Bộ đề thi thử Tiếng Anh THPTQG

ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG NĂM 2015
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH - ĐỀ 239
Thời gian: 90 phút
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
1. Please ____ and see us some time. You‘re always welcome.
A. come to
B. come around
C. come about
D. come away
2. The judge ____ the murderer to a lifetime imprisonment.
A. accused
B. convicted
C. sentenced
D. prosecuted
3. Only in the Civil War____ killed or wounded.
A. soldiers in America were
B. so many American soldiers were
C. many in America were
D. were so many American soldiers
4. I have to assure myself that I____ the best possible decision.
A. have leapt
B. have done
C. have made
D. have reached
5. James: “What’s the matter?” - Anne: “________.”
A. That’s all right
B. Not at all
C. Nothing
D. It’s no trouble
6. If it____ their encouragement, he could have given it up.
A. had been for

B. hadn’t been for
C. wouldn’t have been for
D. hadn’t been
7. It’s surprising that ex-smokers are less____ smokers than non-smokers.
A. tolerant of
B. tolerable to
C. intolerant
D. tolerance towards
8. “What a great haircut, Lucy!” - “________.”
A. Thanks. It’s very kind of you to do this.
B. It’s my pleasure
C. Oh, yes. That’s right
D. You think so? I think it’s a bit too short
9. The criminal was sentenced to death because of____ of his crime.
A. the severity
B. the complexity
C. a punishment
D. the importance
10. Tony often watches TV after his parents____ to bed.
A. have gone
B. go
C. had gone
D. went
11. Population expansion seems to surpass the ability of the earth to meet____ food.
A. the requirement of B. the command of
C. the demand for
D. the necessity for
12. After years of being exposed to the sun and rain, the sign had become completely____.
A. unreadable
B. readable

C. misread
D. illegible
13. By the end of this month I____ for this company for two years.
A. have been working B. will work
C. will have been working D. will be working
14. John paid $20 for his meal,____ he had thought it would cost
A. not much as
B. not so much as
C. less as
D. not so many as
15. -“Mum! I’ve got 6000 on the TOEFL test” -“________”
A. Good way!
B. You are right
C. Good job!
D. Oh, hard luck
16. “Would you like me to get a taxi?” - “________.”
A. Yes, please, if it’s no bother B. Well, let’s see. C. That would be delightful. Thanks D. Yes, I see.
17. ____ over long distances is a fact.
A. That electricity transmitting B. That electricity can be transmitted C. That electricity D. That can be transmitted
18. The discovery was a major ____ for research workers
A. breakthrough
B. breakdown
C. break-in
D breakout
19. John____ knowledge from many of his life experiences in his work.
A. approved
B. accomplished
C. appreciated
D. applied
20. ____ sheep were then used for wool.

A. Having first domesticated for milk production B. Having been first domesticated for milk production
C. Because they had been first domesticated for milk production
D. Although they had first domesticated for milk production
21. Lorie is very thin, ____ her young sister, who is quite heavy.
A. unlike
B. dissimilar to
C. dislike
D. unlikely
22. Flooding in April is an unusual ____ in this area.
A. occurrence
B. occur
C. occurring
D. occurred
23. It is a fact that____ form of energy. A. electricity being the most useful B. electricity is the most useful
C. the most useful in electricity
D. electricity the most useful
24. You have a good feeling about yourself and____ when you volunteer.
A. the others
B. other
C. the other
D. others
25. Prices of flats____ from a few thousand to millions of dollars.
A. change
B. vary
C. differ
D. fluctuate


26. Do you think Ms. Brown will ____ for Parliament in the next election?
A. run

B. walk
C. sit
D. stand
27. Nearly all of the reporters ______ the press conference had questions ______
A. attend/ asked
B. attended/ to ask
C. attending/ to ask
D. would attend/ to be asked
28. The general public____ a large number of computers now, because prices are beginning to decrease.
A. must buy
B. must be buying
C. must have bought D. must bought
29. I'm worried about ______ on so much work.
A. she taking
B. she takes
C. her to take
D. her taking
30. Hieroglyphics ___ on the walls of caves provide scientists with important details on prehistoric man.
A. painted
B. were painted
C. have been painted D. that they painted
31. If you ___ Peter, could you tell him to ring me up?
A. come into
B. come over
C. come across
D. come back
32. Where did you buy that ____ handbag?
A. funny leather purple B. purple funny leather C. funny purple leather D. leather funny purple
33. To buy this type of product, you must pay half of the money ___, and pay the rest on the day of delivery.
A. in advance

B. in cheque
C. in cash
D. in charge
34. The boy was sent to the police because of several ____ that he had taken part in.
A. set-to
B. set-toes
C. sets-to
D. set-tos
35. ____, the results couldn’t be better. A. No matter what he tried hard B. No matter how hard he tried
C. Although very hard he tried
D. Despite how hard he tried
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined sound that is pronounced differently
from the rest or the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress:
36. A. explosion
B. conversion
C. precision
D. expansion
37. A. dangerous
B. conspicuous
C. marvelous
D. numerous
38. A. pioneer
B. engineer
C. reindeer
D. referee
39. A. establish
B. intimidate
C. inheritance
D. illustrate
40. A. malaria

B. eradicate
C. character
D. spectacular
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
41. If they took their language lesson seriously, they would be able to communicate with the locals now.
A
B
C
D
42. It announced today that an enquiry would be held into the collapse of a high-rise apartment block in Kuala Lumpur
last week. A
B
C
D
43. I strongly object the idea of students in the final year working part-time jobs.
A
B
C
D
44. The City Council is planning to take measures regarding to the noise level in the city centre.
A
B
C
D
45. Neither of the men arresting as terrorists would reveal information about his group.
A
B
C
D
46. When a lion gets hungry, its manner changes and it becomes threatened.

A
B
C
D
47. Little he knows about the surprise that awaited him.
A
B
C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
48. My father couldn’t stand Tom’s behavior.
A. My father found Tom’s behavior intolerant
B. My father found Tom’s behavior intolerable
C. My father was tolerant towards Tom’s behavior
D. Tom’s behavior was not tolerable
49. Cultures vary from country to country.
A. Cultures are different in different countries. B. There are different cultures in one country
C. Culture differences are based on countries D. Cultures move from one country to another.
50-Nobody at all came to the meeting
A. There was almost nobody at the meeting
B. Not many people came to the meeting
C. Not a single person came to the meeting
D. Only a few people came to the meeting
51. The book costs $15,50 but I have only $14,50.
A. I have more than enough money to pay for the book. B. The book costs a little more than I have with me.
C. I have just enough money to pay for the book.
D. I need a few more dollars to pay for the book.
52. If I hadn’t had so much work to do I would have gone to the movies.
A. Because I had to do so much work I couldn’t go to the movies.
B. I would go to the movies when I had done so much work.

C. A lot of work couldn’t prevent me from going to the movies. D. I never go to the movies if I have work to do.
53. Despite his early retirement, he found no peace in life.
A. Although he retired early, but he found no peace in life. B. His early retirement has brought him peace in life.
C. He found no peace in life because he retired early. D. Early as he retired, he found no peace in life.
54. Tom has the ability to be a professional musician, but he’s too lazy to practice.
A. He is talented but he’ll never be a professional musician as he doesn’t practice.
B. As a professional musician he is not lazy to practice music lessons.
C. He is able to practice music lessons professionally though he is lazy.
D. Though practicing lazily, he is a professional musician.
55. David broke his leg and couldn’t play in the final.
A. David couldn’t play in the final due to his broken leg. B. If David hadn’t broken his leg, he could play in the final now
C. If David didn’t break his leg, he could play in the final.
D. But for his broken leg, David couldn’t have played in the final.
56. Anne takes after her mother.
A. Anne resembles her mother in action
B. Anne and her mother are alike
C. Anne looks alike her mother
D. Anne likes her mother very much
57. This question is even harder than the last one.
A. The last question is not difficult
B. This question is the most difficult one
C. The last question is difficult but this one is more difficult D. This question is hard but the last one is not.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions.
In the world today, particularly in the two most industrialized areas, North America and Europe, recycling is big
news. People are talking about it, practicing it, and discovering new ways to be sensitive to the environment. Recycling
means finding was to use products a second time. The motto of the recycling movement is "Reduce, Reuse, Recycle".
The first step is to reduce garbage. In stores, a shopper has to buy products in blister packs, boxes and expensive

plastic wrappings. A hamburger from a fast food restaurant comes in lots of packaging: usually paper, a box, and a bag.
All that packaging is wasted resources. People should try to buy things that are wrapped simply, and to reuse cups and
utensils đồ dùng, dụng cụ. Another way to reduce waste is to buy high-quality products. When low quality appliances
break, many customers throw them away and buy new ones - a loss of more resources and more energy. For example, if
a customer buys a high-quality appliance that can be easily repaired, the manufacturer receives an important message.
In the same way, if a customer chooses a product with less packaging, that customer sends an important message to the
manufacturers. To reduce garbage, the throwaway must stop.
The second step is to reuse. It is better to buy juices and soft drinks in returnable bottles. After customers,
empty the bottles, they return them to the store. The manufacturers of the drinks collect the bottles, wash them, and
then fill them again. The energy that is necessary to make new bottles is saved. In some parts of the world, returning
bottles for money is a common practice. In those places, the garbage dumps have relatively little glass and plastic from
throwaway bottles. The third step is being environmentally sensitive is to recycle. Spent motor oil can be cleaned and
used again. Aluminum cans are expensive to make. It takes the same amount of energy to make one aluminum can as it
does to run a color TV set for three hours. When people collect and recycle aluminum (for new cans), they help save one
of the world's precious resources.
58. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. how to reduce garbage disposal
B. what people often understand about the term 'recycle'
C. what is involved in the recycling movement D. how to live sensitively to the environment.
59. Which is described as one of the most industrialized areas?
A. Europe
B. Asia
C. Middle East
D. South America
60. What does the word 'sensitive' in the phrase 'sensitive to the environment' mean?
A. cautious
B. logical
C. friendly
D. responding
61. People can do the following to reduce waste EXCEPT____.

A. buy high-quality product B. buy simply-wrapped things C. reuse cups D. buy fewer hamburgers
62. Why is it a waste and customers buy low-quality products?
A. Because people will soon throw them away. B. Because they have to be repaired many times.
C. Because customers change their ideas all the time. D. Because they produce less energy.
63. What does it mean 'Customers can vote with their wallets'?
A. they can choose the cheapest products B. they can cast a lot to praise a producer.
C. they can ask people to choose products with less packaging
D. they can tell the producers which products are good for environment by buying them.
64. The word 'motto' is closest in meaning to_________
A. meaning
B. value
C. belief
D. reference
65. What best describes the process of reuse?


A. The bottles are collected, washed, returned and filled again.
B. The bottles are filled again after being returned, collected and washed.
C. The bottles are washed, retuned, filled again and collected.
D. The bottles are collected, returned filled again and washed.
66. The garbage dumps in some areas have relatively little glass and plastic because
A. people are ordered to return bottles.
B. returned bottles are few.
C. not many bottles are made of glass or plastic.
D. each returned bottles is paid.
67. The word 'practice' is closest in meaning to_______.
`
A. drill
B. deed
C. exercise

D. belief
68-What are the two things mentioned as examples of recycling?
A. Aluminum cans and plastic wrappings.
B. Hamburger wrappings and spent motor oil.
C. Aluminum cans and spent motor oil.
D. TV sets and aluminum cans.
69-The energy used to make a can is________ the energy used to run a color TV set for 3 hours.
A. as much as
B. less than
C. not worth being compared to D. more than
70-The word 'precious' is closest in meaning to_______.
A. natural
B. substantial
C. first
D. invaluable
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word(s) for
each of the blanks.
From the seeds themselves to the machinery, fertilizers and pesticides - The Green Revolution regimen depend
heavily on technology. One (71) ___ , however, depends much (72) ___ on technology - organic farming. Many organic
farmers use machinery, but (73) ___ chemical fertilizersor pesticides. (74) ___ chemical soil enrichers, they use animal
manure and plant parts not used as food -,natural,organic fertilizers that are clearly a renewable (75) ___. Organic
farmers also use alternatives for pesticides; for example they may rely (76) ___ natural predators of certain insect pests.
(77) ___ the need arises, they can buy the eggs and larvae of these natural predators and introduce them into their crop
fields. They use (78) ___ techniques to control pests as well, like planting certain crops together because one crop repels
the other's pests. Organic farmers do not need a lot of land; (79) ___ organic farming is perfectly (80) ___ to small farms
and is relatively inexpensive. Finally, many organic farmers' average yields compare favorably with other farmers' yields.
71. A. alternative
B. alternate
C. alteration
D. alternation

72. A. more
B. less
C. better
D. worse
73. A. also
B. for
C. not
D. all
74. A. In spite of
B. On account of
C. In favour of
D. Instead of
75. A. resource
B. source
C. matter
D. substance
76. A. of
B. to
C. on
D. in
77. A. Then
B. If
C. Because
D. Though
78. A. others
B. another
C. the others
D. other
79. A. instead
B. in one way

C. on one hand
D. in fact
80. A. suitable
B. open
C. likely
D. suited
---------------------THE END----------------

SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC

ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG NĂM 2015


TRƯỜNG THPT LIỄN SƠN
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH - ĐỀ 235
(ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT)
Thời gian: 90 phút
Blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions
1 The more a boxer fights, the higher the chance that she will get brain damage
A. There is a high chance that a boxer will become brain- damaged when she fights
B. Boxers have a higher chance of getting brain damage than other people, as they fight more
C. The boxers that fight too often are the only one at risk of having their brains damaged.
D. The risk of a boxer’s brain being damaged increases with the number of his or her fights.
2. In my whole life, nothing has fascinated me as much as woodcarving has been doing recently
A. Woodcarving is such a fascinating activity that, for the first time in my life, I am actually enjoying doing something
B. I am glad that I have taken up woodcarving, since nothing before has attracted my interest so much
C. I have never been as interested in anything before as I am now in woodcarving
D. I’m really interested in woodcarving, and in fact I have rarely been as happy doing anything as I am doing it
3. There is, in fact, less alcohol in beer than there is in wine, though the former’s taste is more bitter

A. Beer tastes much more bitter than wine because of its lower alcohol content.
B. Despite tasting less bitter, wine actually contains a higher amount of alcohol than beer does
C. Although beer is not as good-tasting as wine, it is just as full of alcohol
D. The more bitter taste of beer as compared with wine indicates that the former does not have as much
alcohol as the latter.
4. The likelihood of suffering a heart attack rises as one becomes increasingly obese.
A. Anyone who is obese is likely to experience a heart attack at any time
B. Heart attacks are happening more and more often, and most of the sufferers are obese
C. Obesity results in only a slight increase in the probability of having a heart attack
D. The more obese one is, the higher the chances for heart attack become.
5. This book is probably the most boring one that I have ever read.
A. I would never have guessed that the book would be so terribly dull
B. Many other books that I have ever read have been as uninteresting as this one.
C. It’s very likely that every other book I have ever read in my life is more interesting than this one
D. A number of books are supposedly as boring as this one, but I have not read any of them
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from other words.
6. A. honest
B. home
C. vehicles
D. heiress
7. A. youths
B. maps
C. cigarettes
D. months
8. A. hole
B. nose
C. lost
D. only
9. A. thorough
B. without

C. although
D. mouths
10. A. permission
B. ship
C. decision
D. inversion
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from other words.
11. A. escape
B. lotion
C. prefer
D. review
12. A. discourage
B. document
C. general
D. politics
13. A. assure
B. behind
C. grateful
D. regrets
14. A. appointment
B. argument
C. arrival
D. enjoyment
15. A. accommodate
B. appreciate
C. accessory
D. competition
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions
The Native American peoples of the north Pacific Coast created a highly complex maritime culture as they

invented modes of production unique to their special environment. In addition to their sophisticated technical culture,
they also attained one of the most complex social organizations of any nonagricultural people in the world.
In a division of labor similar to that of the hunting peoples in the interior and among foraging peoples
throughout the world, the men did most of the fishing, and the women processed the catch. Women also specialized in
the gathering of the abundant shellfish that lived closer to shore. They collected oysters, crabs, sea urchins, mussels,
abalone, and clams, which they could gather while remaining close to their children. The maritime life harvested by the
women not only provided food, but also supplied more of the raw materials for making tools than did fish gathered by
the men. Of particular importance for the native tool than did the fish gathered by the men. Of particular made from
the larger mussel shells, and a variety of cutting edges that could be made from other marine shells.
The women used their tools to process all of the fish and marine mammals brought in by the men. They cleaned
the fish, and dried vast quantities of them for the winter. They sun-dried fish when practical, but in the rainy climate of
the coastal area they also used smokehouses to preserve tons of fish and other seafood annually. Each product had its
own peculiar characteristics that demanded a particular way of cutting or drying the meat, and each task required its
own cutting blades and other utensils.


After drying the fish, the women pounded some of them into fish meal, which was an easily transported food
used in soups, stews, or other dishes to provide protein and thickening in the absence of fresh fish or while on long
trips. The women also made a cheese-like substance from a mixture of fish and roe by aging it in storehouses or by
burying it in wooden boxes or pits lined with rocks and tree leaves.
16. Which aspect of the lives of the Native Americans of the north Pacific Coast does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Methods of food preservation
B. How diet was restricted by the environment
C. The contributions of women to the food supply
D. Difficulties in establishing successful farms
17. The word “unique” in line 2 is closest in meaning to____.
A. comprehensible
B. productive
C. intentional
D. particular

18. The word “attained” in line 3 is closest in meaning to____.
A. achieved
B. modified
C. demanded
D. spread
19. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that the social organization of many agricultural peoples is____.
A. more complex than that of hunters and foragers B. less efficient than that of hunters and foragers
C. more widespread than that of hunters and foragers D. better documented than that of hunters and foragers
20. According to the passage, what is true of the “division of labor” mentioned in line 5?
A. It was first developed by Native Americans of the north Pacific Coast. B. It rarely existed among hunting
C. It was a structure that the Native Americans of the north Pacific Coast shared with many other peoples.
D. It provided a form of social organization that was found mainly among coastal peoples.
21. The word “abundant” in line 7 is closest in meaning to ____.
A. prosperous
B. plentiful
C. acceptable
D. fundamental
22. All of the following are true of the north Pacific coast women EXCEPT that they_____.
A. were more likely to catch shellfish than other kinds of fish
B. contributed more materials for tool making than the men did
C. sometimes searched for food far inland from the coast
D. prepared and preserved the fish
23. The word “They” in line 16 refers to____.
A. women
B. tools
C. mammals
D. men
24. The Native Americans of the north Pacific Coast used smokehouses in order to____.
A. store utensils used in food preparation
B. prevent fish and shellfish from spoiling

C. have a place to store fish and shellfish
D. prepare elaborate meals
25. The word “peculiar” in line 19 is closest in meaning to_____.
A. strange
B. distinctive
C. appealing
D. biological
26. All of following are true of the cheese-like substance mentioned in paragraph 4 EXCEPT that it was____.
A made from fish B. not actually cheese C. useful on long journeys D. made in a short period of time
Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct:
27. Each chemical element is characterized to the number of protons that an atom of that element contains, called its
atomic number A B C D
28. From 1905 to 1920, American novelist Edith Wharton was at the height of her writing career, publishing of her three
most famous novels.
A
B
C
D
29. Although pure diamond is colorless and transparent, when contaminated with other material it may appear in
various color, ranging from Pastels to opaque black.
AB
C
D
30. In the 1970’s, consumer activities succeeded in promoting laws that set safety standard for automobiles, children ‘s
clothing, and a widely range of household products
A
B
CD
31. Zoos in New Orleans, San Diego, and the Bronx have become biological parks where animals roams free and people
watch them across a moat.

A
B
C D
32. In human beings, as in other mammal, hairs around the eyes and ears and in the nose, prevent dust, insects, and
other matter from entering the organs. A
B
C
D
33. Because of its vast tracts of virtually uninhabited northern forest, Canada has one of the lowest population density in
the world.
A
B
C
D
34. Rice, which it still forms the staple diet of much of the world’s population grows best in hot, wet lands.
A
B
C
D
35. Electric lamps came into widespread use during the early 1900’s and have replaced other type of fat, gas or oil lamps
for almost even purpose.
A
B
C D
36. Dinosaurs are traditionally classified as cold- blooded reptiles, but recent evidence based on eating habits, posture,
and skeletal structural suggests some may have been warm-blooded. A B C D
Choose A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences
37. The cast ____ several times and then left the stage to wild applause.
A. bowed
B. ducked

C. crouched
D. stooped
38. The pilot spoke to the passengers to ____ their fears when the plane entered a storm.
A. allay
B. deter
C. soothe
D. placate


36. Then he started out on what ____ to be a very eventful journey
A. proved
B. arose
C. turned
D. developed.
37. I think you are being ____ pessimistic and that you’ll do better than you expect
A. additionally
B. abundantly
C. unduly
D. worthlessly
38. She often appears not to care about her work, but appearance can be____.
A. cunning
B. deceitful
C. deceptive
D. insincere
39. In ____ to them, it wasn’t their fault that the party went so badly
A. fairness
B. justice
C. recognition
D. sympathy
40. Peter isn’t keen on exercise, but he isn’t ____ to the occasional walk

A. averse
B. unwilling
C. reluctant
D. contrary
41. It is difficult to decide on the best ____ of action in these circumstances
A. measure
B. course
C. process
D. policy
42. He has been with the company for 35 years, but the management has now decided to ____ with his services.
A. discard
B. dispense
C. disuse
D. dismiss
43. Richard is ____ to give up immediately when faced with any problems.
A habitual
B. subject
C. susceptible
D. apt
44. With the exception of mercury,____ at standard temperature and pressure.
A. The metallic elements are solid
B. which is a solid metallic element
C. metallic elements being sold
D. since the metallic elements are solid.
45. The computer has dramatically affected____ photographic lenses are constructed.
A. is the way
B. that the way
C. which way do
D. the way
46. In bacteria and in other organisms, ____ is the nucleic acid DNA that provides the genetic information

A. both
B. which
C. and
D. it.
47. Although thunder and lightning are produced at the same time, light waves travel faster____ , so we see the
lightning before we hear the thunder.
A. than sounds do waves B. than sound waves are C. than do sound waves
D. sound waves
48. Richard Wright enjoyed success and influences____ among Black American writers of his eras
A. were paralleled
B. are unparalleled
C. unparalleled
D. the unparalleled
49. ____ kind of organization throughout the world uses computers to conduct business,
A. Virtually all
B. Virtually every
C. Nearly most
D. Nearly all
50. One of the first exercises in math class is____ measure the radius of a circle.
A. to learn and
B. learning to
C. learn to
D. to learn how to
51. Which sentence is grammatically true?
A. born in the mid- to late-1980s and the 1990s, children have been labeled the “Internet Generation”: the first
generation growing up in a world where the Internet was always present.
B. born in the mid- to late-1980s and the 1990s, they have labeled the “Internet Generation”: the first generation to
grow up in a world where the Internet was always present.
C. Being born in the mid- to late-1980s and the 1990s, children have been labeled the “Internet Generation”: the first
generation to grow up in a world where the Internet was always present.

D. born in the mid- to late-1980s and the 1990s, children have been labeled the “Internet Generation”: the first
generation to grow up in a world where the Internet was always present.
52. ____ in most of this discourse about the Internet Generation and its transformative potential is the continued
presence and influence of adults in the larger digital landscape inhabited by young people.
A. Neglecting
B. Having neglected
C. Neglected
D. Being neglected
53. The present experiment explored the relationship between academic confidence and performance within a college
setting ____ both self-ratings and peer-ratings.
A. uses
B. by use
C. used
D. using
54. Finally, this experiment measured evaluations of confidence and performance as rated by participants' peers, ____ a
multi-trait multi-method matrix. A. yield
B. yielded
C. yielding
D. yields
55. We explored the caves enthusiastically, ____
A. Jim acted like an experienced guider
B acting Jim like an experienced guider
C. Jim acting as an experienced guider
D. Jim acted as an experienced guider.
Read the following newspaper article about an expedition and answer questions 45 – 50.
There are very few big adventures left and very few heroes. Children's stories used to specialize in them –
courageous explorers with sun-burnt, leathery skin and eyes narrowed by straining to see into far horizons on their
journeys into the unknown. These days you no longer find such people in fiction, let alone in real life. Or so I thought
until I met Charles Blackmore. Blakemore’s great adventure consisted of leading an expedition across one of the last
unexplored places on earth, the Taklamakan Desert in western China. Its name means `once entered you never come

out', but local people call it the Desert of Death. He recalled the dangers and exhilaration of that amazing trek, in the
calm atmosphere of his family home. The team he led was composed of four Britons (one of them the party' s medical
officer), an American photographer, four Chinese (all experts on the area), 30 camels and six camel handlers. It later
turned out that the camel handlers had never worked with camels before, but were long-distance lorry drivers: a
misunderstanding that could have cost everyone their lives and certainly jeopardized the expedition's success. This
mixed bunch set out to cross 1,200 kilometres of the world's least hospitable desert and Charles Blackmore has written
a mesmerizing account of their journey.
At the time, he was about to leave the Army after 14 happy years. He launched the expedition for fun, to fill a
gap in his life, to prove something. `I had always assumed I'd spend my whole life in the Army. I had been offered
promotion but suddenly I felt I wanted to see who Charles Blackmore really was, outside all that. It was a tremendous
gamble. Tina, my wife, was very worried that I wouldn't come back as nobody had ever done that route; we went into it
blind. In the event, it took 59 days to cross from west to east, and the desert was very kind to us.' Anyone reading his
extraordinary account of that crossing will wonder at the use of the word `kind'. The team suffered unspeakable
hardships: dysentery; extremes of temperature; severe thirst and dehydration; the loss of part of their precious water
supply. `But', Blackmore explains, `when we were at the limits of our own endurance and the camels had gone without
water for seven days, we managed to find some. We didn't experience the Taklamakan's legendary sandstorms. And we
never hit the raw, biting desert cold that would have totally immobilized us. That's not to say that we weren't fighting
against hurdles the whole time. The fine sand got into everything, especially blisters and wounds. The high dunes were
torture to climb, for us and for the heavily laden camels, which often rolled over onto us. `What drove me on more than
anything else was the need to survive. We had no contingency plan. Neither our budget nor time allowed one. No
aircraft
ever flew over us.
Once we got into the sand-hills we were completely on our own. `I knew I had the mental stamina for the trip
but I was very scared of my physical ability to do it. I remember day one — we sat at the edge of the desert and it was
such an inferno that you couldn't breathe. I thought, "We've got to do it now!" At that moment I was a very scared
man.'
If it was like that at the beginning, how did they feel towards the end? `When you've walked for 1,000 kilometers you're
not going to duck out. You've endured so much; you've got so much behind you. We were very thin, but very muscular

and sinewy despite our physical exhaustion. My body was well-toned and my legs were like pistons. I could walk over
anything.'
Midway through the book, Blackmore went on to describe lying in the desert gazing up at a full moon, thinking
of his family. How conscious was he of the ordeal it must have been for them? Inside me there's someone trying to find
peace with himself. When I have doubts about myself now, I go back to the image of the desert and think, well, we
managed to pull that together. As a personal achievement, I feel prouder of that expedition than of anything else I've
done. Yet in terms of a lifetime's achievement, I think of my family and the happiness we share —against that yardstick,
the desert does not measure up, does not compare.' Has Charles Blackmore found peace? `I yearn for the challenge —
for the open spaces —the resolve of it all. We were buoyed up by the sense of purpose. I find it difficult now to be part
of the uniformity of modem life.'
56 Meeting Charles Blackmore changed the writer’s opinion about ____.
A the content of children’s fiction
B the nature of desert exploration
C the existence of traditional heroes
D the activities of explorers
57 When the expedition members set off, some of the group____.
A posed an unexpected risk. B disagreed with each other. C were doubtful of success. D went on ahead of the others.
58 Blackmore had decided to set up the expedition because ____.
A he was certain he could complete
B he wanted to write a book
C his aims in life had changed
D his self-confidence was low
59 Which of the following best describes the team’s experience of the desert?
A They were not able to have enough rest
B It presented continual difficulties
C They sometimes could not make any progress at all D It was worse than they had expected
60 Which of the following did Blackmore experience during the trip?
A frustration at the lack of funding
B regret about the lack of planning
C realization that they would receive no help D fear that he would let his companions down

61 According to Blackmore, what enabled him to finish the expedition?
A his strength of will B his physical preparation C his closeness to his family D his understanding of the desert
62. What put the expedition's success in jeopardy was____.
A. Charles Blackmore’s underestimating the danger level of the adventure
B. His destination was of the world's least hospitable deserts
C. Charles Blackmore mistook long- distance lorry drivers for camel handlers
D. Charles Blackmore’s mesmerizing account of their journey.


63. After 14 happy years in the army, before leaving it; Charles Blackmore launched the expedition with the purpose___.
A. to find something of exhilaration
B. to assert himself
C. to prove some meaning of his life
D. to fulfill some empty moments in his life
64. The word inferno in the passage is in the closest meaning to____.
A. heaven
B. bottomless pit
C. hell
D. overworld
65. By saying ‘We were buoyed up by the sense of purpose.’ Charles Blackmore implies that____.
A. They were saved from despair by their purpose B. They were rescued from drowning by the sense of purpose
C. They were defended by the sense of purpose
D. the sense of purpose is something for them to cling on to find something out of ordinary
Circle a letter A, B, C or D that best fits each numbered gap:
Oxford is a city with such a ____(66) reputation that many who come here find themselves intimidated by the
place and can’t wait to leave. While others, taking to it like a ____(67)to water. Find themselves return again and again,
the college lawns provide a gorgeous ____(68) to serious study, and in the light night, on a sunny winter’s morning says,
one feels as if one is ____(69) on air, such is the sense of unreality. Oxford may like to ____(70) that it is at the
intellectual ____(71) of things but in many ways , it is no more than a sleepy ____(72) where to mix metaphors,
transitory students, the ____(73) their generation, wait in the ____(74) allowing their talents to ____(75) before moving

off into the industrial or political ____(76). Much of this is a myth, of course. Hardship and hard work are very much part
and ____(77) of student life .The ____(78) get through the three years’ hard ____(79) by simply putting their shoulders
to the ____(80) before going on to fairly average jobs. Only for the tiny minority is Oxford the first step on the ladder to
fame and future.
66. A. mind- blowing
B. clearheaded
C. backhanded
D. broken- hearted
67. A. fish
B. duck
C. boat
D. swimmer
68. A. backdrop
B. curtain
C. scene
D. screen
69. A. flying
B. gliding
C. floating
D. swimming
70. A. pretend
B. act
C. resemble
D. produce
71. A. wheel
B. engine
C. spoke
D. hub
72. A. backwater
B. stream

C. tributary
D. watershed
73. A. from
B. cream
C. fat
D. caviar
74. A. pavilion
B. dressing- room
C. wings
D. foyer
75. A. flourish
B. open
C. spread
D. float
76. A. beak
B. abattoir
C. dead-end
D. fast-lane
77. A. package
B. section
C. province
D. parcel
78. A. level- headed
B. hot- headed
C. hot- blooded
D. kind-hearted
79. A. push
B. pull
C. grind
D. roughage

80. A. cart
B. wheel
C. engine
D. boat
----------------THE END--------------

SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC
ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG NĂM 2015
TRƯỜNG THPT LIỄN SƠN
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH - ĐỀ 236
(ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT)
Thời gian: 90 phút
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that has its underlined part pronounced
differently from the other three in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. apple
B. absent
C. applicant
D. any
Question 2: A. thread
B. breath
C. break
D. tread
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the
main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. colloquial
B. however
C. collision
D. fellowship
Question 4: A. deficiency
B. definite

C. delicacy
D. deference
Question 5: A. individual
B. extinction
C. opposition
D. universal
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 6: Since Elgin was fired from the university, he has been forced to work in the market to earn his ____.
A. wage
B. debt
C. livelihood
D. poverty
Question 7: Policemen are sometimes on ________ at night.
A. force
B. alert
C. cover
D. patrol
Question 8: We bought some ________. A. German lovely old glasses C. German old lovely glasses
B. lovely old German glasses
D. old lovely German glasses
Question 9: “How do you do?” – “________”
A. I’m very fine, thanks! B. With my brother.
C. Thanks to my mother! D. How do you do?
Question 10: The school principle____ that all students hand in their mobile phones to teachers during school hours.
A. strongly advised
B. urgently asked
C. firmly told
D. firmly insisted

Question 11: Tom doesn’t know much about computing ________ his brother is an expert at it.
A. however
B. whereas
C. therefore
D. in contrast
Question 12: This is the third time James ________ the volunteer program to the village.
A. joins
B. joined
C. has joined
D. has been joining
Question 13: Don’t ________ the kettle; it’s still hot.
A. touch
B. feel
C. look
D. taste
Question 14: “Well, I hope you enjoyed your meal.” – “________”
A. Oh, absolutely delicious. B. No problem. C. Yes, that’s very interesting. D. Yeah, that’s right.
Question 15: George won five medals at the competition. His parents ________ very proud of him.
A. can’t be
B. can’t have
C. must have been
D. could have been
Question 16: John hasn’t studied hard this year, so, in the last couple of months, he’s had to work ___ just to catch up.
A. vaguely
B. randomly
C. barely
D. intensely
Question 17: Deborah is going to take extra lessons to ___ what she missed when she was away.
A. catch up on
B. put up with

C. cut down on
D. take up with
Question 18: The baby does nothing but ________ all day.
A. to sleep and to eat B. to sleep and eat
C. sleep and eat
D. sleeping and eating
Question 19: “Excuse me! I’m looking for the library.” – “________”
A. Where’re your eyes? It’s in front of you. B. Look no further! C. Find it yourself. I’m busy. D. Oh, nice to meet you.
Question 20: The criminal knows the ________ of successful robberies.
A. trash and treasure B. part and parcel
C. ins and outs
D. close all
Question 21: “Do you have a minute, Dr. Keith?” – “________”
A. Sorry, I haven’t got it here. B. Well. I’m not sure when. C. Good, I hope so. D. Sure. What’s problem?
Question 22: She went to college to study history, but changed ________ and is now a doctor.
A. for a better
B. horses in midstream C. her tune
D. hands
Question 23: She had an ________ crisis when she was sixteen.
A. identity
B. image
C. inclination
D. implication
Question 24: You don’t have to worry. We still have ________ time.
A. plenty of
B. lot
C. little
D. a wide range of
Question 25: Do you feel I was too friendly ________ the applicants.
A. with

B. at
C. on
D. across
Question 26: “Follow me” ________ a very popular English teaching program on television in the 80s.
A. used to be
B. was used to
C. was used to being
D. used as
Question 27: I’m the only person here who went to state school, ________?
A. am I?
B. aren’t I
C. do I
D. didn’t I?
Question 28: “Goodbye, Susie!” – “________.”
A. So so
B. The same
C. So long
D. Yeah
Question 29: ________ is the money given by an organization to pay for someone’s studies.
A. scholarship
B. scholar
C. scholarly
D. school
Question 30: “You stepped on my toes!” – “________” A. Are you sure? It’s understandable C. I’m sorry but I meant it
B. Really? I’m glad
D. I’m terribly sorry. I didn’t mean it
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 31: I hope to have the privilege of working with them again.
A. honor

B. advantage
C. favor
D. right
Question 32: Everything was in a thorough mess.
A. utter
B. full
C. complete
D. appalling
Question 33: The service station at Shiel Bridge has a good range of groceries.
A. coach station
B. railway station
C. power station
D. petrol station
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs corrections in each of the
following questions.
34. The decrease of the infant mortality rate is the results of better health care services.
A. of
B. is
C. of better
D. services
35. All junk food, especially those sold at the canteen, should be avoided.
A. especially
B. those
C. at
D. should
36. I was sure that some players had taken the money, even though they all denied.
A. that
B. taken
C. though
D. denied

37. With tears in our eyes, we watched her train slowly depart the platform.
A. With
B. in
C. slowly
D. depart
38. Her family had great difficulty to get her transferred to another hospital.


A. difficulty
B. to get
C. transferred
D. another
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 39: His extravagant ideas were never brought to fruition.
A. impressive
B. exaggerated
C. unacceptable
D. practical
Question 40: This shouldn’t be too taxing for you.
A. comfortable
B. demanding
C. easy
D. relaxing
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word(s) for
each of the following blanks.
People’s personalities (46) ____ considerably from one another as there are no two alike. Our ingrained
characteristics which (47) ____ the patterns of our behavior, our reactions and temperaments are unparalleled on (48)
____ of the diversified processes that (49) ___ our personality in the earliest (50)____ of human development. Some
traits of character may, to some (51) ____, be hereditary stimulating the attributes that (52) ___ our parents. Others

may stem from the conditions experienced during pregnancy and infancy in this way reflecting the parents’ approach
towards (53) ___ their offspring. Consequently, the environmental factor (54) ___ a crucial role in strengthening or
eliminating behavioral systems making an individual more prone to comfort to the patterns that (55) ____ a prize.
Question 41: A. distinguish
B. coverage
C. differentiate
D. vary
Question 42: A. denote
B. resolve
C. inflict
D. determine
Question 43: A. account
B. means
C. token
D. event
Question 44: A. mould
B. design
C. conceive
D. fabricate
Question 45: A. states
B. instants
C. stages
D. terms
Question 46: A. scope
B. area
C. extent
D. length
Question 47: A. pertain
B. recognize
C. associate

D. identify
Question 48: A. breeding
B. rearing
C. growing
D. yielding
Question 49: A. makes
B. does
C. finds
D. plays
Question 50: A. yearn
B. deserve
C. wish
D. necessitate
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions.
One of the most important social developments that helped to make possible a shift in thinking about the role
of public education was the effect of the baby boom of the 1950's and 1960's on the schools. In the 1920's, but
especially in the Depression conditions of the 1930's, the United States experienced a declining birth rate – every
thousand women aged fifteen to forty-four gave birth to about 118 live children in 1920, 89.2 in 1930, 75.8 in 1936, and
80 in 1940. With the growing prosperity brought on by the Second World War and the economic boom that followed it,
young people married and established households earlier and began to raise larger families than had their predecessors
during the Depression. Birth rates rose to 102 per thousand in 1946, 106.2 in 1950, and 118 in 1955. Although
economics was probably the most important determinant, it is not the only explanation for the baby boom. The
increased value placed on the idea of the family also helps to explain this rise in birth rates. The baby boomers began
streaming into the first grade by the mid-1940's and became a flood by 1950. The public school system suddenly found
itself overtaxed. While the number of schoolchildren rose because of wartime and postwar conditions, these same
conditions made the schools even less prepared to cope with the flood. The wartime economy meant that few new
schools were built between 1940 and 1945. Moreover, during the war and in the boom times that followed large
numbers of teachers left their profession for better-paying jobs elsewhere in the economy.
Therefore, in the 1950's and 1960's, the baby boom hit an antiquated and inadequate school system.

Consequently, the "custodial rhetoric" of the 1930's and early 1940's no longer made sense; that is, keeping youths
aged sixteen and older out of the labor market by keeping them in school could no longer be a high priority for an
institution unable to find space and staff to teach younger children aged five to sixteen. With the baby boom, the focus
of educators and of laymen interested in education inevitably turned toward the lower grades and back to basic
academic skills and discipline. The system no longer had much interest in offering nontraditional, new, and extra
services to older youths.
Question 51: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The teaching profession during the baby boom B. Birth rates in the United States in the 1930's and 1940
C. The impact of the baby boom on public education D. The role of the family in the 1950's and 1960's
Question 52: The word "it" in line 8 refers to____.
A. 1950
B. economics
C. the baby boom
D. value
Question 53: The word "overtaxed" in line 13 is closest in meaning to____.
A. well prepared
B. heavily burdened
C. plentifully supplied D. charged too much
Question 54: The public school of the 1950's and 1960's faced all of the following problems EXCEPT____.
A. a declining number of students
C. a shortage of teachers
B. old-fashioned facilities
D. an inadequate number of school buildings


Question 55: According to the passage, why did teachers leave the teaching profession after the outbreak of the war?
A. They needed to be retrained.
B. They were dissatisfied with the curriculum.
C. Other jobs provided higher salaries.
D. Teaching positions were scarce.

Question 56: The word "inadequate" in line 17 is closest in meaning to____.
A. deficient
B. expanded
C. innovative
D. specialized
Question 57: The "custodial rhetoric" mentioned in line 18 refers to____.
A. raising a family
C. running an orderly house hold
B. keeping older individuals in school
D. maintaining discipline in the classroom
Question 58: The word "inevitably" in line 22 is closest in meaning to____.
A. unwillingly
B. impartially
C. irrationally
D. unavoidably
Question 59: Where in the passage does the author refer to the attitude of Americans toward raising a family in the
1950's and 1960's? A. Lines 1-2 B. Lines 9-10
C. Lines 17-18
D. Lines 20-21
Question 60: Which of the following best characterizes the organization of the passage?
A. The second paragraph presents the effect of circumstances described in the first paragraph.
B. The second paragraph provides a fictional account to illustrate a problem presented in the first paragraph.
C. The second paragraph argues against a point made in the first paragraph.
D. The second paragraph introduces a problem not mentioned in the first paragraph.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word(s) for
each of the following blanks.
Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods only in season. Drying, smoking,
and salting could preserve meat for a short time, but the availability of fresh meat, like that of fresh milk, was very
limited; there was no way to prevent spoilage. But in 1810, a French inventor named Nicolas Appert developed the
cooking-and-sealing process of canning. And in the 1850's an American named Gail Borden developed a means of

condensing and preserving milk. Canned goods and condensed milk became more common during the 1860's, but
supplies remained low because cans had to be made by hand. By 1880, however, inventors had fashioned stamping and
soldering machines that mass-produced cans from tinplate. Suddenly all kinds of food could be preserved and bought at
all times of the year.
Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to vary their daily diets. Growing
urban populations created demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable farmers to raise more produce. Railroad
refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers to ship perishables great distances and to preserve them for longer
periods. Thus, by the 1890's, northern city dwellers could enjoy southern and western strawberries, grapes, and
tomatoes, previously available for a month at most, for up to six months of the year. In addition, increased use of
iceboxes enabled families to store perishables. An easy means of producing ice commercially had been invented in the
1870's, and by 1900 the nation had more than two thousand commercial ice plants, most of which made home
deliveries. The icebox became a fixture in most homes and remained so until the mechanized refrigerator replaced it in
the 1920's and 1930's. Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to eat mainly foods
that were heavy in starches or carbohydrates, and not everyone could afford meat. Nevertheless, many families could
take advantage of previously unavailable fruits, vegetables, and dairy products to achieve more varied fare.
Question 61: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Causes of food spoilage
C. Inventions that led to changes in the American diet
B. Commercial production of ice
D. Population movements in the nineteenth century.
Question 62: The phrase "in season" in line 1 refers to____.
A. a kind of weather
B. a particular time of year C. an official schedule D. a method of flavoring food
Question 63: The word "prevent" in line 3 is closest in meaning to____.
A. estimate
B. avoid
C. correct
D. confined
Question 64: During the 1860's, canned food products were____.
A. unavailable in rural areas

C. available in limited quantities
B. shipped in refrigerator cars
D. a staple part of the American diet
Question 65: It can be inferred that railroad refrigerator cars came into use____.
A. before 1860
B. before 1890
C. after 1900
D. after 1920
Question 66: The word "them" in line 13 refers to____.
A. refrigerator cars
B. perishables
C. growers
D. distances
Question 67: The author implies that in the 1920's and 1930's home deliveries of ice____.
A. decreased in number
C. increased in cost
B. were on an irregular schedule
D. occurred only in the summer.
Question 68: The word "Nevertheless" in line 24 is closest in meaning to____.
A. therefore
B. before
C. occasionally
D. however
Question 69: Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Drying
B. Canning
C. Cold storage
D. Chemical additives

Question 70: Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?
A. Tin cans and iceboxes helped to make many foods more widely available.
B. Commercial ice factories were developed by railroad owners.
C. Most farmers in the United States raised only fruits and vegetables.
D. People who lived in cities demanded home delivery of foods.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to the original
sentence.
Question 71: Sam speaks Chinese well and his Japanese is good, too.
A. Sam is good at either Chinese or Japanese. B. Not only Chinese but also Japanese Sam is good at.
C. Not only does Sam speak Chinese but also Japanese.
D. Sam not only speaks Chinese well but also is good at Japanese.
Question 72: It’s a bad line. Do you want me to give you a ring later?
A. Can I call you later?
B. I would like to give you a ring as a present.
C. Would you like to become my wife? D. Can I give the ring back to you later?
Question 73: Had she read the reference books, she would have been able to finish the test.
A. If she had read the reference books, she could finish the test.
B. Not having read the reference books, she couldn’t finish the test.
C. Although she didn’t read the reference books, she was able to finish the test.
D. Because she read the reference books, she was able to finish the test.
Question 74: Housewives do not have to spend a lot of time doing housework any more.
A. Housework will never be done by housewives any more.
B. Housewives have to spend more and more time to do housework.
C. Never have housewives spent as much time doing housework as they do now.
D. No longer do housewives have to spend a lot of time doing housework.
Question 75: They would be a bit happier with more guests.
A. If more guests came, they would feel happier.
B. More guests made them happy.
C. They were sad because no one came.
D. They made their guests a bit happier.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made up from the given words.
Question 76: remember / lock / door / go out.
A. You remember to lock the door before you go out. B. Remember locking the door before going out.
C. Remember to lock the door before going out.
D. Remember to lock the door before you going out.
Question 77: this class / twice/ girls / boys / there.
A. In this class, there are twice more girls than boys. B. In this class, girls are twice more than boys.
C. In this class, there are twice as many girls as boys. D. In this class, there are twice as much girls as boys.
Question 78: like / sit / next / he / whenever / window / plane / he.
A. He likes sitting next to the window whenever he is on the plane.
B. He likes to sit next to the window whenever he is on the plane.
C. He likes sit next to the window whenever he is on the plane.
D. He likes to sit next to the window whenever he is out the plane.
Question 79: party / be / much / interest / than / I expect.
A. The party was much more interesting than I expect. B. The party was much more interesting than I had expected.
C. The party was much interesting than I had expected. D. The party was much more interested than I had expected.
Question 80: It / be / big decision / choose / university.
A. It is big decision to choose a university.
B. It is a big decision of choosing the university.
C. It is a big decision to choose a university.
D. It is a big decision in choosing a university.
--------------------THE END----------------

SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC
ĐỀ THI THỬ THQG NĂM 2015
TRƯỜNG THPT LIỄN SƠN
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH - ĐỀ 238
(ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT)
Thời gian: 90 phút
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined

word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 1: Many scientists agree that global warming poses great threats to all species on Earth.
A. annoyances
B. risks
C. irritations
D. fears
Question 2: The works of such men as the English philosophers John Locke and Thomas Hobbes helped pave the way for
academic freedom in the modern sense.
A. initiate
B. lighten
C. terminate
D. prevent
Question 3: E-cash cards are the main means of all transactions in a cashless society.
A. cash-free
B. cash-starved
C. cash-strapped
D. cash-in-hand
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.


Question 4: A. hesitation
B. economics
C. calculation
D. curriculum
Question 5: A. constructive
B. national
C. essential
D. commercial
Question 6: A. cancel

B. remove
C. copy
D. notice
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: Population growth rates vary among regions and even among countries within the same region.
A. fluctuate
B. stay unchanged
C. restrain
D. remain unstable
Question 8: In some countries, the disease burden could be prevented through environmental improvements.
A. something to suffer B. something sad
C. something to entertain
D. something enjoyable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 9: A. invent
B. tennis
C. medicine
D. species
Question 10: A. particular
B. superstar
C. part
D. harvest
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the sentence
given in each of the following questions.
Question 11: “I would be grateful if you could send me further details of the job,” he said to me
A. He politely asked me to send him further details of the job.
B. He thanked me for sending him further details of the job.
C. He flattered me because I sent him further details of the job.

D. He felt great because further details of the job had been sent to him.
Question 12: “Why don’t we wear sunglasses?” our grandpa would say when we went out on bright sunny days.
A. Our grandpa asked us why we did not wear sunglasses when going out on bright sunny days.
B. Our grandpa reminded ous of going out with sunglasses on bright sunny days.
C. Our grandpa would warn us against wearing sunglasses on bright sunny days.
D. Our grandpa used to suggest wearing sunglasses when we went out on bright sunny days.
Question 13: David was narrowly defeated and blew his own chance of becoming a champion.
A. But for his title as the former champion, David would not have defeated his rivals.
B. As a result of his narrow defeat, David did not win the championship.
C. Losing the championship came as a terrible blow to David.
D. In spite of the narrow defeat, David won the championship.
Question 14: People say that Mr. Goldman gave nearly a million pounds to charity last year.
A. Nearly a million pounds was said to have been given to charity by Mr. Goldman last year.
B. Mr. Goldman was said to have given nearly a million pounds to charity last year.
C. Mr. Goldman is said to have given nearly a million pounds to charity last year.
D. Nearly a million pounds is said to be given to charity by Mr. Goldman last year.
Question 15: I am sure he did not know that his brother graduated with flying colors.
A. He cannot have known that his brother graduated with very high marks.
B. He may not know that his brother is flying gradually up in a colorful balloon.
C. That his brother graduated with flying colors must have been appreciated by him.
D. He should not have been envious of his brother’s achievement.
Question 16: If you had stuck to what we originally agreed on, everything would have been fine.
A. If you had not kept to what was originally agreed on, everything would have been fine.
B. As you fulfilled the original contract, things went wrong.
C. Things went wrong because you violated our original agreement.
D. If you had changed our original agreement, everything would have been fine.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that
best fits each of the numbered blanks from 17 to 26.
In “Cerealizing America”, Scott Bruce and Bill Crawford remark that the cereal industry uses 816 million pounds
of sugar per year. Americans buy 2.7 billion packages of breakfast cereal each year. If (17)___ end to end, the empty

cereal boxes from one year’s consumption would (18) ___ to the moon and back. One point three (1.3) million
advertisements for cereal are broadcast on American television every year at a(n) (19) ___ of $762 million for airtime.
Only automobile manufacturers spend more money on television advertising than the makers of breakfast cereal. (20)
___ of the boxed cereals found in supermarkets contain large amounts of sugar and some contain more than 50% sugar.
Cereal manufacturers are very clever in their marketing, making many cereals appear much healthier than they really
are by “fortifying” them with vitamins and minerals. Oh, (21) ___ - you now have vitamin-fortified sugar! Before you eat
any cereal, read the ingredient list and see how (22) ___ sugar appears on the ingredient list. Then check the “Nutrition
facts” panel. There are actually only a small handful of national commercially-branded cereals that are made (23) ___
whole grains and are sugar-free. If you shop at a health food store instead of your local supermarket, you (24) ___ to
find a healthy, whole grain, sugar-free (or very low sugar) cereal. But (25) ___! Some of the health food store boxed


cereals are sweetened with fruit juice or fructose. Although this may be an improvement (26) ______ refined white
sugar, this can really skyrocket the calories.
(From “Foods That Burn Fat, Foods That Turn to Fat” by Tom Ventulo)
Question 17: A. to lay
B. laying
C. lay
D. laid
Question 18: A. reach
B. prolong
C. stretch
D. contact
Question 19: A. charge
B. everage
C. cost
D. expense
Question 20: A. Most
B. Mostly
C. Almost

D. Furthermost
Question 21: A. charming
B. lovely
C. gorgeous
D. beautiful
Question 22: A. tall
B. large
C. high
D. many
Question 23: A. by
B. from
C. at
D. in
Question 24: A. are more likelier
B. are much more likely C. would be able
D. could more or less
Question 25: A. see through
B. keep alert
C. watch out
D. look up
Question 26: A. at
B. from
C. with
D. on
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 27 to 36.
New surveys suggest that the technological tools we use to make our lives easier are killing our leisure time. We
are working longer hours, taking fewer and shorter vacations (and when we do go away, we take our cell phones, PDAs,
and laptops along). And, we are more stressed than ever as increased use of e-mail, voice mail, cell phones, and the
Internet is destroying any idea of privacy and leisure.

Since the Industrial Revolution, people have assumed that new labor-saving devices would free them from the
burdens of the workplace and give them more time to grow intellectually, creatively, and socially – exploring the arts,
keeping up with current events, spending more time with friends and family, and even just ‘goofing off’.
But here we are at the start of the 21st century, enjoying one of the greatest technological boom times in
human history, and nothing could be further from the truth. The very tools that were supposed to liberate us have
bound us to our work and study in ways that were inconceivable just a few years ago. It would seem that technology
almost never does what we expect.
In ‘the old days’, the lines between work and leisure time were markedly clearer. People left their offices at a
predictable time, were often completely disconnected from and out of touch with their jobs as they traveled to and
from work, and were off-duty once they were home. That is no longer true. In today’s highly competitive job market,
employers demand increased productivity, expecting workers to put in longer hours and to keep in touch almost
constantly via fax, cell phones, e-mail, or other communications devices. As a result, employees feel the need to check
in on what is going on at the office, even on days off. They feel pressured to work after hours just to catch up on
everything they have to do. Workers work harder and longer, change their work tasks more frequently, and have more
and more reasons to worry about job security.
Bosses, colleagues, family members, lovers, and friends expect instant responses to voice mail and e-mail
messages. Even college students have become bound to their desks by an environment in which faculty, friends, and
other members of the college community increasingly do their work online. Studies of time spent on instant messaging
services would probably show staggering use.
This is not what technology was supposed to be doing for us. New technologies, from genetic research to the
Internet, offer all sorts of benefits and opportunities. But, when new tools make life more difficult and stressful rather
than easier and more meaningful – and we are, as a society, barely conscious of it – then something has gone seriously
awry, both with our expectations for technology and our understanding of how it should benefit us.
From “Summit 1” by Joan Saslow & Allen Ascher
Question 27: According to the first three paragraphs, technological tools that were designed to make our lives
easier______. A. have brought us complete happiness
B. have fully met our expectations
C. have not interfered with our privacy
D. have turned out to do us more harm than good
Question 28: Which of the following is NOT true about technological tools, according to new surveys?

A. They make our life more stressful.
B. They bring more leisure to our life.
C. They are used even during vacations.
D. They are being increasingly used.
Question 29: Which of the following is true, according to the passage?
A. People have more opportunities to get access to technological applications.
B. Employees were supposed to make technology do what they expected.
C. People now enjoy greater freedom thanks to the technological boom.
D. Students used to have to study more about technological advances.
Question 30: The word “inconceivable” in the passage is closest in meaning to”______”.
A. unforgettable
B. unimaginable
C. predictable
D. foreseeable
Question 31: With the phrase “at a predictable time”, the author implies that______.
A. people had to predict the time they were allowed to leave offices
B. people wanted to be completely disconnected from their work
C. people were unable to foresee their working hours D. people used to have more time and privacy after work


Question 32: It can be inferred from the fourth paragraph that______.
A. it is compulsory that employees go to the office, even on days off
B. employees have more freedom to decide what time they start and finish work
C. employers are more demanding and have efficient means to monitor employees
D. life is more relaxing with cell phones and other technological devices
Question 33: The word “They” in the fourth paragraph refers to______.
A. employers
B. employees
C. workers
D. tasks

Question 34: Which of the following could be the main idea of the fifth paragraph?
A. New technological applications are wise entertainment choices of our modern time.
B. The coming of new technological advances has spoiled family and social relationships.
C. New technological advances have added more stress to daily life.
D. New technological advances have reduced work performance.
Question 35: This passage has probably been taken from______.
A. a science review
B. a political journal
C. an advertisement
D. a fashion magazine
Question 36: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Expectations and Plain Reality
B. Benefits of Technology
C. Research on the Roles of Computers
D. Changes at the Workplace
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in each of the following questions.
Question 37: We all agree that she is _____ student in our class.
A. the cleverest
B. a more clever
C. cleverest
D. most clever
Question 38: Standing on the tip of the cape, _____.
A. people have seen a lighthouse far away
B. a lighthouse can see from the distance
C. we can see the lighthouse in the distance
D. lies a lighthouse in the middle of the sea
Question 39: The boat was sailing north when a terrible storm _____.
A. broke
B. would break
C. had broken

D. was breaking
Question 40: _____ John Kennedy was elected president, he was the youngest American President ever.
A. Before
B. As long as
C. When
D. While
Question 41: Only one of our gifted students _____ to participate in the final competition.
A. has been chosen
B. have been chosen C. were choosing
D. chosen
Question 42: The pool should not be made so deep _____ small children can be safe there.
A. so as to
B. though
C. if
D. so that
Question 43: I am sorry I have no time at present to _____ detail of our plan.
A. bring in
B. come in
C. take into
D. go into
Question 44: Tom: “_____” Mike: “I won’t say no!”
A. Mike, do you know where the scissors are? C. What about playing badminton this afternoon?
B. How are things with you, Mike?
D. What’s your favourite, tea or coffee?
Question 45: As a millionaire who liked to show off her wealth, Mrs. Smith paid _____ we asked.
A . four time much as B. four time much than C. four times as much as D. four time as many as
Question 46: The Lake District, _____ was made a national park in 1951, attracts a large number of tourists every year.
A. that
B. what
C. where

D. which
Question 47: He _____ us but he was short of money at that time.
A. might help
B. would help
C. can help
D. could have helped
Question 48: Michael looked deeply hurt and surprised when _____.
A. scolding
B. scolded
C. having scolded
D. to scold
Question 49: The packages ______ so that it would be easier to carry them.
A. are tied altogether B. are tied in a bundle C. were tied together D. were tied in a knot
Question 50: In spite of her abilities, Laura has been _____ overlooked for promotion.
A. repetitive
B. repeatedly
C. repetition
D. repeat
Question 51: The examination was not very difficult , but it was _____ long.
A. too much
B. so much
C. much too
D. very much
Question 52: She asked me ______ I was looking at.
A. if
B. what
C. when
D. why
Question 53: Education in many countries is compulsory _____ the age of 16.
A. for

B. forwards
C. until
D. when
Question 54: We must push the piano to the corner of the hall to _____ our party tonight.
A. give place to
B. make room for
C. take up room to
D. make place for
Question 55: Stephanie: “Oh, no! I left my book at home. Can I share yours?”
Scott:”_____”
A. No, thanks.
B. Yes, I do too
C. No, not at all!
D. Yes, sure!
Question 56: There has been a great increase in retail sales, _____?


A. isn’t it
B. isn’t there
C. doesn’t it
D. hasn’t there
Question 57: Long ago, women were _____ to vote in political elections.
A. prevented
B. banned
C. forbidden
D. stopped
Question 58: Regular exercise and good diet will bring _____ fitness and health.
A. about
B. from
C. to

D. up
Question 59: _____ his brother, Mike is active and friendly.
A. Dislike
B. Liking
C. Alike
D. Unlike
Question 60: ___one of the most beautiful forms of performance art, ballet is a combination of dance and mime
performed to music. A. Considered
B. Being considering C. Considering
D. To consider
Question 61:_____ has been a topic of continual geological research.
A. If the continents formed
B. The continents formed
C. how the continents were formed
D. How did the continents form
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 62: When precipitation occurs, some of it evaporates, some run off the surface it strikes, and some sinking in
to the ground. A
B
C
D
Question 63: A warming printed on a makeshift lifebuoy says: ”This is not a life-saving device. Children should be
accompany by their parents.”
A
B CD
Question 64: Of all the art-related reference and research library in North American, that of the Meltropolitan Museum
of Art in New York city is among the largest and most complete. A
B C D
Question 65: Different fourteen crops were grown 8,600 years ago by some of the world’s earliest farmer.

A
B
C
D
Question 66: Globally and internationally, the 1990’s stood out as the warmest decade in the history of weather
records.
A
B
C
D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 67 to 76.
Very few people, groups, or governments oppose globalization in its entirety. Instead, critics of globalization
believe aspects of the way globalization operates should be changed. The debate over globalization is about what the
best rules are for governing the global economy so that its advantages can grow while its problems can be solved.
On one side of this debate are those who stress the benefits of removing barriers to international trade and
investment, allowing capital to be allocated more efficiently and giving consumers greater freedom of choice. With freemarket globalization, investment funds can move unimpeded from the rich countries to the developing countries.
Consumers can benefit from cheaper products because reduced taxes make goods produced at low cost from faraway
places cheaper to buy. Producers of goods gain by selling to a wider market. More competition keeps sellers on their
toes and allows ideas and new technology to spread and benefit others.
On the other side of the debate are critics who see neo-liberal policies as producing greater poverty, inequality,
social conflict, cultural destruction, and environmental damage. They say that the most developed nations – the United
States, Germany, and Japan – succeeded not because of free trade but because of protectionism and subsidies. They
argue that the more recently successful economies of South Korea, Taiwan, and China all had strong state-led
development strategies that did not follow neo-liberalism. These critics think that government encouragement of
“infantindustries” – that is, industries that are just beginning to develop – enables a country to become internationally
competitive.
Furthermore, those who criticize the Washington Consensus suggest that the inflow and outflow of money from
speculative investors must be limited to prevent bubbles. These bubbles are characterized by the rapid inflow of foreign
funds that bid up domestic stock markets and property values. When the economy cannot sustain such expectation, the

bubbles burst as investors panic and pull their money out of the country.
Protests by what is called the anti-globalization movement are seldom directed against globalization itself but
rather against abuses that harm the rights of workers and the environment. The question raised by nongovernmental
organizations and protesters at WTO and IMF gatherings is whether globalization will result in a rise of living standards
or a race to the bottom as competition takes the form of lowering living standards and undermining environmental
regulations.
One of the key problems of the 21st century will be determining to what extent markets should be regulated to
promote fair competition, honest dealing, and fair distribution of public goods on a global scale.
From “Globalization” by Tabb, William K., Microsoft ® Student 2009 [DVD]
Question 67: It is stated in the passage that ______.
A. the protests of globalization are directed against globalization itself
B. the United States, Germany, and Japan succeeded in helping infant industries
C. suppoters of globalization stress the benefits of removing trade barriers


D. critics of globalization say that the successful economies are all in Asia
Question 68: Supporters of free-market globalization point out that ______.
A. consumers can benefit from cheaper products
B.there will be less competition among producers
C. taxes that are paid on goods will be increased
D. investment will be allocated only to rich countries
Question 69: The word “allocated” in the passage mostly means “_____”.
A. removed
B. solved
C. offered
D. distributed
Question 70: The phrase “keeps sellers on their toes” in the passage mostly means “_____”.
A. makes sellers responsive to any changes
B. allows sellers to stand on their own feet
C. forces sellers to go bare-footed

D. prevents sellers from selling new products
Question 71: According to critics of globalization, several developed countries have become rich because of ____.
A. their neo-liberal policies
B. their help to developing countries
C. their prevention of bubbles
D. their protectionism and subsidies
Question 72: The word “undermining” in the passage mostly means “_____”.
A. observing
B. making more effective
C. making less effective
D. obeying
Question 73: Infant industries mentioned in the passage are _____.
A. successful economies
B. young companies
C. development strategies
D. young industries
Question 74: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Critics believe the way globalization operates should be changed.
B. The anti-globalization movement was set up to end globalization.
C. Some Asian countries had strong state-led economic strategies.
D. Hardly anyone disapproves of globalization in its entirety.
Question 75: The debate over globalization is about how_____.
A. to use neo-liberal policies for the benefit of the rich countries C. to spread ideas and strategies for globalization
B. to govern the global economy for the benefit of the community D. to terminate globalization in its entirely
Question 76: The author seems to be _____ globalization that helps promote economy and raise living standards
globally. A. supportive of
B. indifferent to
C. pessimistic about
D. opposed to
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best joins each of the following pairs

of sentences in each of the following questions.
Question 77: We spend about one-third of our lives sleeping. We know relatively little about sleep.
A. We know relatively little about sleep; as a result, we spend about one-third of our lives sleeping.
B. Despite spending about one-third of our lives sleeping, we know relatively little about sleep.
C. We shall know more about sleep if we spend more than one-third of our lives sleeping.
D. We spend about one-third of our lives sleeping so that we know relatively little about sleep.
Question 78: He was successful because he was determined to pursue personal goals. He was not talented.
A. His determination to pursue personal goals made him successful and talented.
B. It was his determination to pursue personal goals, not talent, that contributed to his success.
C. His success lay in his natural ability, not in his determination to pursue personal goals.
D. In addition to his determination, his talent ensured his success in pursuing his goals.
Question 79 : Overeating is a cause of several deadly diseases. Physical inactivity is another cause of several deadly
diseases. A. Both overeating and physical inactivity result from several deadly diseases.
B. Apart from physical activities, eating too much also contributes to several deadly diseases.
C. Not only overeating but also physical inactivity may lead to several deadly diseases.
D. Overeating and physical inactivity are caused by several deadly diseases.
Question 80: I did not arrive in time. I was not able to see her off.
A. I did not go there, so I could not see her off B. She had left because I was not on time
C. I arrived very late to say goodbye to her
D. I was not early enough to see her off.
----------------THE END------------------