bộ đề thi học kì 2 môn tiếng anh 10

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
TỈNH ĐỒNG THÁP
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
(Đề gồm có 03 trang)

KIỂM TRA CHẤT LƯỢNG HỌC KỲ II
Năm học: 2014 - 2015
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 10
Ngày thi: 14/5/2015
Thời gian: 45 phút (đã bao gồm phần nghe và không
kể thời gian phát đề)
Mã đề 248

Họ, tên thí sinh:.....................................................................Số báo
danh: .............................
PART A: MULTIPLE CHOICE (6,0 ms)
I. LISTENING (1,0 m)
Listen to each conversation twice and choose the best answer
Question 1: What have they forgetten?
A. a ticket
B. a camera
C. a passport
D. a mobile
phone
Question 2: What time does the train go?
A. 6:15
B. 6:50
C. 6:10
D. 6:15
Listen to each conversation twice and decide whether the following sentences are True
(T) of False (F).

Question 3: The woman buys a small and round bag.
T
F
Question 4: The woman pays thirteen pence for the apples. T 
F
II. PHONETICS (1,0 m)
Choose the word whose underlined part is PRONOUNCED differently from that of the
others.
Question 5: A. parents
B. brothers
C. weekends
D.
feelings
Question 6: A. dear
B. clear
C. year
D. bear
Choose the word that has a different STRESS PATTERN from that of the others.
Question 7: A. competitor
B. participant
C. volunteer
D.
announcer
Question 8: A. orphan
B. fauna
C. ethnic
D.
explore
III. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (2, 0 ms)
Choose the best answer to complete each sentence or replace the underlined words or phrases.

Question 9: Look outside. _______ sky is getting dark. I hope there isn’t going to be a
storm.
A. The
B. A
C. no article
D. An
Question 10: Yesterday afternoon, I went to the post office _______ some letters.
A. sends
B. sent
C. send
D. to
send
Question 11: _______can he jump? _ About three meters.


A. How long
B. How far
C. How often
D.
How much
Question 12: Tents come in _______ shapes and sizes
A. vary
B. variety
C. various
D.
variously
Question 13: Scotland met Wales in the final at Twickenham
A. at the end
B. in the closing match
C. in the last match

D. in the decisive match
Question 14: Jack: “I think in the zoo of the new kind, animals can be protected from
dangerous diseases in the nature”.
Peter: “_______”
A. Thank you
B. I agree completely
C. I am too
D. That’s alright
Find the underlined part in each sentence that needs correcting.
Question 15: If the airplane tickets are not so expensive, I would fly to Hue for my
holiday.
A
B
C
D
Question 16: The students were interesting in taking a field trip to the National Museum.
A
C
D
IV. READING COMPREHENSION (2,0 ms)
Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question.
There are many problems that make the Vietnamese movies unable to keep pace
with the development of the other countries’ modern movies in the world. First of all, we
do not have enough money to buy the most modern machinery and equipment for movie
technology. The Vietnamese scriptwriters and filmmakers are not well-paid.They are busy
earning money for life. We do not have enough conditions to train filmmakers and actors
and actresses. From the dawn of the Vietnamese movie industry, there have been several
films that won the world’s recognition. However, our movie industry is still limited
compared with many other countries’.
It is rather sad, but we must say many Vietnamese viewers do not like Vietnamese

films. They like ones from Korea, China, and the U.S, so what we must do now is to
make as many interesting films as possible.
Question 17: The Vietnamese movie industry is not _______.
A. Well-developed
B. Famous all over the world
C. Getting a big annual profit
D. All are correct
Question 18: In Vietnam, _______.
A. all the Vietnamese scriptwriters get a big salary
B. all the Vietnamese actors and actresses are well-trained
C. we do not have enough money to equip film studios
D. the Vietnamese directors are well-paid


Question 19: Most of the Vietnamese viewers _______.
A. never see films made in the country
B. never go to the cinema
C. like films from Korea, China and the U.S
D. never see films from foreign countries
Question 20: To attract film fans, we should _______.
A. make as many interesting films as possible
B. not allow films from foreign countries to be shown
C. pay scriptwriters a good salary
D. all are correct
Read the passage and choose the best word for each blank.
Nowadays lots of people drive to large supermarkets to (21) _____ their shopping.
These supermarkets have car-parks, so you can buy several (22) _____ of shopping. You
can fill your trolley, and then put it to your car. Some people prefer to go to local shops.
These small shops are usually (23) _____ than supermarkets. Some towns have an open
air market in the center, (24) _____ you can buy fruit and vegetables, but you have to

carry your shopping home.
Question 21:
Question 22:
Question 23:
expensive
Question 24:

A. make
A. shops
A. cheaper

B. take
B. pockets
B. cheap

C. have
C. bags
C. expensive

D. do
D. customers
D.
most

A. which

B. where

C. who

D. whom

PART B: WRITING (2,0 ms)
Rewrite the following sentences with the words given in the way that the rewritten one
is closest in meaning with the original one.
Question 25: He didn’t stop working until he felt too tired.
 It was not ___________________________________________________________.
Question 26: Cartoon films are interesting.
 We are______________________________________________________________.
Question 27: I was tired because I stayed up late last night.
If___________________________________________________________________.
Question 28: The children have never made a longer journey than this.
 This is______________________________________________________________.
Make meaningful sentences with the provided words. Add changes if necessary.
Question 29: The photograph / invent / Edison /1877.
 ____________________________________________________________________.
Make a question for the underlined part.
Question 30: There are over 84 lessons in my laptop now.
 ____________________________________________________________________?


TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN VĂN CỪ

ĐỀ KIỂM TRA SỐ 3 HỌC KỲ 2

----------------------

NĂM HỌC: 2015-2016

Họ và tên: ...................................................

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 10

Lớp: 10 ....

Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút

.…….THE END……...
Ghi chú:

- Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu
- Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm

(Học sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu.)
Choose the word which has stress is placed differently. 1-2
1:

A. wedding

B. support

C. modern

D. custom

2:

A. information

B. similarity

C. presentation

D. difference

Choose the best option to complete the sentences. 3-12


3: The team paid a ________ price for its lack of preparation.
A. heavy

B. light

C. dirty

D. expensive

C. more important

D. importanter

4: Health is ________________ than money.
A. the important

B. most important

5: In order to ________ a man’s job, Brenda had to work very hard.
A. pursue

B. work

C. enroll

D. prefer

C. must

D. can

6: We _________ stop when traffic lights are red.
A. might

B. should

7: Gender discrimination should be ____________ so that everyone has equal opportunities in
education.
A. eliminated

B. eliminate

C. elimination

D. eliminating

8: Superstitions still________ an important part of life for many people in Vietnam.
A. do

B. take

C. play

D. give

9: We had dinner in________ most expensive restaurant in town.
A. an

B. x

C. the

D. a

C. tradition

D. assignment

10: My cousin's ______ is next Sunday.
A. marriage

B. wedding

11: There is a wedding ______ for all guests after the wedding ceremony.
A. reception

B. engagement

C. proposal

D. ring

12: The ______ can have as many bridesmaids as she wants.
A. bride

B. husband

C. couple

D. groom

Read the passage and choose the best answers. 13-17
Visitors to Vietnam should pay attention to the following advice.
Socializing
Vietnamese people like to ask questions about age, marriage, salary, etc when they meet
someone for the first time. For example, they may ask, ‘How old are you?’, ‘Are you married?’,
‘What do you do for a living?’, ‘Do you have any children?’ Don’t be embarrassed by these kinds
of questions. This is the Vietnamese way of being friendly.
Presents
Vietnamese people always show their gratitude when receiving a gift. However, you should
not be surprised if they do not open a present you had given them immediately. Opening a


present in front of the gift-giver is considered to be embarrassing.
Compliments
Although Vietnamese people always appreciate compliments, they are usually modest in their
reactions. For example, in response to the compliment ‘What a nice dress!’ a Vietnamese girl
may say, ‘I don’t think so. It’s very old.’
The elderly
Always show the elderly respect. Bowing your head slightly to an elderly person is a sign of
respect. During a meal, elderly people should be served first.
13: Which questions do Vietnamese people often ask when they meet someone for the first

time?
A. questions about music B. questions about personal life
C. questions about weather

D. questions about sports

14: Who should be served first during a meal in Vietnam?
A. the poor people

B. the young people

C. the old people

D. the rich people

15: Why don’t Vietnamese people open presents immediately?
A. Because they feel bored with opening a present.
B. Because they don’t like gift-givers.
C. Because they feel embarrassed to open a present in front of the gift-giver.
D. Because they don’t like presents.
16: How do Vietnamese people react to compliments?
A. modestly

B. happily

C. excitedly

D. sadly

17: Which of the following is NOT true?

A. Vietnamese people often ask ‘How old are you?’ when they meet someone for the first
time.
B. Vietnamese people don’t appreciate compliments.
C. Vietnamese people always respect the elderly.
D. Vietnamese people ask questions about age, marriage, salary, etc to show their friendliness.
Read the following passage and choose the best answer. 18-22
It’s always thought that women are the (18)________ class in citizen, and men are the first.


There is not a real equality of opportunity for men and women. Years ago, people were living in a
man- dominated society. Women had (19)________ their husbands and fathers absolutely.
Women’s place was in the kitchen and women’s work was housework. In many places, women
were not even allowed to go to school. Women had no rights, even the right to choose a husband
for themselves. Men usually occupied high positions in society so they thought they were more
intelligent and important (20)________ women. Men considered women their property.
Sometimes, women were mistreated by their husbands and suffered this as a fate. Many parents
did not even want to have female children.
Thanks (21)________ the women’s liberation movement, women have nowadays proved
that they are equal to men on every aspect. An average woman has weaker muscles than an
average man but she may be as intelligent as him. Women can do everything that men can and
women can do one thing that no men can; they (22)________ children.
18: A. twice

B. two

C. second

D. double

19: A. to obeying

B. obey

C. obeying

D. to obey

20: A. than

B. as

C. same

D. then

21: A. to

B. for

C. of

D. with

22: A. produce

B. eliminate

C. prevent

D. pursue

Rewrite the sentences with suggested words. 23-26
23: Smoking is not allowed in the hospital.
 We .......................................................................................................................................
24: Most of the students can answer this question.
This question .......................................................................................................................
25: Somebody will clean the room later.
The room ..............................................................................................................................
26:There is no better teacher in this school than Mrs. Jackson.
Mrs. Jackson is .....................................................................................................................
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently.27-28
27: A. eliminate

B. equality

C. educator

D. encourage

28: A. income

B. couple

C. ceremony

D. culture

Use the given words to make the meaningful sentences. 29-32
29: She/ have/ preference / boys /girls.

……………………………………………………………………………
30: Gender differences/ cannot/ prevent / person /from /do/ job.
……………………………………………………………………………
31: She / sing /more beautifully/ she/ play/ piano.
……………………………………………………………………………
32: newly-wedded couple/ plan /spend /honeymoon/Italy/last week.
……………………………………………………………………………
Listen to the passage and choose the best answer A, B or C to complete each sentence.
33: _________ of all working hours, the work is done by women.
A. Nearly 50 percent

B. Nearly two-thirds

C. Nearly three-fourths

34: In Africa, __________ of the farm work is done by men.
A. 80 percent

B. 50 percent

C. 20 percent

35: A typical woman in a developing country spends ________ collecting firewood daily.
A. 1 hour

B. 2 hours

C. 3 hours

36: __________ is the amount of time a typical African woman spends on cooking every day.
A. 1 hour

B. 2 hours

C. 3 hours

Listen and fill in the blank NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS to complete the passage.
-----Wedding is very important to the Vietnamese, not only to the couple involved, but also for
both families. The wedding day is usually chosen (37)__________ by the groom’s parents. On
the wedding day, the groom’s family and relatives go to the bride’s house bringing gifts wrapped
in the (38)_______________. The people who hold the trays of gifts are also carefully chosen.
They have a Master of Ceremonies who introduces the groom, the bride, the parents, the relatives
and (39)__________ of the two families. The wedding ceremony starts in front of the altar. The
bride and the groom would pray, asking their ancestors’ permission to get married. The Master of
Ceremonies give the wedding couple advice on starting a new family. The groom and the bride
then exchange their (40)_____________ .
----------- THE END ----------


SỞ GD&ĐT THÁI BÌNH

ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KỲ II

TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN TRÃI

NĂM HỌC 2015 - 2016

------------------

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 10
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
Mã đề thi 132

Họ, tên thí sinh:..........................................................................
Số báo danh:...............................................................................
I. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word whose underlined part
is pronounced differently from the rest.
Câu 1:

A. lines

B. prizes

C. caps

D. meters

Câu 2:

A. abandoned

B. established

C. borrowed

D. threatened

Câu 3:

A. crooked

B. booked

C. looked

D. cooked

Câu 4:

A. population

B. national

C. question

D. station

Câu 5:

A. engineer

B. where

C. atmosphere

D. cheer

II. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose from the best answer to
complete each sentence.

Câu 6: ______, he kept on smoking.
A. In spite he has bad cough

B. In spite of his bad cough


C. As his bad cough

D. Because of his bad cough

Câu 7: These flowers are fresh. They ______ from the garden.
A. have been picked just

B. have been just picked

C. just have been picked

D. have just been picked

Câu 8: John: I’m really tired. ______ resting before we go out?
Claire: That’s good idea. I’m tired too.
A. How about

B. Shall we

C. Why don’t we

D. Let’s

Câu 9: She sometimes does not have enough time to take care _______her old parents.

A. on

B. to

C. of

D. for

Câu 10: Nearly 1,000 of the world's bird species are threatened with ________.
A. destruction

B. appearance

C. protection

D. extinction

Câu 11: At the weekend, the beach is often crowded ______ people.
A. with

B. over

C. in

D. for

Câu 12: Ann: “Would you like to have lunch with us?”
Beck: “______.”
A. You are welcome

B. Yes, I'd love to

C. Not at all

D. Thank you

Câu 13: I will never talk to you again ______ you apologize me ______ your being so rude.
A. unless/ for

B. whether/ of

C. if/ for

D. or/ of

Câu 14: Many plants and animals can be used as medicine _____ cancer, AIDS and other
sicknesses.
A. by

B. against

C. with

D. for

Câu 15: The teacher had divided the students ______ small groups before they did their task.
A. in

B. for

C. of

D. into

Câu 16: Sperm whale populations are at risk ______ hunting and their accidental entrapment in
fishing nets.
A. because
Câu 17:

B. in spite of

C. thanks to

D. due to

Some plants and animals are referred to as ______ organisms because they are

extremely small.
A. youngest

B. tin

C. big

D. tiny

Câu 18: These plants cannot ______ in your garden. It never gets any sun.
A. survivor

B. surviving

C. survive

D. survived


Câu 19:

Sperm whales are ______, which means they eat meat.

A. omnivores

B. herbivores

C. carnivores

D. mammals

C. Pollute

D. Polluted

Câu 20: ______ air makes people unpleasant to breathe.
A. Pollution.

B. Polluting

Câu 21: Lan: I'm leaving for lunch. ______?
Mai: Thanks, but I can't right now. I'm really busy.
A. Do you come

B. Would you like to come

C. Could you come

D. Do you feel like going

Câu 22: Some animals are on the ______ of becoming extinct.
A. verge

B. tip

C. edge

D. side

Câu 23: If I had had enough money, I ______ a dictionary.
A. would bought

B. would buy

C. will buy

D. would have bought

C. not invite

D. am not invited

Câu 24: I ______ to parties very often.

A. don’t invite

B. not invited

Câu 25: I think you ______ apologize for your bad behaviour.
A. ought

B. shall

C. should

D. have

III. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase CLOSEST
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following sentences.
Câu 26: Contamination is threatening the park and many species of animals living in it.
A. distribution

B. pollution

C. elimination

D. population

Câu 27: The society was set up to preserve endangered species from extinction.
A. found

B. established

C. distinguished

D. prevented

Câu 28: People in this region cultivate mainly rice and vegetables.
A. destroy

B. develop

C. grow

D. support

IV. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following sentences.
Câu 29:

The floor was covered with tiny pieces of paper.

A. unimportant

Câu 30:

B. many

C. extremely small

D. very large

We had an accidental meeting with an old friend at the party last night.

A. expected

B. unacceptable

C. unpleasant

D. unlucky


V. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that needs
correction.
Câu 31: We could have given you a lift if we had know you were coming this way.
A. were coming

B. could

C. had know

D. given

Câu 32: We haven’t seen Jim since he has returned the countryside.
A. since

B. the

C. haven’t seen

D. has returned

Câu 33: They also learn about the habits of animals and how one species is dependent upon

another for surviving.
A. dependent

B. how

C. about

D. surviving

Câu 34: Were Mr Morgan still head teacher, he would not permit such bad behave.
A. behave

B. Were Mr Morgan

C. would

D. such

Câu 35: I don’t have many time to prepare for the job interview.
A. for

B. to prepare

C. many time

D. don’t have

VI. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the sentence that has the
closest meaning to the given one.
Câu 36: It was only because his wife helped him that he was able to finish his book.

A. If it weren’t for his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book.
B. But for his wife’s help, he couldn’t finish his book.
C. Without his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book.
D. If only he had been able to finish his book.
Câu 37: I didn’t know that Lam had to get up early, so I didn’t wake him.
A. If I had known that Lam had to get up early, I would have woken him up.
B. If I know that Lam have to get up early, I will wake him up.
C. If I knew that Lam had to get up early, I would wake him up.
D. If I knew that Lam had to get up early, I would have woken him up.
Câu 38: Unless this biodiversity were maintained, marine life would be at stake.
A. If this biodiversity were maintained, marine life would be at stake.
B. If this biodiversity weren’t maintained, marine life would be at stake.


C. If this biodiversity were maintained, marine life wouldn’t be at stake
D. If this biodiversity weren’t maintained, marine life wouldn’t be at stake.
Câu 39: They have robbed the bank near my house.
A. The bank near my house has been robbed.
B. The bank near my house have been robbed.
C. The bank near my house has not been robbed.
D. Near my house has been robbed the bank.
Câu 40: “Would you like to come to my birthday party, Mary?” said Mike.
A. Mike didn’t know that Mary had come to his birthday party.
B. Mike asked Mary if she didn’t like to come to his birthday party.
C. Mike invited Mary to come to his birthday party.
D. Mike was told to come to Mary’s birthday party.
VII. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to best completes the passage.
The Meadow Park Zoo, which (41) ______ three months ago, is already attracting large
numbers of visitors. The new zoo is quite small, compared with other similar (42) _____. You
won’t find any large and dangerous animals such as lions or tigers in cages. Instead, there is a

children’s zoo, where children can handle little animals like rabbits and (43) ______. They can
also have rides on a camel or an elephant. The zoo had a working farm, too, with cows, sheep,
ducks and chickens.
Lots of children from cities don’t understand what happens (44) ______ a farm. It’s important
(45) ______ them to see for themselves where their milk and eggs come from.
Câu 41: A. opened

B. opens

C. opening

D. open

Câu 42: A. attractions

B. parties

C. schools

D. events

Câu 43: A. hippos

B. mice

C. crocodiles

D. bears

Câu 44: A. across

B. in

C. up

D. for

Câu 45: A. for

B. at

C. of

D. up

VIII. Read the passage and complete the sentences. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your
answer sheet.
Once there were lots of pandas in the mountains of Western China. Today they are becoming


extinct. The reason is they cannot find enough food. Pandas eat bamboo leaves. They do not like
another food. The bamboo grows very slowly. It can take ten years for a bamboo to grow from a
seed to a big plant. Some types of bamboo have seeds only once every 60 years. Pandas must
wait many years for their food to grow. While the bamboo is growing, pandas do not have
enough leaves to eat. Farmers are using more and more of the land on the mountain side to grow
food for man. The farmers cut down the bamboo. Bamboo leaves become less plentiful. Pandas
cannot find enough food to eat. They starve and die. China and World Wildlife Fund (WWF) are
trying to save the pandas. In 1979 they began to set up special parks where pandas can live. One
such park is the Wolong Reserve in Sichuan. The Wolong Reserve has the highest number of
pandas in the world. Scientists come here to study the pandas’ eating and mating habits. By

learning more about the pandas’ habits, scientists can save them from extinction.
Câu 46: What is the main food of pandas?
A. Young bamboo trees

B. Bamboo roots

C. Bamboo trees

D. Bamboo leaves

Câu 47: How long does it take a bamboo to grow into a big plant?
A. 60 years

B. a century

C. a decade

D. 10 months

Câu 48: Why do farmers cut bamboo trees?
A. To get farmland

B. To make pandas starve and die

C. To get food for pandas

D. To drive pandas away

Câu 49: What do scientists do to save pandas from extinction?
A. They study about pandas’ habits.

B. They only set up parks for them.
C. They plant bamboo trees and set up parks for them.
D. They put them in bamboo forest.
Câu 50: What does the word “They” refer to?
A. Special parks

B. Pandas

C. Farmers

------------------------------------------------ HẾT ----------

D. Bamboo trees


SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC

KỲ THI KIỂM TRA HỌC KÌ II NĂM HỌC 2014-2015
ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH KHỐI 10
Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

A. LISTENING (2 points)
You are going to listen to this telephone conversation between JON and JANICE and
answer the questions. You should write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A
NUMBER for each answer. You will hear the recording TWICE.
Areas dealt with:
suburbs

(1)....................................................................................., North

Rent:
the area

from (2) £................................... to £ 500 a month Depends on:
availability (3)............................................ garage

Properties available:
water bill

West Park Road: rent (4) £.................... a month, including the
Tithe Road: rent £ 380 a month, including

(5).................................rental
Viewing arrangements:
5.00 pm

meet at office on (6).................................................afternoon at

Need:
letter from bank, reference from your
(7).................................................
Must:

give (8)......................... notice of moving in give deposit
of one-month-pay for contract

B. PHONETICS, GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (4 points)
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other

words.
1. A. Club

B. Lamb

2. A. Disease

B. Spread

C. Doubt
C. Breed

D. Bomber

(U10)

D. Treat

(U10)

II. Choose the word whose main stress is different from that of the other words.
1. A. Organism
2. A. Secret

B. Environment
B. Ocean

C. Temperature
C. Migrate

D. Satellite
D. Express

(U9)


(U9)
III. Choose the best answer among A, B, C, or D to complete each of the following
sentences.
1. ______ is traditional music from a particular country, region, or community.
A. Blues

B. Classical music C. Folk music

(U12)

D. Jazz

2. “Tien Quan Ca”, the Viet Nam national______ was written by Van Cao.
A. folk song

B. anthem

C. epic

D. pop song

(U12)
3. “Silence of the Lambs” is a______ film. It makes the audience scared.
A. disaster

B. science fiction C. horror

(U13)

D. action

4. Charlie Chaplin is considered as the greatest comic actor of the______.
A. musical cinema
(U13)

B. commercial film

C. romantic comedy D. silent cinema

5. The______ was injured so a defender had to go in goal.
A. attacker

B. goal-scorer

C. opponent

D. goalkeeper

(U14)

6. The World Cup______ every four years.
A. is held

B. have held

C. holds

(U14)

D. was held

7. The city of London was______ by the Romans in the year 43 AD.
A. located

B. developed

C. founded

D. characterized

(U15)

8. People come to the parks to______ from city noise and traffic.
A. get away
(U15)

B. get out of

C. get over

D. get off

C. Fertilizer

D. Antibiotic

9. ______ is a chemical used for killing-weeds.
A. Pesticide

B. Herbicide

(U9)
10. Jim wanted to know______ call and tell him where to meet you.
A. you could

B. whether you can

C. if you could

D. when could you

(U9)

IV. Choose the best answer A, B, C, or D the one that is SIMILAR in meaning to the
underlined word.
1. The cattle drank from a river polluted with toxic chemicals.
A. waste

B. colorless

C. odorless

D. poisonous

(U11)

2. Wastes are poured into the atmosphere, the air becomes contaminated and unpleasant to
breathe.
A. dense

B. dirty

C. thirsty

D. important

(U11)


C. READING (2 points)
I. Fill in each blank space with one appropriate from the box. There are more provided
words than needed.
the

other

attacked

fish

contests

soup

We know that every year less than 100 people are (1)________ by sharks and about 5 to 10
of these people die. But, let’s look at the (2)________ side of the story – How many sharks do
people kill? Well I think you already know this: People kill many more sharks. Every year,
people hunt and kill thousands of sharks. One reason people kill sharks is for sport; they hunt
them just for fun. Some people started to have (3)________to see who kill the most sharks or he
bigger sharks. Another reason that people kill sharks is for food. In some countries, such as the
United States and Great Britain, shark meat is a popular food. In other countries, such as China,
people use shark fins to make (4)________. Because so many people like to eat shark, fishing
boats catch a lot of sharks to sell for food.
II. Read the following passage and choose the best answer among A, B, C or D provided.
In the United States and its territories alone, there are more than 40 national parks,
varying considerably in landscape and mood. Each park was chosen for its unique features,
representative of a particular region of the country. Everglades National Park, for example, at the
southern tip of Florida, is a huge subtropical swamp, which provides refuge for such unusual
reptiles as the alligator and for thousands of varieties of birds, including the graceful pink
flamingo. In sharp contrast to the Everglades are the arid, dusty parks of the West. Mesa Verde
National Park in Colorado, for example, preserves the ruins of an Indian civilization which
flourished in the twelfth and thirteenth centuries. Today, tourists can wander through the
awesome cliff dwellings that the Indians carved out of the steep rock.
1. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The large number of nation parks.

B. National parks as a wildlife refuge.

C. The diversity of the national parks.

D. The differences between countries.

2. National parks in the US_______.
A. are a lot different from each other.

B. change a lot in landscape and mood

C. are made more interesting

D. are the same as other parks in the world

3. Everglades National Park is_______.
A. in the south of the United States

B. home to alligators and many birds

C. an area of land that is full of water

D. all are correct

4. The word which in the passage refers to_______.
A. Mesa

B. the ruins

C. Indian

D. civilization

D. WRITING (2 points)
I. Rewrite each of the following sentences without changing its original meaning. (1 point)
1. They will hold the meeting before May Day.

→ The meeting ______________________________________________________.
2. He spent two hours writing the essay.

→ It took ___________________________________________________________.
3. We’ve never talked to an interesting person like you before.

→ Never before _____________________________________________________.
4. The store was opened in 1932 by John.

→ John ____________________________________________________________.
II. In about 80-100 words, write a letter to a friend to talk about your typical day. (1 point)

-------------Hết----------Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu.
Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.

Họ và tên thí sinh:…………………….………..…….…….….….; Số báo
danh……………………


SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC

KỲ THI KIỂM TRA HỌC KÌ II NĂM HỌC 2014-2015
HDC MÔN: TIẾNG ANH KHỐI 10

A. LISTENING (2 points)
(0.25 point per one correct item)
1. (the) city centre/ center (itself)

5. (the) telephone/ phone

2. 250

6. Wednesday/ Wed

3. (a) garden

7. employer

4. 325

8. two/ 2 weeks’

B. PHONETICS, GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (2 points)
I. (0.25 point per one correct item): 1. A

2. B

II. (0.25 point per one correct item): 1. B

2. D

III. (0.25 point per one correct item):
1. C

3. C

5. D

7. C

9. B

2. B

4. D

6. A

8. A

10. C

IV. (0.25 point per one correct item): 1. D

2. C

C. READING (2 points)
I. (0.25 point per one correct item):
1. attacked

2. other

3. contests

4. soup

2. A

3. D

4. B

II. (0.25pt/item)
1. C

D. WRITING (2 points)
I. (0.25 point per one correct sentence):


1. → The meeting will be held before May Day.
2. → It took him two hours to write the essay.
3. → Never before have we talked to an interesting person like you.
4. → John opened the store in 1932.

II. (1 point)
Mô tả tiêu chí đánh giá

Phần
Bố cục (0.4 point)

Điểm tối đa

o Câu đề dẫn chủ đề mạch lạc

0.1 point

o Bố cục hợp lí rõ ràng phù hợp yêu cầu của đề bài

0.2 points

o Câu kết luận phù hợp

0.1 point

o Phát triển ý có trình tự logic, Đủ thuyết phục người đọc

0.1 points

o Đủ dẫn chứng, ví dụ, lập luận

0.1 points

o Độ dài: Số từ không nhiều hơn hoặc ít hơn so với quy định
5%

0.2 point

Sử dụng ngôn ngữ

o Sử dụng ngôn từ phù hợp nội dung, văn phong/ thể loại

0.1 point

(0.2 point)

o Sử dụng ngôn từ phong phú, ngữ pháp, dấu câu, và chính tả
chính xác

0.1 point

Nội dung (0.4 point)

Cách tính lỗi:
Lỗi chính tả/ngữ pháp/ từ vựng gây hiểu nhầm/ sai lệch ý sẽ bị tính một lỗi – 0.05 point
(Cùng một lỗi lặp lại chỉ tính là một lỗi)
--------------------HẾT--------------------


SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO BÌNH ĐỊNH

ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ II

TRƯỜNG THPT BÌNH DƯƠNG

NĂM HỌC 2014-2015

------------------------

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 10

Đề kiểm tra này có 02 trang

(BAN CƠ BẢN)

(Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu)
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
Họ, tên thí sinh:.............................................. Số báo danh: .......................
Mã đề 145

A. LISTENING

I. Listen the recording, then choose the word in the box to fill in the blank:
danger, awful, wildlife, allow, forest, careless
1. A great forest fire is an …………………… thing to see.
2. Late summer is the season when the fire is the greatest……………….. to woods and forests.
3. Foresters do not …………………….. anyone to go into the forests.
4. Every fire destroys valuable wood, ………………….. and good soil.
II. Listen the recording, then decide the following sentences if they are True (T) or False
(F):
1. A camp-fire burning near a heap of leaves often causes a forest fire.
2. Campers must always remember to put out the camp-fire.
3. Anyone careless is enough to start a forest fire.
4. Only camper and forester knows how important to care for out great forest and save it.
B. WRITING
Rewrite the sentences with the suggestion:
1. Someone wrote this letter last night.
-> This letter………………………………………………………….
2. The program was interesting.
-> I was………………………………………………………………..
3. I didn’t know how to ride a bicycle until I was 15.
-> It was not ……………………………………………………..
4. We didn’t go on holiday because we didn’t have enough money.
-> If we ………………………………………………….


5. We are taking a holiday next week.
->When ……………………………………………………………?
6. If you don’t see that film, you’ll be sorry.
-> Unless……………………………………………………………………….
7. Mary didn’t work for the UN until 2004
It was not until…………………………………………………………….

8. The teacher corrects our exercises at home.
-> Our exercises……………………………………………………………………………
C. LANGUAGE FOCUS
I. Choose the best answer a, b, c or d to complete the sentences:
1. The soft background music made her ............... sleepy.
A. feel

B. to feel

C. feeling

D. feels

2. "Am I _______ you?" she asked anxiously.
A. bore

B. bored

C. boring

D. boredom

C. use

D. useful

3. Fresh air is _________ for our health
A. usefully

B. using

II. Circle the word that is pronounced differently from the others:
1. A. character

B. change

C. cheerful

D. achieve

III. Give the correct tense or corect form of the verbs in brackets:
1. I think England (win) …………. this match.
2. If I (be) ………………………………… you, I would look for another job.
3. The passenger asked her how (get)……………to the station.
4. The plants will die unless you (water) ……………………………them everyday.
D. READING
I. Read the passage, then choose the answer a, b, c or d to complete the passage:
Football is the most (1)_____sport in Britain, particularly amongst men. It (2)_____by boys
in most schools. Most towns have an amateur football team which plays in a minor league.
Football is also the most popular (3)_____sport in Britain. Many people go to see their favourite
professional team (4)_____at home, and some go away matches. Many more people watch
football on television.
1. A. difficult

B. famous

C. important

D. popular

2. A. plays

B. was played

C. is played

D. played

3. A. spectator

B. viewer

C. champion

D. trophy

4. A. kicking

B. taking

C. running

D. playing

II. Read the passage and answer the questions:
David Robert Joseph Beckham was born in Leytonstones, London on 2 ndMay 1975. Keen on
football from very early on, David won the bobby Charlton Soccer Skills Award when he was 11.
Five years later, at the age of 16, he signed on as a trainee at Manchester United Football Club.
The following year, he made his first appearance as a substitute but it was another three years

before he started playing full-time in the Premier League.
He established himself as a quality player in the 1995/96 season and, in his midfield right
position, the number 7 helped his team to win the FA Cup semi-final against Chelsea.
In 1996 he started playing for the English senior team and the year ended with him being
voted Young Player of the Year.
It was no surprise that Beckham was picked up to play in the 1998 World Cup in France. A
year later he was votes the second best player in the world after Rivaldo, the outstanding
Barcelona and Brazil player.
In 2001, he was made captain of the England team, a responsibility which brought out him
the best in him. During the match, he led by example and showed that he could play with all his
heart.
1. When did Backham sign as a trainee for MUFC?
-> ……………………………………………………………..
2. What position did he play in?
-> ………………………………………………………………
3. Who became the best player in 1999?
-> ………………………………………………………………
5. What was he made in 2001?
-> ……………………………………………………………….


ANSWER KEYS
Mã đề 145
A. LISTENING
I. Listen the recording, then choose the word in the box to fill in the blank.
danger, awful, wildlife, allow, forest, careless
1. A great forest fire is an …………………… thing to see.(awful)
2. Late summer is the season when the fire is the greatest……………….. to woods and forests.
(danger)
3. Foresters do not …………………….. anyone to go into the forests. (allow)

5. Every fire destroys valuable wood, ………………….. and good soil. (wildlife)
II. Listen the recording, then decide the following sentences if they are True(T) or False(F)
1. A camp-fire burning near a heap of leaves often causes a forest fire. T
2. Campers must always remember to put out the camp-fire. F
3. Anyone careless is enough to start a forest fire. T
4. Only camper and forester knows how important to care for out great forest and save it. F
B. WRITING
Rewrite the sentences with the suggestion
1. Someone wrote this letter last night.
-> This letter was written last night.
2. The program was interesting.
-> I was interested in the program.
3. I didn’t know how to ride a bicycle until I was 15.
-> It was not until I was 15that know how to ride a bicycle.
4. We didn’t go on holiday because we didn’t have enough money.
-> If we had had enough money, I would have gone on holiday.
5. We are taking a holiday next week.
->When are you taking a holiday?
6. If you don’t see that film, you’ll be sorry.
-> Unless you see that film, you’ll be sorry.
7. Mary didn’t work for the UN until 2004.
-> It was not until 2004 that Mary worked for the UN.
8. The teacher corrects our exercises at home.

24


-> Our exercises are corrected at home by the teacher.
C. LANGUAGE FOCUS
I. Choose the best answer a, b, c or d to complete the sentences

1. The soft background music made her ............... sleepy.
A. feel

B. to feel

C. feeling

D. feels

2. "Am I _______ you?" she asked anxiously.
A. bore

B. bored

C. boring

D. boredom

3. Fresh air is _________ for our health
A. usefully

B. using

C. use

D. useful

II. Circle the word that is pronounced differently from the others :
1.

A. character

B. change

C. cheerful

D. achieve

III. Give the correct tense or corect form of the verbs in brackets
1. I think England (win) …………. this match. Will win
2. If I (be) ………………………………… you, I would look for another job. were
3. The passenger asked her how (get )……………to the station. to get
4. The plants will die unless you (water) ……………………………them everyday. water
D. READING
I. Read the passage, then choose the answer a, b, c or d to complete the passage
Football is the most (1)_____sport in Britain, particularly amongst men. It (2)_____by boys in
most schools. Most towns have an amateur football team which plays in a minor league. Football is
also the most popular (3)_____sport in Britain. Many people go to see their favourite professional
team (4)_____at home, and some go away matches. Many more people watch football on
television.
1. A. difficult

B. famous

C. important

D. popular

2. A. plays

B. was played

C. is played

D. played

3. A. spectator

B. viewer

C. champion

D. trophy

4. A. kicking

B. taking

C. running

D. playing

II. Read the passage and answer the questions:
David Robert Joseph Beckham was born in Leytonstones, London on 2 ndMay 1975. Keen on
football from very early on, David won the bobby Charlton Soccer Skills Award when he was 11.
Five years later, at the age of 16, he signed on as a trainee at Manchester United Football Club. The
following year, he made his first appearance as a substitute but it was another three years before he
started playing full-time in the Premier League.
He established himself as a quality player in the 1995/96 season and, in his midfield right

25