HƯỚNG DẪN ÔN THI CAO HỌC ĐẦU VÀO MÔN TIẾNG ANH DÙNG CHO HỆ CAO HỌC KHÔNG CHUYÊN NGỮ

ĐẠI HỌC NHA TRANG
KHOA NGOẠI NGỮ

HƯỚNG DẪN ÔN THI CAO HỌC ĐẦU VÀO MÔN TIẾNG ANH
DÙNG CHO HỆ CAO HỌC KHÔNG CHUYÊN NGỮ
I.

MỤC ĐÍCH BÀI THI:
Kiểm tra năng lực Tiếng Anh gồm hai kỹ năng đọc và viết của thí sinh theo bậc 3/6
của Khung năng lực ngoại ngữ 6 bậc dùng cho Việt Nam.

II.

CẤU TRÚC BÀI THI: GỒM 2 PHẦN (ĐỌC HIỂU+ VIẾT)
Bài thi thiết kế theo thang điểm 100, trong đó số điểm mỗi phần chiếm 50% số điểm.
Thời gian làm bài 120 phút.

III.

NỘI DUNG BÀI THI
A. PHẦN ĐỌC HIỂU

(gồm 4 phần với 50 câu hỏi - 50 điểm)

ĐIỂM

ĐIỂM
TỔNG
50 điểm

I. Phần 1: 20 câu hỏi trắc nghiệm.

Phần này kiểm tra kỹ năng đọc hiểu ở cấp độ câu. Thí 1 điểm cho 1
sinh phải đọc 20 câu hỏi, mỗi câu hỏi có 4 phương án
câu đúng.
trả lời (A, B, C, D) và sinh viên phải chọnmột câu trả
lời đúng .

20

II. Phần 2: 5 câu hỏi

Phần 2 kiểm tra kỹ năng đọc hiểu một mẩu tin ngắn.
Thí sinh đọc 5 biển quảng cáo, bảng báohiệu thường
gặp trong đời sống hàng ngày (dạng hình ảnh không
có chữ hoặc có ít chữ) hoặc thông báo ngắn, sau đó
chọn một câu trả lời đúng trong 4 câu cho sẵn (dạng trắc
nghiệm ABC).
Phần 3: 15 câu hỏi
Phần 3 kiểm tra kỹ năng đọc hiểu một đoạn văn
1

1 điểm cho
một câu
đúng

1 điểm cho 1
câu đúng

5

15


ngắn. Thí sinh đọc 3 đoạn văn ngắn với độ dài 120 –
150 từ về các chủ đề đời sống hàng ngày, mỗi bài có 5
câu hỏi và mỗi câu hỏi có 4 phương án trả lời A, B, C,
D; thí sinh phải chọn một câu trả lời đúng.
Phần 4: 10 câu điền từ
Phần này kiểm tra kỹ năng đọc hiểu đoạn văn và kỹ
năng đoán từ. Thí sinh đọc một đoạn văn có độ dài
150-200 từ về các chủ đề về đời sống hàng ngày; trong
bài có 10 chỗ trống thí sinh tự tìm từ hoặc cụm từ
thích hợp vào ô trống để hoàn chỉnh bài đọc.

1 điểm cho 1
câu đúng

B. PHẦN VIẾT

50 điểm

Phần 1: Xây dựng câu (gồm 5 câu)
Phần này kiểm tra kỹ năng viết câu đúng ngữ pháp
tiếng Anh.Thí sinh viết 5 câu đúng ngữ pháp tiếng
Anh có hướng dẫn theo các từ cho trước.

2 điểm cho 1
câu đúng

Phần 2: Chuyển hóa câu (gồm 5 câu)

10

10

Phần này kiểm tra kỹ năng viết câu tương đương
đúng ngữ pháp tiếng Anh. Thí sinh viết 5 câu với
nghĩa tương đương với 5 câu đã cho và có gợi ý bằng
1-2 từ.
Phần 3: Viết một bài văn ngắn
Phần này kiểm tra kỹ năng viết một bài văn ngắn. Thí
sinh viết một bài văn ngắn khoảng 100-120 từ với các
chủ đề liên quan đến đời sống hàng ngày gồm các
dạng bài: viết thư mời, thư cảm ơn, thư hỏi thăm,
thư cho lời khuyên, thư phàn nàn……
TỔNG SỐ ĐIỂM ĐẠT ĐƯỢC
Thí sinh cần đạt được tổng số điểm là 50 điểm, điểm mỗi
phần thi không dưới 30% là đạt yêu cầu.

IV.

10

ĐỀ CƯƠNG ÔN TẬP

A. PHẦN ĐỌC HIỂU:
2

2 điểm cho 1
câu đúng

Viết đúng
nội dung,
đúng thể
loại, mạch
lạc, đúng
ngữ pháp, sử
dụng từ
chính xác

30

100


1. Từ vựng: từ vựng về các chủ đề- đời sống hàng ngày, thể thao, giải trí, nghề nghiệp,
giáo dục, sức khỏe, giao thông, thời tiết, mua sắm,…..
2. Ngữ pháp: cách sử dụng các thì động từ trong tiếng Anh, cách sử dụng một số động
từ, tính từ thường dùng đòi hỏi giới từ hoặc cấu trúc đặc biệt; Ví dụ : enjoy, look
forwards to, apologise, warn, stop, help, to be afraid of, to be short of…….
3. Kỹ năng: kỹ năng đọc lướt tìm ý chính, ý chi tiết, kỹ năng phán đoán từ và đoán
B.
1.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.

nghĩa.
PHẦN VIẾT
Viết câu:
Verb Tenses;
Modal verb;
Active and passive
Comparative and superlative
Prepositions: because of, in spite of, despite, although
Các cấu trúc:
It is/was/ will be + adjective + to Verb
too + adjective + to + Verb
Adjective + enough + to + verb
It takes/ took /will take + time + to + Verb
Spend + time + Verb + ing
Verb + to + Verb; Verb + Verb + ing
Wish + a clause
So + adjective/adverb that + a clause
Such + (A/An+ adjective)+ Noun that + a clause
Subject+ have/ get + object + V(PP )

g. Các loại câu phức hợp:
Time clause; relative clause, conditional clauses, noun clause; direct speech and
indirect speech; It is + ( time) since + a clause.
2. Viết đoạn văn(100- 120 từ)
Viếtđơn xin việc dựa trên tài liệu gợi ý cho sẵn hoặc viết thư mời, thư cảm ơn, thư
cho lời khuyên, thư phàn nàn…
- Tài liệu ôn tập :
1.Preliminary English Test 1, 2, 3, 4. University of Cambridge.
2. Grammar in use; Intermediate; Rymond Murphy.
3. Tài liệu luyện thi Chứng chỉ quốc gia TA trình độ B của Nguyễn Trung

Tánh, NXB tp HCM.
3


BÀI THI MẪU
ĐỀ 1
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
TRƯỜNG ĐẠI HỌC NHA TRANG

ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH CAO HỌC
MÔN TIẾNG ANH – THỜI GIAN LÀM BÀI: 120 PHÚT
Điểm số

Điểm chữ

CB chấm thi 1

4

CB chấm thi 2

Số phách


PART 1: READING COMPREHENSION (50 marks)
SECTION 1: (Questions 1-20)
In this section you must choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence.
Circle the letter A, B, C or D. (20ms)
1. They ……………… not work on Sundays.
A. does

B. do
C. have
D. didn’t
2. We buy cookies at the ……………….
A. grocery store
B. bookstore
C. florist’s
D. bakery
3. Which word is the odd one out?
A. rice cooker
B. iron
C. projector
D. hair dryer
4. He is ……………… in my class.
A. tallest
B. taller
C. the tallest
D. taller than
5. What is the best ……………… for cold?
A. treatment
B. painkiller
C. heat
D. plaster
6. It was past midnight, so there were ……………… people in the street.
A. few
B. less
C. any
D. little
7. To travel from England to Scotland, you……………….a passport.
A. needn’t

B. don’t need
C. haven’t got
D. mustn’t have
8. It was a long film: ……………….
A. it bored
B. it was bored
C. I was bored
D. I was boring
9. He asked me if I……………….to swim across the river.
A. could
B. am able
C. be able
D. was able
10. Where……………….these pictures……………….? – We took them in Japan.
A. were/ taken
B. have/ taken
C. did/ take
D. do/ take
11. Last Saturday was……………….that we took a ride in the country.
A. so beautiful
B. such beautiful a day
C. so beautiful day
D. such a beautiful weather
12.You can meet me……………….you like.
A. soon
B. always
C. whenever
D. whatever
13.Their office……………….of three small rooms.
A. contains

B. numbers
C. consists
D. includes
14. He went to school on time yesterday,………………..?
A. was he
B. wasn’t he
C. did he
D. didn’t he
15.……………….you stop working so hard, you’ll become ill.
A. If
B. Unless
C. When
D. Until
16. That lesson was much too difficult……………….understand.
A. for me
B. for me to
C. we could not
D. for me not to
17. Mrs. Brown was the first owner……………….won three prizes in the same show.
A. her dog
B. his dog
C. who dog
D. whose dog
18. I……………….a letter when she phoned.
A. write
B. writes
C. was writing
D. had written
19. The man………the bus is my brother.
5

A. drives
B. driving
C. who is driving
D. B and C are correct
20. The book ………..last week is his first written for children.
A. published
B. is publishing
C. publishes
D. A and C are correct

SECTION 2: (Questions 21-25)
Look at the text in each question. What does it say? Mark the correct letter A, B, or C. (5ms)

21

22.

23.

6


24.

25.

7

SECTION 3: PASSAGE READING (Questions 26-40)
Read the following passages and choose the best answer to the questions 26- 40. (15 ms)
Passage 1
Thank you for choosing this high quality office chair. It is made of the finest materials
available to ensure many years of use and comfort. We are sure you will enjoy its many features
for years to come. Remember that you can adjust the tilt of the chair using the knob underneath,
and the height of the chair with the lever on the side. This chair also comes with a three-year
warranty, which covers the full cost of replacement parts and labor in the unlikely event that you
have any problems with your chair. If you have any questions about assembly or the warranty,
please call our toll free number: 1-800-450-0000.
26.What kind of product is this information for?
A. Furniture
B. Electronics
C. Kitchen appliance D. Sports equipment
27.How long is this product guaranteed?
A. Two months
B. Three months
C. Two years
D. Three years
28.How can you adjust the tilt of this product?
A. with a knob
B. by tilting it
C. with a lever
D. by calling the number
29.How can you adjust the height of this product?
A. with a knob
B. by tilting it
C. with a lever
D. by calling the number

30.Which of the following statements is not true?
A. The product is made of the best materials.
B. The product is comfortable.
C. We cannot adjust the tilt and the height of the product.
D. The cost of replacement parts is free.
Passage 2
There is story going round at the moment about a well- known journalist who went to
interview Jack Parrish at a smart New York restaurant. The journalist was late, but fortunately
when he arrived, he found the great man was not yet there. On the way to his table, the journalist
noticed a colleague from his paper and stopped to chat to her. After fifteen minutes, a waiter
approached him. “There is some young man at the door who says he’s supposed to be having
lunch with you. I think he is trying to be funny because he says his name is Jack Parrish!”
But of course it was. The twenty- four- year- old is becoming famous for the fact that he
doesn’t look like the owner of one of the world’s most successful computer companies. His
manner is polite. His voice is quiet and his clothes are clearly not expensive. Two years ago, when
he started his own company, no one had heard of him. Friends say that he has not changed. He
hasn’t even moved out of his parents’ house. So what does he do with his money? It is all used for
his business. But some people from computer world are getting nervous and they are right. It
won’t be long before someone in another company picks up the phone and to hear that quiet voice
saying he is the new boss.
31. Someone could find out from this text .................
A. how Jack Parrish runs his business
8


B. what Jack Parrish said in an interview
C. how to get a job in Jack Parrish’s company
D. what the writer thinks Jack Parrish will do next
32. How did the journalist pass the time while he was waiting?
A. He phoned his office.

B. He talked to another journalist.
C. He talked to a man at the next table.
D. He interviewed a woman in the restaurant.
33.The waiter thought the young man at the door of the restaurant .............….
A. was a journalist.
B. was behaving rudely.
C. was not as old as he said he was.
D. was pretending to be someone else.
34. What is the writer’s attitude to Jack Parrish?
A. He is more important than he appears.
B. He is a good example for young people.
C. He should be more careful how he runs his business.
D. He would be an interesting person to work for.
35. Which of these headlines does the writer expect to see soon?
A. Too much success too fast- was that the end of Parrish’s luck?
B. Jack Parrish does not worry about money- He gives it away to his friends
C. And a new owner of our top computer company is Jack Parrish!
D. How Jack furnishes his new million-dollar home.
Passage 3
Mr. Smith gave his wife ten pounds for her birthday. So the next day she went shopping.
She queued for a bus, got on, and sat down next to an old lady. After a while, she noticed that the
old lady’s handbag was open. Inside it, she saw a wad of pound notes exactly like the ones her
husband had given her. So she quickly looked into her own bag- the notes had gone! Mrs. Smith
was sure that the old lady had stolen them. She thought she would have to call the police;
however, as she disliked making a fuss and getting people into trouble, she decided to take back
the money from the old lady’s handbag and say nothing more about it. She looked round the bus
to make sure nobody was watching, then she carefully put her hand into the old lady’s bag, took
the notes and put them in her own bag. When she got home that evening, she showed her husband
the beautiful hat she had bought. “How did you pay for it?” he asked. “With the money you gave
me, of course” she replied. “Oh? What’s that, then?” he asked, as he pointed to a wad of ten

pound notes on the table.
36. When did Mrs. Smith go shopping?
A. After a while
B. On her birthday
C. Ten days ago
D. The day after her birthday
37. What did Mrs. Smith see in the old lady’s handbag?
A. a pound note
B. ten pounds
9


C. a wad of pound notes
D. a wad of ten pound notes
38.What was Mrs. Smith sure the old lady had done?
A. stolen her money
B. called the police
C. taken her bag
D. given money to her
39. Why did Mrs. Smith look round the bus?
A. To call the police
B. To make a fuss
C. To look for her money
D. To make sure nobody was watching
40. What did Mr. Smith point to?
A. Mrs. Smith’s beautiful hat
B. a wad of ten pound notes on the table
C. the table
D. Mrs. Smith’s handbag

SECTION 4: GAP FILLING (Questions 41-50)
In this section you must find a word to complete the numbered blanks in the passage below.
Use only ONE word for each blank. (10ms)
Jogging is a popular form of exercise and recreation in which a person runs at a steady,
moderate pace. The actual pacedepends on the individual’s ability, but it should be one at which
the jogger can talk without becoming breathless. Since the mid-1960’s, millions of people (41)
…………..………… the United States and othercountries have started to jog. The popularity of
jogging stems from (42) ………………………. healthful benefits and its simplicity. The only
equipment needed is loose (43)……………………..and well-cushioned, flexible shoes that fit
properly.
Jogging builds and maintains physical fitness (44)………………… improving the function
of the circulatory and respiratory systems. It strengthens leg muscles and aids (45)
……………………….weight control. Jogging also helps relieve mental stress (46)
……………………….. provides an opportunity to enjoy the outdoors.
To obtain the full benefits of (47)……………….., an individual should develop a program
that includes at least three jogs of 2 miles every week. A beginner should start with short (48)
…………… and gradually work up to 2 miles or more. At first, brisk CAO DO walking may be
(49)…………………………. for periods of jogging. Persons more than 35 years old
(50).......................……… have a complete medical examination before starting a jogging
program.
PART 2: WRITING (50 marks)
SECTION 1: Sentence Building
Make all changes and additions necessary to produce correct sentences from the following
sets of words and phrases. (10 marks)
51. Mary/ not speak/ me/ today/ yesterday/ I / say/ she/ stupid.
………………………………………………………………
10


52. I /remembered/ lock/ car door/ before leaving.

…………………………………………………………………
53. It/ take/ them/ half/ an hour/ go/ factory.
…………………………………………………………………..
54. accident/ happen/ while/ drive/ highway.
………………………………………………………………….
55. doctor/ whom/ see/ party/ friends.
…………………………………………………………………
SECTION 2: Sentence Transformation
Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as
the sentence printed before it. (10ms)
56. It is ages since Alan visited his parents.
Alan has ......................................................................................................................
57. Mrs. Taylor does not like living in such a small house.
Mrs. Taylor wishes .....................................................................................................
58. I couldn’t understand why he refused to come to my party.
His ..............................................................................................................................
59. People often argue about things that are happening at the present.
Things……………………………………………………………………………….
60. Someone brought tea into England in the seventeenth century.
Tea ………………………………………………………………………………….
SECTION 3: Letter Writing (30 ms)
Write an email (100- 120 words) to an English friend and in your email, you should
• invite him/her to visit Nha Trang city in summer;
• recommend to him/her some places to visit, some restaurants to enjoy Vietnamese food
and some hotels to stay in.

ĐỀ 2
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
TRƯỜNG ĐẠI HỌC NHA TRANG

ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH CAO HỌC
MÔN TIẾNG ANH – THỜI GIAN LÀM BÀI: 120 PHÚT
Điểm số

Điểm chữ

CB chấm thi 1

11

CB chấm thi 2

Số phách


PART I. READING COMPREHENSION (50 marks)
SECTION 1: (Questions 1- 20)
In this section you must choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence.
Circle the letter A, B, C or D. (20 ms)
1. The elephant is ……….. than the kangaroo.
A. heavy
B. heaviest
C. heavier
D. more heavy
2. She ……….. get a new pair of shoes as her shoes are too small for her feet.
A. can
B. may
C. will
D. must
3. We are planning to move out ……….. a month’s time.

A. on
B. in
C. away
D. off
4. I believe John as he is ……….. honest boy.
A. an
B. a
C. some
D. any
5. You must wash your hands ……….. you eat.
A. as
B. while
C. before
D. after
6. Do not ……….. across the street. It is dangerous.
A. dash
B. dashed
C. dashes
D. dashing
7. Sociologists study society and ……….. it is organized.
A. what
B. how
C. when
D. where
8. The diamond is the ……….. one in the shop.
A. expensive
B. more expensive
C. as expensive
D. most expensive
9. No sooner ……….. the office than the phone rang.

A. had he left
B. he was leaving
C. he had left
D. was he leaving
10. There is bad weather at the air port, and all ……….. have been delayed.
A. times
B. journeys
C. flights
D. flies
11. The village ……….. we are going to visit is far from here.
A. where
B. that
C. which
D. B and C are correct
12. Jones is a curious boy. He always asks his ……….. .
A. to the teacher questions
B. the teacher questions
C. questions to the teacher
D. teacher questions
13. - Do you know John failed the exam?
- I don’t know. He spent ……….. time studying.
A. so much
B. too many
C. many
D. too
14. - Have you written to John yet?
- No, I didn’t know his address. ……….., I would have written to him.
A. Because
B. Otherwise
C. Consequently

D. Therefore
15. On the ……….. to the town there is a beautiful wood.
A. direction
B. street
C. way
D. entrance
16. Johnny ……….. very badly at Mary’s birthday party.
A. conducted
B. behaved
C. showed
D. looked
17. I tried to ……….. them from going, but they wouldn’t take any notice.
A. ask
B. help
C. tell
D. prevent
18. The car is ……….. for one year. The garage will pay for any repairs within this period.
A. guaranteed
B. promised
C. recommended
D. attended
12


19. I was so pleased to have the ……….. to visit your country.
A. possibility
B. necessity
C. ability
20. We were so late that we ……….. had time to catch the train.
A. almost

B. simply
C. hardly

D. opportunity
D. nearly

SECTION 2: Choose the best interpretation for the signs from 21-25. (5 marks)
21

22

23

13


24

25

SECTION 3: PASSAGE READING (Questions 26-40)
Read the passages and choose the best answer for each question. Circle the letter A, B, C or
D. (15 ms)
Passage 1
Animals can be helpful to have around. That’s why wild animals got tamed as pets. Dogs,
especially, can do a lot of things. They can stand guard in the night. Hunter use dogs for fetching.
Ranchers use them to help herd sheep or cattle. The police use dogs to sniff for bombs. Some dogs
are trained to help blind and deaf people. Cats catch mice. The ancient Egyptians worshiped cats
for keeping their field free of pests. Pets can even be actors. Trained dogs sometimes appear in
movies or television shows. Having a pet can be good for your health. Pets offer companion and

make people feel less lonely. Petting an animal also helps people relax. Pets can cause problems,
too. Dogs dig in the garden. They chew up household objects and can even bite people. Cats like
to scratch furniture. Both cats and dogs can make a mess on the rug. Some people have allergies
to animals. But the biggest problem is that there are more pets than there are homes for them. Cats
and dogs give birth to mere cats and dogs and the number of unwanted pets is enormous.
26. How many tasks can dogs do?
A. four
B. five
27. Why did the ancient Egyptians worship cats?
A. Because cats keep their field free of pests.
C. Because they can even be actors
28. How can pets be good for your health?
14

C. six

D. nothing

B. Because they sniff for bomb.
D. Because they appear in movies.


A. Pets offer companion and make people feel less lonely.
B. Petting animals also help people relax.
C. Pets can cause problems.
D. A and B are correct.
29. What is the biggest problem of keeping pets?
A. Cats like to scratch furniture.
B. Some people have allergies to animals.
C. Cats and dogs make a mess on the rug.

D. There are not enough homes for pets.
30. What is the best tittle for the passage?
A. Problems of having pets
B. Dogs and cats as pets
C. Unwanted pets
D. Animals can be helpful to have around
Passage 2
Karen Smart has been a war correspondent for several years now. Television viewers have
seen her in all the major conflicts of the past six years. Why does she do it?
“Well, it isn’t easy to say, but I suppose it’s the excitement of being so close to danger, but
if I’m honest I suppose it’s like going to see a horror movie. You’re frightened, but at the same
time it gives you a thrill.”
Reporters try to get as close to the battle as they can, but it can be very dangerous near the
front line. Recently Karen herself was injured. “It was very strange really. We were just getting
ready to record an interview when a shell landed on a house next to us. The whole house
exploded. There was a terrific noise and the next moment I was lying on the ground with bricks
and pieces of wood and glass falling all around me.”
Luckily nobody was killed in that accident. Karen spent 2 days in hospital, but a month
later she was back. “While I was waiting for the ambulance”, I can remember thinking “What the
hell am I doing here? I must be mad.” But after a while that feeling started to disappear and I
couldn’t wait to get back to the war.”
31. Karen has been a war correspondent for ………...
A. a few years
B. so many years
C. so many ages
D. All are correct
32. What are the synonyms of “conflict”?
A. feeling
B. battle
C. war

D. B & C are correct
33. Karen ……….. the danger.
A. doesn’t like
B. likes
C. don’t like
D. like
34. She was injured because ………...
A. a shell had landed on a house next to her B. the whole house had exploded
C. she was fighting in the war
D. A & B are correct.
35. After having spent 2 days in hospital ………...
A. she didn’t come back to the battle
B. she never came back to the battle
C. she was back to the battle a month later D. she was afraid that she couldn’t return the
war
15


Passage 3
It is important to have healthy teeth. Good teeth help us to chew our food. They also help
us to look nice. How does a tooth go bad? The decay begins in a little crack in the enamel
covering of the tooth. This happens after germs and bits of food have collected there. Then the
decay slowly spreads inside the tooth. Eventually, poison goes into the blood, and we may feel
quite ill.
How can we keep our teeth healthy? First, we ought to visit our dentist twice a year. He
can fill the small holes in our teeth before they destroy the teeth. He can examine our teeth to
check that they are growing in the right way. Unfortunately, many people wait until they have
toothache before they see a dentist.
Secondly, we should brush our teeth with a tooth brush and fluoride toothpaste at least
twice a day- once after breakfast and once before we go to bed. We can also use wooden

toothpicks to clean between our teeth after a meal.
Thirdly, we should eat food that is good for our teeth and our body: milk, cheese, fish,
brown bread, potatoes, red rice, raw vegetables and fresh fruit. Chocolate, sweets, biscuits and
cake are bad, especially when we eat them between meals. They are harmful because they stick to
our teeth and cause decay.
36. When food and germs collect in a small crack, our teeth ………...
A. become hard
B. make us feel quite ill
C. begin to decay
D. All are correct
37. A lot of people visit a dentist only when ………...
A. they have toothache
B. they have holes in their teeth
C. their teeth grow properly
D. they have brushed their teeth
38. We ought to try to clean our teeth ………...
A. once a day
B. at least twice a day
C. between meals
D. before meals
39. We shouldn’t eat a lot of ………...
A. chocolate
B. fish
C. fresh fruit
D. red rice
40. Sweets are harmful because they make our teeth ………...
A. black
B. bad
C. ache
D. cracked

SECTION 4: GAP FILLING (Questions 41-50)
Read the following passage and fill each numbered space with ONE suitable word. (10 ms)
TWO BROTHERS
Emilio and Max are brothers. They are both old men now. They grew up together on a
farm in Argentina, but since then they have led very different lives. When Emilio left school (41)
…………………….. the age of fourteen, he started work on their father’s farm. He really enjoyed
16


the simple village life and when their father died, Emilio took (42) …………………….. the farm.
All his life Emilio has lived in the old farmhouse where he was born. “I’ve never wanted to live
anywhere else,” he says. “This is my home, I feel that I’m part of it and it is part (43)
…………………….. me.”
So for over 70 years Emilio’s life has changed very little. When he was 22, he married his
childhood sweetheart, Pilar, from the next village, and (44) …………………….. have been
happily married ever since. Two years ago they celebrated their golden (45) ……………………..
anniversary. It was a big celebration. Everybody from miles around was there, including Emilio
and Pilar’s six children and their fifteen (46) ……………………...
Emilio and Pilar have never been abroad. Until he was 60, Emilio went to Buenos Aires
once a year, but since his sixtieth birthday he has (47) ……………………..left the village. “Well,
yes, I’ve had a good life,” he says, “but I haven’t done very much. Now, look at my (48)
…………………….., Max. He left the village as (49) …………………….. as he had the chance.
He hasn’t visited us very much in the last twenty years, but we’ve read about him in the
newspapers and we’ve (50) …………………….. him on TV, too. Yes, Max has had a very
interesting life.”

PART II. WRITING
SECTION 1: Sentence Building
Make all the necessary changes and additions from the following sets of words to make up

complete sentences. (10 ms)
Example: after graduation/ he/ offer/ good job/ good prospect.
Answer: After graduation he was offered a good job with good prospect.
51. Next month/ I/ go/ spend/ few days/ Thailand/ my wife/ son.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
52. We/be very excited/ the trip/ because/ never/ abroad/ before.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
53. We/ go/ spend/ two days/ Bangkok/ three days/ Phuket.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
54. Phuket/ be famous/ beaches/ water sports.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
55. I/ send/ you/ postcard/ Bangkok.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION 2: Sentence Transformation
Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
given one. (10 ms)
17


56. Tom is sorry he didn’t watch the game last night.
Tom wishes ……………………………………………………………………………………
57. Collecting stamps from foreign countries is one of Jone’s interest.
Jone is …………………………………………………………………………………………
58. They often see him stand by that gate.
He is ……………………………………………………………………………………………..
59. I don’t think it’s a good idea for you to go out this evening.
I’d rather …………………………………………………………………………………………
60. He has to pay the bills before the fifth of the month.
The bills …………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION 3: Letter Writing (30 ms)
•

This is part of a letter you receive from an English friend.
I enjoy my new job but I sit at a computer all day now. I don’t
get much exercise. What do you think I should do to keep fit?

•

Now write a letter (100-120 words), giving your friend some advice about keeping fit.

ĐỀ 3
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
TRƯỜNG ĐẠI HỌC NHA TRANG

ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH CAO HỌC
MÔN TIẾNG ANH – THỜI GIAN LÀM BÀI: 120 PHÚT
Điểm số

Điểm chữ

CB chấm thi 1

CB chấm thi 2

Số phách

PART 1: READING COMPREHENSION (50 marks)
SECTION 1: (Questions 1-20)

In this section you must choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence.
Circle the letter A, B, C or D. (20 marks)
1. Robert………….in three movies already. I'm sure he'll be a star some day.
A. appeared
B. had appeared
C. has appeared
D. has been appearing
18


2. The child hurt himself badly when he fell………….the bedroom window.
A. out of
B. out from
C. down
D. over
3. Is Dr. Brown the person …………. you wish to speak?
A. that
B. whom
C. to that
D. to whom
4. Have you finished ………….the office for that new client?
A. to design
B. designing
C. designed
D. having designed
5. He advised his daughter not………….at an early age.
A. marrying
B. being married
C. to marry
D. to have been married

6. If you could read a book during the traffic jam, it………….be so bad, but of course
it………….impossible.
A. wouldn't/ is
B. won't/ is
C. couldn't/ were
D. can't was
7. My little sister won't go with us………….our mother goes too.
A. if
B. if not
C. unless
D. otherwise
8. The…………is full of hot jasmine tea. It smells………….
A. teacup/ good
B. teacup/ well
C. cup of tea/ good
D. cup of tea/ well
9. " When can I have my car back ?" - " I think it'll…………late this afternoon..
A. finish
B. be finished
C. have finished
D. be finish
10. I think I………….better go now.
A. had
B. would
C. did
D. am
11. Would you mind………….these plates a wipe before………….them in the cupboard ?
A. giving/ putting B. doing / laying
C. to give/ to put
D. to do/ to lay

12. We have to leave before six and so…………
A. have you
B. you have
C. you do
D. do you
13. I had to drive home to pick up my brother,…………car wouldn't start.
A. who his
B. who
C. who's
D. whose
14. You…………a hard life when you were a child.
A. must have
B. had to
C. were to have
D. must have had
15. The…………of days in a week is seven.
A. amount
B. number
C. figure
D. sum
16. Don't …………such a lie to me. I can see you through.
A. say
B. speak
C. talk
D. tell
17. This is the most expensive car I have…………driven.
A. always
B. often
C. sometimes
D. ever

18. Can you buy me a copy of the newspaper…………your way to work?
A. on
B. by
C. along
D. for
19. Is he going to…………the meal ?
A. pay
B. bite
C. feel
D. pay for
20. I need the frying pan so that I can make the…………
A. salad
B. toast
C. omelette
D. honey

SECTION 2: (Questions 21-25)
Look at the text in each question. What does it say? Mark the correct letter A, B, or C. (5ms)
19


21

A.

The first train you can travel on with
a 'saver' ticket is the 10.15.
B. 'Saver' tickets cost extra if you travel
after 10.15.
C. The 10.15 is the only train you can travel

on with a 'saver' ticket.

SAVER TICKETS CAN
BE USED ON THE
10.15 TRAIN AND
ANY TRAIN AFTER THAT
22.

A.

This office doesn't take bookings for
the same day as you travel.
B. If you book tickets here, you'll receive
them a day later.
C. You can book tickets at this office twentyfour hours a day.

THIS OFFICE CAN ONLY TAKE
BOOKINGS AT LEAST
TWENTY-FOUR HOURS
IN ADVANCE OF DEPARTURE
23

Students should
A.
pay the exact amount for the trip in cash.
B. make sure they have a credit card for the trip.
C. take enough change with them on the trip.

Students wanting to go on
the trip should go to the

office within the next two
days with the correct money.
We no longer accept credit
cards or give change.
24
To
From

A.

Nina is mending her computer
herself, so she can send e-mails.
B. Nina's friends can't get in touch with her
by mail for five days.
C. Nina is doing a short course to learn how
to repair her computer.

Everyone
Nina

I'm having my computer repaired,
so I won't be able to receive e-mails
for five days.
Phone me 237702
Nina

25

A.

Do your photocopying and pay for it
when you leave.
B. Put your money in the photocopier before
you start to use it.
C. Tell an assistant how many photocopies you
need.

PHOTOCOPYING
Serve yourself
Count number of copies
Pay assistant at till on way out

SECTION 3: PASSAGE READING (Questions 26 – 40)
20


Read the following passages and choose the best answer to the questions 26- 40. (15 ms)
Passage 1
The trumpet player Louis Armstrong , or Sachem, as he usually called, was among the
first jazz musicians to achieve international fame. He is known for the beautiful, clear tone of his
trumpet-playing and for his singing voice. Armstrong was born into a poor family in New
Orleans. He first learned to play the cornet at the age of 13, taking lessons while living in a
children's home. As a teenager, he played in a number of local jazz bands in New Orleans.
In 1922, Armstrong moved to Chicago to play in Joe "King" Olive's band. Two years
later, he joined Fletcher Henderson' s band. Then, from 1925 to 1928, Armstrong made a series of
records with groups called the Hot Five, the Hot Seven, and the Savoy Ballroom Five. These
records rank among the greatest recordings in the history of jazz.
Armstrong led a big band during the 1930s and 1940s, but in 1947 returned to play with
small jazz groups. He performed all over the world and made a number of hit records, such as
Hello, Dolly and Mack the Knife . Armstrong also appeared in a number of movies, first in New

Orleans in 1947, High Society in 1956 and Hello, Dolly in 1969.
26. What was Armstrong' s nickname ?
A. Louis
B. Sachem
C. Hot Five
D. King Olive
27. Which of the following best describes Armstrong ?
A. He was a poor musician.
B. He was an international-known jazz musician.
C. He was a famous actor.
D. He played the trumpet.
28. In what city was Joe "King" Olive's band based ?
A. In New Orleans
B. In Savoy
C. In Chicago
D. In Armstrong's birth place
29. Which of the following is not a movie ?
A. New Orleans B. High Society
C. Hello, Dolly
D. Mack the Knife
30. What was the first movie Armstrong appeared in ?
A. High Society B. Mack the Knife C. New Orleans
D. Hello, Dolly
Passage 2
Sleep is very important to human beings. An average person spends 220,000 hours of his
life sleeping. Until about 30 years ago, no one knew much about sleep, although doctors and
scientists have done research in sleep laboratories, they have learnt a great deal by studying
people as they are sleeping, but there is still much that they don’t understand. Sleeping is a
biological need, but your brain never really sleeps. It is never actually blank. The things that were
on your mind during the day are still there at night. They appear as dreams which people have

discussed for years. Sometimes people believed that dreams had magical powers or that they
could tell the future. You may have sweet dreams or nightmares.
Sleep is very important to humans. We spend one third of our life sleeping, so we need to
understand everything we can about sleep.
21


31. How long does an average person sleep during his life time ?
A. 220,000 hours
B. a third of our life
C. 30 years
D. A and B are correct
32. Doctors and scientists…………….
A. don’t know anything about sleep.
B. have learnt much about sleep
C. think there is still things that they don’t understand.
D. B and C are correct
33. Sleeping is a…………..need.
A. human
B. physical
C. psychological
D. biological
34. When we sleep, ……………..
A. our brain sleeps too.
B. our brain still works.
C. our brain doesn’t work anymore.
D. our brain is quite blank.
35. Dreams are things……………..
A. that appear when we sleep.
B. that never appear when we sleep.

C. that were on our mind during the day.
D. that are called nightmares.
Passage 3
If you want to take the whole family on holiday, and keep everybody happy, then I have
found just the place for you. I recently went with a group of friends to stay at the Greenwood
Holiday Village, which is open from May until October.
Built in the center of a forest, Greenwood is a great place to stay whatever the weather. Its
main attraction for families is the indoor World of Water, whether young and old can have fun in
different pools. Some of these, however, are for serious swimmers.
For sporty people, the Country Club offers tennis, squash and badminton. If your children
are too young to joint in these sports, there are activity clubs. Greenwood is good place for
families and it is traffic free - you explore on foot or bike. Some people complained that this was
inconvenienced, but I was pleased to be out in the fresh air. For evening entertainment, there are
shows and cinemas. Accommodation is in a variety of apartments of different sizes. These have
up to four bedrooms, a kitchen and bathroom, as well as a dining area. Before going, I thought the
apartments might not be big enough for all of us, but I was pleasantly surprised - it was not too
crowded at all. I definitely go back to Greenwood next year. Why don't you give it a try? Visit
their website for further information now.
36. What is the writer's main purpose in writing this text?
A. to give her opinion of the holiday village
B. to describe what her family did at the holiday village
C. to give advice to a friend going to the holiday village
D. to complain about the holiday village
37. From this text a reader can find out
A. the best way to get to the holiday village
B. the best time of year to visit the holiday village
C. what activities are available at the holiday village
D. how to reserve accommodation at the holiday village
38. What does the writer think about the holiday village?
22

A. The apartments there are not big enough.
B. It is not convenient because you cannot use your car.
C. It can only be enjoyed in good weather.
D. There is something there for all ages.
39. What does the writer say about the apartments?
A. There is not much space between them. B. Each one has its own bathroom.
C. The all have four bedrooms.
D. Not all of them have dining areas.
40. What will the writer do next year?
A. give Greenwood a try
B. go back to Greenwood
C. visit their website
D. go to another place

SECTION 4: GAP FILLING (Questions 41-50)
In this section you must find a word to complete the numbered blanks in the passage
below. Use only ONE word for each blank. (10ms)
Have you ever heard someone use the phrase “once in a blue moon?” People use this
expression to describe something that they do not do very often. For example, someone might say
that he tries to avoid eating sweets because they are unhealthy, but will eat chocolate “once in a
blue moon.” Or someone who does not usually (41)…………..………… to go to the beach might
say “I visit the shore once in a blue moon.” While many people use this phrase, (42)
………………………. everyone knows the meaning behind it.
The first thing to know is (43)…………………….. the moon itself is never actually blue.
This is just an expression. The phrase “blue moon” actually has (44)……………………… do
with the shape of the moon, not the color.
As the moon travels around the (45)………………………., it appears to change shape.
We associate certain names with certain (46)……………………….. of the moon. For example,

when we can see (47)……………….... small part of the moon, it is called a crescent moon. A
crescent is a shape that (48)……………....... like the tip of a fingernail. When we cannot see the
moon (49)……………………. all, it is called a new moon. When we can see the entire
(50) .........................., it is called a full moon. Usually, there is only one full moon every month.
Sometimes, however, there will be two full moons in one month. When this happens, the second
full moon is called a “blue moon.”
Over the next 20 years, there will only be 15 blue moons. As you can see, a blue moon is a
very rare event. This fact has led people to use the expression “once in a blue moon” to describe
other very rare events in their lives.

PART 2: WRITING (50 marks)
SECTION1: Sentence Building
23


Make all changes and additions necessary to produce correct sentences from the
following sets of words and phrases. (10 marks)
51. She / told /me / never been / love / before.
.............................................................................................................................................
52. I / not hear /my parents / two months.
.............................................................................................................................................
53. If / he / cleverer / would know / making a mistake.
.............................................................................................................................................
54. I / getting / of /shower / when / phone /rang / other room.
.............................................................................................................................................
55. Despite / fact / he / have / lots / friends / still felt /really lonely sometimes.
.............................................................................................................................................

SECTION 2: Sentence Transformation
Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the

sentence printed before it. (10 marks)
56. It is a six hour drive from London to Edinburgh.
It takes .............................................................................................................................
57. The flat is too small for us to live in.
It .....................................................................................................................................
58. I didn’t know you were coming, so I didn’t wait for you.
If …………………………………………………………………….............................
59. Although his leg was broken he managed to get out of the car.
In spite ………………………………………………………….
60. I’m sorry I was rude to you yesterday.
I apologise………………………………………………………………….

SECTION 3: Letter Writing (30 ms)
An English-speaking friend called Leo has invited you to go to a football match with him on
Saturday. Write an e-mail (100- 120 words) to Leo. In your e-mail, you should
• thank him for asking you
• say how you feel about going
• invite him to a meal afterwards.

24


ĐỀ 4
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
TRƯỜNG ĐẠI HỌC NHA TRANG

ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH CAO HỌC
MÔN TIẾNG ANH – THỜI GIAN LÀM BÀI: 120 PHÚT
Điểm số

Điểm chữ

CB chấm thi 1

CB chấm thi 2

Số phách

PART 1: READING COMPREHENSION (50 marks)
SECTION 1: (Questions 1 – 20)
In this section you must choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence.
Circle the letter A, B, C or D. (20ms)
1. The room was ……… noisy that no one was able to hear the announcement.
A. so
B. such
C. as
D. very
25