. An
D. Some
12. Gravity, ………….. by Isaac Newton, is being widely applied in physics.

A. discover
B. discovered
C. discovering
D. to discover
13. ………….. it was a nice day, we decided to go on a picnic.
A. In case
B. Whereas
C. Even though
D. Since
14. “How do you like your steak done?” - “…………..”
A. I don’t like it much
B. I like it
C. Well-done, please
D. Not very well
15. Which is NOT true about the meaning of “look up”?
A. improve
B. look for information in a dictionary
C. visit
D. examine
V. READING: ( 30 POINTS )
Part A: Fill each of the numbered blanks in the following passage. Use only one
suitable word for each space. (10 points)
Of all the natural wonders of the world, ( 1. ......... ) are as spectacular as Niagara
Falls. Located on (2. .......... ) Niagara river along the border between the United States
and Canada, Niagara (3. ......... ) consists of ( 4. .............) falls, the American Falls and the
Horseshoe Falls. The former is on the US side of the border, in the state of New York,
while the ( 5. ............ ) is on the ( 6. ............ ) side. About 85% of the water in Niagara
river flows over the Horseshoe Falls, which is the (7. ........... ) impressive of the two falls.
About ten million people visit the falls (8. ............ ) year, most during the summer tourist
season. Sightseers can ride steamers up close to the boiling water of the falls, or view

( 9. ........... ) from parks on both sides of the river. Niagara has long been a popular
( 10. ............ ) destination for newlyweds.