De thi thu tieng anh 12 truong THPT nguyen hue 2015

SỞ GD-ĐT TÂY NINH
TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN HUỆ

ĐỀ THI THỬ TUYỂN SINH QUỐC GIA 2015
Môn: Tiếng Anh
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút
(Không kể thời gian phát đề)

I. MULTIPLE CHOICES (64 Questions; 8.0 points)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. appeal

B. clear

C. heat

D. deal

Question 2: A.reformed

B.appointed

C.stayed

D.installed

Question 3: A. players

B. rejects

C. always

D. confides

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose stress pattern is different
from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 4: A. activity

B. development

C. participant

D. information

Question 5: A. sociable

B. vacancy

C. opponent

D. habitat

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Niagara Falls, one of the most famous North American natural wonders, has long been a popular tourist
destination. Tourists today flock to see the two falls that actually constitute Niagara Falls: the 173-foot
Horseshoe Falls on the Canadian side of the Niagara River in the Canadian province of Ontario and the
182-foot-high American Falls on the US side of the river in the state of New York. Approximately 85 per cent
of the water that goes over the falls actually goes over Horseshoe Falls, with the rest going over American
Falls.

Most visitors come between April and October, and it is quite a popular activity to take a steamer out onto
the river and right up to the base of thte falls for a closer-up view. It is also possible to get a spectacular
view of the falls from the strategic locations along the Niagara River, such as Prospect Point or Table Rock,
or from one of four observation towers which have heights up to 500 feet.
Tourists have been visiting Niagara Falls in large numbers since the 1800s; annually visitation now
averages above ten million visitors per year. Because of concern that all these tourists would inadvertently
destroy the natural beauty of the scenic wonder, the state of New York in 1885 created Niagara Falls Park in
order to protect the land surrounding American Falls. A year later Canada created Queen Victoria Park on
the Canadian side of the Niagara, around Horseshoe Falls. With the area surrounding the falls under the
jurisdiction of government agencies, appropriate steps could be taken to preserve the pristine beauty of the
area.
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Question 6: What is the major point the author is making in this passage?
A. Niagara Falls can be viewed from either the American side or the Canadian side.
B. A trip to the United State isn’t complete without a visit to Niagara Falls
C. Niagara Falls has had an interesting story
D. It has been necessary to protect Niagara Falls from the the many tourists who go there
Question 7: The word "flock" in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by ______
A. come by plane

B. come in large numbers

C. come out of boredom

D. come without knowing what they will see

Question 8: According to the passage, which of the following best describes Niagara Falls?
A. Niagara Falls consists of two river, one Canadian and the other American.

B. American Falls is considerably higher than Horseshoe Falls.
C. The Niagara Falls has two falls, one in Canada and one in the United States.
D. Although the Niagara River flows through the United State and Canada, the falls are only in the
United State.
Question 9: A ‘steamer’ in the second paragraph is probaly ______.
A. a bus

B. a boat

C. a walkway

D. a park

Question 10: The expression ‘right up’ in the second paragraph could best be replaced by ______.
A. turn to the right

B. follow correct procedures

C. travel upstream

D. all the way up

Question 11: The passage implied that tourists prefer to _______.
A. visit Niagara Falls during warmer weather

B. see the falls from a great distance

C. take a ride over the falls

D.come to Niagara Falls for a winter vacation

Question 12: According to the passage, why was Niagara Park created?
A. To encourage tourists to visit Niagara Falls.
B. To show off the natural beauty of Niagara Falls.
C. To protect the area around Niagara Falls.
D. TO force Canada to open Queeen Victoria Park.
Question 13: The word ‘jurisdiction’ in the last paragraph is closest in mening to ______.
A. view

B. assistance

C. taxation

D. control

Question 14: The word ‘pristine’ in the last paragraph is closest in mening to ______.
A. pure and natural

B. highly developd

C. well-regulated

D. overused

Question 15: The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses _______.
A. additional ways to observe the falls
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B. steps taken by government agencies to protect the falls

C. a detailed description of the division of the falls between the United States and Canada
D. further problems that are destroying the area around the falls
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 16: I will not be here next week. I am going to be ________ business in Mexico.
A. about

B. in

C. at

D. on

Question 17: A number of wildlife reserves have been established ________ endangered species can have a
chance to survive and develop.
A. so that

B. in order to

C. therefore

D. so as to

Question 18: Last month I went to visit the college ________ I studied from 1985 to 1990.
A. where

B. when

C. that

D. who

Question 19: Bob has a bad lung cancer and his doctor has advised him to ________ smoking.
A. give up

B. put up

C. turn up

D. take up

Question 20: If you had taken your dad's advice, you ________ such a silly mistake.
A. would have avoid

B. avoid

C. would have avoided D. have avoided

Question 21: Rosemary Dare is a wildlife photographer. She ________ in Uganda for many years.
A. has been living

B. lives

C. is living

D. will live

Question 22: Mrs. Brown was the first owner ________ dog won three prizes in the same show.
A. her

B. whom

C. who

D. whose

Question 23: The more you practise your English, ________ .
A. the faster will you learn

B. the faster you will learn

C. you will learn faster

D. faster you will learn

Question 24: In some countries, many old-aged parents like to live in a nursing home. They want to
________ independent lives.
A. see

B. take

C. give

D. lead

Question 25: Traditionally, Americans and Asians have very different ideas ________ love and marriage.
A. to

B. in

C. about

D. at

Question 26: Did you read ________ book I lent you last week?
A. an

B. a

C. the

D. Ø

C. something

D. nothing

Question 27: I'm so hungry. Let’s go and get ________ to eat.
A. everywhere

B. anyone

Question 28: Diana: ‘I didn't know you could play the guitar so well, Toan. Your tune was lovely!’
Toan: ‘________.’
A. You are welcome

B. Never mind
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C. I bought it near my house last week

D. You've got to be kidding! I thought it was

terrible
Question 29: During the week of national tourism festival, we had visitors ________ from all over the
country.
A. come

B. to have come

C. to come

D. coming

Question 30: You won't know what to do ________ you listen carefully.
A. or

B. if

C. and

D. unless

Question 31: Jack: ‘Can I use your computer?’ Jill: ‘________.’
A. Yes, I can

B. No, thanks

C. Of course

D. Well done

Question 32: Olek: ‘Your kitchen is fantastic! Did you do it all by yourself?’ Shaival: ‘No, I ________ by
a professional.’
A. had designed it

B. have it designed

C. designed it

D. had it designed

Question 33: My brothers love ________ my father in mending things around the house at weekends.
A. joining

B. joined

C. being joined

D. join

Question 34: The majority of Asian students reject the American ________ that marriage is a partnership of
equals.
A. attitude

B. look

C. view

D. thought

Question 35: We will leave for the airport ________ he is ready.
A. while

B. until

C. as soon as

D. during

Question 36: If she ________ a car, she would go out in the evening.
A. had

B. has had

C. has

D. have

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springsdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology at college
and zoology at Johns Hopkins University, where she received her master’s degree in 1933. In 1936, she was
hired by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, where she worked most of her life.
Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wind, was published in 1941. It received excellent reviews, but
sales were poor until it was reissued in 1952. In that year she published The Sea Around Us, which provided
a fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface, emphasizing human history as well as geology and marine
biology. Her imagery and language had a poetic quality. Carson consulted no less than 1,000 printed sources.
She had voluminous correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in the field. However, she always

realized the limitations of her nontechnical readers.
In 1962, Carson published Silent Spring, a book that sparked considerable controversy. It proved how
much harm was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides. She detailed how they poison the food
supply of animals, kill birds and fish, and contaminate human food. At the time, spokesmen for the chemical
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industry mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued propaganda to indicate that her findings were
flawed. However, her work was proved by a 1963 report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee.
(Source: TOEFL Reading)
Question 37. The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work
A. as a researcher

B. at college

C. at the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service

D. as a writer

Question 38. According to the passage, what did Carson primarily study at Johns Hopkins University?
A. oceanography

B. zoology

C. literature

D. history

Question 39. When she published her first book, Carson was closest to the age of
A. 26

B. 29

C. 34

D. 45

Question 40. It can be inferred from the passage that in 1952, Carson’s book Under the Sea Wind
A. was outdated

B. became more popular than her other books

C. was praised by critics

D. sold many copies

Question 41. Which of the following was NOT mentioned in the passage as a source of information for The
Sea Around Us?
A. printed matter

B. talks with experts

C. a research expedition

D. letters from scientists

Question 42. Which of the following words or phrases is LEAST accurate in describing The Sea Around
Us?
A. highly technical

B. poetic

C. fascinating

D. well-researched

Question 43. The word “reckless” in line 11 is closest in meaning to
A. unnecessary

B. limited

C. continuous

D. irresponsible

Question 44. According to the passage, Silent Spring is primarily
A. an attack on the use of chemical preservatives in food
B. a discussion of the hazards insects pose to the food supply
C. a warning about the dangers of misusing insecticides
D. an illustration of the benefits of the chemical industry
Question 45. The word “flawed” in line 14 is closest in meaning to
A. faulty

B. deceptive

C. logical

D. offensive

Question 46. Why does the author of the passage mention the report of the President’s Science Advisory

Committee ( lines 14-15)?
A. To provide an example of government propaganda.
B. To support Carson’s ideas.
C. To indicate a growing government concern with the environment.
D. To validate the chemical industry’s claims.
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 47: My sister told me that she had met my teacher at the supermarket yesterday
A
B
C
D
Question 48: To attract someone's attention we can use either verbal and non- verbal forms of
A
B
C
Communication.
D
Question 49: Today was such beautiful day that I couldn't bring myself to complete all my chores.
A
B
C
D
Question 50: Vietnam exports a lot of rice is grown mainly in the south of the country.
A
B
C

D
Question 51: Hardly he had entered the office when he realized that he had forgotten his wallet.
A
B
C
D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 52: Thanh Hoa is well-known for its beautiful beaches and seafood.
A. honest

B. rich

C. famous

D. successful

C. busy

D. quiet

C. the long day

D. all day long

Question 53: What do you like doing in your spare time?
A. free

B. enjoyable

Question 54: We spent the entire day looking for a new hotel.
A. all long day

B. day after day

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word for each of the blanks.
One of the most urgent environmental problems in the world today is the shortage of clean water.
Having clean drinking water is a basic human right. But acid rain, (55) _____ pollution and garbage have
made many sources of water undrinkable. Lakes, reservoirs and even entire seas have become vast pools (56)
_____ poison. Lake Baikal in Russia is one of the largest lakes in the world. It (57) _____ a rich variety of
animals and plants, including 1,300 rare species that do not exist (58) _____ else in the world. But they are
being destroyed by the massive volumes of toxic effluent which (59) _____ into the lake every day. Even
where law existed, the government did not have the power to enforce them.
Most industries simply ignore the regulations. The Mediterranean Sea (60) _____ 1% of the world's
water surface. But it is the dumping (61) _____ for 50% of all marine pollution. Almost 16 countries
regularly throw industrial wastes a few miles (62) _____ shore.
Water is free to everyone. A few years ago, people thought that the supply of clean water in the world
was limitless. Today, many water supplies have been (63) _____ by pollution and sewage. Clean water is
now scarce, and we are at last beginning to respect this precious (64) _____. We should do something now.
(Source: v14ilovetranslation.com)
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Question 55: A. industry

B. industrial

C. industrialized

D. industrious

Question 56: A. on

B. of

C. to

D. in

Question 57: A. encloses

B. contains

C. composes

D. consists

Question 58: A. anywhere

B. where

C. somewhere

D. everywhere

Question 59: A. pour

B. burn

C. boil

D. stay

Question 60: A. makes

B. occupies

C. holds

D. comprises

Question 61: A. ground

B. land

C. soil

D. shore

Question 62: A. on

B. off

C. away

D. of

Question 63: A. ruined

B. made

C. conserved

D. kept

Question 64: A. source

B. nature

C. outlet

D. well

II. WRITING (2.0 points)
Part 1. Transformation (0.5 point): Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the
same as the sentence printed before it.
Question 65: They are going to build a new school in this area.
à A new school __________________________________________________________
Question 66: He can’t give you a lift because he doesn’t have a car.
à If he had_________________________________________________________________
Question 67: “I’ll come to see you next weekend,” Nam said to Lan.
à Nam promised ______________________________________________________________
Question 68: My book is not as expensive as yours.
à Your book is _______________________________________________________________
Question 69: He didn’t know how to swim until he was 30.
à It was not until _________________________________________________________
Part 2. Paragraph writing (1.5 point)
Suppose you were offered a job with one of the following international organizations: WWF (World Wildlife
Fund), WHO (World Health Organization), and the UN (United Nations). Which one would you like to

choose? Write a paragraph of 100-120 words expressing the reasons why you choose the organization.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………….

ANSWER KEY:
1. B
2. B
3. B
4. D
5. C
6. D
7. B
8. C
9. B

10.D
11.A
12.C
13.D
14.A
15.B
16.D
17.A
18.A
19.A
20.C
21.A
22. D
23. B
24. D
25. C
26. C

27. C
28. D
29. D
30. D
31. C
32. D
33. A
34. C
35. C
36. A
37. D
38. B

39. C
40. D
41. C
42. A
43. D
44. C
45. A
46. B
47.D
48. C
49. A
50. B
51. A
52. C

53. A
54. D
55. B
56. B
57. B
58. A
59. A
60. B
61. A
62. B
63. A
64. A

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