THPT NGUYEN TRUNG TRUC đề thi thử thpt môn tiếng anh

Sở GD & ĐT Tây Ninh

THPT Nguyễn Trung Trực

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2016
Môn: Tiếng Anh
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút

SECTION A (8 points)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1. A. Valentine
B. imagine
C. discipline
D. determine
2. A. loved
B. appeared
C. coughed
D. agreed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the primary stress in each of the following questions.
3. A. permanent
B. continue
C. complete
D. relationship
4. A. military
B. satisfactory
C. television
D. generously
5. A. debate
B. behaviour

C. insider
D. habitat
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
6. On the 20th of this month, I _______ here for exactly for two years.
A. will have been working
B. will work
C. will be working
D. will have worked
7. My father says he’d _______the operation unless it is absolutely necessary.
A. rather not to have
B. rather not have
C. not rather had
D. rather not having
8. She came in quietly_______ not to wake the baby up.
A. as if
B. such as
C. so as
D. if so
9. Let’s sit down for a short rest, _________?
A. don’t we
B. let we
C. do we
D. shall we
10. _______ what most people say about him, he has a very good sense of humor.
A. Against
B. Opposing
C. Opposite to
D. Contrary to
th

11. Not until the end of the 19 century _____ become a scientific discipline.
A. plant breeding has
B. did plant breeding
C. plant breeding had
D. has plant breeding
12. My director is angry with me. I didn’t do all the work I ______ last week.
A. should have done
B. may have done
C. need to have done
D. must have done
13. ______ that the English settled in Jamestown.
A. In 1607 that it was
B. It was in 1607
C. Because in 1607
D. That in 1607
14. In many big cities, people have to ______ up with noise, overcrowding and bad air.
A. keep
B. catch
C. face
D. put
15. Of those _____ took the driving test last week, I am the only one who studied for it.
A. whom
B. whoever
C. who
D. that
16. People living in _____ areas need more help from charity organizations
A. flooding
B. flood-affected
C. flood-affecting
D. food

17. Anne: “Make yourself at home.”
John: “__________”
A. Yes, can I help you?
B. Not at all. Don’t mention it
C. Thanks! Same to you
D. It’s very kind of you. Thank you
18. “What shall we do this weekend?” - “___________”
A. No problem
B. Let’s go out for the zoo
C. Oh, that’s good
D. I’ll go out for dinner
19. People should go jogging in the morning_______.
A. keeping fit
B. making fit
C. to keep fit
D. to make them fix
20. There is ______ in my bed room.
A. an old square wooden table
B. a square wooden old table
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C. a square old wooden table
D. a wooden square old table
21. _______ in the United States declined from nine million in the 1970s to under 5 million in 1981.
A. For a number of horses
B. When the number of horses
C. The number of horses
D. That the number of horses
22. Not only ______ a good biologist but also a talent pianist.

A. he is famous as
B. he appears to be
C. appears as he is
D. is he known as
23. Fossils fuels like coal, gas and oil produce carbon dioxide when______
A. are burned
B. they burned
C. burned
D. are they burned
24. ______ in these landscapes, the more vitality and character the paintings seem to possess.
A. The brushwork is loose
B. The looser brushwork
C. The loose brushwork is
D. The looser the brushwork is
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)SIMILAR in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
25. The Republic of South Africa occupies the southern tip of the continent.
A. takes up
B. takes in
C. takes over
D. takes on
26. These factories were ugly buildings with high chimneys pouring out black smoke.
A. forming
B. sending
C. giving
D. releasing
27. For centuries people made up stories about dragons.
A. constructed
B. beautified
C. created

D. prepared
28. The air is naturally contaminated by foreign matter such as plant pollens and dust.
A. polluted
B. occupied
C. filled
D. concentrated
29. Overpopulation tends to create conditions which may result in famine after the failure of a single
crop.
A. bring over
B. bring about
C. bring up
D. bring back
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
30. Because attitudes shape behaviour, psychologists want to find out how are opinions formed.
A
B
C
D
31. Not everyone realizes that the most largest of the human body is the skin.
A
B
C
D
32. The mining of minerals often bring about the destruction of landscapes and wildlife habitats.
A
B
C
D
33. The root of the trees allows the water to go into the soil, that gradually releases it to flow down

A
B
C
D
rivers.
34. Applicants are required to take the National Entrance Examination before admitted to higher
A
B
C
education institutions.
D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
When you are (35) interviewed for a job, remember that it’s normal for many people to be
nervous, particularly in such a stress-producing
(36) . There are plenty of jobs – indeed,
probably most – where a little nervousness isn’t looked at askance. It does help to (37) a damp
brow or a clammy hand just before meeting the interview, but otherwise, don’t be too concerned
(38)
the outward manifestations of your nervousness. Experienced interviewers will discount
most physical (39)
of nervousness. The only one that people have a hard time ignoring is a
fidgety hand. Interviewers who constantly twist their hands or make (40) that are dramatically
distracting are calling attention to their nervousness.
Remember that interviewers talk to people in order to hire, not because they enjoy
embarrassing uneasy applicants. One way to overcome a flustered (41) , or “butterflies in the
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stomach”, is to note that interviewers want to hire people who have something to (42)

the
company. If interviewers think you will (43) into their organization, you will be the one who is
sought after. It’s almost (44) if you are interviewing them to see if they are good enough for
you.
35. A. being
B. having
C. passing
D. doing
36. A. level
B. point
C. situation
D. scene
37. A. heat
B. dry
C. cover
D. water
38. A. onto
B. on
C. into
D. about
39. A. sets
B. sights
C. points
D. signs
40. A. movements B. motions
C. shows
D. displays
41. A. show
B. expression
C. feeling

D. sense
42. A. run
B. offer
C. set
D. fix
43. A. fit
B. pass
C. fix
D. set
44. A. like
B. as
C. that
D. only
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54.
The reasons for the extinction of a species and for the rapid rates of change in our environment are
currently the focus of much scientific research. An individual species' susceptibility to extinction
depends on at least two things: the taxon (the biological group - kingdom, phylum, class, order, family,
or genus) to which a species belongs, and the overall rate of environmental change. Fossil evidence
shows that more mammals and birds become extinct than do mollusks or insects. Studies of the
extinction of the dinosaurs and other reptiles during the Cretaceous Period show that a changing
environment affects different taxa in different ways. Some may be dramatically affected, others less so.
The best way to answer the question of what causes an extinction is to combine fields of inquiry and
a variety of viewpoints. Using the fossil record and historical documentation, the different rates of the
extinction of various taxa and different responses to environmental change can be detected.
Then
the evolutionary development of the different species can be compared, and traits that may be
disadvantageous can be singled out. Finally, researchers can use mathematical formulae to determine
whether a population is likely to adapt itself to the changing environment or disappear. Hopefully, as
more of this information is collected, specialists in different fields - e.g. physiological and behavioral

ecology, population ecology, community ecology, evolutionary biology and systematics, biogeography,
and pale biology — will work together to make predictions about the broader changes that might occur
in the ecosystem.
45. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?
A. assessment of the work of specialists concerned with ecology
B. a discussion of possible causes of extinction, and of ways to make predictions about
environmental change
C. the changing aspects of our environment
D. a comparison of the extinction rates of different taxa
46. The word “susceptibility” in line 2 is closest in meaning to ……………………
A. insensitivity
B. receptiveness
C. immunity
D. vulnerability
47. An example of a taxon would be ……………………..
A. a phylum
B. the rate of environmental change
C. a fossil
D. studies of extinction
48. The author compares mammals and birds to…………………………
A. mollusks and insects
B. phylum and class
C. dinosaurs and reptiles
D. ecologists and biologists
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49. It can be inferred from the passage that a significant event of the Cretaceous Period was…………….
A. the appearance of many taxa
B. the dramatic effect of the dinosaur on the environment

C. the extinction of birds
D. the extinction of dinosaurs
50. It can be inferred from the passage that dinosaurs ………………….
A. included species that were mammals
B. were better represented in the fossil record than other species
C. possessed disadvantageous traits
D. were not susceptible to extinction
51. The word “dramatically” in line 7 means …………….
A. strongly
B. inspiringly
C. flimsily
D. visually
52. From the passage it can be inferred that disadvantageous traits are………………
A. occurring at different rates
B. a contributing cause of extinction
C. adaptable
D. learned by mathematical formulas
53. According to the passage, the likelihood of a population becoming extinct can be ………………..
A. lessened by the efforts of a few concerned specialists
B. unaffected by environmental change
C. determined by mathematical formulas
D. almost impossible to ascertain
54. The word “broader” in line 16 is closest in meaning to…………………….
A. fatter
B. extra
C. wider
D. many
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64.
Herman Melville, an American author best known today for his novel Moby Dick, was actually

more popular during his lifetime for some of his other works. He traveled extensively and used the
knowledge gained during his travels as the basis for his early novels. In 1837, at the age of eighteen,
Melville signed as a cabin boy on a merchant ship that was to sail from his Massachusetts home to
Liverpool, England. His experiences on this trip served as a basis for the novel Redburn (1849). In
1841, Melville set out on a whaling ship headed for the South Seas. After jumping ship in Tahiti, he
wandered around the islands of Tahiti and Moorea. This South Sea island sojourn was a backdrop to the
novel Omoo (1847). After three years away from home, Melville joined up with a U.S. naval frigate
that was returning to the eastern United States around Cape Horn. The novel White-Jacket (1850)
describes this lengthy voyage as a navy seaman.
With the publication of these early adventure novels, Melville developed a strong and loyal
following among readers eager for his tales of exotic places and situations. However, in 1851, with the
publication of Moby Dick, Melville's popularity started to diminish. Moby Dick, on one level the saga of
the hunt for the great white whale, was also a heavily symbolic allegory of the heroic struggle of human
against the universe. The public was not ready for Melville’s literary metamorphosis from romantic
adventure to philosophical symbolism. It is ironic that the novel that served to diminish Melville's
popularity during his lifetime is the one for which he is best known today.
55. The main subject of the passage is………………………….
A. Melville’s travels
B. the popularity of Melville’s novels
C. Melville’s personal background
D. Moby Dick
56. According to the passage, Melville’s early novels were…………………………
A. published while he was traveling
B. completely fictional
C. all about his work on whaling ships
D. based on his travels
57. In what year did Melville’s book about his experiences as a cabin boy appear?
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A. 1837
B. 1841
C. 1847
D. 1849
58. The word “basis” in line 5 is closest in meaning to…………………………
A. foundation
B. message
C. bottom
D. theme
59. The passage implies that Melville stayed in Tahiti because…………………………
A. he had unofficially left his ship
B. he was on leave while his ship was in port
C. he had finished his term of duty
C. he had received permission to take a vacation in Tahiti
60. The word “frigate” in line 8 is probably…………………………………..
A. an office
B. a ship
C. a troop
D. a train
61. How did the publication of Moby Dick affect Melville’s popularity?
A. His popularity increased immediately.
B. It had no effect on his popularity.
C. It caused his popularity to decrease.
D. His popularity remained as strong as ever.
62. According to the passage, Moby Dick is………………………………
A. a romantic adventure
B. a single-faceted work
C. a short story about a whale
D. symbolic of humanity fighting the environment
63. The word “metamorphosis” in line 15 is closest in meaning to…………………..

A. circle
B. change
C. mysticism
D. descent
64. The passage would most likely be assigned reading in a course on………………..
A. nineteenth-century novels
B. American history
C. oceanography
D. modern American literature
SECTION B (2points)
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it.
65. Mr. Smith knew little about the Internet, so he didn't invest into any computer companies.
Had______________________________
66. I have not eaten this kind of food before.
This is the first________________________
67. No one has used that door for 20 years.
That door________________________
68. I had no sooner closed the door than somebody knocked.
Hardly had _____________________________
69. The film star wore dark glasses so that no one would recognize him.
The film star avoided_______________________________________________
II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the job you would like to do in the future.
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THPT Nguyễn Trung Trực
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2016
PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM (8 điểm)
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Câu số
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19

20
21
22

Đáp án
A
C
A
B
D
A
B
C
D
D
B
A
B
D
C
B
D
B
C
A
C
D

Câu số
23

24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44

Đáp án
C
D
A
D
C
A
B

D
B
B
B
D
A
C
B
D
D
A
C
B
A
B

Câu số
45
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
56
57

58
59
60
61
62
63
64

Đáp án
B
D
A
A
D
C
A
B
C
C
B
D
D
A
A
B
C
D
B
A

PHẦN VIẾT (2 điểm)
I.
(0,5 đ)
65. Had Mr. Smith known something/ more about the Internet, he would have invested into some
computer companies.
66. This is the first time I have ever eaten this kind of food.
67. That door has not been used for 20 years.
68. Hardly had I closed the door when somebody knocked.
69. The film star avoided being recognized by wearing dark glasses.

II.

(1,5 đ)

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Mô tả tiêu chí đánh giá
1.

2.

Bố cục
- Câu đề dẫn chủ đề mạch lạc
- Bố cục hợp lí rõ ràng phù hợp yêu cầu của đề bài
- Bố cục uyển chuyển từ mở bài đến kết luận
Phát triển ý
- Phát triển ý có trình tự logic
- Có dẫn chứng, ví dụ, … đủ để bảo vệ ý kiến
của mình

Điểm tối đa
0,40

0,25

3.

Sử dụng ngôn từ
- Sử dụng ngôn từ phù hợp nội dung
- Sử dụng ngôn từ đúng văn phong/ thể loại
- Sử dụng từ nối các ý cho bài viết uyển chuyển

0,30

4.

Nội dung
- Đủ thuyết phục người đọc
- Đủ dẫn chứng, ví dụ, lập luận
- Độ dài: Số từ không nhiều hơn hoặc ít hơn so với
quy định 5%
Ngữ pháp, dấu câu, và chính tả:
- Sử dụng đúng dấu câu
- Chính tả: Viết đúng chính tả
 Lỗi chính tả gây hiểu nhầm/ sai
lệch ý sẽ tính một lỗi (trừ 1%
điểm của bài viết)
 Cùng một lỗi chính tả lặp lại chỉ
tính là một lỗi.

- Sử dụng đúng thời, thể cấu trúc câu đúng ngữ
pháp. (Lỗi ngữ pháp gây hiểu nhầm/ sai lệch ý sẽ bị
trừ 1% điểm của bài viết)

0,30

Tổng

1,50

5.

0,25

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