tổng hợp đề thi thpt quốc gia môn tiếng anh của bộ giáo dục từ năm 2010- 2017 có đáp án và giải thích từng câu

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ
(Đề thi có 05 trang)

KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
Môn: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. wanted

B. stopped

C. decided

D. hated

Question 2: A. century

B. culture

C. secure

D. applicant

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. offer

B. canoe

C. country

D. standard

Question 4: A. pollution

B. computer

C. currency

D. allowance

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5: Measles are an infectious disease that causes fever and small red spots.
A
B
C
D
Question 6: He passed the exams with high scores, that made his parents happy.
A
B
C
D
Question 7: For such a demanding job, you will need qualifications, soft skills and having full commitment.
A
B
C

D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 8: I haven‘t met him again since we ______ school ten years ago.
A. have left
B. leave
C. left
D. had left
Question 9: A recent survey has shown that ______ increasing number of men are willing to share the
housework with their wives.
A. a
B. an
C. the
D. some
Question 10: The more demanding the job is, ______ I like it.
A. more
B. most
C. the more
D. the most
Question 11: John wanted to know ______ in my family.
A. there were how many people
B. how many people were there
C. were there how many people
D. how many people there were
Question 12: Richard, my neighbor, _______ in World War II.
A. says to fight
B. says to have fought C. is said to fight
D. is said to have fought
Question 13: Students are ______ less pressure as a result of changes in testing procedures.

A. under
B. above
C. upon
D. out of
Question 14: Tom is getting ever keener on doing research on ______.
A. biology
B. biological
C. biologist
D. biologically
Question 15: Many people and organizations have been making every possible effort in order to save ______
species.
A. endangered
B. dangerous
C. fearful
D. threatening
Question 16: A number of young teachers nowadays ______ themselves to teaching disadvantaged children.
A. offer
B. stick
C. give
D. devote
Question 17: Whistling or clapping hands to get someone‘s attention is considered ______ and even rude in
some circumstances.
A. suitable
B. unnecessary
C. appropriate
D. impolite
Question 18: ―Sorry for being late. I was ______ in the traffic for more than an hour.‖
A. carried on
B. held up
C. put off

D. taken after
Question 19: She was tired and couldn‘t keep ______ the group.
A. up with
B. up against
C. on to
D. out of

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Two friends Diana and Anne are talking about Anne‘s new blouse.
- Diana: ―That blouse suits you perfectly, Anne.‖
- Anne: ―______‖
A. Never mind.
B. Don‘t mention it.
C. Thank you.
D. You‘re welcome.
Question 21: Mary is talking to a porter in the hotel lobby.
- Porter: ―Shall I help you with your suitcase?‖
- Mary: ―______‖
A. Not a chance.
B. That‘s very kind of you.
C. I can‘t agree more.
D. What a pity!

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Students are expected to always adhere to school regulations.

A. question
B. violate
C. disregard
D. follow
Question 23: A number of programs have been initiated to provide food and shelter for the underprivileged in
the remote areas of the country.
A. rich citizens
B. active members
C. poor inhabitants
D. enthusiastic people

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Drivers are advised to get enough petrol because filling stations are few and far between on the
highway.
A. easy to find
B. difficult to access
C. unlikely to happen
D. impossible to reach
Question 25: We managed to get to school in time despite the heavy rain.
A. earlier than a particular moment
B. later than expected
C. early enough to do something
D. as long as expected

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: I‘m sure Luisa was very disappointed when she failed the exam.
A. Luisa must be very disappointed when she failed the exam.
B. Luisa must have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.

C. Luisa may be very disappointed when she failed the exam.
D. Luisa could have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.
Question 27: ―You had better see a doctor if the sore throat does not clear up,‖ she said to me.
A. She reminded me of seeing a doctor if the sore throat did not clear up.
B. She ordered me to see a doctor if the sore throat did not clear up.
C. She insisted that I see a doctor unless the sore throat did not clear up.
D. She suggested that I see a doctor if the sore throat did not clear up.
Question 28: Without her teacher‘s advice, she would never have written such a good essay.
A. Her teacher advised him and she didn‘t write a good essay.
B. Her teacher didn‘t advise her and she didn‘t write a good essay.
C. She wrote a good essay as her teacher gave her some advice.
D. If her teacher didn‘t advise her, she wouldn‘t write such a good essay.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: She tried very hard to pass the driving test. She could hardly pass it.
A. Although she didn‘t try hard to pass the driving test, she could pass it.
B. Despite being able to pass the driving test, she didn‘t pass it.
C. No matter how hard she tried, she could hardly pass the driving test.
D. She tried very hard, so she passed the driving test satisfactorily.

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Question 30: We didn‘t want to spend a lot of money. We stayed in a cheap hotel.
A. Rather than spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.
B. In spite of spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.
C. We stayed in a cheap hotel, but we had to spend a lot of money.
D. We didn‘t stay in a cheap hotel as we had a lot of money to spend.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
WAYS TO IMPROVE YOUR MEMORY
A good memory is often seen as something that comes naturally, and a bad memory as something that
cannot be changed, but actually (31)______ is a lot that you can do to improve your memory.
We all remember the things we are interested in and forget the ones that bore us. This no doubt explains
the reason (32)______ schoolboys remember football results effortlessly but struggle with dates from their
history lessons! Take an active interest in what you want to remember, and focus on it (33)______. One way
to ‗make‘ yourself more interested is to ask questions — the more the better!
Physical exercise is also important for your memory, because it increases your heart (34)______ and sends
more oxygen to your brain, and that makes your memory work better. Exercise also reduces stress, which is
very bad for the memory.
The old saying that ―eating fish makes you brainy‖ may be true after all. Scientists have discovered that the
fats (35)______ in fish like tuna, sardines and salmon — as well as in olive oil — help to improve the memory.
Vitamin-rich fruits such as oranges, strawberries and red grapes are all good ‗brain food‘, too.
Question 31: A. there

B. it

Question 32: A. why
Question 33: A. hardly

(Source: ―New Cutting Edge‖, Cunningham, S. & Moor. 2010. Harlow: Longman)

C. that

D. this

B. what

C. how

D. which

B. slightly

C. consciously

D. easily

Question 34: A. degree

B. level

C. rate

D. grade

Question 35: A. made

B. existed

C. founded

D. found

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
It used to be that people would drink coffee or tea in the morning to pick them up and get them going for
the day. Then cola drinks hit the market. With lots of caffeine and sugar, these beverages soon became the

pick-me-up of choice for many adults and teenagers. Now drink companies are putting out so-called "energy
drinks." These beverages have the specific aim of giving tired consumers more energy.
One example of a popular energy drink is Red Bull. The company that puts out this beverage has stated in
interviews that Red Bull is not a thirst quencher. Nor is it meant to be a fluid replacement drink for athletes.
Instead, the beverage is meant to revitalize a tired consumer's body and mind. In order to do this, the makers
of Red Bull, and other energy drinks, typically add vitamins and certain chemicals to their beverages. The added
chemicals are like chemicals that the body naturally produces for energy. The vitamins, chemicals, caffeine, and
sugar found in these beverages all seem like a sure bet to give a person energy.
Health professionals are not so sure, though. For one thing, there is not enough evidence to show that all of
the vitamins added to energy drinks actually raise a person's energy level. Another problem is that there are so
many things in the beverages. Nobody knows for sure how all of the ingredients in energy drinks work together.
Dr. Brent Bauer, one of the directors at the Mayo Clinic in the US, cautions people about believing all the
claims energy drinks make. He says, ―It is plausible if you put all these things together, you will get a good
result.‖ However, Dr. Bauer adds the mix of ingredients could also have a negative impact on the body. ―We
just don't know at this point,‖ he says.

(Source: ―Reading Challenge 2‖, Casey Malarcher & Andrea Janzen, Compass Publishing)

Question 36: The beverages mentioned in the first paragraph aim to give consumers ______.
A. caffeine
B. sugar
C. more energy
D. more choices
Question 37: The word “it” in the second paragraph refers to ______.
A. one example
B. the company
C. Red Bull

C. thirst quencher

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Question 38: According to the passage, what makes it difficult for researchers to know if an energy drink
gives people energy?
A. Natural chemicals in a person‘s body
B. The average age of the consumer
C. The number of beverage makers
D. The mixture of various ingredients
Question 39: The word ―plausible‖ in the passage is closest in meaning to _______.
A. impossible
B. reasonable
C. typical
D. unlikely
Question 40: What has Dr. Bauer probably researched?
A. Countries where Red Bull is popular
B. Energy drinks for teenage athletes
C. Habits of healthy and unhealthy adults
D. Vitamins and chemicals in the body
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Bauer does not seem to believe the claims of energy drink makers.
B. Colas have been on the market longer than energy drinks.
C. It has been scientifically proved that energy drinks work.
D. The makers of Red Bull say that it can revitalize a person.
Question 42: What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Caffeine is bad for people to drink.
B. It is uncertain whether energy drinks are healthy.
C. Red Bull is the best energy drink.
D. Teenagers should not choose energy drinks.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
What is ‗extreme‘ weather? Why are people talking about it these days? ‗Extreme‘ weather is an unusual
weather event such as rainfall, a drought or a heat wave in the wrong place or at the wrong time. In theory,
they are very rare. But these days, our TV screens are constantly showing such extreme weather events. Take
just three news stories from 2010: 28 centimetres of rain fell on Rio de Janeiro in 24 hours, Nashville, USA, had
33 centimetres of rain in two days and there was record rainfall in Pakistan.
The effects of this kind of rainfall are dramatic and lethal. In Rio de Janeiro, landslides followed, burying
hundreds of people. In Pakistan, the floods affected 20 million people. Meanwhile, other parts of the world suffer
devastating droughts. Australia, Russia and East Africa have been hit in the last ten years. And then there are
unexpected heat waves, such as in 2003 in Europe. That summer, 35,000 deaths were said to be heat-related.
So, what is happening to our weather? Are these extreme events part of a natural cycle? Or are they caused by
human activity and its effects on the Earth‘s climate? Peter Miller says it‘s probably a mixture of both of these
things. On the one hand, the most important influences on weather events are natural cycles in the climate. Two
of the most famous weather cycles, El Niño and La Niña, originate in the Pacific Ocean. The heat from the warm
ocean rises high into the atmosphere and affects weather all around the world. On the other hand, the
temperature of the Earth‘s oceans is slowly but steadily going up. And this is a result of human activity. We are
producing greenhouse gases that trap heat in the Earth‘s atmosphere. This heat warms up the atmosphere, land
and oceans. Warmer oceans produce more water vapour – think of heating a pan of water in your kitchen. Turn
up the heat, it produces steam more quickly. Satellite data tells us that the water vapour in the atmosphere has
gone up by four percent in 25 years. This warm, wet air turns into the rain, storms, hurricanes and typhoons that
we are increasingly experiencing. Climate scientist, Michael Oppenheimer, says that we need to face the reality of
climate change. And we also need to act now to save lives and money in the future.

(Source: © 2015 National Geographic Learning.www.ngllife.com/wild-weather)

Question 43: It is stated in the passage that extreme weather is ______.
A. becoming more common
B. not a natural occurrence
C. difficult for scientists to understand

D. killing more people than ever before
Question 44: The word ―lethal‖ in the second paragraph probably means ______.
A. far-reaching
B. long-lasting
C. happening soon
D. causing deaths
Question 45: What caused thousands of deaths in 2003?
A. a period of hot weather
B. floods after a bad summer
C. a long spell of heavy rain
D. large-scale landslides
Question 46: According to the passage, extreme weather is a problem because ______.
A. we can never predict it
B. it only affects crowded places
C. it‘s often very destructive
D. its causes are completely unknown
Question 47: The word ―that‖ in the third paragraph refers to ______.
A. Earth‘s oceans
B. human activity
C. greenhouse gases
D. Earth‘s atmosphere

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Question 48: Extreme weather can be caused by ______.
A. satellites above the Earth
B. water vapour in the atmosphere
C. very hot summers
D. water pans in your kitchen

Question 49: Satellites are used to ______.
A. change the direction of severe storms
B. trap greenhouse gases in the atmosphere
C. measure changes in atmospheric water vapour
D. prevent climate from changing quickly
Question 50: Which statement is NOT supported by the information in the passage?
A. Extreme weather is substantially influenced by human activity.
B. Unusual weather events are part of natural cycles.
C. We can limit the bad effects of extreme weather.
D. Such extreme weather is hardly the consequence of human activity.

________THE END_________

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2016
Môn: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Mã đề thi 168

Họ và tên thí sinh:..........................................................................
Số báo danh:................................................................................
SECTION A (8 points)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. laughs

B. drops

C. maintains

D. imports

Question 2: A. justice

B. campus

C. culture

D. brush

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. inflation

B. maximum

C. applicant

D. character

Question 4: A. compulsory

B. biography

C. curriculum

D. admirable

Question 5: A. struggle

B. anxious

C. confide

D. comfort

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 6: In the wake of increasing food poisoning, many consumers have turned to vegetables ______
organically.
A. that grown
B. grown
C. which grows
D. are grown
Question 7: It is raining heavily with rolls of thunder. We ______ such a terrible thunderstorm.
A. would never see
B. had never seen
C. have never seen
D. never see
Question 8: Most teenagers enjoy ______ the Internet for information and entertainment.
A. surfing
B. surf

C. surfed
D. to surf
Question 9: ______ they are delicious, hamburgers and French fries are too high in fat.
A. However
B. Although
C. Because
D. Despite
Question 10: Canned food is not as healthy as fresh food, ______?
A. isn’t it
B. doesn’t it
C. is it

D. does it

Question 11: Without your help, I ______ the technical problem with my computer the other day.
A. wouldn’t solve
B. couldn’t have solved C. could solve
D. can’t solve
Question 12: This part of the country is famous ______ its beautiful landscapes and fine cuisine.
A. about
B. with
C. of
D. for
Question 13: In a modern family, the husband is expected to join hands with his wife to ______ the
household chores.
A. do
B. run
C. take
D. make
Question 14: Most psychologists agree that the basic structure of an individual’s personality is ______.

A. by the age of five it is quite well established
B. quite well established by the age of five
C. well established quite by the age of five
D. by the age of five and quite well established
Question 15: A waiter in a restaurant is talking to a customer who has just finished his meal there. Select the
most suitable response to complete the exchange.
- Waiter: “Here’s your bill, sir.”
- Customer: “______”
A. Don’t mention it.
B. Can I pay by credit card?
C. What do you have?
D. You’re welcome.
Question 16: The Government has brought ______ a new law in an effort to prevent further environmental
deterioration.
B. about
C. up
D. on
A. in
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Question 17: She took a course in fine arts ______ starting her own business in interior design.
A. with a view to
B. in terms of
C. in order to
D. with reference to
Question 18: All the ______ in the stadium applauded the winner of the marathon when he crossed the
finishing line.
A. watchers
B. audience

C. viewers
D. spectators
Question 19: The table in the living room should be moved to ______ the new TV set.
A. get rid of
B. pave the way for
C. make room for
D. take hold of
Question 20: The US president Barack Obama ______ an official visit to Vietnam in May 2016, which is of
great significance to the comprehensive bilateral partnership.
A. delivered
B. paid
C. offered
D. gave
Question 21: Two close friends Tom and Kyle are talking about Kyle’s upcoming birthday. Select the most
suitable response to complete the exchange.
- Tom: “Can I bring a friend to your birthday party?”
- Kyle: “______”
A. It’s my honour.
B. Let’s do it then.
C. The more the merrier.
D. That’s right.
Question 22: Candidates are requested to ______ the form to the admissions officer by July 25th.
A. fill out
B. show up
C. pass over
D. hand in
Question 23: The firefighters’ single-minded devotion to the rescue of the victims of the fire was ______.
A. respecting
B. respective
C. respectful

D. respectable
Question 24: The university administrations are introducing new measures to ______ that the enrolment
process runs smoothly.
A. maintain
B. improve
C. facilitate
D. ensure

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: Not until all their demands had been turned down did the workers decide to go on strike for
more welfare.
A. rejected
B. sacked
C. reviewed
D. deleted
Question 26: Environmentalists appeal to the government to enact laws to stop factories from discharging
toxic chemicals into the sea.
A. releasing
B. producing
C. obtaining
D. dismissing
Question 27: The overall aim of the book is to help bridge the gap between theory and practice, particularly
in language teaching.
A. increase the understanding
B. reduce the differences
C. minimise the limitations
D. construct a bridge

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs

correction in each of the following questions.
Question 28: The longer the children waited in the long queue, the more impatiently they became.
A
B
C
D
Question 29: Because of bad weather conditions, it took the explorers three days reaching their destination.
A
B
C
D
Question 30: According to most doctors, massage relieves pain and anxiety, eases depression and
A
B
speeding up recovery from illnesses.
C
D
Question 31: New sources of energy have been looking for as the number of fossil fuels continues to decrease.
A
B
C
D
Question 32: The science of medicine, which progress has been very rapid lately, is perhaps the most important
A
B
C
of all sciences.
D

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 33 to 42.
Though called by sweet-sounding names like Firinga or Katrina, tropical cyclones are huge rotating storms
200 to 2,000 kilometers wide with winds that blow at speeds of more than 100 kilometers per hour (kph).
Weather professionals know them as tropical cyclones, but they are called hurricanes in the Caribbean Sea,
typhoons in the Pacific Ocean, and cyclones in the Indian Ocean. They occur in both the northern and
southern hemispheres. Large ones have destroyed cities and killed hundreds of thousands of people.
Tropical cyclones begin over water that is warmer than 27 degrees Celsius (80 degrees Fahrenheit) slightly
north or south of the earth’s equator. Warm, humid air full of water vapor moves upward. The earth’s
rotation causes the growing storm to start to rotate around its center (called the eye). At a certain height, the
water vapor condenses, changing to liquid and releasing heat. The heat draws more air and water vapor
upward, creating a cycle as air and water vapor rise and liquid water falls. If the cycle speeds up until winds
reach 118 kilometers per hour, the storm qualifies as a tropical cyclone.
Most deaths in tropical cyclones are caused by storm surge. This is a rise in sea level, sometimes seven
meters or more, caused by the storm pushing against the ocean’s surface. Storm surge was to blame for the
flooding of New Orleans in 2005. The storm surge of Cyclone Nargis in 2008 in Myanmar pushed seawater
nearly four meters deep some 40 kilometers inland, resulting in many deaths.
It has never been easy to forecast a tropical cyclone accurately. The goal is to know when and where the
next tropical cyclone will form. “And we can’t really do that yet,” says David Nolan, a weather researcher from
the University of Miami. The direction and strength of tropical cyclones are also difficult to predict, even with
computer assistance. In fact, long-term forecasts are poor; small differences in the combination of weather
factors lead to very different storms. More accurate forecasting could help people decide to evacuate when a
storm is on the way.
Adapted from “Reading Explorer 2” by Paul Maclntyre

Question 33: As stated in paragraph 1, tropical cyclones are storms with winds blowing at speeds of ______.
A. more than 100 kph
B. at least 200 kph

C. less than 100 kph
D. no less than 200 kph
Question 34: The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. sweet-sounding names
B. wind speeds
C. tropical cyclones
D. weather professionals
Question 35: According to the passage, tropical cyclones are called typhoons in ______.
A. the Indian Ocean
B. the Arctic Ocean
C. the Atlantic Ocean
D. the Pacific Ocean
Question 36: The word “humid” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. moist
B. dry
C. thin
D. thick
Question 37: Which of the following comes first in the process of storm formation?
A. Liquid water falls.
B. Warm, humid air moves upward.
C. Water vapor condenses.
D. Wind speed reaches 118 kph.
Question 38: According to the passage, a storm surge is ______.
A. a rise in sea level
B. pushing seawater
C. a tropical cyclone

D. inland flooding

Question 39: What is true about the storm surge of Cyclone Nargis?

A. It took a very high death toll.
B. It caused flooding in New Orleans in 2005.
C. It occurred in Myanmar in 2005.
D. It pushed seawater 4 kilometers inland.
Question 40: The word “evacuate” in paragraph 4 mostly means ______.
A. move to safer places
B. make accurate predictions
C. take preventive measures
D. call for relief supplies
Question 41: Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The center of a growing storm is known as its eye.
B. The direction and strength of tropical cyclones are difficult to forecast.
C. Tropical cyclones are often given beautiful names.
D. Tropical cyclone predictions depend entirely on computer assistance.
Question 42: Which of the following would serve as the best title for the passage?
B. Tropical Cyclones
A. Cyclone Forecasting
C. Storm Surges
D. Cyclone Formation

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 43: It is widely known that the excessive use of pesticides is producing a detrimental effect on the
local groundwater.
A. useless
B. harmless
C. damaging

D. fundamental
Question 44: His dreamlike villa in the new residential quarter is the envy of his friends.
A. something that everybody looks for
B. something that everybody dreams of
C. something that nobody wants
D. something that nobody can afford

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 45 to 54.
THE DANGERS OF DIETING
Thanks to our modern lifestyle, with more and more time spent sitting down in front of computers than
ever before, the (45)______ of overweight people is at a new high. As people frantically search for a solution
(46)______ this problem, they often try some of the popular fad diets being offered. Many people see fad diets
(47)______ harmless ways of losing weight, and they are grateful to have them. Unfortunately, not only don’t
fad diets usually (48)______ the trick, they can actually be dangerous for your health.
Although permanent weight loss is the (49)______, few are able to achieve it. Experts estimate that 95
percent of dieters return to their starting weight, or even (50)______ weight. While the reckless use of fad
diets can bring some (51)______ results, long-term results are very rare.
(52)______, people who are fed up with the difficulties of changing their eating habits often turn to fad
diets. (53)______ being moderate, fad diets involve extreme dietary changes. They advise eating only one type
of food, or they prohibit other types of foods entirely. This results in a situation (54)______ a person’s body
doesn’t get all the vitamins and other things that it needs to stay healthy.
Adapted from “Active Skills for Reading: Book 3” by Neil J. Anderson

Question 45: A. number

B. range

C. amount

D. sum

Question 46: A. on

B. of

C. to

D. with

Question 47: A. by

B. like

C. through

D. as

Question 48: A. bring

B. do

C. take

D. play

Question 49: A. case

B. profit

C. benefit

D. goal

Question 50: A. lose

B. gain

C. put

D. reduce

Question 51: A. initial

B. initiative

C. initiating

D. initiate

Question 52: A. Additionally

B. Furthermore

C. Nonetheless

D. Consequently

Question 53: A. More than

B. In spite of

C. Rather than

D. In addition to

Question 54: A. what

B. which

C. why

D. where

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64.
The concept of urban agriculture may conjure up images of rooftop, backyard or community gardens
scattered among downtown city streets and surrounding neighborhoods. But in the Seattle area, and within
and beyond the Puget Sound region, it means a great deal more. “Urban agriculture doesn’t necessarily
equate to production that occurs only in a metropolitan urban area,” says Jason Niebler, who directs the
Sustainable Agriculture Education (SAgE) Initiative at Seattle Central Community College. “It means we are
providing for growing population food needs from surrounding rural landscapes, as well as from the core
urban landscape.”
Picture a series of concentric circles, with an urban core that produces some food at varying capacities,
surrounded by a series of outlying rings of small farms that become increasingly more rural with distance. The
hope is that such land use planning, from the inner core to the outer rings, will encourage local ecologically
sound sustainable food production. This, in turn, will create local jobs and decrease reliance on distant food
products that originate from petroleum-intensive large scale farms.
That’s the idea behind SAgE, believed to be the nation’s first metropolitan-based community college
sustainable agriculture program that emphasizes farming practices across diverse landscape types from urban

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centers to surrounding rural environs. “It’s small scale agriculture with an urban focus,” Niebler says. “Any
urban population, large or small, can practice sustainable agriculture, improve food security and protect the
environment, which ultimately results in resilient food systems and communities.”
SAgE is a part of the National Science Foundation’s Advanced Technological Education (ATE) Program,
which is providing the project with $157,375 over two years. ATE’s goal is to support projects that strengthen
the skills of technicians who work in industries regarded as vital to the nation’s prosperity and security. The
support largely goes to community colleges that work in partnership with universities, secondary schools,
businesses and industries, as well as government agencies, which design and implement model workforce
initiatives.
The SAgE project focuses on the environmental, socioeconomic, political and cultural issues related to
sustainable food systems within Puget Sound watersheds through student and community education and
research, and technological innovation. The curriculum offers courses that cover such issues as agricultural
ecology, urban food systems, food politics and ethics, soil science, sustainable food production and
technology, the integration of food and forests, and career opportunities.
“We’ve created a curriculum that is fundamental in nature, addressing the principles of sustainable
agriculture and what a food system is – how it functions both locally and globally,” Niebler says. “These
courses are challenging, robust and inspirational. One of the really wonderful things about them is that we
offer service learning opportunities, where students volunteer a portion of their time to working with local
partner organizations. They can do a research project, or a service learning option. The ideal would be to
prompt students into careers that involve sustainable practices in an urban agriculture setting.”
Adapted from “Promoting Sustainable Agriculture” by Marlene Cimons

Question 55: It is stated in the passage that Jason Niebler ______.
A. preserves the core urban landscape
B. provides food for Seattle’s population
C. studies at Seattle Central Community College
D. directs the SAgE Initiative

Question 56: It can be inferred from the passage that the conventional idea of urban agriculture ______.
A. focuses mainly on agriculture within and beyond the Puget Sound region
B. aims at food production and consumption in both rural and urban regions
C. is associated with production only in metropolitan urban areas
D. concerns with food production in any city’s surrounding areas
Question 57: The word “concentric” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. coming from different places
B. having the same size
C. going in different directions
D. having the same center
Question 58: Which of the following is supposed to be an outcome of the SAgE’s new land use planning?
A. Dependence on distant food products
B. Increased food production in large scale farms
C. Employment opportunities for local residents
D. Modernized farming practices in rural environs
Question 59: The phrase “in partnership with” in paragraph 4 probably means ______.
A. together with
B. in addition to
C. in place of
D. instead of
Question 60: The curriculum of SAgE at Seattle Central Community College offers courses covering the
following EXCEPT ______.
A. agricultural ecology
B. career opportunities
C. urban system development
D. integration of food and forests
Question 61: In Niebler’s opinion, the courses offered by the SAgE project are ______.
A. functional but impractical
B. robust but unpromising
C. challenging and costly

D. hard but encouraging
Question 62: The word “them” in paragraph 6 refers to ______.
A. courses
B. opportunities
C. principles

D. students

Question 63: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The curriculum that the SAgE project designs is fundamental in nature.
B. The SAgE project alone will offer students sufficient jobs in urban agriculture.
C. ATE helps to improve the skills of technicians in the nation’s major industries.
D. Resilient food systems can be attributed to sustainable agricultural practices.
Question 64: Which of the following best describes the author’s tone in the passage?
B. Provocative
C. Supportive
D. Satirical
A. Skeptical

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SECTION B (2 points)

I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it. Write your answers in complete sentences on your answer sheet.
Question 1: He now regrets that he didn’t take the doctor’s advice.
He now wishes ___________________________________________________________.
Question 2: “I’m sorry. I didn’t do the homework,” Peter said to the teacher.
Peter apologised __________________________________________________________.

Question 3: I’m sure that he didn’t attend the Conference on Wildlife Protection yesterday.
He can’t _________________________________________________________________.
Question 4: She didn’t pass the exam because of her serious illness.
Had she not ______________________________________________________________.
Question 5: Ms Betty is proud of her singing.
Ms Betty prides ___________________________________________________________.

II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the benefits of knowing how to swim. Write
your paragraph on your answer sheet.
The following prompts might be helpful to you.
- Keeping fit
- Relaxing
- Surviving/Saving people’s lives
----_________THE END_________

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2015
Môn: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Mã đề thi 194

Họ và tên thí sinh:..........................................................................
Số báo danh:................................................................................

SECTION A (8 points)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. deal

B. teach

C. break

D. clean

Question 2: A. supported

B. approached

C. noticed

D. finished

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. recipe

B. candidate

C. instrument

D. commitment

Question 4: A. conceal

B. contain

C. conserve

D. conquer

Question 5: A. advantageous

B. oceanic

C. compulsory

D. influential

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 6: The receptionist, ______ answered the phone, told me that the director was out.
A. whose
B. whom
C. who
D. that
Question 7: Changes have been made in our primary schooling program. As a result, young children ______
do homework any more.
A. needn’t
B. oughtn’t
C. couldn’t
D. haven’t
Question 8: ______ the salesman promised to exchange the defective CD player for a new one, they insisted

on getting a refund.
A. Despite
B. Although
C. And
D. But
Question 9: The headmaster has decided that three lecture halls ______ in our school next semester.
A. will build
B. will be built
C. are being built
D. will be building
Question 10: Although MERS (Middle East Respiratory Syndrome) spreads through close contact with sick
people, not through the air, many people still avoid ______ to crowded places.
A. to go
B. having gone
C. gone
D. going
Question 11: Students will not be allowed into the exam room if they ______ their student cards.
A. produced
B. hadn’t produced
C. didn’t produce
D. don’t produce
Question 12: A large number of inventions and discoveries have been made ______ accident.
A. at
B. on
C. in
D. by
Question 13: When asked about their preference for movies, many young people say that they are in favour
______ science fiction.
A. in
B. for

C. of
D. with
Question 14: A molecule of water is ______ of two atoms of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen.
A. composed
B. created
C. included
D. consisted
Question 15: Jane really loves the ______ jewelry box that her parents gave her as a birthday present.
A. nice brown wooden
B. brown wooden nice
C. nice wooden brown
D. wooden brown nice
Question 16: Global warming will result ______ crop failures and famine.
A. of
B. to
C. in

D. from

Question 17: John has finally found a new job after being ______ for three months.
A. out of order
B. out of mind
C. out of work
D. out of reach
Question 18: Nguyen Thi Anh Vien performed so well in the 28th Sea Games women’s 200m butterfly that
none of her rivals could ______ her.
B. look up to
C. come up to
D. put up with
A. catch up with

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Question 19: After the new technique had been introduced, the factory produced ______ cars in 2014 as the
year before.
A. twice many as
B. as twice many
C. as many twice
D. twice as many
Question 20: It is ______ of businessmen to shake hands in formal meetings.
A. familiar
B. typical
C. ordinary

D. common

Question 21: Such characters as fairies or witches in Walt Disney animated cartoons are purely ______.
A. imaginary
B. imagining
C. imaginative
D. imaginable
Question 22: ______ at school yesterday when we were informed that there was no class due to a sudden
power cut.
A. We had arrived hardly
B. We have hardly arrived
C. Hardly we had arrived
D. Hardly had we arrived
Question 23: Mike and Lane are university students. They are talking about Lane’s upcoming high-school
reunion. Select the most suitable response to fill in the blank.

Mike: “So, you have your fifth high-school reunion coming up?”
Lane: “______”
A. Oh, the school reunion was wonderful.
C. Yeah. I’m really looking forward to it.

B. The food at the reunion was excellent.
D. No. You’re in no mood for the event.

Question 24: Ken and Tom are high-school students. They are discussing where their study group will meet.
Select the most suitable response to fill in the blank.
Ken: “Where is our study group going to meet next weekend?”
Tom: “______”
A. We are too busy on weekdays.
C. Why don’t you look at the atlas?

B. The library would be best.
D. Studying in a group is great fun.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: When Susan invited us to dinner, she really showed off her culinary talents. She prepared a
feast – a huge selection of dishes that were simply mouth-watering.
A. concerning nutrition and health
B. involving hygienic conditions and diseases
C. relating to medical knowledge
D. having to do with food and cooking
Question 26: Suddenly, it began to rain heavily, so all the summer hikers got drenched all over.
A. very tired
B. refreshed
C. completely wet

D. cleansed
Question 27: “It’s no use talking to me about metaphysics. It’s a closed book to me.”
A. an object that I really love
B. a book that is never opened
C. a subject that I don’t understand
D. a theme that I like to discuss

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 28: It is common knowledge that solar heating for a large office building is technically different
A
B
C
from a single-family home.
D
Question 29: The number of homeless people in Nepal have increased sharply due to the recent
A
B
C
severe earthquake.
D
Question 30: All the candidates for the scholarship will be equally treated regarding of their age, sex,
A
B
C
or nationality.
D
Question 31: Since poaching is becoming more seriously, the government has imposed stricter laws
A
B

C
to prevent it.
D
Question 32: Reminding not to miss the 15:20 train, the manager set out for the station in a hurry.
A

B

C

D

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 33 to 42.
Library is a collection of books and other informational materials made available to people for reading,
study, or reference. The word library comes (33)______ liber, the Latin word for “book”. (34)______, library
collections have almost always contained a variety of materials. Contemporary libraries maintain collections
that include not only printed materials such as manuscripts, books, newspapers, and magazines, (35)______
audio-visual and online databases. In addition (36)______ maintaining collections within library buildings,
modern libraries often feature telecommunications links that provide users with access to information at
remote sites.
The central mission of a library (37)______ to collect, organize, preserve, and provide access to
knowledge and information. In fulfilling this mission, libraries preserve a valuable record of culture that can be
passed down to (38)______ generations. Libraries are an essential link in this communication between the
past, present, and future. Whether the cultural record is contained in books or in electronic formats, libraries
ensure (39)______ the record is preserved and made available for later use.
People use library resources to gain information about personal (40)______ or to obtain recreational

materials such as films and novels. Students use libraries to supplement and enhance their classroom
experiences, to learn (41)______ in locating sources of information, and to develop good reading and study
habits. Public officials use libraries to research legislation and public policy issues. One of the most valued of
all cultural institutions, the library (42) ______ information and services that are essential to learning and
progress.
From "Library (institution)" by Richard S. Halsey et al.

Question 33: A. from

B. in

C. to

D. out

Question 34: A. Despite

B. However

C. Therefore

D. Instead

Question 35: A. only if

B. as well

C. or else

D. but also

Question 36: A. on

B. to

C. in

D. from

Question 37: A. are

B. is

C. have

D. has

Question 38: A. succeeding

B. succeed

C. successful

D. success

Question 39: A. what

B. which

C. who

D. that

Question 40: A. profits

B. attractions

C. interests

D. appeals

Question 41: A. abilities

B. skills

C. talents

D. capacities

Question 42: A. relates

B. applies

C. supplies

D. digests

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 43: “Don't be such a pessimist. I'm sure you'll soon get over it. Cheer up!”

A. activist
B. feminist
C. optimist
D. hobbyist
Question 44: “Be quick! We must speed up if we don’t want to miss the flight.”
A. turn down
B. look up
C. slow down
D. put forward

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54.
Plants and animals will find it difficult to escape from or adjust to the effects of global warming. Scientists
have already observed shifts in the lifecycles of many plants and animals, such as flowers blooming earlier and
birds hatching earlier in the spring. Many species have begun shifting where they live or their annual migration
patterns due to warmer temperatures.
With further warming, animals will tend to migrate toward the poles and up mountainsides toward higher
elevations. Plants will also attempt to shift their ranges, seeking new areas as old habitats grow too warm. In
many places, however, human development will prevent these shifts. Species that find cities or farmland
blocking their way north or south may become extinct. Species living in unique ecosystems, such as those
found in polar and mountaintop regions, are especially at risk because migration to new habitats is not
possible. For example, polar bears and marine mammals in the Arctic are already threatened by dwindling
sea ice but have nowhere farther north to go.
Projecting species extinction due to global warming is extremely difficult. Some scientists have estimated
that 20 to 50 percent of species could be committed to extinction with 2 to 3 Celsius degrees of further

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warming. The rate of warming, not just the magnitude, is extremely important for plants and animals. Some

species and even entire ecosystems, such as certain types of forest, may not be able to adjust quickly enough
and may disappear.
Ocean ecosystems, especially fragile ones like coral reefs, will also be affected by global warming. Warmer
ocean temperatures can cause coral to “bleach”, a state which if prolonged will lead to the death of the coral.
Scientists estimate that even 1 Celsius degree of additional warming could lead to widespread bleaching and
death of coral reefs around the world. Also, increasing carbon dioxide in the atmosphere enters the ocean and
increases the acidity of ocean waters. This acidification further stresses ocean ecosystems.
From "Global Warming" by Michael Mastrandrea and Stephen H. Schneider

Question 45: Scientists have observed that warmer temperatures in the spring cause flowers to ______.
A. die instantly
B. bloom earlier
C. become lighter
D. lose color
Question 46: According to paragraph 2, when their habitats grow warmer, animals tend to move ______.
A. south-eastwards and down mountainsides toward lower elevations
B. north-westwards and up mountainsides toward higher elevations
C. toward the North Pole and down mountainsides toward lower elevations
D. toward the poles and up mountainsides toward higher elevations
Question 47: The pronoun “those” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. species
B. ecosystems
C. habitats

D. areas

Question 48: The phrase “dwindling sea ice” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. the frozen water in the Arctic
B. the violent Arctic Ocean
C. the melting ice in the Arctic

D. the cold ice in the Arctic
Question 49: It is mentioned in the passage that if the global temperature rose by 2 or 3 Celsius degrees,
______.
A. half of the earth’s surface would be flooded
B. the sea level would rise by 20 centimeters
C. water supply would decrease by 50 percent
D. 20 to 50 percent of species could become extinct
Question 50: According to the passage, if some species are not able to adjust quickly to warmer
temperatures, ______.
A. they may be endangered
B. they can begin to develop
C. they will certainly need water
D. they move to tropical forests
Question 51: The word “fragile” in paragraph 4 most probably means ______.
A. very large
B. easily damaged
C. rather strong
D. pretty hard
Question 52: The bleaching of coral reefs as mentioned in paragraph 4 indicates ______.
A. the water absorption of coral reefs
B. the quick growth of marine mammals
C. the blooming phase of sea weeds
D. the slow death of coral reefs
Question 53: The level of acidity in the ocean is increased by ______.
A. the rising amount of carbon dioxide entering the ocean
B. the decrease of acidity of the pole waters
C. the extinction of species in coastal areas
D. the loss of acidity in the atmosphere around the earth
Question 54: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Influence of climate changes on human lifestyles

B. Effects of global warming on animals and plants
C. Global warming and possible solutions
D. Global warming and species migration

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64.
Overpopulation, the situation of having large numbers of people with too few resources and too little
space, is closely associated with poverty. It can result from high population density, or from low amounts of
resources, or from both. Excessively high population densities put stress on available resources. Only a certain
number of people can be supported on a given area of land, and that number depends on how much food
and other resources the land can provide. In countries where people live primarily by means of simple
farming, gardening, herding, hunting, and gathering, even large areas of land can support only small numbers
of people because these labor-intensive subsistence activities produce only small amounts of food.

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In developed countries such as the United States, Japan, and the countries of Western Europe,
overpopulation generally is not considered a major cause of poverty. These countries produce large quantities
of food through mechanized farming, which depends on commercial fertilizers, large-scale irrigation, and
agricultural machinery. This form of production provides enough food to support the high densities of people
in metropolitan areas.
A country’s level of poverty can depend greatly on its mix of population density and agricultural
productivity. Bangladesh, for example, has one of the world’s highest population densities, with 1,147 persons
per sq km. A large majority of the people of Bangladesh engage in low-productivity manual farming, which
contributes to the country’s extremely high level of poverty. Some of the smaller countries in Western Europe,
such as the Netherlands and Belgium, have high population densities as well. These countries practice
mechanized farming and are involved in high-tech industries, however, and therefore have high standards of
living.
At the other end of the spectrum, many countries in sub-Saharan Africa have population densities of less

than 30 persons per sq km. Many people in these countries practice manual subsistence farming; these
countries also have infertile land, and lack the economic resources and technology to boost productivity. As a
consequence, these nations are very poor. The United States has both relatively low population density and
high agricultural productivity; it is one of the world’s wealthiest nations.
High birth rates contribute to overpopulation in many developing countries. Children are assets to many
poor families because they provide labor, usually for farming. Cultural norms in traditionally rural societies
commonly sanction the value of large families. Also, the governments of developing countries often provide
little or no support, financial or political, for family planning; even people who wish to keep their families small
have difficulty doing so. For all these reasons, developing countries tend to have high rates of population
growth.
From "Poverty" by Thomas J. Corbett

Question 55: Which of the following is given a definition in paragraph 1?
A. Overpopulation
B. Population density
C. Simple farming

D. Poverty

Question 56: What will suffer when there are excessively high population densities?
A. Available resources
B. Skilled labor
C. Farming methods
D. Land area
Question 57: The phrase “that number” in paragraph 1 refers to the number of ______.
A. people
B. densities
C. resources
D. countries
Question 58: In certain countries, large areas of land can only yield small amounts of food because ______.

A. there is lack of mechanization
B. there are small numbers of laborers
C. there is an abundance of resources
D. there is no shortage of skilled labor
Question 59: Bangladesh is a country where the level of poverty depends greatly on ______.
A. its population density only
B. both population density and agricultural productivity
C. population density in metropolitan areas
D. its high agricultural productivity
Question 60: The phrase “engage in” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. escape from
B. look into
C. give up
D. participate in
Question 61: The word “infertile” in paragraph 4 probably means ______.
A. disused
B. impossible
C. unproductive

D. inaccessible

Question 62: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. In certain developed countries, mechanized farming is applied.
B. In sub-Saharan African countries, productivity is boosted by technology.
C. There is no connection between a country’s culture and overpopulation.
D. All small countries in Western Europe have high population densities.
Question 63: Which of the following is a contributor to overpopulation in many developing countries?
A. High-tech facilities
B. Economic resources
C. Sufficient financial support

D. High birth rates
Question 64: Which of the following could be the best title for the passage?
A. High Birth Rate and its Consequences
B. Overpopulation: A Cause of Poverty
C. Overpopulation: A Worldwide Problem
D. Poverty in Developing Countries

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SECTION B (2 points)

I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
Question 1: If John does not change his working style, he will be sacked soon.
Unless _____________________________________________________.
Question 2: “Would you like to come to my 18th birthday party?” he asked me.
He invited __________________________________________________.
Question 3: People believe that this new teaching method is more effective than the old one.
This new teaching method ____________________________________.
Question 4: He did not realize how difficult the task was until he was halfway through it.
Not until __________________________________________________.
Question 5: It was wrong of you to leave the class without asking for your teacher’s permission.
You should not _____________________________________________.

II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the benefits of reading books. Write your
paragraph on your answer sheet.
The following prompts might be helpful to you.
- Widening knowledge
- Improving language

- Relaxing
----------------------------------------------------------

THE END ----------

Trang 6/6 - Mã đề thi 194


BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

(Đề thi có 6 trang)

ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH ĐẠI HỌC NĂM 2014
Môn: TIẾNG ANH; Khối D
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Mã đề thi 137

Họ, tên thí sinh:..........................................................................
Số báo danh:............................................................................

ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. sovereignty

B. advantage

C. enrichment

D. edition

Question 2: A. considerate

B. continental

C. territorial

D. economic

Question 3: A. index

B. commit

C. preview

D. open

Question 4: A. specify

B. illustrate

C. interact

D. fertilize

Question 5: A. habitat

B. attendance

C. candidate

D. wilderness

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 6: The carefully nurtured gardens with a wide ______ of flowers and fruit trees have added elegance
to this place and made it a major tourist attraction.
A. variety
B. amount
C. species
D. number
Question 7: Visitors to the local museum are mostly attracted by ______ rocking chair.
A. an old wooden European beautiful
B. a beautiful old European wooden
C. an old beautiful wooden European
D. a wooden old beautiful European
Question 8: ______ my mother’s encouragement, I wouldn’t have made such a daring decision.
A. Until
B. In spite
C. But for
D. Providing
Question 9: The cinema is no longer as popular as it was in the 1930's and 1940's, but it is still an
important ______ of entertainment.
A. status
B. source
C. origin
D. prospect
Question 10: They got lost in the forest, and ______ made matters worse was that night began to fall.
A. that

B. what
C. which
D. it
Question 11: Students are encouraged to develop critical thinking ______ accepting opinions without
questioning them.
A. in addition
B. for instance
C. instead of
D. because of
Question 12: The bank has more than 100 branches, ______ in a major urban area.
A. the location of which B. each locating
C. each located
D. and are located
Question 13: In my opinion, ______ new technology who will finally decide which ideas take off.
A. it is the development of
B. that the development of
C. it is the user of
D. that the user of
Question 14: “My secretary will book you an afternoon flight and have you ______ at the airport.”
A. picked up
B. picking up
C. pick up
D. to pick up
Question 15: In the last match, Sabella changed his formation at half-time, introducing Fernando Gago in
midfield and Higuain in attack, but in the end it was Messi’s magic that ______ the difference.
A. made
B. gave
C. did
D. took
Question 16: We’ve already bought the house but won’t ______ it until May, when the present occupants

have moved out.
A. take possession of
B. catch sight of
C. keep track of
D. gain recognition of
Question 17: Jessica looks very tired. She ______ have stayed up late to finish her assignment last night.
A. would
B. should
C. will
D. must
Question 18: ______, she continued to carry out her duties.
A. Although in poor health
B. Although she is in good health
C. Despite her good health
D. No matter how poor her health

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Question 19: Phuong Thao is a student in Ms Lan’s writing class. She is asking for Ms Lan’s comments on her
last essay. Select the most suitable response to fill in the blank.
Phuong Thao: “You must have found reading my essay very tiring.”
Ms Lan: “______. I enjoyed it.”
A. Not in the least
B. Just in case

C. At all costs

D. You are welcome

Question 20: Carbon dioxide ______ as one of the main contributors to the greenhouse effect.
A. had identified
B. has been identified
C. has identified
D. had been identified
Question 21: The young lady sat still in the afternoon breeze, with her hair ______ her back.
A. running over
B. streaming down
C. flowed down
D. fallen against
Question 22: China’s placement of its oil rig in Vietnam’s East Sea EEZ has been denounced by ASEAN and
Western politicians and professionals as the violation of Vietnam’s ______ waters.
A. farmed
B. fresh
C. inland
D. territorial
Question 23: Jane had difficulty carrying her suitcase upstairs, and Mike, her friend, offered to help. Select the
most suitable response to fill in the blank.
Mike: “Need a hand with your suitcase, Jane?”
Jane: “______”
A. That’s very kind of you.
C. I don’t believe it.

B. Not a chance.
D. Well done!

Question 24: We need to talk more about ______ for the summer vacation before July.
A. why to choose
B. how to make
C. where to go

D. when to use
Question 25: In no circumstances ______ on campus.
A. should smoking be allowed
B. should allow smoking
C. smoking should be allowed
D. we should allow smoking
Question 26: While I was looking through my old albums the other day, I ______ this photograph of my
parents' wedding.
A. took after
B. made up
C. turned down
D. came across
Question 27: “Take a spare tyre ______ you have a puncture on the way to the beach.”
A. in case
B. if
C. so that
D. unless
Question 28: Minh, a student from Hai Phong, is going to take the college entrance exam in Hanoi next week.
His father is seeing him off at the railway station. Select the most suitable response to fill in the blank.
Dad: “Good luck with the exam, Minh!”
Minh: “______, Dad.”
A. By no means
B. I wish so

C. Thank you

D. Never mind

Question 29: He applied for a teaching ______ at Bales University with great confidence.
A. employment

B. post
C. work
D. career
Question 30: “Could you turn off the stove? The potatoes ______ for at least thirty minutes.”
A. boiled
B. were boiling
C. are boiling
D. have been boiling

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 31: Any student who neglects his or her homework is unlikely to do well at school.
A. puts off
B. looks for
C. attends to
D. approves of
Question 32: We run a very tight ship here, and we expect all our employees to be at their desks by eight
o'clock and take good care of their own business.
A. manage an inflexible system
B. have a good voyage
C. run faster than others
D. organize things inefficiently

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 33: Those children who stay longer hours at school than at home tend to spend their formative
years in the company of others with similar aims and interests.
A. being separated from peers
B. forming a new business company
C. being together with friends

D. enjoying the care of parents
Question 34: Many parents may fail to recognize and respond to their children’s needs until frustration
explodes into difficult or uncooperative behavior.
A. slowly reaches the boiling point
B. remains at an unchanged level
C. suddenly becomes uncontrollable
D. stays under pressure

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Question 35: “A friend in need is a friend indeed”: Our friends have voiced their strong criticism of China’s
escalation of tension on our continental shelf.
A. facing the reality
B. worsening the situation
C. easing the tension
D. improving the condition

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 36: All of the students in this course will be assessed according to their attendance, performance,
A
B
C
and they work hard.
D
Question 37: Most of the students are queuing in lines waiting to enter the classroom.
A
B
C

D
Question 38: Since January this year, Joe has suffered two injuries, one to his ankle and the other in New York.
A
B
C
D
Question 39: Women in many parts of the world have had lower status than men, which the extent
A
B
of the gap between genders varies across cultures and times.
C
D
Question 40: As seeing from the mountain top, the area looks like a picturesque harbour town.
A
B
C
D

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 41 to 50.
Postsecondary institutions and private schools are corporations under U.S. law. They are approved to
operate as non-profit, for-profit, or public corporations (41)______ education and training. Increasingly, state
authorities are requiring approved educational providers to apply (42)______ and receive accreditation as a
condition of final and continued approval.
As corporate entities, U.S. institutions are internally self-governing and are (43)______ to make property,
facilities, equipment, and utilities transactions; make their own personnel decisions; decide whom to admit to
study and to graduate; (44)______ their own funds from outside sources; enter into contracts and compete for
grants; and do most of the other things that corporations do. Institutions compete (45)______ one another for
students, research funding, faculty, and other benefits. Public institutions may compete within the same state
or territory for budget appropriations. It is the corporate nature of institutions and the competition within the

system that (46)_____ Americans to refer to the concept of the educational or academic marketplace - an
important distinctive element of the way U.S. education is organized.
Some institutions are governed (47)______ under multi-campus arrangements. These include most local
public schools (governed by school districts) and many state community college and university systems.
Whether single- or multi-campus, institutional corporations (48)______ by boards of citizens, both alumni and
non-alumni, who are ultimately responsible for all operations. They appoint senior (49)______, such as
principals, headmasters, presidents, and deans; and approve the actions taken (50)______ their name.
From A Diverse Educational System: Structure, standards, and challenges. InfoUSA (CD version)

Question 41: A. provided
Question 42: A. with
Question 43: A. capable
Question 44: A. rise
Question 45: A. with
Question 46: A. lets
Question 47: A. collection
Question 48: A. controlled
Question 49: A. trainees
Question 50: A. on

B. provision
B. to
B. able
B. raise
B. to
B. causes
B. collective
B. are controlling
B. judges
B. in

C. provide
C. for
C. probable
C. call
C. for
C. prevents
C. collect
C. are controlled
C. assistants
C. above

D. providing
D. on
D. possible
D. lend
D. at
D. makes
D. collectively
D. being controlled
D. leaders
D. at

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 51: “Believe me. It’s no use reading that book,” Janet told her boyfriend.
A. Janet tried to convince her boyfriend that the book was not worth reading.
B. Janet opposed her boyfriend’s idea that reading the book was not useful.
C. Janet managed to persuade her boyfriend that reading the book was worthwhile.
D. Janet suggested to her boyfriend that reading the book was useful.

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Question 52: The president placed his car at my disposal as a bonus for my good work.
A. In order to praise me as a good worker, the president took me home in his own car.
B. To get rid of the car, the president decided to sell it to me, his good worker, at a bonus price.
C. I was willing to drive the president’s car as a compliment for my good performance at work.
D. To show his appreciation for my good work, the president allowed me to use his car whenever I liked.
Question 53: “Send this urgent document immediately!” the officer told the soldier.
A. The officer advised the soldier to send the urgent document right away.
B. The officer ordered the soldier to deliver the urgent document instantly.
C. The officer requested that the soldier rush out due to the document’s urgency.
D. The officer recommended the soldier leave right away because of the urgent document.
Question 54: The early failure of the Spanish squad in the 2014 World Cup deeply disappointed their fans.
A. That their squad left the 2014 World Cup so early was very disappointing for the Spanish sportsmen.
B. To the disappointment of their fans, the Spanish squad had to leave the 2014 World Cup too early.
C. Living up to their fans’ expectation, the Spanish squad left the 2014 World Cup so early.
D. The Spanish squad was terribly disappointed that their fans had to leave the 2014 World Cup so early.
Question 55: “Why don't you join us for our next class reunion?” Mary said to me.
A. Mary insisted on my joining them for the next class reunion.
B. Mary cordially invited me to join them for the next class reunion.
C. Mary strongly urged me to join them for the next class reunion.
D. Mary advised me not to join them for the next class reunion.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 56 to 65.
Centuries ago, man discovered that removing moisture from food helped to preserve it, and that the easiest
way to do this was to expose the food to sun and wind. In this way the North American Indians produced
pemmican (dried meat ground into powder and made into cakes), the Scandinavians made stockfish and the

Arabs dried dates and apricots.
All foods contain water - cabbage and other leaf vegetables contain as much as 93% water, potatoes and
other root vegetables 80%, lean meat 75% and fish anything from 80% to 60% depending on how fatty it is. If
this water is removed, the activity of the bacteria which cause food to go bad is checked.
Fruit is sun-dried in Asia Minor, Greece, Spain and other Mediterranean countries, and also in California,
South Africa and Australia. The methods used vary, but in general the fruit is spread out on trays in drying
yards in the hot sun. In order to prevent darkening, pears, peaches and apricots are exposed to the fumes of
burning sulphur before drying. Plums for making prunes, and certain varieties of grapes for making raisins and
currants, are dipped in an alkaline solution in order to crack the skins of the fruit slightly and remove their wax
coating, so increasing the rate of drying.
Nowadays most foods are dried mechanically; the conventional method of such dehydration is to put food in
chambers through which hot air is blown at temperatures of about 110°C at entry to about 45°C at exit. This is
the usual method for drying such things as vegetables, minced meat, and fish.
Liquids such as milk, coffee, tea, soups and eggs may be dried by pouring them over a heated horizontal
steel cylinder or by spraying them into a chamber through which a current of hot air passes. In the first case,
the dried material is scraped off the roller as a thin film which is then broken up into small, though still relatively
coarse flakes. In the second process it falls to the bottom of the chamber as a fine powder. Where recognizable
pieces of meat and vegetables are required, as in soup, the ingredients are dried separately and then mixed.
Dried foods take up less room and weigh less than the same food packed in cans or frozen, and they do not
need to be stored in special conditions. For these reasons they are invaluable to climbers, explorers and soldiers
in battle, who have little storage space. They are also popular with housewives because it takes so little time to
cook them.
From Practical Faster Reading by Gerald Mosback and Vivien Mosback. CUP

Question 56: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Advantages of dried foods.
C. Mechanization of drying foods.

B. Water: the main component of food.
D. Different methods of drying foods.

Question 57: The phrase “do this” in the first paragraph mostly means ______.
A. expose foods to sun and wind
B. remove moisture from foods
C. produce pemmican
D. moisten foods
Question 58: The word “checked” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.
A. reduced considerably B. put a tick
C. examined carefully
D. motivated to develop
Question 59: In the process of drying certain kinds of fruits, sulphur fumes help ______.
A. remove their wax coating
B. kill off bacteria
C. maintain their color
D. crack their skin
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Question 60: Nowadays the common method for drying vegetables and minced meat is ______.
A. spreading them out on trays in drying yards
B. dipping them in an alkaline solution
C. putting them in chambers and blowing hot air through
D. pouring them over a heated horizontal steel cylinder
Question 61: What does the word “which” in the fourth paragraph refer to?
A. Vegetables
B. Foods
C. Things

D. Chambers

Question 62: The final product of the process of drying liquids that uses the first method will be ______.
A. small flakes
B. fine powder
C. dried soup
D. recognizable pieces
Question 63: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Liquids are not dried in the same way as fruits and vegetables.
B. Dried foods have several advantages over canned or frozen foods.
C. Fruit is usually dried by being laid out on trays in the sun.
D. People in India began to use drying methods centuries ago.
Question 64: According to the passage, dried foods are most useful for ______.
A. explorers who are underweight
B. soldiers who are not in battle
C. people who are on the move
D. housewives who have little storage space
Question 65: This passage is mainly ______.
A. argumentative
B. analytical

C. informative

D. fictional

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines the
pair of sentences given in each of the following questions.
Question 66: I do my homework and schoolwork in separate books. I don't get muddled up.
A. I do not get muddled up due to the separation between homework and schoolwork.
B. I would get muddled up if I did not separate homework from schoolwork.
C. I do my homework and schoolwork in separate books so that I don't get muddled up.
D. Having two separate books at home and at work helps me avoid getting muddled up.

Question 67: Most scientists know him well. However, very few ordinary people have heard of him.
A. Many ordinary people know him better than most scientists do.
B. Although he is well known to scientists, he is little known to the general public.
C. He is the only scientist that is not known to the general public.
D. Not only scientists but also the general public know him as a big name.
Question 68: She wrote the text. She selected the illustration as well.
A. In order to select the illustration, she had to write the text.
B. The text she wrote was not as good as the illustration she selected.
C. If she had written the text, she would have selected the illustration.
D. She not only wrote the text but also selected the illustration.
Question 69: Nam defeated the former champion in three sets. He finally won the inter-school table tennis
championship.
A. Being defeated by the former champion, Nam lost the chance to play the final game of inter-school table
tennis championship.
B. Having defeated the former champion in the inter-school table tennis, Nam did not hold the title of
champion.
C. Having defeated the former champion in three sets, Nam won the inter-school table tennis championship.
D. Although Nam defeated the former champion in three sets, he did not win the title of inter-school table
tennis champion.
Question 70: She looked through the hotel advertisements. She stopped only when taking a fancy to one piece.
A. She stopped looking through the hotel advertisements only when she had found another piece.
B. She took so great a fancy to the hotel advertisements that she could not stop reading them.
C. She stopped reading the hotel advertisements only when one of them caught her fancy.
D. She found the hotel advertisements so interesting that she could hardly turn away from them.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 71 to 80.
We live in a world of tired, sleep deprived people. In his book Counting Sheep, Paul Martin - a behavioural
biologist - describes a society which is just too busy to sleep and which does not give sleeping the importance it
deserves.

Modern society has invented reasons not to sleep. We are now a 24/7 society where shops and services
must be available all hours. We spend longer hours at work than we used to, and more time getting to work.

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Mobile phones and email allow us to stay in touch round the clock and late-night TV and the Internet tempt
us away from our beds. When we need more time for work or pleasure, the easy solution is to sleep less. The
average adult sleeps only 6.2 hours a night during the week, whereas research shows that most people need
eight or even eight and a half hours' sleep to feel at their best. Nowadays, many people have got used to
sleeping less than they need and they live in an almost permanent state of 'sleep debt'.
Until the invention of the electric light in 1879 our daily cycle of sleep used to depend on the hours of
daylight. People would get up with the sun and go to bed at nightfall. But nowadays our hours of sleep are
mainly determined by our working hours (or our social life) and most people are woken up artificially by an
alarm clock. During the day caffeine, the world's most popular drug, helps to keep us awake. 75% of the
world's population habitually consume caffeine, which up to a point masks the symptoms of sleep deprivation.
What does a chronic lack of sleep do to us? As well as making us irritable and unhappy as humans, it also
reduces our motivation and ability to work. This has serious implications for society in general. Doctors, for
example, are often chronically sleep deprived, especially when they are on 'night call', and may get less than
three hours' sleep. Lack of sleep can seriously impair their mood, judgment, and ability to take decisions. Tired
engineers, in the early hours of the morning, made a series of mistakes with catastrophic results. On our
roads and motorways lack of sleep kills thousands of people every year. Tests show that a tired driver can be
just as dangerous as a drunken driver. However, driving when drunk is against the law but driving when
exhausted isn't. As Paul Martin says, it is very ironic that we admire people who function on very little sleep
instead of criticizing them for being irresponsible. Our world would be a much safer, happier place if everyone,
whatever their job, slept eight hours a night.
New English File Upper-intermediate by Clive Oxenden and Christina Latham-Koenig, OUP

Question 71: According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE about Paul Martin?
A. He shows his concern for sleep deprivation in modern society.

B. He describes the modern world as a place without insomnia.
C. He is a scientist who is chronically deprived of sleep.
D. He gives an interesting account of a sleepless society.
Question 72: The phrase “round the clock” in the second paragraph is similar in meaning to ______.
A. surrounded with clocks
B. having a round clock
C. during the daytime
D. all day and night
Question 73: The writer mentions the Internet in the passage as ______.
A. an easy solution to sleep deprivation
B. a temptation that prevents us from sleeping
C. a factor that is not related to sleep deprivation
D. an ineffective means of communication
Question 74: According to the third paragraph, which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
A. The electric light was invented in the 19th century.
B. The sun obviously determined our daily routines.
C. The electric light has changed our daily cycle of sleep.
D. Our social life has no influence on our hours of sleep.
Question 75: The word “which” in the third paragraph refers to ______.
A. the world's population
B. caffeine consumption
C. reaching a point
D. masking the symptoms
Question 76: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the last paragraph?
A. Sleep deprivation has negative effects on both individuals and society.
B. Doctors ‘on night call’ do not need more than three hours of sleep a day.
C. Thousands of people are killed every day by drunken drivers.
D. Our motivation decreases with the bigger number of hours we sleep.
Question 77: The word “catastrophic” in the last paragraph probably means ______.
A. likely to become worthless

B. becoming more noticeable
C. bound to bring satisfaction
D. causing serious damage or loss
Question 78: Which of the following would the writer of the passage approve of?
A. Both drunken drivers and sleep-deprived people should be criticized.
B. There is no point in criticizing irresponsible people in our society.
C. We certainly can function well even when we hardly sleep.
D. Our world would be a much safer place without drinkers.
Question 79: All of the following are mentioned as those whose performance is affected by ‘sleep debt’
EXCEPT ______.
A. drivers
B. doctors
C. engineers
D. biologists
Question 80: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. A Well-known Biologist
B. Sleep Deprivation: Causes and Effects
C. Accident Prevention: Urgent!
D. A Society of Sleepless People
----------------------------------------------------------

THE END ---------Trang 6/6 – Mã đề 137


BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

(Đề thi có 7 trang)

ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH ĐẠI HỌC NĂM 2013

Môn: TIẾNG ANH; Khối D
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Mã đề thi 359

Họ, tên thí sinh:..........................................................................
Số báo danh:............................................................................

ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. species

B. invent

C. medicine

D. tennis

Question 2: A. superstar

B. harvest

C. particular

D. part

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. commercial

B. constructive

C. essential

D. national

Question 4: A. copy

B. remove

C. notice

D. cancel

Question 5: A. curriculum

B. economics

C. hesitation

D. calculation

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 6 to 15.
In “Cerealizing America”, Scott Bruce and Bill Crawford remark that the cereal industry uses 816 million
pounds of sugar per year. Americans buy 2.7 billion packages of breakfast cereal each year. If (6)______ end
to end, the empty cereal boxes from one year's consumption would (7)______ to the moon and back. One
point three (1.3) million advertisements for cereal are broadcast on American television every year at a(n)
(8)______ of $762 million for airtime. Only automobile manufacturers spend more money on television
advertising than the makers of breakfast cereal.

(9)______ of the boxed cereals found in supermarkets contain large amounts of sugar and some contain
more than 50% sugar. Cereal manufacturers are very clever in their marketing, making many cereals appear
much healthier than they really are by “fortifying” them with vitamins and minerals. Oh, (10)______ – you
now have vitamin-fortified sugar!
Before you eat any cereal, read the ingredient list and see how (11)______ sugar appears on the
ingredient list. Then check the “Nutrition facts” panel.
There are actually only a small handful of national commercially-branded cereals that are made (12)______
whole grains and are sugar-free. If you shop at a health food store instead of your local supermarket, you
(13)_____ to find a healthy, whole grain, sugar-free (or very low sugar) cereal. But (14)______! Some of the
health food store boxed cereals are sweetened with fruit juice or fructose. Although this may be an
improvement (15)______ refined white sugar, this can really skyrocket the calories.
From “Foods That Burn Fat, Foods That Turn to Fat” by Tom Ventulo

Question 6: A. laying

B. lay

C. laid

D. to lay

Question 7: A. prolong

B. stretch

C. contact

D. reach

Question 8: A. cost

B. charge

C. average

D. expense

Question 9: A. Mostly

B. Furthermost

C. Most

D. Almost

Question 10: A. beautiful

B. gorgeous

C. lovely

D. charming

Question 11: A. many

B. large

C. tall

D. high

Question 12: A. by

B. from

C. at

D. in

Question 13: A. would be able

B. are more likelier

C. could more or less

D. are much more likely

Question 14: A. see through

B. keep alert

C. look up

D. watch out

Question 15: A. from

B. on

C. with

D. at

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in each of the
following questions.
Question 16: As a millionaire who liked to show off her wealth, Mrs. Smith paid ______ we asked.
A. four time much than
B. four times as much as
C. four times much as
D. four time as many as
Question 17: Regular exercise and good diet will bring ______ fitness and health.
A. from
B. to
C. about
D. up
Question 18: The pool should not be made so deep ______ small children can be safe there.
A. if
B. so as to
C. though
D. so that
Question 19: We all agree that she is ______ student in our class.
A. the cleverest
B. a more clever
C. most clever

D. cleverest

Question 20: There has been a great increase in retail sales, ______?
A. hasn't there
B. isn't there
C. isn't it

D. doesn’t it

Question 21: I am sorry I have no time at present to ______ detail of our plan.
A. bring in
B. take into
C. come in
D. go into
Question 22: Long ago, women were ______ to vote in political elections.
A. prevented
B. stopped
C. forbidden

D. banned

Question 23: She asked me ______ I was looking at.
A. when
B. if
C. what

D. why

Question 24: In spite of her abilities, Laura has been ______ overlooked for promotion.
A. repeat
B. repeatedly
C. repetitive

D. repetition
Question 25: Tom: “______”
Mike: “I won’t say no!”
A. How are things with you, Mike?
B. What about playing badminton this afternoon?
C. Mike, do you know where the scissors are?
D. What’s your favourite, tea or coffee?
Question 26: Education in many countries is compulsory ______ the age of 16.
A. for
B. when
C. until
D. forwards
Question 27: ______ one of the most beautiful forms of performance art, ballet is a combination of dance
and mime performed to music.
A. Being considering
B. Considering
C. Considered
D. To consider
Question 28: The examination was not very difficult, but it was ______ long.
A. so much
B. too much
C. very much

D. much too

Question 29: ______ has been a topic of continual geological research.
A. The continents formed
B. If the continents formed
C. How did the continents form
D. How the continents were formed

Question 30: We must push the piano to the corner of the hall to ______ our party tonight.
A. make place for
B. take up room to
C. make room for
D. give place to
Question 31: Standing on the tip of the cape, ______.
A. people have seen a lighthouse far away
B. lies a lighthouse in the middle of the sea
C. a lighthouse can see from the distance
D. we can see the lighthouse in the distance
Question 32: Only one of our gifted students ______ to participate in the final competition.
A. has been chosen
B. have been chosen
C. were choosing
D. chosen
Question 33: ______ his brother, Mike is active and friendly.
A. Alike
B. Unlike
C. Dislike

D. Liking

Question 34: The packages ______ so that it would be easier to carry them.
A. are tied in a bundle
B. are tied altogether
C. were tied in a knot

D. were tied together

Question 35: Michael looked deeply hurt and surprised when ______.

C. to scold
A. scolded
B. scolding

D. having scolded

Question 36: ______ John Kennedy was elected president, he was the youngest American President ever.
A. When
B. While
C. Before
D. As long as

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