Physics section test (11)

MCAT Section Tests
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Physical Sciences
Test 6

Time: 60 Minutes
Number of Questions: 45


MCAT

PHYSICAL SCIENCES
DIRECTIONS: Most of the questions in the following
Physical Sciences test are organized into groups, with
a descriptive passage preceding each group of
questions. Study the passage, then select the single best
answer to each question in the group. Some of the
questions are not based on a descriptive passage; you
must also select the best answer to these questions. If
you are unsure of the best answer, eliminate the
choices that you know are incorrect, then select an
answer from the choices that remain. Indicate your
selection by blackening the corresponding circle on
your answer sheet. A periodic table is provided below
for your use with the questions.
PERIODIC TABLE OF THE ELEMENTS
1
H
1.0

2
He

4.0

3
Li
6.9

4
Be
9.0

5
B
10.8

6
C
12.0

7
N
14.0

8
O
16.0

9
F
19.0

10
Ne
20.2

11
Na
23.0

12
Mg
24.3

13
Al
27.0

14
Si
28.1

15
P
31.0

16
S
32.1

17
Cl

35.5

18
Ar
39.9

19
K
39.1

20
Ca
40.1

21
Sc
45.0

22
Ti
47.9

23
V
50.9

24
Cr
52.0

25
Mn
54.9

26
Fe
55.8

27
Co
58.9

28
Ni
58.7

29
Cu
63.5

30
Zn
65.4

31
Ga
69.7

32
Ge

72.6

33
As
74.9

34
Se
79.0

35
Br
79.9

36
Kr
83.8

37
Rb
85.5

38
Sr
87.6

39
Y
88.9

40
Zr
91.2

41
Nb
92.9

42
Mo
95.9

43
Tc
(98)

44
Ru
101.1

45
Rh
102.9

46
Pd
106.4

47
Ag

107.9

48
Cd
112.4

49
In
114.8

50
Sn
118.7

51
Sb
121.8

52
Te
127.6

53
I
126.9

54
Xe
131.3

55
Cs
132.9

56
Ba
137.3

57
La *
138.9

72
Hf
178.5

73
Ta
180.9

74
W
183.9

75
Re
186.2

76
Os

190.2

77
Ir
192.2

78
Pt
195.1

79
Au
197.0

80
Hg
200.6

81
Tl
204.4

82
Pb
207.2

83
Bi
209.0

84
Po
(209)

85
At
(210)

86
Rn
(222)

87
88
Fr
Ra
(223) 226.0

89
Ac †
227.0

104
Rf
(261)

105
Ha
(262)

106
Unh
(263)

107
Uns
(262)

108
Uno
(265)

109
Une
(267)

*

58
Ce
140.1

59
Pr
140.9

60
Nd
144.2

61
Pm
(145)

62
Sm
150.4

63
Eu
152.0

64
Gd
157.3

65
Tb
158.9

66
Dy
162.5

67
Ho
164.9

68
Er

167.3

69
Tm
168.9

70
Yb
173.0

71
Lu
175.0

†

90
Th
232.0

91
Pa
(231)

92
U
238.0

93
Np

(237)

94
Pu
(244)

95
Am
(243)

96
Cm
(247)

97
Bk
(247)

98
Cf
(251)

99
Es
(252)

100
Fm
(257)

101
Md
(258)

102
No
(259)

103
Lr
(260)

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2

as developed by


Physical Sciences 6
1.

Passage I (Questions 1–7)
Black and white photographic film is essentially an
emulsion of silver bromide and gelatin mounted onto a
plastic backing bonded to an antihalation to prevent internal
reflection. When light strikes film through a camera lens,
the silver bromide is activated. The amount of silver
bromide that becomes activated is directly proportional to
the intensity of the light hitting the film.

The exposed film can then be developed by reaction
with the mild reducing agent hydroquinone. The silver in
the activated silver bromide reacts preferentially with the
hydroquinone to produce metallic silver and quinone by the
following reaction:

2 AgBr

*

+

A.
B.
C.
D.

2.

(aq)

2 Ag( s )
+ 2 HBr( aq) +

2.0 moles Ag(s)
1.0 mole Ag(s)
0.50 moles Ag(s)
0.25 moles Ag(s)

The half-reaction that shows the oxidation in Reaction

1 is:
A. Hydroquinone(aq) ? quinone(aq) + 2H+(aq) +
2e–
B. Ag+(aq) + e– ? Ag(s)
C. Quinone(aq)
+
2H+(aq)
+
2e–
?
hydroquinone(aq)
D. Ag(s) ? Ag+ (aq) + e–

O

OH

How many moles of metallic silver are deposited on
the film if 1.0 mole of AgBr is reacted with 0.25 moles
of hydroquinone in Reaction 1?

(aq)

O

OH

3.
Reaction 1

A. completely white because metallic silver would be
deposited over the entire surface of the film.
B. completely white because the unactivated silver
bromide would still be on the film.
C. completely black because the unactivated silver
bromide would bond with the hydroquinone.
D. completely black because the unactivated silver
bromide would be reduced to metallic silver.

The black metallic silver settles on the backing of the
film. The film is then treated with a fixer to stop the
reduction. The fixer is usually a solution of sodium
thiosulfate (Na2S2O3) which removes the unreacted
crystals of silver bromide from the film by ion-exchange
solvation.
This developing process produces a negative, which
has the black and white areas of the photograph reversed.
To get a positive print, the developer must shine light
through the negative onto a piece of photographic paper.
Photographic paper uses a similar silver bromide emulsion
as that laminated onto film; however, in the case of
photographic paper, the emulsion is spread onto
polyethylene-coated paper rather than plastic.

A negative not treated with a fixer solution during
development would appear:

4.

In the reaction between silver bromide and the sodium

thiosulfate fixer solution,
AgBr(s) + 2 S2O32–(aq) ? Ag(S2O3)23–(aq) + Br–(aq)
What is the change in the oxidation state of Ag?
A.
B.
C.
D.

it increases from +1 to +3
it increases from +1 to +2
no change: it remains +1
it decreases from +1 to –3

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

KAPLAN

3


MCAT
5.

In the formation of a silver halide, the halide attracts a
valence electron from silver. Which halide has the
strongest affinity for such a valence electron?
A.
B.
C.
D.

6.

A photographic print shows a white ball and a gray ball
on a black background. The greatest concentration of
activated silver halide on the undeveloped film was on:
A.
B.
C.
D.

7.

F
Cl
Br
I

the background.
the gray ball.
the white ball.
the boundary between the white ball and the
background.

What is the molar solubility of AgBr in a 0.10 M
solution of AgNO3? (Ksp AgBr = 5.0 ∞ 10–13)
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.10 mole/liter
1.0 ∞ 10–11 mole/liter
5.0 ∞ 10–12 mole/liter
5.0 ∞ 10–13 mole/liter

Passage II (Questions 8–12)
A simple model of the nucleus of an atom is a ball of
no protons and no neutrons. We call protons and neutrons
nucleons, because they are the constituents of the nucleus.
Einstein’s mass-energy equation defines the rest energy of a
nucleon, E:
E = mc2
where m is the mass of the nucleon and c is the speed of
light in a vacuum, 3 ∞ 108 m/s. This equation unifies
matter and energy, indicating that they are really the same
thing.
There are forces within the nucleus which must be
considered when calculating its mass and energy. The
repulsive electrostatic force between protons tends to break
apart the nucleus. But the strong nuclear force, a short
range but powerful force, holds the nucleus together despite
the electrostatic force. Because there is a negative potential
energy associated with this strong nuclear force, two or
more nucleons bound together in a nucleus have less energy
than they have separately. The nuclear binding energy is the
difference between the rest energy of the nucleus and the
sum of the rest energies of its constituent nucleons. It is the
amount of energy that must be supplied to the nucleus to
break it into separate neutrons and protons. The nuclear

binding energy associated with a nucleon in a nucleus is, in
general, much larger than the atomic binding energy
associated with an electron in an atom.
The nuclear binding energy has a mass associated with
it, called the mass defect, ∆m, which is the difference
between the sum of the masses of the constituent nucleons
of a nucleus and its actual, measured mass. The binding
energy of a nucleus and its mass defect are related by E =
∆mc2. The following graph shows how the binding energy
per nucleon, varies with mass number. (Note: A photon’s
energy is given by E = hc/λ, where h = 6.6 ∞ 10–34 J•s is
Planck’s constant, c = 3 ∞ 108 m/s is the speed of light in a
vacuum, and λ is the wavelength.)

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4

as developed by


Physical Sciences 6
10. Which of the following best explains the decreasing
trend in binding energy per nucleon for heavy elements
as the mass number, A, increases?
A. Nucleons in larger nuclei experience stronger
strong nuclear forces because of the increased
distances between them.
B. Nucleons in larger nuclei experience stronger
electrostatic forces because of their larger size.

C. Nucleons in larger nuclei experience weaker
strong nuclear forces because of their larger size.
D. Nucleons in larger nuclei experience weaker
electrostatic forces because of the greater total
charge.
Figure 1
8.

Which of the following is equal to the mass defect of
A
the nucleus Z X ? (Note: mp and mn are the masses of a
proton and a neutron respectively. M is the actual
A
measured mass of the Z X nucleus.)
A.
B.
C.
D.

9.

(Zmp + (A–Z)mn) – M
(Zmn – M) + (Zmp + (A – Z)mn)
Amn – M
(Amn – M) + Zmp

In beta decay, the parent nucleus decays into the
daughter nucleus and emits an electron. What is the
mass condition for beta decay to occur?
A. The mass defect of the daughter nucleus must be

less than the mass defect of the parent nucleus.
B. The combined masses of the parent nucleus and an
electron must be greater than the mass of the
daughter nucleus.
C. The mass of the parent nucleus must be greater
than the combined masses of an electron and the
daughter nucleus.
D. The mass of the daughter nucleus must be less
than the sum of the masses of its constituent
nucleons.

11. Which of the following nuclear reactions releases the
most energy, according to the information given in the
graph?
A.
B.
C.
D.

13
6C
15
7N
6
3Li
2
1H

1

+ 1H ?
1

+ 1H ?
2

+ 1H ?
1

+ 1H ?

14
7N
12
4
6C + 2 He
4
2 2 He
3
2 He

12. A nucleus undergoes gamma decay and emits a photon
of wavelength λ = 3.86 ∞ 10–12 m. What is the
difference between the initial rest mass of the nucleus
and its final rest mass? (Note: Neglect the recoil energy
of the nucleus.)
A.
B.
C.
D.

–4.2 ∞ 10–39 kg
–1.9 ∞ 10–31 kg
5.7 ∞ 10–31 kg
4.2 ∞ 10–39 kg

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KAPLAN

5


MCAT
Table 1

Passage III (Questions 13–18)
Half-reaction
Corrosion is an electrochemical phenomenon that
results in the degradation of metals. For example, when
iron is exposed to oxygen and water for prolonged periods,
corrosion occurs, and hydrated iron oxide (rust) forms on
its surface. The porous rust layer eventually flakes off and
exposes the underlying metal to further corrosion.
The half-reactions that are thought to take place are:
Fe2+(aq) + 2e– ? Fe(s)
O2 + 4H+(aq) + 4e– ? 2H2O(l)

Al3+(aq)
Zn2+(aq)

Ni2+(aq)
Sn2+(aq)
Pd2+(aq)

+

2e–

E°(V)

? Mg(s)

–2.37

+

3e–

? Al(s)

–1.66

+

2e–

? Zn(s)

–0.76

+

2e–

? Ni(s)

–0.26

+

2e–

? Sn(s)

–0.14

+

2e–

? Pd(s)

+0.99

E° = –0.44 V
E° = 1.23 V

The overall reaction is given by:

13. In Table 1 which metal would make the best sacrificial

anode for protecting iron from corrosion?

2Fe(s) + O2(g) + 4H+(aq) ?
2Fe2+(aq) + 2H2O(l)

Mg2+(aq)

E° = 1.67 V

Reaction 1
The Fe2+ ions formed at the anode are further oxidized
by the +3 state to form rust:
4Fe2+(aq) + O2(g) + (4 + 2x)H2O(l) ?
2Fe2O3•xH2O(s) + 8H+(aq)
Reaction 2
Metals can be protected from corrosion in a number
of ways. One way is to use a protective coating such as
paint or plastic; however, such a coating can fracture and
expose a fresh iron surface to the atmosphere. A better way
to guard against corrosion involves the use of a sacrificial
anode, which is a metal that is more easily oxidized than the
metal being protected. A sacrificial metal placed in contact
with iron, for instance, will be preferentially oxidized.
Table 1 shows a number of metals that could be used as
sacrificial anodes for other metals.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Magnesium
Tin
Zinc
Palladium

14. Which of the following does NOT increase the rate of
corrosion?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Dissolved CO2 gas
Air pollution
Salt water
Nitrogen gas

15. Based on the information in the passage, where is rust
deposited?
A. On the exposed metal surface of the cathode
B. On the exposed metal surface of the anode
C. In the unexposed cathodic regions of the iron
matrix
D. In the unexposed anodic regions of the iron matrix

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6

as developed by


Physical Sciences 6
16. Which of the following is the standard electrode
potential for the cell:
Zn(s) | Zn2+(0.10 M) || Fe2+(0.10 M) | Fe(s)?
A.
B.
C.
D.

–1.20 V
–0.32 V
+0.32 V
+1.20 V

Questions 19 through 23 are NOT
based on a descriptive passage.
19. A 1 kg aluminum sphere and a 3 kg brass sphere both
having the same diameter and both at the same height
above the ground are allowed to fall freely. Neglecting
air resistance and assuming both spheres are released at
the same instant, they will reach the ground at:
A.
B.
C.
D.

17. All electrode potentials are measured in relation to the

standard hydrogen electrode (SHE). Which of the
following is NOT a true statement about the SHE?
A. It uses hydrogen gas at 1 atmosphere (760 mm
Hg).
B. Its potential is assigned a value of zero volts.
C. A half-cell with a negative reduction potential will
undergo oxidation instead when coupled with the
SHE.
D. It uses 0.1 M of HCl.

the same time but with different speeds.
the same time and with the same speed.
different times and with different speeds.
different times but with the same speed.

20. Consider the following reaction:
HCl(aq) + H2O(l) ? H3O+(aq) + Cl–(aq)
Which of the following is the conjugate base of H3O+?
A.
B.
C.
D.

HCl
H2O
Cl–
H2O and Cl–

21. Which form of energy transfer can occur in a vacuum?
18. What type of electrochemical cell do the two halfreactions involved in iron corrosion make?

A. An electrolytic cell with unexposed iron serving as
the cathode
B. An electrolytic cell with exposed iron serving as
the cathode
C. A galvanic cell with unexposed iron serving as the
cathode
D. A galvanic cell with exposed iron serving as the
cathode

A.
B.
C.
D.

Convection
Conduction
Radiation
Energy transfer cannot occur in a vacuum.

22. Which of the following is characteristic of a reducing
agent?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Its oxidation number decreases.
It gains electrons.
It must contain hydrogen.
It is oxidized.

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KAPLAN

7


MCAT
23. An object weighs 180 N at the Earth’s surface. How
much would it weigh if its distance from the Earth’s
center were tripled?
A. 20 N
B. 60 N
C. 180 N
D. 540 N

Passage IV (Questions 24–29)
Bubble chambers like the one shown in Figure 1 are
used to study elementary particles. The chamber is usually
filled with liquid hydrogen. The piston in the chamber can
be pulled down in order to lower the pressure in the
chamber.
The liquid in the chamber is held at a temperature
below its critical temperature. The pressure in the chamber
is then lowered in an isothermal (constant temperature)
process to a point just within the boundary of the liquid-gas
coexistence region without inducing a phase transition. So
the temperature of the liquid is above its boiling
temperature at the new low pressure. The system may now

remain in an unstable superheated liquid state for some
time. If high speed particles pass through the liquid in this
state, they will ionize molecules along their path. Local
boiling will occur around the ions before the entire system
begins to boil. So the paths of the high speed particles will
be marked by trails of bubbles. A photograph taken at the
right moment will capture the bubble trails.
Magnets placed outside the chamber are used to
produce a uniform magnetic field inside the chamber. We
can identify the charge and momentum of a particle by
noting the direction of its curved path due to the magnetic
field and measuring the radius of curvature. In a magnetic
field of strength B, a particle of charge q and momentum p
will move in a circle of radius R. The radius can be
determined by the following formula:
R = p/qB.
The bubble tracks shown in Figure 2 were observed in
a bubble chamber filled with liquid hydrogen. The particles
entered the chamber from the left and exited from the right.
The top of the diagram represents the top of the chamber. A
uniform magnetic field is produced inside the chamber, and
it points into the page.

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8

as developed by

Physical Sciences 6
25. What is a superheated liquid?
A. One that is at a temperature above its boiling
temperature at atmospheric pressure
B. One that is at a temperature above its boiling
temperature at its present pressure
C. One that is normally a gas at room temperature
and atmospheric pressure
D. One that is a gas at temperatures over 1000°C at
atmospheric pressure

26. Suppose the piston is pulled down initially, and the
liquid hydrogen in the chamber boils. What would
subsequently happen to the piston if it were free to
move in a process that keeps the pressure of the system
constant?
Figure 1

A. The piston would move away from the interior of
the chamber as a result of work done by the
system.
B. The piston would move away from the interior of
the chamber as a result of work done on the
system.
C. The piston would move toward the interior of the
chamber as a result of work done by the system.
D. The piston would move toward the interior of the
chamber as a result of work done on the system.

Figure 2

24. What is it about the procedure used in setting up the
bubble chamber that enables the hydrogen to remain in
a liquid state even though its pressure and temperature
indicate it should be a gas?
A. The pressure of the liquid is decreased in
isothermal process.
B. The temperature of the liquid is increased in
adiabatic process.
C. The volume of the liquid is decreased in
isothermal process.
D. The density of the liquid is increased in
adiabatic process.

an

27. What type of event can the bubble tracks labeled “a” in
Figure 2 indicate?
A.
B.
C.
D.

The decay of one particle into three particles
An elastic collision between two particles
A completely inelastic collision of two particles
A completely inelastic collision of three particles

an
an

28. In Figure 2, what is the charge of the particles that left
tracks “b” and “d”, respectively?

an
A.
B.
C.
D.

Positive, neutral
Positive, negative
Negative, neutral
Negative, positive

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

KAPLAN

9


MCAT
29. In Figure 2, assuming all the particles in the chamber
carry charge of the same magnitude, which labeled set
of tracks includes the track of the particle with the
smallest momentum?
A.
B.
C.

D.

Passage V (Questions 30–35)
Experimental analysis of the behavior of gases by
Boyle, Charles, and Gay-Lussac can be combined to form
the ideal gas equation.

a
b
c
d

PV = nRT
Equation 1
where P is the pressure, V is the volume, T is the
temperature, n is the number of moles of the gas, and R is
the ideal gas constant.
Whereas the ideal gas law can predict the behavior of
gases, it fails to explain their behavior. The kinetic
molecular theory explains the behavior of gases in terms of
the motion of individual particles. This theory, based on a
number of assumptions, adequately accounts for the
macroscopic behavior of gases and also provides insight
into their microscopic properties.
The van der Waals equation of state (Equation 2) was
developed to explain deviations from ideal behavior that
occur under certain conditions. This equation compensates
for these deviations by incorporating terms into the ideal
gas equation that account for intermolecular forces and
molecular volume.

(P + n2a/V2)(V – nb) = nRT
Equation 2
In Equation 2, a is a constant that takes into account
the intermolecular forces between gas molecules, and b is
used to take into account the volume occupied by the gas
molecules.

30. The kinetic molecular theory is based on several
assumptions. Which of the following is NOT an
assumption of the kinetic molecular theory?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Gas particles have negligible volume.
Gas particles do not have repulsive forces.
Gas particles have constant speed.
Gas particles collide without a net loss in kinetic
energy.

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10

as developed by


Physical Sciences 6
31. Which of the following is a property of a real gas that

is NOT possessed by an ideal gas?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Kinetic energy
Attractive forces
Random motion
Mass

32. When the temperature of a gas is increased and its
volume is held constant:

35. Gas X and gas Y are both in a closed container at a
temperature of 25°C; molecules of gas Y have greater
mass than those of gas X. Which of the following
statements is correct?
A. Both gases have the same average speed.
B. Gas X has a greater average kinetic energy than gas
Y.
C. Gas X has a greater average speed than gas Y.
D. Gas Y has a greater average kinetic energy than gas
X.

A. there is a decrease in pressure because the space
between the molecules of the gas decreases.
B. there is a decrease in pressure because the
elasticity of the molecules increases.
C. there is an increase in pressure because the density

of the gas increases.
D. there is an increase in pressure because the
frequency of the collisions between molecules and
the container increases.

33. Where would you see the most deviation from ideal
gas behavior?
A.
B.
C.
D.

At high temperatures
At low temperatures and high pressure
At low pressures and high temperatures
At high pressures

34. From the table below, which of the following gases
would be expected to have the largest value of b?
Gas

A.
B.
C.
D.

NH3

0.771

H2O

1.000

CH4

0.717

C2H5OH

0.789

NH3
H2O
CH4
C2H5OH

KAPLAN

Density (g/L)

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11


MCAT
Passage VI (Questions 36–41)
An aerospace manufacturer wants to determine how
its spaceships will hold up under collisions. The spaceships

are tested in a 600 km field in outer space with a stable and
restively indestructible fixed wall at one end. The mass of
the wall is large compared to the mass of the spaceship so
that the recoil of the wall is negligible compared to that of
the ship after a collision. The gravitational attraction
between the wall and spaceship is negligible. The engines of
these ships are 100% efficient, enabling all fuel to be
entirely converted to kinetic energy of the spaceship. The
mass of the fuel is proportional to the square root of the
work done if it is considered small compared to the mass of
the spaceship.
In the first experiment, a fully fueled spaceship is
accelerated from rest with a constant force over a distance
of 200 km. The engines are then shut off and the spaceship
travels another 200 km at a constant velocity because there
is no air resistance in outer space. Finally, the engines are
re-ignited and the spaceship is again accelerated with the
same constant force as in the first stretch for another 200
km. At the end of this stretch the spaceship rebounds off of
the wall, and coasts back to the starting point. The spaceship
is refueled in preparation for another run.
In the second experiment, the spaceship also starts
from rest and the same constant force is applied by the
engines as in the first run, but this time for only 100 km.
The engines are then shut off for a stretch of 200 km, and
re-ignited for the remaining 300 km of the test run. The
spaceship rebounds off of the wall. This time the spaceship
takes less time to coast back to the starting point than it did
in the first run. The spaceship is then refilled with fuel a
second time.

Some time later the fuel company sends an itemized
bill to the spaceship manufacturer.

36. How would a graph of the spaceship’s instantaneous
power versus time appear during the first 100 km of
either experiment?

37. In a third experiment the wall is removed and the
engines are turned on for 100 km, turned off for 800
km, then turned on for 300 km. In which experiment
would the spaceship have reached a greater maximum
velocity?
A.
B.
C.
D.

The first experiment
The second experiment
The third experiment
The spaceship reaches the same maximum velocity
in all experiments described.

38. Assuming no fuel leaked at any point, how could you
determine whether the fuel company charged the
correct amount? (Note: Assume the mass of the fuel is
small compared to the mass of the spaceship.)
A. Multiply the force exerted by the spaceship engines
in each experiment by the entire distance the ship
traveled.

B. Multiply the force exerted by the spaceship engines
in each experiment by the distance over which the
spaceship was accelerated in each experiment.
C. Consider only the time that each experiment took.
D. Multiply the mass by the average speed of the
spaceship over the entire distance traveled.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

12

as developed by


Physical Sciences 6
39. If the average force imparted by the wall was the same
in both cases, in which experiment was the spaceship in
contact with the wall for the longest period of time?
A. In the first experiment, because the spaceship had a
greater amount of fuel and therefore a greater
mass than in the second experiment
B. In the first experiment, because the spaceship
traveled at a lower speed after it hit the wall
C. In the second experiment, because the spaceship
traveled at a greater speed after it hit the wall
D. Same duration in both experiments, because the
change in momentum of the spaceship during the
collision was the same in both experiments

41. From the following equation we can determine the

change in velocity of the spaceship after it has expelled
a certain amount of fuel:
vf – vi = u ln(Mi/Mf)
where u is the speed of the expelled gasses relative to
the spaceship, Mi is the mass of the spaceship with a
full load of fuel and Mf is the mass of the spaceship
after some fuel has been expelled. Which of the
following graphs represents the ratio of initial to final
mass?

40. After Experiment 1, what must be done to get the
spaceship to come to a complete stop at the starting
line in preparation for Experiment 2?
A. A force must be applied in the direction pointing
from the starting line toward the wall in order to
bring the spaceship to a stop at the starting line.
B. A force must be applied in the direction pointing
from the wall toward the starting line in order to
bring the spaceship to a stop at the starting line.
C. No force need be applied to the spaceship. It will
come to a stop on its own at the starting line.
D. A force must be applied perpendicular to the
direction the spaceship is traveling in order to
bring the spaceship to a stop at the starting line.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

KAPLAN

13

MCAT
Questions 42 through 45 are NOT
based on a descriptive passage.

45. If forces of 12 N and 5 N act at one point, which of the
following could be the magnitude of the resultant
force?

42. Which of the following could represent the change in
temperature with time when 5 kJ of heat is added to
melting ice?
A.

C.

Time

B.

I. 6 N
II. 13 N
III. 18 N
A.
B.
C.
D.

II only

III only
I and II only
II and III only

Time

D.

Time

Time

43. If the separation of the plates of an isolated, charged
parallel-plate capacitor is increased, which of the
following will also increase?
I. The capacitance
II. The charge on the plates
III. The potential difference between the plates
A.
B.
C.
D.

I only
III only
I and III only
II and III only

44. When a spring is compressed to its minimum length
and not permitted to expand:

A. potential energy is maximum and kinetic energy is
minimum.
B. kinetic energy is maximum and potential energy is
minimum.
C. potential energy and kinetic energy are maximum.
D. potential energy and kinetic energy are minimum.

END OF TEST

14

as developed by


Physical Sciences 6

THE ANSWER KEY IS ON THE NEXT PAGE

KAPLAN

15


MCAT
ANSWER KEY:
1. C
6. C
22. D
3. D
19. B

24. A

26.
27.
28.
29.
30.

16

A
B
B
C
C

31.
32.
33.
34.
35.

B
D
B
D
C

11. C
8. A

5. A

16. C
13. A
10. C

36.
37.
38.
39.
40.

41.
42.
43.
44.
45.

B
D
B
C
A

21. C
18. D
15. A

2. A
23. A

20. B

7. C
4. C
25. B

12. C
9. C

17.
14.

D
D

A
D
B
A
A

as developed by