BỘ đề và đáp án THI HSG lớp 12 CHUYÊN ANH văn

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
SÓC TRĂNG

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
Năm học 2014-2015

Đề chính thức
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 12
Ngày thi: 21/9/2014

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Quy định về thời gian:
- Sau khi bốc thăm chủ đề, mỗi thí sinh có 5 phút để chuẩn bị.
- Sau đó, thí sinh trình bày nội dung trong thời gian không quá 5 phút.

TOPIC 1. Talk about your hometown.

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
SÓC TRĂNG

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
Năm học 2014-2015

Đề chính thức
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 12
Ngày thi: 21/9/2014

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Quy định về thời gian:
- Sau khi bốc thăm chủ đề, mỗi thí sinh có 5 phút để chuẩn bị.
- Sau đó, thí sinh trình bày nội dung trong thời gian không quá 5 phút.

TOPIC 2. Talk about your last Tet holiday.

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
SÓC TRĂNG

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
Năm học 2014-2015

Đề chính thức
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 12
Ngày thi: 21/9/2014

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Quy định về thời gian:
- Sau khi bốc thăm chủ đề, mỗi thí sinh có 5 phút để chuẩn bị.
- Sau đó, thí sinh trình bày nội dung trong thời gian không quá 5 phút.

TOPIC 3. Talk about the advantages and disadvantages of riding a
motorbike (motorcycle).


SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
SÓC TRĂNG

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
Năm học 2014-2015

Đề chính thức
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 12

Ngày thi: 21/9/2014

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Quy định về thời gian:
- Sau khi bốc thăm chủ đề, mỗi thí sinh có 5 phút để chuẩn bị.
- Sau đó, thí sinh trình bày nội dung trong thời gian không quá 5 phút.

TOPIC 4. Talk about the advantages and disadvantages of living in a
big city.

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
SÓC TRĂNG

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
Năm học 2014-2015

Đề chính thức
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 12
Ngày thi: 21/9/2014

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Quy định về thời gian:
- Sau khi bốc thăm chủ đề, mỗi thí sinh có 5 phút để chuẩn bị.
- Sau đó, thí sinh trình bày nội dung trong thời gian không quá 5 phút.

TOPIC 5. Talk about your favourite type of clothes.

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
SÓC TRĂNG

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
Năm học 2014-2015

Đề chính thức
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 12
Ngày thi: 21/9/2014

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Quy định về thời gian:
- Sau khi bốc thăm chủ đề, mỗi thí sinh có 5 phút để chuẩn bị.
- Sau đó, thí sinh trình bày nội dung trong thời gian không quá 5 phút.

TOPIC 6. Talk about your favourite hobby.


SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
SÓC TRĂNG

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
Năm học 2014-2015

Đề chính thức
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 12
Ngày thi: 21/9/2014

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Quy định về thời gian:
- Sau khi bốc thăm chủ đề, mỗi thí sinh có 5 phút để chuẩn bị.
- Sau đó, thí sinh trình bày nội dung trong thời gian không quá 5 phút.

TOPIC 7. Talk something you know about the high school you are
studying in.

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
SÓC TRĂNG

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
Năm học 2014-2015

Đề chính thức
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 12
Ngày thi: 21/9/2014

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Quy định về thời gian:
- Sau khi bốc thăm chủ đề, mỗi thí sinh có 5 phút để chuẩn bị.
- Sau đó, thí sinh trình bày nội dung trong thời gian không quá 5 phút.

TOPIC 8. Talk about your daily activities in your free time.

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
SÓC TRĂNG

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
Năm học 2014-2015

Đề chính thức
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 12
Ngày thi: 21/9/2014

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Quy định về thời gian:
- Sau khi bốc thăm chủ đề, mỗi thí sinh có 5 phút để chuẩn bị.
- Sau đó, thí sinh trình bày nội dung trong thời gian không quá 5 phút.

TOPIC 9. Talk about a book you have read and you like it best.


SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
SÓC TRĂNG

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
Năm học 2014-2015

Đề chính thức
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 12
Ngày thi: 21/9/2014

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Quy định về thời gian:
- Sau khi bốc thăm chủ đề, mỗi thí sinh có 5 phút để chuẩn bị.
- Sau đó, thí sinh trình bày nội dung trong thời gian không quá 5 phút.

TOPIC 10. Talk about a subject you enjoyed studying at school.

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
SÓC TRĂNG

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
Năm học 2014-2015

Đề chính thức
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 12
Ngày thi: 21/9/2014

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Quy định về thời gian:
- Sau khi bốc thăm chủ đề, mỗi thí sinh có 5 phút để chuẩn bị.
- Sau đó, thí sinh trình bày nội dung trong thời gian không quá 5 phút.

TOPIC 11. Talk about the good way of learning English vocabulary.

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
SÓC TRĂNG

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
Năm học 2014-2015

Đề chính thức
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 12
Ngày thi: 21/9/2014

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Quy định về thời gian:
- Sau khi bốc thăm chủ đề, mỗi thí sinh có 5 phút để chuẩn bị.
- Sau đó, thí sinh trình bày nội dung trong thời gian không quá 5 phút.

TOPIC 12. Talk about your dream job.

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
SÓC TRĂNG

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
Năm học 2014-2015

Đề chính thức
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 12
Ngày thi: 21/9/2014

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Quy định về thời gian:
- Sau khi bốc thăm chủ đề, mỗi thí sinh có 5 phút để chuẩn bị.
- Sau đó, thí sinh trình bày nội dung trong thời gian không quá 5 phút.

TOPIC 13. Talk about a traditional game you played when you were
a child.

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
SÓC TRĂNG

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
Năm học 2014-2015

Đề chính thức
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 12
Ngày thi: 21/9/2014

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Quy định về thời gian:

- Sau khi bốc thăm chủ đề, mỗi thí sinh có 5 phút để chuẩn bị.
- Sau đó, thí sinh trình bày nội dung trong thời gian không quá 5 phút.

TOPIC 14. Talk about a park you like.

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
SÓC TRĂNG

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
Năm học 2014-2015

Đề chính thức
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 12
Ngày thi: 21/9/2014

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Quy định về thời gian:
- Sau khi bốc thăm chủ đề, mỗi thí sinh có 5 phút để chuẩn bị.
- Sau đó, thí sinh trình bày nội dung trong thời gian không quá 5 phút.

TOPIC 15. Talk about a woman you admire the most.


SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
SÓC TRĂNG

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
Năm học 2014-2015

Đề chính thức

Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 12
Ngày thi: 21/9/2014

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Quy định về thời gian:
- Sau khi bốc thăm chủ đề, mỗi thí sinh có 5 phút để chuẩn bị.
- Sau đó, thí sinh trình bày nội dung trong thời gian không quá 5 phút.

TOPIC 16. Talk about an enjoyable event that you experienced when
you were at school.

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
SÓC TRĂNG

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
Năm học 2014-2015

Đề chính thức
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 12
Ngày thi: 21/9/2014

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Quy định về thời gian:
- Sau khi bốc thăm chủ đề, mỗi thí sinh có 5 phút để chuẩn bị.
- Sau đó, thí sinh trình bày nội dung trong thời gian không quá 5 phút.

TOPIC 17. Talk about a tourist attraction you visited and impressed
you most.

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

SÓC TRĂNG

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
Năm học 2014-2015

Đề chính thức
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 12
Ngày thi: 21/9/2014

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Quy định về thời gian:
- Sau khi bốc thăm chủ đề, mỗi thí sinh có 5 phút để chuẩn bị.
- Sau đó, thí sinh trình bày nội dung trong thời gian không quá 5 phút.

TOPIC 18.Talk about a competition you took part in and it impressed
you most.


SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
SÓC TRĂNG

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
Năm học 2014-2015

Đề chính thức
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 12
Ngày thi: 21/9/2014

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Quy định về thời gian:

- Sau khi bốc thăm chủ đề, mỗi thí sinh có 5 phút để chuẩn bị.
- Sau đó, thí sinh trình bày nội dung trong thời gian không quá 5 phút.

TOPIC 19. Talk about the good way of learning English reading skill.

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
SÓC TRĂNG

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
Năm học 2014-2015

Đề chính thức
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 12
Ngày thi: 21/9/2014

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Quy định về thời gian:
- Sau khi bốc thăm chủ đề, mỗi thí sinh có 5 phút để chuẩn bị.
- Sau đó, thí sinh trình bày nội dung trong thời gian không quá 5 phút.

TOPIC 20. Talk about an artist or entertainer you admire.

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
SÓC TRĂNG

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
Năm học 2014-2015

Đề chính thức
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 12

Ngày thi: 21/9/2014

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Quy định về thời gian:
- Sau khi bốc thăm chủ đề, mỗi thí sinh có 5 phút để chuẩn bị.
- Sau đó, thí sinh trình bày nội dung trong thời gian không quá 5 phút.

TOPIC 21. Talk about a library you often go to.


SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
SÓC TRĂNG

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
Năm học 2014-2015

Đề chính thức
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 12
Ngày thi: 21/9/2014

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Quy định về thời gian:
- Sau khi bốc thăm chủ đề, mỗi thí sinh có 5 phút để chuẩn bị.
- Sau đó, thí sinh trình bày nội dung trong thời gian không quá 5 phút.

TOPIC 22. Talk about a trip you are planning to go on for your
holiday.

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
SÓC TRĂNG

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
Năm học 2014-2015

Đề chính thức
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 12
Ngày thi: 21/9/2014

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Quy định về thời gian:
- Sau khi bốc thăm chủ đề, mỗi thí sinh có 5 phút để chuẩn bị.
- Sau đó, thí sinh trình bày nội dung trong thời gian không quá 5 phút.

TOPIC 23. Talk about a game or sport you enjoy playing.

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
SÓC TRĂNG

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
Năm học 2014-2015

Đề chính thức
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 12
Ngày thi: 21/9/2014

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Quy định về thời gian:
- Sau khi bốc thăm chủ đề, mỗi thí sinh có 5 phút để chuẩn bị.
- Sau đó, thí sinh trình bày nội dung trong thời gian không quá 5 phút.

TOPIC 24. Talk about a place that has a special meaning to you.


SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
SÓC TRĂNG

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
Năm học 2014-2015

Đề chính thức
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 12
Ngày thi: 21/9/2014

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Quy định về thời gian:
- Sau khi bốc thăm chủ đề, mỗi thí sinh có 5 phút để chuẩn bị.
- Sau đó, thí sinh trình bày nội dung trong thời gian không quá 5 phút.

TOPIC 25. Talk about your favorite school subject.

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
SÓC TRĂNG

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
Năm học 2014-2015

Đề chính thức
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 12
Ngày thi: 21/9/2014

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Quy định về thời gian:
- Sau khi bốc thăm chủ đề, mỗi thí sinh có 5 phút để chuẩn bị.
- Sau đó, thí sinh trình bày nội dung trong thời gian không quá 5 phút.

TOPIC 26. Talk about a polluted place you have seen.

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
SÓC TRĂNG

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
Năm học 2014-2015

Đề chính thức
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 12
Ngày thi: 21/9/2014

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Quy định về thời gian:
- Sau khi bốc thăm chủ đề, mỗi thí sinh có 5 phút để chuẩn bị.
- Sau đó, thí sinh trình bày nội dung trong thời gian không quá 5 phút.

TOPIC 27. Talk about your first meeting with the headmaster of high
school.


SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
SÓC TRĂNG

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH

Năm học 2014-2015

Đề chính thức
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 12
Ngày thi: 21/9/2014

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Quy định về thời gian:
- Sau khi bốc thăm chủ đề, mỗi thí sinh có 5 phút để chuẩn bị.
- Sau đó, thí sinh trình bày nội dung trong thời gian không quá 5 phút.

TOPIC 28. Talk about your dream house.

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
SÓC TRĂNG

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
Năm học 2014-2015

Đề chính thức
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 12
Ngày thi: 21/9/2014

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Quy định về thời gian:
- Sau khi bốc thăm chủ đề, mỗi thí sinh có 5 phút để chuẩn bị.
- Sau đó, thí sinh trình bày nội dung trong thời gian không quá 5 phút.

TOPIC 29. Talk about your favorite sport.

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
SÓC TRĂNG

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
Năm học 2014-2015

Đề chính thức
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 12
Ngày thi: 21/9/2014

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Quy định về thời gian:
- Sau khi bốc thăm chủ đề, mỗi thí sinh có 5 phút để chuẩn bị.
- Sau đó, thí sinh trình bày nội dung trong thời gian không quá 5 phút.

TOPIC 30. Talk about your favorite food.


SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
SÓC TRĂNG

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
Năm học 2014-2015

Đề chính thức

Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 12
(Thi nói, thời gian thực hiện của mỗi thí sinh không quá 5 phút)
Ngày thi: 21/9/2014
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Hướng dẫn chấm thi Nói
ASSESSMENT FORM
(4.0 points)

Candidate’s full name
Grammar and Vocabulary
- Accuracy and Appropriateness
- Range of grammatical forms and
vocabulary
Discourse management
- Coherence
- How relevant the contributions to
what has gone before
Pronunciation
- Stress, Rhythm and Intonation
- Individual sounds
Note
- 2.0 points will be awarded to Grammar and Vocabulary.
- 1.0 point will be awarded to the rest.
-------The End--------


SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
SÓC TRĂNG
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KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
Năm học 2013-2014
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Môn: Tiếng Anh - Lớp 12
(Thời gian làm bài 180 phút, không kể phát đề)
Ngày thi: 20/9/2014
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Họ và tên thí sinh:....................................................... Số báo danh...............
Nam/nữ:..................... Ngày sinh:...................................................................
Nơi sinh:..........................................................................................................
Học sinh lớp: ..................., trường:.................................................................
Chú ý:
- Thí sinh phải ghi đầy đủ các mục ở trên và làm bài trên đề thi.
- Thí sinh không ký tên hay dùng ký hiệu đánh dấu bài.
- Giám thị cho thí sinh làm phần nghe hiểu trước.

Chữ ký giám thị 1

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
SÓC TRĂNG
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯

SỐ PHÁCH

Chữ ký giám thị 2

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
Năm học 2013-2014
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯

Môn: Tiếng Anh - Lớp 12
(Thời gian làm bài 180 phút, không kể phát đề)
Ngày thi: 20/9/2014

¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
Họ và tên thí sinh:....................................................... Số báo danh...............
Nam/nữ:..................... Ngày sinh:...................................................................
Nơi sinh:..........................................................................................................
Học sinh lớp: ..................., trường:.................................................................
Chú ý:
- Thí sinh phải ghi đầy đủ các mục ở trên và làm bài trên đề thi.
- Thí sinh không ký tên hay dùng ký hiệu đánh dấu bài.
- Giám thị cho thí sinh làm phần nghe hiểu trước.

Chữ ký giám thị 1

SỐ PHÁCH

Chữ ký giám thị 2


SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
VĨNH PHÚC

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2012-2013

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian: 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề.
Ngày thi: 02/11/2012.
Đề thi gồm 05 trang.

PART A: LISTENING.
You are going to listen to this telephone conversation between JON and JANICE and answer the
questions. You should write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each
answer.
You will hear the recording TWICE.
Areas dealt with:

(1) _____________ , North suburbs

Rent:

from (2) £ _______ to £ 500 a month

Depends on:

the area
availability (3) _________ .
garage

Properties available :

West Park Road
rent (4) £ ___________ a month
including (5) _________ bill
Tithe Road
rent £ 380 a month
including (6) _________ rental

Viewing arrangements:
Need:

meet at office on (7) __________ afternoon at 5.00 pm
letter from bank
reference from your (8) ___________.

Must:

give (9) ___________ notice of moving in give
deposit of (10) ___________
pay for contract

PART B: PHONETICS.
Identify the word whose main stress is different from that of the others in each group.
1. A. interest
2. A. damage
3. A. eternal
4. A. begin
5. A. popularity

B. important
B. arrange
B. essential
B. polite
B. investigate

C. decision
C. pocket
C. immoral
C. attend
C. university

1

D. relation
D. nature
D. practical
D. keenness
D. similarity


PART C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
I. Choose the right word or phrase to complete the sentences.
1. Julie has ______ out of playing with dolls.
A. developed
B. moved
C. removed
D. grown
2. Mike ______ in for sailing after he made friends with Harry.
A. got
B. went
C. put
D. came
3. The other runners were too far ahead for us to _____ up with.
A. catch
B. go
C. get
D. turn
4. This is ______ road I’ve ever driven along.
A. the bumpy
B. the bumpiest

C. the bumpier
D. bumpier
5. Jack ______ better if he had had more time.
A. could have done
B. could do
C. couldn’t do
D. did
6. Keith is ______ taller than her brother.
A. lightly
B. delicately
C. sparely
D. slightly
7. I must go to the dentist and ______ .
A. get my teeth to take care of
B. take care of my teeth
C. my teeth be taken care of
D. get my teeth taken care of
8. The last time I went to the supermarket I ended ______ buying all the things I didn’t really need at all.
A. in
B. to
C. by
D. up
9. ______ 20,000 people are thought to have attended the concert.
A. As much as
B. More
C. As many as
D. Less than
10. ______ I cross the Channel by boat, I feel seasick.
A. Though
B. As soon as

C. So that
D. Whenever
II. Choose a word or phrase in each of the following sentences that needs correcting.
1. Families who are enough fortunate to own a historic home may be able to get restoration funds from the
A
B
C
D
government.
2. The first things a new international student must do include renting an apartment, registering for
A
B
C
classes, and to get to know the city.
D
3. When parents allow his children to spend many hours watching television, the children are not likely
A
B
C
to be physically fit.
D
4. Jessica is only an amateur, but she sings sweeter than most professionals.
A B
C
D
5. Mrs. Adams was surprising that her son and his friend had gone to the mountains to ski.
A
B
C
D

III. Give the correct form of the word in blanket.

MOVING HOUSE
Moving house is said to be the third most stressful experience you can have (coming after the
(1. DIE) ______ of a close relative, or a divorce). The reason for this is partly the (2- ORGANISE)
______ involved, but also the feeling of (3. SECURITY) ______ caused by completely changing your

2


environment. Of course, a (4. SYSTEM) ______ approach can help ease the difficulties, especially on
the day of (5. REMOVE) ______. Plan your packing carefully or, better, employ a (6. RELY) ______
company to pack and move your things. This will (7. CERTAIN) ______ lessen the amount of damage
to your (8. POSSESS) ______. It’s also a good idea to take out (9. INSURE) ______. Some worry is,
of course, (10. AVOID) ______ but try to keep calm and look forward to life in your new home.
PART D: READING
I. Read the passage and fill each gap with ONE suitable word.
They call New York “the Big Apple”. Maybe it’s not (1) ______ like an apple, but it’s certainly
very big. There are too many people, that’s the (2) ______. The street are always full of cars and
trucks, and you can never find a (3) ______ to park.
If you have enough money, you can take a taxi. New York cabs are yellow. They look all the
same. But the drivers are very (4) ______. Some were born and (5) ______ up in New York, but many
are (6) ______ to the United States. A few drive slowly, but most go very, very fast. Cab (7) ______ is
a difficult job. It can be dangerous, too. Thieves often try to steal the drivers’ money. Drivers
sometimes get hurt.
If you don’t want to take a taxi, you can go by bus or you can take a subway. The (8) ______ is
quick, and it’s cheap, but parts of it are old (9)______ dirty. Lights don’t always work and there are
often fires on the track. On some subway lines, there are new, clean, silver trains. But you can’t see the
color of the old trains easily. There is too much dirt and too much graffiti, inside and (10) ______.
II. Choose the best answer from the four options marked A, B, C or D to complete each numbered

gap in the passage below.
School exams are, generally speaking, the first kind of tests we take. They find out how much
knowledge we have gained. But do they really show how intelligent we are? After all, isn’t it a
(1)______ that some people who are very academically successful don’t have any common sense?
Intelligence is the speed (2)______ which we can understand and react to new situation and it
is usually tested by logic puzzles. Although scientists are now preparing (3) ______ computer
technology that will be able to ‘read’ our brains, (4) ______ tests are still the most popular ways of
measuring intelligence.
A person’s IQ is their intelligence (5) ______ it is measured by a special test. The most
common IQ tests are (6) ______ by Mensa, an organization that was founded in England in 1946. By
1976, it (7) ______ 1,300 members in Britain. Today there are 44,000 in Britain and 100,000
worldwide, largely in the US.
People taking the tests are judged in (8) ______ to an average score of 100, and those who
score over 148 are entitled to join Mensa. This works out at percent of the population. Anyone from
the age of six can take the tests. All the questions are straightforward and most people can answer them
if (9) ______ enough time. But that’s the problem, the whole (10) ______ of the tests is that they’re
against the clock.
1. A. case
2. A. on
3. A. advanced
4. A. at this age
5. A. how
6. A. appointed
7. A. held
8. A. concerned
9. A. allowed
10. A. reason

B. fact
B. to

B. forward
B. for the present
B. that
B. commanded
B. had
B. relation
B. spared
B. point

C. circumstance
C. in
C. ahead
C. at the time
C. as
C. run
C. kept
C. regard
C. let
C. matter

3

D. truth
D. at
D. upper
D. now and then
D. so
D. steered
D. belonged
D. association

D. provided
D. question


III. Read the following passage and then answer the questions that follow by choosing A, B, C or D.
Cholera, a highly infectious disease, has resulted in millions of deaths time after time over
centuries. It is caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae, first isolated by Robert Koch in 1883.
The organism enters the body through the digestive tract when contaminated food or water is
ingested. The bacteria multiply in the digestive tract and establish infection. As they die, they release a
potent toxin that leads to severe diarrhea and vomiting. This results in extreme dehydration, muscle
cramps, kidney failure, collapse and sometimes death. If the disease is treated promptly, death is less
likely.
In many countries, a common source of the organism is raw or poorly cooked seafood, taken
from the contaminated waters. The disease is especially prevalent after a natural disaster or other
destruction that results in a lack of fresh water. Sewer systems fail and waste travels into rivers or
streams; piped water is not available so people must take their drinking and cooking water from rivers
or streams. Because people frequently develop communities along waterways, the disease can be
spread easily from one community to the next community down streams, resulting in serious
epidemics.
1. The word infectious in the first sentence is closest in meaning to ______.
A. communicable
B. severe
C. isolated
D. common
2. According to the passage, cholera is caused by ______.
A. a virus
B. a bacterium
C. kidney failure
D. dehydration
3. All of the following are probable causes of infection EXCEPT ______.

A. eating food cooked with contaminated water
B. eating undercooked seafood
C. eating overcooked pork
D. eating raw oysters
4. According to the passage, what is a symptom of the infection?
A. Release of a toxin by the bacteria
B. Regurgitation
C. Overeating
D. Epidemics
5. Which of the following would be an appropriate title for this passage?
A. Dysentery and its effects
B. Water Purification Systems and Their Importance
C. Results of Wars and Natural Disasters D. The Causes and Effects of Cholera
6. The word prevalent in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.
A. dangerous
B. commonplace
C. unusual
D. organized
7. The word lack in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.
A. contamination
B. multitude
C. shortage
D. well
8. According to the passage, cholera ______.
A. is easily passed from one person to another
B. is not a real threat
C. is no more dangerous than the common cold
D. cannot be passed from one to another by casual contact
9. What can you infer from the passage?
A. Careful cooking and hygiene practices can reduce the chance of getting the disease

B. Water mixed with other substances will not pass the disease
C. The respiratory system is the most common area of entrance
D. Kidney disease is the most common cause of the disease
10. The word epidemics at the end of the passage is closest in meaning to ______.
A. studies
B. illness
C. bacteria
D. plagues

4


PART E: WRITING
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first sentence.
1. I don’t intend to apologize to either of them.
→ I have ………………………………………………………………….
2. She has never been to the ballet before.
→ It is the ………………………………………………………………….
3. The result of the match was never in doubt.
→ At no time ………………………………………………………………
4. Under no circumstances should you phone the police.
→ The last ………………………………………………………………………..
5. “You broke my bicycle, Minh!” said Hoa.
→ Mary accused ………………………………………………………….
6. I didn’t know you were coming, so I didn’t wait for you.

→ If……………………………………………………………………….
7. When I picked up my pen I found that the nib had broken

→ On………………………………………………………………………

8. There is no danger that you will fall from the verandah

→ There is no danger of……………………………………………………
9. The sea was so cold that we couldn’t swim in it.

→ The sea was too …………………………………………………………
10. He felt too ill to get up.

→ He did not………………………………………………………………
II. Topic writing (from 150 to 200 words).
Write a paragraph about “The importance of family in a person’s life”.
Use specific reasons and examples to support your answers.
------The end-------

5


SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
VĨNH PHÚC

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2012-2013

Môn: TIẾNG ANH – THPT

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
(Gồm 02 trang)
PART A: LISTENING
1. (the) city centre/ center (itself)
2. 250

3. (a) garden
4. 325
5. (the) water

6. (the) telephone/ phone
7. Wednesday/ Wed
8. employer
9. two/ 2 weeks’
10. one/ 1 month(‘s) rent

PART B: PHONETICS
1. A

2. B

3. D

4. D

5. B

4. B
9. C

5. A
10. D

4. C

5. A

PART C: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR
I. Choose the right word or phrase to complete the sentences.
1. D
2. B
3. A
6. D
7. D
8. D
II. Choose one underlined word or phrase that is incorrect.
1. B

2. D

3. A

III. Supply the correct form of the word in the blanket
2. organisation/
1. death
3. insecurity
organization
6. reliable
7. certainly
8. possessions

4. systematic

5. removal

9. insurance

10. unavoidable

PART D: READING (30 points)
I. Read the passage and fill each gap with ONE suitable word
1. exactly
6. newcomers
2. problem
7. driving
3. place
8. subway
4. different
9. and
5. grew
10. outside
II. Choose the best answer from the four options marked A, B, C or D to complete each numbered
gap in the passage below
1. B
2. D
3. A
4. B
5. C

1


6. C

7. B

8. B

9. A

10. B

III. Read the passage and choose the best answer)
1. A
6. B

2. B
7. C

3. C
8. A

4. B
9. A

5. D
10. D

PART E: WRITING
I. 10 points – 1p/ item
1. I have no intention of apologising to either of them/ I have no intention to apologise to either of
them.
2. It is the first time she has been to the ballet.
3. At no time was the result of the match in doubt.
4. The last thing you should/ ought to/ must do is (to) phone the police.
5. Hoa accused Minh of breaking her bicycle/ Hoa accused Minh of having broken her bicycle

6. If I had known you were coming, I would have waited for you.
7. On picking up my pen, I found that the nib had broken.
8. There is no danger of your falling from the verandah.
9. The sea was too cold for us to swim in.
10. He did not feel well enough to get up.
II. Topic writing:
- Well-organised –
- Few grammatical mistakes
- Various grammatical structures and vocabularies
* Total: 100 points.

2


SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
VĨNH PHÚC

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2012-2013

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

Môn: TIẾNG ANH – THPT Chuyên.
Thời gian: 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề.
Ngày thi: 02/11/2012.
Đề thi gồm 06 trang.

PART A. LISTENING
YOU WILL HEAR THE RECORDING TWICE
I. Questions 1-10

You will hear a talk given by a woman who is a successful climber. For questions 1-10, complete the
sentences.
MOUNTAIN CLIMBER
On her expedition, she became aware of the feelings of (1) ____________ and _____________
connected with mountaineering.
She had previously taken part in several so-called (2) ____________.
She found the mental (3) ____________ for climbing Everest particularly hard.
She was particularly worried about the (4) ____________she would have to climb through.
She says that you cannot take any of the (5) ____________ of life with you on Everest.
On her first trip there, she regretted taking (6) ____________ with her.
When she climbed Everest, she left her (7) ____________ after a certain point.
She says you mustn’t waste (8) ____________ or fuel when you’re on the mountain.
When they reached the top, they had a sensation of shared (9) ____________.
Her book about climbing Everest is called (10) ____________.
II. Questions 11-20
You will hear a conversation between two old friends who meet each other by accident.
For questions 11 – 15, choose the best answer.
11. What is John’s job?
A. Doctor
B. Teacher
12. Which of the following continents did Frank not visit on his travels?
A. Europe
B. Africa
13. What’s Frank’s job?
A. Journalist
B. Travel writer
14. How many children do Frank and Liz have?
A. 0
B. 2
15. When did John and Kate get married?

A. the last year of college
B. the year after graduation

C. Chemist
C. North America
C. College lecturer
C. 3
C. 2 years after graduation

For questions 16 – 19, write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each
answer.
16. What time should Frank and Liz go to dinner?
________________________________________
Trang1/6


17. What’s Frank’s mobile phone number?
________________________________________
18. What’s on the other side of the road from John and Kate’s flat?
________________________________________
19. What does Liz NOT like to eat?
________________________________________
For question 20, choose the best answer.
20. Which bell button is the one for John and Kate’s flat?

A

B

C

PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 points)
I. Choose the correct answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the following questions.
1. I don’t care what you do about job. It’s no ______ of mine.
A. importance
B. feeling
C. matter
D. concern
2. Sometimes two cultural values seem to ______ each other.
A. conflict
B. contradict
C. reflect
D. disapprove
3. You can leave the money with him; he’s totally ______.
A. trusting
B. trusty
C. trustful
D. trustworthy
4. ______ you cut down your sugar intake, you’d have lost weight by now.
A. Did
B. Were
C. If
D. Had
5. Giving up smoking is just one of the ways to ______ heart disease.
A. push off
B. put off
C. ward off
D. throw off
6. They were surprised to come ______ such a large sum.
A. into

B. up to
C. over
D. up with
7. A walnut tree ______ us from the sun on hot days.
A. fences
B. warns
C. shelters
D. prevents
8. This machine will have been ______ by the end of the decade.
A. broken down
B. phased out
C. set out
D. made off with
9. I didn’t see anyone but I felt as though I ______.
A. have been watched
B. was being watched
C. being watched
D. am watched
10. The ______ to success is to be ready from the start.
A. key
B. response
C. agreement
D. demand
11. For years she had ______ of meeting her long-lost sister.
A. hoped
B. wished
C. longed
D. dreamed
12. The ______ against your having that kind of accident are about 500 to 1.
A. possibilities

B. figures
C. opportunities
D. odds
13. They live in a ______ house in the suburbs of London.
A. single
B. detached
C. free-standing
D. distinct
14. Many people these days find it difficult to ______ a career.
A. settle into
B. stabilise
C. settle down
D. arrange
15. He never expected his prophecy to be _______.
A. accomplished
B. realised
C. achieved
D. fulfilled
16. They shared out the ______ of the business among all the partners.
A. makings
B. proceedings
C. benefits
D. proceeds
17. The signal was extremely difficult to ______.
A. settle
B. decipher
C. capture
D. fix
18. Noone was capable of breaking the ______ silence following the news.
A. harsh

B. thick
C. stunned
D. punched
Trang2/6


19. They noticed a flame ______ in the breeze.
A. flickering
B. flashing
C. blinking
D. sparkling
20. He congratulated his opponent with just a ______ of smile on his face.
A. mark
B. print
C. hint
D. sign
II. Read the text and look carefully at each line. Some of the lines are correct, and some have a
word which should not be there. If a line is correct, put a tick (√). if a line has a word which should
not be there, write the word. There are two examples at the beginning (0 and 00).
Telent scouts are looking for the next generation of supermodels have realised Africa’s potential. 0..are…
Lyndsey Mclntyre, a former model herself, recently opened one agency’s first African office. 00..√…
“African women are being graceful and serene” she says. “These qualities could make them do 1…….
very well in this business.” However, sporting supermodels is rarely easy, as well Mclntyre 2…….
discovered when she visited the Orma tribe of remote north-eastern Kenya, whose the women are 3…….
reported to be especially striking. “The tribal leaders were a bit suspicious and I wasn’t allowed to 4…….
be meet many of their girls,” she explains. Another problem is that reports aren’t always reliable. 5…….
Mclntyre discovered this when one of village’s “most beautiful girl” turned out to be its heaviest 6…….
one. She had to explain that Western advertisers prefer far slimmer women. The Orma are not 7…….
alone in believing fat it is beautiful. In a recent Africa-wide beauty contest, all the Ugadan 8…….
contestants were disqualified for being a little too large around the hips. “I don’t understand why 9 ……

the fashion industry’s obsession with small hips,” said one judge for the contest. “But because we 10…...
want the girls to succeed and to see African models working internationally, we give the industry
what it wants.
III. Supply the correct form of the word in capital letter.
A teacher standing at the front of a history class is seldom teaching history alone. A good
teacher is also (1. DEMONSTRATE)______ self-expression, management ability, (2.
COMMUNICATE)______ skills, and a whole host of other skills that may be (3. USE) ______ for
you later in life. There are certain basic (4. ABLE)______ that everyone needs to have if they are to
be (5. SUCCESS)______ in education, employment and even in social circumstances. Learning these
skills is (6. SPECIAL)______ important at secondary school level, in order to (7. FULL)______
prepare for further education or the working world. A minimum level of (8. COMPETENT)______ is
demanded by all employers, colleges and universities. The more advanced you are in those areas, the
more the (9. ORGANISE)______ believes you will be competent. These personal (10.
DEVELOP)______ skills differ from other school subjects in that they cannot be taught in isolation
from the rest of the school curriculum.
IV. Complete each phrase in bold with one of the words from the box.
concern
trace

wonder
knowing

likelihood
choice

1. It’s unfortunate, but I’m afraid you give me no ______.
2. By the time the police arrived, there was no ______ of the burglars.
3. It’s no ______ asking me the way, I’m only a visitor here.
4. If you will smoke so much it’s no ______ you have a bad cough.
Trang3/6

point
use

means
matter


5. You go home, there’s no ______ in both of us waiting.
6. Mind your own business, it’s no ______ of yours.
7. As far as we know, the old man has no _______ of support.
8. There is really no ______ what Eric will do next.
9. I couldn’t solve the puzzle, no ______ how hard I tried.
10. At the moment there is no ______ of the Prime Minister resigning.
PART C: READING.
I. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each
space.
Trees for life
Trees are amongst the biggest and longest-living things on Earth, some dating back longer than
the oldest buildings. But as well as being nice to look at, trees also (1)______ an important role in
improving the quality of our lives.
On a world-wide scale, forests help to slow down the (2)______ of global warming by using up
the gas known as carbon dioxide and giving (3)_______ the oxygen we need to breathe. At local
neighborhood level, trees also (4)_____ important environmental benefits. They offer shade and
shelter, which in turn reduces the (5)______ of energy needed to heat and cool nearby buildings, at the
same time, they also remove other impurities from the air we breathe.
Urban trees are especially important because for many people they provide the only daily
contact with the natural world. What’s (6)_____, urban trees also provide a home for birds, small
animals and butterflies. (7)_______ the trees, we would lose the pleasure of seeing these creatures in
our cities. Regrettably, (8)_____, trees in cities are now coming under (9)______. There is a limit to

the level of pollution they can put up with and down at the street level, their roots are (10)_______
seriously disturbed by the digging needed to make way for modern telephone, television and other
cables.
II. Choose A, B, C, or D to complete the following passage.
AS OLD AS YOU FEEL
It might after all be true that you are only as old as you feel. A British clinic is carrying out new
high-tech tests to calculate the “real” biological age of patients (1) ______ on the rate of physical
deterioration.
Information on every (2)______ of a patient’s health, fitness, lifestyle and family medical
history is (3)______ into a computer to work out whether they are older or younger than their calendar
age suggests.
The availability and increasing accuracy of the tests has (4) ______ one leading British
gerontologist to call for biological age to be used to determine when workers should retire. He
(5)______ that if an employee’s biological or “real” age is shown, for example, to be 55 when he
reaches his 65th birthday, he should be (6) ______ to work for another decade. Apparently most
employers only take into (7)______ a person’s calendar years, and the two may differ considerably.
Some of those prepared to pay a substantial sum of money for the examinations will be able to
smugly walk away with medical (8) ______ showing that they really are as young as they feel, giving
them the confidence to act and dress as if they were younger. Dr Lynette Yong, resident doctor at the
clinic where the tests are offered claims that the purpose of these tests will be to motivate people to
(9)_______ their health.
The concept of “real” age is set to become big (10) ______ in the USA with books and
websites helping people work out whether their body is older or younger than their years. Others
firmly believe that looks will always be the best indicator of age.
1. A. based

B. decided

C. arranged

D. established

2. A. position

B. prospect

C. attitude

D. aspect

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3. A. supplied

B. fed

C. provided

D. planned

4. A. projected

B. prodded

C. provoked

D. prompted

5. A. debates

B. argues

C. discusses

D. enquires

6. A. encouraged

B. supported

C. incited

D. promoted

7. A. interest

B. detail

C. account

D. importance

8. A. grounds

B. signs

C. demonstration

D. evidence

9. A. progress

B. improve

C. gain

D. increase

10. A. trade

B. pursuit

C. business

D. concern

III. Read the passage and choose the best answer.
The first two decades of this century were dominated by the microbe hunters. These hunters
had tracked down one after another of the microbe responsible for the most dreaded scourges of many
centuries: tuberculosis, cholera, diphtheria. But there remained some terrible diseases for which no
microbe could be incriminated: scurvy, pellagra, rickets, and beriberi. Then it was discovered that
these diseases were caused by the lack of vitamins, a trace substance in the diet. The diseases could be
prevented or cured by consuming foods that contained the vitamins. And so in the decades of the
1920’s and 1930’s, nutrition became a science and the vitamin hunters replaced the microbe hunters.
In the 1940’s and 1950’s, biochemists strived to learn why each of the vitamins was essential
for health. They discovered that key enzymes in metabolism depend on one or another of the vitamins
as coenzymes to perform the chemistry that provides cells with energy for growth and function. Now,
these enzyme hunters occupied center stage.
You are aware that the enzyme hunters have been replaced by a new breed of hunters who are

tracking genes – the blueprints for each of the enzymes – and are discovering the defective genes that
cause inherited diseases – diabetes, cystic fibrosis. These gene hunters, or genetic engineers, use
recombinant DNA technology to identify and clone genes and introduce them into bacterial cells and
plants to create factories for the massive production of hormones and vaccines for medicine and for
better crops for agriculture. Biotechnology has become a multibillion-dollar industry.
In view of the inexorable progress in science, we can expect that the gene hunters will be
replaced in the spotlight. When and by whom? Which kind of hunter will dominate the scene in the
last decade of our waning century and in the early decades of the next? I wonder whether the hunters
who will occupy the spotlight will be neurobiologists who apply the techniques of the enzyme and
gene hunters to the functions of the brain. What to call them? The head hunters. I will return to them
later.
1. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The microbe hunters
B. The potential of genetic engineering
C. The progress of modern medical research
D. The discovery of enzymes
2. The word “which” in bold refers to ______.
A. diseases
B. microbe
C. cholera
D. diphtheria
3. The word “incriminated” in bold is closest in meaning to ______.
A. investigated
B. blamed
C. eliminated
D. produced
4. Which of the following can be cured by a change in diet?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Cholera
C. Cystic fibrosis

D. Pellagra
5. The word “strived” in bold is closest in meaning to ______.
A. failed
B. tried
C. experimented
D. studied
6. How do vitamins influence health?
A. They are necessary for some enzymes to function
B. They protect the body from microbes
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C. They keep food from spoiling
D. They are broken down by cells to produce energy
7. In the third paragraph, the author compares cells that have been genetically altered by biotechnicians
to ______.
A. gardens
B. factories
C. hunters
D. spotlights
8. The word “them” in bold refers to ______.
A. cells and plants
B. hormones
C. genes
D. gene hunters or genetic engineers
9. The phrase “occupy the spotlight” in bold is closest in meaning to ______.
A. receive the most attention
B. go the furthest
C. conquer territory
D. lighten the load

10. The author implies that the most important medical research topic of the future will be ______.
A. the functions of the brain
B. inherited diseases
C. the operation of vitamins
D. the structure of genes
PART D: WRITING.
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first sentence. Use the
word given.
1. I offered to help her but she said “No, thanks.”

(turned)

→ …………………………………………………………………………...
2. Mary didn’t feel like going to the party.

(mood)

→ …………………………………………………………………………...
3. If you are in Nha Trang by any chance, come and see us. (happen)
→ …………………………………………………………………………...
4. Dick’s school is making him sit his exams again.

(made)

→ …………………………………………………………………………...
5. I would always do what you advised.

(advice)

→ …………………………………………………………………………...

6. How has the strike affected student attendance?
(effect)
→ …………………………………………………………………………
7. She began to suffer from irrational fears.
(prey)
→ …………………………………………………………………………
8. Mr Misery was the only student who didn’t smile.
(except)
→ …………………………………………………………………………
9. I assure you’re hungry.
(granted)
→ …………………………………………………………………………
10. The book was not as good as he had hoped.
(expectations)
→ ……………………………………………………………………………
II. Write about the following topic (from 250 to 300 words).
Do you agree or disagree the following statement?
“Classmates are a more important influence than parents on a child’s success in school.”
Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer.
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