MCAT verbal test (23)

MCAT Section Tests
Dear Future Doctor,
The following Section Test and explanations should be used to practice and to assess
your mastery of critical thinking in each of the section areas. Topics are confluent and
are not necessarily in any specific order or fixed proportion. This is the level of
integration in your preparation that collects what you have learned in the Kaplan
classroom and synthesizes your knowledge with your critical thinking.
Simply
completing the tests is inadequate; a solid understanding of your performance through
your Score Reports and the explanations is necessary to diagnose your specific
weaknesses and address them before Test Day.
All rights are reserved pursuant to the copyright laws and the contract clause in your
enrollment agreement and as printed below. Misdemeanor and felony infractions can
severely limit your ability to be accepted to a medical program and a conviction can
result in the removal of a medical license. We offer this material for your practice in your
own home as a courtesy and privilege. Practice today so that you can perform on test
day; this material was designed to give you every advantage on the MCAT and we wish
you the best of luck in your preparation.
Sincerely,

Albert Chen
Executive Director, Pre-Health Research and Development
Kaplan Test Prep

© 2003 Kaplan, Inc.
All rights reserved. No part of this book may be reproduced in any form, by Photostat, microfilm,
xerography or any other means, or incorporated into any information retrieval system, electronic
or mechanical without the written permission of Kaplan, Inc. This book may not be duplicated,
distributed or resold, pursuant to the terms of your Kaplan Enrollment Agreement.

Verbal Reasoning
Time: 85 Minutes
Questions 1-60

DO NOT BEGIN THIS SECTION UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.


VERBAL REASONING
DIRECTIONS: There are nine passages in the Verbal Reasoning
test. Each passage is followed by several questions. After
reading a passage, select the best answer to each question. If
you are not certain of an answer, eliminate the alternatives that
you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the
remaining alternatives. Indicate your selection by blackening the
corresponding oval on your answer document.
Passage I (Questions 1-7)

5

10

15

20

25

30

35

40

In the course of the twentieth century, increasing
awareness of how chemical wastes can affect public health
and the environment resulted in restriction of dumping.
However, where dumping had already occurred,
uncontrolled or abandoned hazardous wastes remained at
sites such as warehouses, landfills, and even rivers. To
locate, investigate, and clean up the worst of these sites
nationwide, Congress in 1980 established the Superfund
Program, administered by Environmental Protection
Administration (EPA). Under Superfund, companies found
responsible for pollution can be financially liable for the
cost of cleanup.
Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) are heavy, syrupy
hydrocarbons that were first synthesized in the 1880s.
Because they conduct heat but not electricity and are
water-insoluble, fire-resistant, and extremely stable
(withstanding temperatures of up to 1600° F), PCBs were
found, in the 1930s, to be extremely useful as components
in cooling systems and electrical equipment (transformers
and capacitors). They were widely used for these purposes
and also in the composition of sealants, rubber, paints,
plastics, inks, and insecticides.
PCBs were banned in 1979, after researchers linked
them to cancer and developmental problems in humans.
However, PCBs persist in the environment for extremely
long periods. Because PCBs have an affinity for fat, they
have a marked tendency to accumulate in living organisms;

increasing in concentration as they move up the food
chain. While avoiding release of PCBs into the
environment is today a well-settled principle, what to do
about those already in the environment can be
controversial.

45

50

55

60

65

70

is prohibited. But, while fish consumption remains the
most potent route of PCB exposure, exposure can also
occur through other routes. Eight municipalities currently
draw drinking water from the Hudson and another, New
York City, draws it during emergencies. Furthermore, air
along the river contains elevated concentrations of PCBs,
and individuals living along the River show PCB residue
in their bodies, paralleling the river's contamination.
EPA has recommended that PCBs be removed from
the river bottom by dredging, thus reducing contamination
and possibly eventually permitting revitalization of
commercial fishing, which once generated $40 million

income annually. However, the corporation blamed for the
dumping argues that dredging may “stir up” the PCBs
(which they describe as now “lying undisturbed” in the
riverbed), causing the water, air, and riverbanks to become
even more contaminated. Some area residents echo these
concerns and also argue that dredging will subject them to
years of unacceptable noise, disruption, and curtailed
recreational activities.
Although many take positions on whether dredging
will have positive or negative consequences to the Hudson
River Valley, there is only perfunctory attention to the
ultimate fate of the dredged PCBs. EPA’s report
recommending dredging indicates that, due to opposition
of local residents, neither a landfill nor a thermal treatment
facility (for high temperature incineration) can be locallysighted and the PCBs should therefore be transported to a
Toxic Substances Control Act or solid waste landfill
outside of the area. The report does not, however, identify
a specific location.

Due to dumping over a period of 35 years by two
capacitor manufacturing plants located along the northern
part of the Hudson River in New York State, EPA has
estimated that 1.1 million pounds of PCBs have
accumulated. Field surveys of the river have found
substantial contamination in 40 submerged sediment “hot
spots,” 5 exposed shoreline remnant deposits, dredge
spoils on riverbanks, and estuary sediments. Today,
because of PCB contamination, human consumption of
fish caught in the most affected areas of the Hudson River

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
2


1.

I.
II.
III.
A.
B.
C.
D.

2.

following pieces of additional information would
be most helpful to it in determining whether it
should support the EPA recommendation to remove
PCBs from the Hudson River by dredging?

It can be inferred from the passage that PCBs are:
heavier than water.
toxic to fish.
readily biodegradable.

A. how present PCB levels in the river compare to
levels that existed prior to industrialization
B. to what extent equipment to be used for
dredging can remove the PCBs without causing

their release into the air and into upper river
currents
C. how the PCBs will be disposed of after
removal from the river
D. the expected cost of the dredging operation

I only
I and II only
I and III only
II and III only

An “estuary” is defined as the part of a wide, lower
course of a river where its current is met by the
tides. Information contained in the passage indicates
that PCBs in estuary sediments most probably:

6.

A. originate from an additional source of
pollution not yet discovered.
B. indicate that PCBs in the river do not
necessarily remain where they were originally
deposited.
C. are present at a background level typical of the
earth’s environment as a whole.
D. indicate that all the PCBs currently in the river
can be expected to eventually end up in the
ocean.

3.

A. reduce the level of PCBs in their bodies.
B. avoid any further increase in the level of PCBs
in their bodies.
C. mitigate the accumulation of PCBs in their
bodies.
D. prevent cancer and developmental problems.

Based on information contained in the passage as a
whole, it can be inferred that the opinion of the
company responsible for PCB pollution of the
Hudson River, with respect to the appropriateness
of clean-up, is most probably:

7.

5.

Which of the following is stated in the passage but
is not explained by facts or data contained in the
passage?
A. Individuals who live along the Hudson have a
concentration of PCBs in their bodies that
parallel the concentration of the substances in
the river.
B. PCBs were useful as components of electrical
equipment and cooling systems.
C. PCBs accumulate in living organisms.
D. What should be done about PCBs which
contaminate the environment is controversial.

A. at least as objective as the opinion of area
residents.
B. reflective of its overriding concern with its
public image.
C. financially motivated.
D. indicative of its lack of connection to
commercial fishing interests.

4.

It can be inferred from the passage that the
justification used for prohibiting individuals from
consuming fish caught in contaminated sections of
the Hudson River is that the individuals may
thereby:

According to the passage, the EPA differs from
local residents and the company responsible for
PCB contamination in that it affirms that it bases its
recommended action on benefit to:
A. commercial fishing interests.
B. residential interests.
C. the environment as a whole.
D. recreational activities.
Suppose a local newspaper in a Hudson River
community was preparing an editorial. Which of the

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
3

Passage II (Questions 8–14)

5

10

15

20

25

30

35

40

45

50

8.

With equal justice, the council of Pisa deposed the
popes of Rome and Avignon; the conclave was unanimous
in the choice of Alexander V, and his vacant seat was soon
filled by a similar election of John XXIII, the most

profligate of mankind. But instead of extinguishing the
schism, the rashness of the French and Italians had given a
third pretender to the chair of St. Peter. Such new claims
of the synod and conclave were disputed; three kings, of
Germany, Hungary, and Naples, adhered to the cause of
Gregory XII; and Benedict XIII, himself a Spaniard, was
acknowledged by the devotion and patriotism of that
powerful nation.

It can be inferred that a goal shared by the Council
of Pisa and the Council of Constance was to:
A. reunite the Catholic Church under a single
pope.
B. forge an alliance between the most powerful
nations in Europe.
C. obtain for the Catholic Church the protection
of the Emperor Sigismond.
D. appoint a native Roman to the papacy.

9.

The rash proceedings of Pisa were corrected by the
council of Constance; the emperor Sigismond acted a
conspicuous part as the advocate or protector of the
Catholic church; and the number and weight of civil and
ecclesiastical members might seem to constitute the statesgeneral of Europe. Of the three popes, John XXIII was the
first victim: he fled and was brought back a prisoner: the
most scandalous charges were suppressed; the vicar of
Christ was only accused of piracy, murder, rape, sodomy,
and incest; and after subscribing his own condemnation, he

expiated in prison the imprudence of trusting his person to
a free city beyond the Alps. Gregory XII, whose obedience
was reduced to the narrow precincts of Rimini, descended
with more honour from the throne; and his ambassador
convened the session, in which he renounced the title and
authority of lawful pope. To vanquish the obstinacy of
Benedict XIII or his adherents, the emperor in person
undertook a journey from Constance to Perpignan. The
kings of Castile, Arragon, Navarre, and Scotland, obtained
an equal and honourable treaty; with the concurrence of
the Spaniards, Benedict was deposed by the council; but
the harmless old man was left in a solitary castle to
excommunicate twice each day the rebel kingdoms which
had deserted his cause.

According to the passage, why was the Council of
Constance more successful than the Council of
Pisa?
I.

II.

III.

A.
B.
C.
D.

10.

After thus eradicating the remains of the schism, the
synod of Constance proceeded with slow and cautious
steps to elect the sovereign of Rome and the head of the
church. On this momentous occasion, the college of
twenty-three cardinals was fortified with thirty deputies;
six of whom were chosen in each of the five great nations
of Christendom, – the Italian, the German, the French, the
Spanish, and the English: the interference of strangers was
softened by their generous preference of an Italian and a
Roman; and the hereditary, as well as personal, merit of
Otho Colonna recommended him to the conclave. Rome
accepted with joy and obedience the noblest of her sons;
the ecclesiastical state was defended by his powerful
family; and the elevation of Martin V is the era of the
restoration and establishment of the popes in the Vatican.

The Council of Constance made sure that
it had the support of the most important
European powers.
The Council of Constance elected a pope
who was more virtuous than any of his
rivals.
The Council of Constance elected a pope
who was already respected by the Roman
people.

I and II
I and III
II and III

I, II, and III

Why does the author distinguish between “the most
scandalous charges” against John XXIII, and the
charges of which he was actually accused?
A. to demonstrate the leniency of the Council of
Constance
B. to suggest how serious the suppressed charges
must have been
C. to give an example of John XXIII’s political
influence
D. to show the importance of electing an Italian to
the papacy

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
4


11.

How did the Spanish contribute to the resolution of
the division within the Catholic Church?

13.

A. They encouraged the cardinals to revolt, and
they deposed the two reigning popes.
B. They opposed the French and Italians, and they
supported Benedict XIII.
C. They protected the Catholic Church, and they

prosecuted John XXIII.
D. They agreed to the deposal of Benedict XIII,
and they helped to elect Martin V.

12.

A. Benedict XIII and Gregory XII would not have
been deposed
B. the Council of Constance would not have taken
place
C. the Catholic Church would not have been
reunited
D. the papal seat would not have been moved back
to Rome

It can be inferred that the author would agree with
which of the following statements about Benedict
XIII, Gregory XII, and John XXIII?
A.
B.
C.
D.

The passage suggests that if John XXIII had been
generally acceptable to Catholics throughout
Europe, which of the following would have
resulted?

14.

Benedict XIII was the best of the three.
Gregory XII was the best of the three.
None of the three deserved to be pope.
John XXIII had the best claim to having been
legitimately elected.

At the Council of Constance, why were the 23
cardinals joined by 30 deputies?
A. to make sure that their choice for pope was
acceptable to the most important European
states
B. to prevent them escaping
C. to protect them from governmental interference
D. to make sure that they maintained a proper
level of decorum

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
5


Passage III (Questions 15–21)

5

10

15

20

25

30

35

40

45

50

Until recently, most scientists believed that memory
inevitably deteriorates with age. One commonly cited
example of this deterioration is the fact that elderly people
often cannot remember recent events, even though they
may recall details from the distant past. But contemporary
research into how the mind stores and retrieves
information refutes the notion of the inevitable decline in
memory. New studies suggest that we have more than one
kind of memory, and imply that elderly people who suffer
from forgetfulness can utilize other types of memory to
compensate for the decline.

55

60

This new conception of memory stems from a shift in
methodology of memory research. While older studies of

memory and aging involved comparisons between
different age groups, recent investigations tested the same
group of people over a number of years.
Such
longitudinal data more clearly establishes the relationship
between memory and aging. Through these studies of
older adults, researchers concluded that there exist three
major kinds of memory, only one of which declines in old
age.

65

Previous investigations into the workings of memory
usually tested “episodic” memory, which describes the
recall of specific events, as well as the ability to remember
names and the whereabouts of items like car keys. This
ability usually remains intact until the mid-sixties, when
people often become forgetful of things like recent events
and minor details. While some researchers suggest that
this well-known decline in episodic memory in the elderly
stems from degeneration of the frontal lobes of the brain,
many scientists believe that such memory loss is largely
due to retirement: after the demands of work stop, most
people no longer exercise their mental faculties as
strenuously. Thus, regular mental “exercise” might curtail
memory loss.

75

70

A third type of memory, “implicit” memory, deals with
the tremendous variety of mental activities we perform
without making any intentional effort. Examples of these
include actions like driving a car, touch-typing, or riding a
bicycle. Scientists have learned through observations of
amnesiacs that this type of memory is distinct from both
episodic and semantic memory. In one such study, an
amnesiac patient who had been an avid golfer before
developing a memory problem remembered which club to
use for each stroke; however, he forgot that he had played
a hole within minutes of having done so. In addition,
further studies of amnesiacs have shown that people with
these disorders can learn new facts but cannot remember
when and where they had learned them. Studies of people
in their sixties and seventies showed similar results: like
amnesiacs, older people are able to learn from new
experience as well as younger people, but often have
difficulty remembering the source of their knowledge or
skill.
Such studies into the structure of memory shed new
light on the problems of memory loss in the aged. While
the findings are encouraging, it must be noted that such
studies do not deal with memory problems associated with
illness, disease, or injury to the brain.

15.

The passage implies that advanced age might
adversely affect which of the following?

I.

But episodic memory comprises only part of this
intricate brain function.
Memory researchers have
identified two other types of memory, neither of which
seems to deteriorate with age. “Semantic” memory, which
describes our ability to recall knowledge and facts as well
as events in the distant past, does not seem to lessen over
the course of a lifetime. In fact, such memory may be even
sharper in elderly people than in the young or middle-aged.
When a group of men and women in their sixties were
tested on a specific vocabulary list and retested on the
same list a decade later, the group had improved their
scores by an average of six words—an increase researchers
consider substantial. Such studies suggest that by taking
notes or mulling over events, elderly people who suffer
from forgetfulness can store more information in the
semantic memory, thus compensating for episodic memory
loss.

II.
III.
A.
B.
C.
D.

memory of details of a recent
conversation

recollection of childhood memories
ability to perform routine tasks

I only
II only
III only
I and II only

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
6


16.

The author’s attitude might be described as one of:
A.
B.
C.
D.

17.

20.

unbridled enthusiasm.
wary skepticism.
reserved optimism.
unbiased objectivity.

A.

B.
C.
D.

21.

Based on the information in the passage, the author
would probably agree with which of the following
statements regarding memory problems associated
with illness, disease, or injury?
A. Since many elderly suffer from such organic
dysfunctions, memory research remains more
theoretical than practical.
B. Scientists hope that these studies will
contribute to our understanding of these
disorders as well.
C. It is likely that researchers will turn toward
these more critical problems in the near future.
D. Since such disorders do not conform to the
tripartate model of memory, most researchers
are not interested in them.

It can be inferred from the passage that recent
developments in memory research can be attributed
largely to:
A. scientists’ efforts to dismantle stereotypes
regarding the abilities of elderly persons.
B. recent discoveries that distinguish age-related
forgetfulness from disease and injury-related
memory loss.

C. the realization that mental exercise frequently
diminishes memory loss.
D. new methodologies that clarify the relationship
between memory and aging.

19.

amnesia.
semantic memory loss.
episodic memory loss.
implicit memory loss.

The primary purpose of the passage is to:
A. discuss the ways in which a new theory of
memory challenges common assumptions
regarding memory and aging.
B. explain why past investigations into memory
tested only episodic memory.
C. describe recent research into the functioning of
the brain.
D. consider the reasons why episodic memory
diminished in later years.

18.

The passage suggests that an elderly person who
cannot remember how to tie her shoes is most
probably suffering from:

According to the passage, older people often forget

recent events but remember the distant past because:
A. childhood events exist as part of implicit
memory.
B. episodic memory declines while implicit
memory does not.
C. episodic memory declines but semantic
memory improves with age.
D. retired elderly people make few demands on
their semantic memory.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
7


Passage IV (Questions 22–28)

5

10

15

20

25

30

35

40

45

50

What is the value of learning about hypotheses that
were once espoused to explain an observed phenomenon,
but that have now been long disproved and invalidated?
Some students may feel that we should not focus on the
past, and that our thoughts should be trained on new
knowledge and invention, rather than antiquated ideas.
What these students do not understand is the importance of
the old ideas in shaping our current understanding of the
world around us, and that an outright dismissal of past
theories simply because they have been rejected by new
evidence may limit our understanding of current theories.

55

60

Darwin’s theory of natural selection as the mechanism
for evolution is all too often taught in a vacuum in high
school biology classrooms, as if this brilliant naturalist
developed a groundbreaking theory on natural order which
had never before been contemplated in any form. It is only
by learning about the gradual development of evolutionary
theory, and the role of some rather religious individuals in
shaping this theory, that students may come to see the

logic and power behind Darwin’s relatively simple ideas.

the only reason mountains and other features of the
Earth’s terrain had been built the way they had was
because of long, gradual processes that shaped these
structures. There was no way, he felt, that the Earth could
be several thousand years old as asserted in the Bible. In
addition, the discovery of new plants, animals, and fossils
as explorers traveled to uncharted regions of the world
aroused suspicion about the paucity of animal and plant
“kinds” in the Bible. Improvements in scientists’ abilities
to estimate the age of the Earth and the relative ages of
fossils also pushed people to question old assumptions.

22.

The main idea of this passage is that:
A. religious scientists before Darwin greatly
influenced his formation of the theory of
natural selection.
B. similarities between species of plants and
animals were too great to ignore as people
attempted to explain relationships in nature.
C. Darwin relied on a great deal of information
from those who lived before him as he formed
his well-known conclusions about the
mechanisms of evolution.
D. old ideas should not be dismissed simply
because they are old and disproved.

Many of the contributions upon which Darwin built his
ideas came from scientists who were staunch creationists
themselves. These scientists believed that all organisms on
Earth had been placed here by “special creation,” by God,
because there was little evidence at the time to support
evolution.
Carolus Linnaeus, who developed a framework for
modern systems of taxonomy and classification in the
1700s, actually undertook his research with the hope of
discovering patterns of God’s creation. Georges LeClerc
(1707-1788) proposed a mechanism for calculating the
age of the Earth using molten spheres of iron and
measuring cooling times, after which he proposed that the
Earth was at least 75,000 years old and perhaps as old as
three million years. LeClerc also perceived that species
were not fixed and could change over time; he even
proposed that closely related species, such as the horse and
donkey, had developed from a common ancestor and had
been modified by different climactic conditions. Yet,
LeClerc was a devout Christian creationist and devoted
much of his writing to the debunking of evolutionary
ideas. Despite their commitments to religion, LeClerc and
Linnaeus both gave Darwin crucial raw material to work
with – their ideas concerning the similarities between
related species and possible connections with common
ancestors cried out for a reasonable explanation.

23.

Findings that challenged Biblical accounts of

creation included all of the following EXCEPT:
A. similarities between related species, such as
donkeys and horses.
B. indications that mountain building processes
took tens of thousands of years.
C. findings of a great diversity of new plants and
animals across a variety of habitats.
D. fossil findings indicating that the Earth was, in
fact, tens of thousands of years old or more.

For centuries before Darwin, data that challenged the
biblical account of creation was surfacing in many fields
of research. As explorers began to study the forces that
shape the Earth, such as mountain building and volcanic
eruptions, accounts from scripture and assertions that the
Earth was very young began to be called into question.
Uniformitarian geologists such as Charles Lyell felt that

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
8


24.

If the author were teaching a class on evolution,
the passage suggests that the class would spend a
significant amount of time discussing:

27.

With respect to his claim that students need to
understand and appreciate old theories, the author
asserts that:

A. the origins of Darwin’s theory of natural
selection.
B. details of Darwin’s theory of natural selection.
C. the Biblical account of creation.
D. taxonomy and classification and their
importance in Darwin’s ideas.

25.

I.

II.

Georges Le Clerc’s ideas on evolution may have
been closest to those of:

III.

A. Darwin, because LeClerc focused much of his
research on understanding similarities between
related plants and animals.
B. Linnaeus, because they were both devout
Christians who attempted to explain natural
phenomena in a supernatural light.
C. Lyell, because both scientists concluded that
the supposed age of the Earth could not

account for certain measured features.
D. Linnaeus, because both scientists gave Darwin
important raw material to work with as Darwin
formulated his ideas on natural selection.

26.

A.
B.
C.
D.

28.

I and II
II only
II and III
I, II, and III

According to the passage, the idea that mountains
and other structures take a great deal of time to
form was an idea championed by:
A.
B.
C.
D.

The author’s discussion of Darwin’s theory in
paragraph 2 of the passage suggests that:

Darwin’s theory of natural selection
cannot be understood or applied without
the
knowledge
of
evolutionary
hypotheses that came before him.
Even now-debunked concepts, such as
LeClerc’s melting iron spheres to
calculate Earth’s age, are important in
building a complete picture of how
Darwin came to his revolutionary theory.
Learning about Linnaeus’ classification
schemes would help students see how
Linnaeus’ work gave Darwin a body of
knowledge that needed proper explaining.

catastrophists.
Darwinists.
creationists.
uniformitarians.

A. Darwin does not deserve the credit he is given
for his ideas on evolutionary theory.
B. Darwin’s theories should be presented in the
context within which they were originally
conceived.
C. Darwin’s ideas would be properly devalued if
people knew the religious background from
which his ideas stemmed.

D. Darwin’s ideas are simple enough that he didn’t
need much help in formulating them.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
9


Passage V (Questions 29–33)

5

10

15

20

25

30

35

40

45

50

In the fast new choreography of American compassion,

explanation is twirled into excuse, and the spotlight’s
shine endows feelings with a prominence that facts could
only hope for. Perception has become more important than
reality. In homes, classrooms, and workplaces, we prefer
to understand viewpoints rather than discern truths. To
judge from the popularity of Y. S. Bark’s Nicholas the
Unlucky, the compassion craze, barely a decade old, has
swept up biography as well.

55

60

Bark’s main contention is that Nicholas II was a
doomed figure who had the misfortune of presiding over,
but not responsibility for significantly contributing to, the
calamitous demise of Czarist Russia in 1917. After
recounting the prevalent view of Nicholas, which faults
the last czar for failure to recognize dire conditions of the
day, neglect of astute advisors, and reliance instead on
sources incompetent to influence state behavior, Bark
concedes that Nicholas was a poor leader. She then adds,
“What few acknowledge is that none of this mattered. By
Nicholas’s time, and surely unbeknownst to Nicholas,
czarism had become an anachronism. Its collapse was
inevitable.”

65

70

75

The product of an accomplished historian known for
nice scholarship on inter-war diplomatic history, Bark’s
first foray into popular political biography proceeds with a
deft review of the social, economic, and political
conditions of Nicholas’s day. In every respect but
governance, Nicholas’s Russia was, or was rapidly
becoming, modern. Political alliances with Europe proper
had existed for centuries, as had kinship with European art
and
literature.
Developments
in
technology,
communication, and transportation only increased the
magnitude of Russia’s Europeanness. After 1860, even
Russian economic life began, however embryonically, to
resemble Western forms. Only governance remained
unchanged, yet it was governance that most needed
transformation.

80

singular influence on Nicholas’s own development,
Pobedonostsev
in
his
memoirs

wrote
of
“…Parliamentarism, which…has deluded much of the socalled ‘intelligence’…although daily its falsehood is
exposed more clearly to the world.” Grounded in the
inalienable Russian truth that the czar was “the Little
Father, God’s chief earthly agent and protector,”
Nicholas’s commitment to autocracy, in Bark’s view,
rendered major reform unthinkable.
Nicholas the Unlucky is ultimately unsatisfying
because Nicholas is a poor choice for arguing historical
inevitability and historical compassion. Like monarchism
at the same time, czarist absolutism may have been
doomed. Perhaps no czar after 1895 could have saved it.
But citing the size and force of a tidal wave does nothing
to exonerate a leader who all but tore down the dyke and
let it in. Worthwhile sources claim, not that Nicholas
originated the causes of the revolution, but that at best he
did nothing to alleviate them, and at worst he intensified
them. Monarchists’ astute, if reluctant, embrace of
modernity in Prussia and Japan attests to how the demise
of monarchy could be delayed. And while, like Nicholas,
the Hohenzollerns of Austria-Hungary did not outlast
World War I, they had faced the assault of modernity
beginning much earlier, and probably would have fallen
earlier, in 1848, had they behaved as Nicholas did. These
facts deserve some room in the spotlight. For all of us,
from schoolchildren to leaders and even historians,
perception may seem to be more important than reality.
Sooner or later, reality avenges itself

29.

As used in the passage, the words “The rest is
detail” (line 48) refer to:
A. Bark’s belief that popular commitment to core
values, even though the values are subjective,
is essential to persevering through periods of
national turmoil.
B. Bark’s implication that policies advanced by
Woodrow Wilson, though more successful
than those of Nicholas, similarly reflected a
strong commitment to traditional beliefs.
C. the author’s contention that weighing the
merits of alternative reform policies is less
important than a ruler’s overall commitment to
reform.
D. the author’s assumption that Woodrow
Wilson’s activist policies do not constitute a
reasonable basis for comparison to Nicholas’s
conservative policies.

But then begins a confused and confusing attempt to
vindicate Nicholas: “At the time, calls came for a
compromise of czarism, yet it was in their tradition that
the czars saw the sine qua non of Russian life. This was
the impossible situation confronting Nicholas. Given these
circumstances, it is implausible to suppose that Nicholas
should have viewed the abandonment or even compromise
of autocracy as Russia’s salvific hope. To the contrary,
turbulent times are perfect for redoubling the faith of ages;

the first reaction to discomforting ideas is hatred. (The rest
is detail—witness history’s smile on stalwart Woodrow
Wilson.)”
To demonstrate Nicholas’s unshakable faith in the
czarist tradition, Bark devotes an entire section to Count
Pobedonostsev, by whom Alexander III, Nicholas’s father,
was tutored in childhood and closely advised as czar. A

30.

The author’s discussion of the Hohenzollerns
assumes which of the following?

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
10


32.
A. In at least some significant ways, the political
challenges faced by the rulers of AustriaHungary around 1848 resemble those faced by
Nicholas around 1917.
B. Like Nicholas, Hohenzollern rulers perceived
themselves as having not only a historical, but
also a divine, mandate.
C. For the purposes of historical analysis,
modernity and Europeanness can be treated as
interchangeable terms.
D. Nicholas should have implemented the same
policy reforms as those affected by rulers in
Japan, Prussia, and Austria-Hungary.

Suppose that a chapter in Nicholas the Unlucky
recounted the following episode. In 1915, a group
of advisors urged Nicholas to address the concerns
of urban workers, who had been participating in
increasingly widespread and violent strikes. In
response to the advisors’ urgings, the Empress
Alexandra, Nicholas’s wife, advised, “You are the
Autocrat and they dare not forget it.” The advisors
were soon dismissed, replaced with “more biddable,
less able men.” The strikes eventually contributed to
the onset of the Russian Revolution. What
relevance would this information have to the
passage?
A. It would provide counter-evidence to Bark’s
contention that Nicholas was a misunderstood
but able leader.
B. It would be consistent with reasons for which
Nicholas has traditionally been regarded as a
poor ruler.
C. It would contradict Bark’s claim that, after
1860, the Russian economy slowly began to
modernize.
D. It would confirm Bark’s view that, by the time
of Nicholas’s reign, czarism was doomed.

31. The author claims (lines 70–73) that Nicholas at
least failed to alleviate, and at most exacerbated, the causes
of the collapse of czarism in 1917. The support offered for
this conclusion is:

A. weak; the author neglects to name a czar in the
period after 1895 who could have saved
czarism from collapse.
B. weak; the author fails to acknowledge the depth
of the reluctance with which monarchists in
other nations confronted modernity.
C. strong; by asserting that reality avenges itself,
the author directly undermines the primary
hypothesis of Nicholas the Unlucky.
D. strong; the author provides several comparative
illustrations of cases in which collapse was
averted or forestalled.

33.

Which of the following, if true, would most
challenge the author’s assertion that “the
compassion craze has swept up biography?”
A. Most readers regard as unflattering Bark’s
portrayal of Count Pobedonostsev in Nicholas
the Unlucky.
B. For their subjects, many biographers choose
figures who the biographers believe ought to be
viewed in a forgiving and sympathetic light.
C. Nicholas genuinely believed that his attempt to
preserve czarism was in the best interests of the
Russian people.
D. Several decades ago, when Bark wrote
Nicholas the Unlucky, she had very little
exposure to American cultural values.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
11


Passage VI (Questions 34–39)

5

10

15

20

25

30

35

40

45

50

55

The extent to which analysis of social phenomena is

compatible with the scientific method is a hotly contested
question. Among international relations scholars,
historico-deductivist opponents of positivism claim that in
the pursuit of objective depictions of the causes, course,
and consequences of international phenomena the
character and operation of which are purported to exist
independently of the observer, positivists miss or dismiss
the implicit attitudes, values, and ideologies embedded in
their work, which personalize and subjectivize their
conclusions. Positivism, these critics contend, attempts to
impose on world politics a coherent facticity akin to that
of the natural sciences, but to which the basic nature of
world politics is indisposed. As Dougherty put it,
“Aristotle warns in the Nichomachaean Ethics that the
precision of an answer cannot exceed that of its question,
but the positivists want clocks and necessity where there
are really clouds and contingency.”

60

65

70

For historico-deductivists, the problem of a posteriori
overdetermination is a case in point. In the natural
sciences, replicability and verifiability afford the findings
of laboratory experimentation potentially nomothetic
status. In international relations, however, such lawlike
generalizations about cause and effect are rarely if ever

possible, not only because events are unique, but also
because of the multiplicity of potential causes. Whether
World War I resulted from a disequilibrium in the
international distribution of power, the ascendancy of
government factions committed to aggression, or the
accuracy of an assassin’s bullet, is, ultimately, unknown.
For opponents of positivism, it is better to recognize
darkness than to pretend to see light.

75

cooperation and reciprocity. Even as Nash’s confederates
praised the “illuminating evolution” in her thinking, many
positivists questioned whether Nash’s antipodal findings
corresponded to a shift in her initial assumptions over
time. The implication, of course, is that if positivists’
commitments at the level of proto-theory color their
eventual conclusions, then they are not alone in this
regard.
Finally, positivists point to the potential of scientific
analysis to yield counterintuitive truths. A frequently cited
example is Grotsky’s study of the role of non-state actors
in international trade. Published at a time when many
scholars were convinced that multinational organizations
had effectively “elbowed the traditional sovereign nationstate…out of analytical existence in our field,” Grotsky’s
research of the structure, timing, and variance of state
expenditures on foreign direct investment effectively
restored the state to its position as the dominant unit in
international relations scholarship. Despite several efforts,
historico-deductivists who had championed the new

relevance of non-state actors have not, as yet, successfully
refuted Grotsky’s findings—a consideration that bodes
well for those of us who believe that an end to this
longstanding debate, which has produced much timely and
relevant research, is not necessarily to be desired.

While some leading positivists, most notably Pastore,
admit as “knowledge” only the sum of all tested
propositions, for most it is the very cloudlike nature of
political phenomena that requires a clocklike approach.
Conceding that their subject does not permit nomothetic
propositions, the majority of positivists appear committed
to Williams’ more moderate rule: “The propensity to error
should make us cautious, but not so desperate that we fear
to come as close as possible to apodictic findings. We
needn’t grasp at the torch with eyes closed, fearing to be
blinded.”
In addition to claiming that critics have
mischaracterized their methodological commitments,
positivists also contend that the historico-deductivist
approach is subject to many of the same criticisms leveled
against positivism. For example, on the twentieth
anniversary of her seminal article depicting the
Peloponnesian War as the archetypal case of power
politics in action, Nash, perhaps the exemplar of the
historico-deductivist school, revisited her earlier findings,
only to conclude that the interaction between the
Athenians and Spartans included significant instances of

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

12


34.

According to the passage, which of the following is
true of a posteriori overdetermination?
I.

II.

III.

A.
B.
C.
D.

35.

It presents a challenge to scholars’ ability
to produce nomothetic statements about
world politics.
It exemplifies the analytical confusion
created by unique events that often have
multiple effects.
It suggests that the historico-deductivism
is better suited than is positivism to the
study of international relations.

Which of the following would Dougherty be most
likely to describe as “clocks and necessity where
there are really clouds and contingency?”
A. a historico-deductivist study of World War I
B. a
historico-deductivist study of the
Peloponnesian War
C. a positivist study of the nature of reciprocity in
the relations among sovereign states
D. a chemist’s study of the behavior of a certain
gas under conditions of standard temperature
and pressure

I only
III only
I and II only
II and III only

38.

The principle underlying which of the following is
most analogous to “Williams’s more moderate rule
(lines 43-44)?”
A. A student’s estimation of her work is more
important than either the grade awarded the
work by the student’s instructor or the opinion
of the work expressed by the student’s peers.
B. The proficiency of an expert musician may
reflect intelligence different in form from, but
nonetheless equal in degree to, that of an

accomplished painter or a pioneering physicist.
C. If a worker were certain that he could never
earn more than $50,000 per year, this in itself
would not be a reason for him to refrain from
trying to improve his lot at $20,000 per year.
D. Hazardous road conditions constitute sufficient
reason for a motorist to cancel her travel plans,
even if the motorist is extremely reluctant to do
so.

As used in the passage, the word “torch” (line 47)
refers to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

36.

37.

propensity to error.
nomothetic propositions.
political phenomena.
methodological commitments.

As described in the passage, historico-deductivist
claims about the problem of a posteriori
overdetermination in the study of political
phenomena depend on the unstated assumption

that:
A. positivists’ methodological commitments
preclude positivists from providing a fully
scientific account of the onset of World War I.
B. complex social occurrences such as wars are
ultimately insusceptible to scholarly analysis.
C. replicability is a more severe obstacle than is
verifiability to the scientific study of world
politics.
D. a causal claim that stipulates multiple
indistinguishable causes for a certain effect is
not likely to be a nomothetic proposition.

39.

It can reasonably be inferred that the author of the
passage is a:
A.
B.
C.
D.

professor of history.
professor of international relations.
diplomat.
journalist.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
13

Passage VII (Questions 40–47)

5

10

15

20

25

30

35

40

45

50

Between 1965 and 1970, welfare caseloads more than
doubled and costs tripled. The Nixon administration was
unable to secure a legislative majority for comprehensive
welfare reform that, among other things, would have
capped federal welfare expenditures. Legislative welfare
reform raised contentious issues of who is entitled to
support, how much, and on what terms—precisely the

types of issues that have defied political resolution
throughout welfare’s history. Part of the administrative
strategy employed by Nixon in his second term involved
efforts to circumvent legislative obstacles and begin to
curb the provision of welfare administratively.

55

60

65

As a mechanism of policy change, the Nixon
administration turned to a common managerial tool—
performance monitoring. Middle-level officials at the
Office of Management and Budget (OMB) and the
Department of Health, Education and Welfare (HEW)
crafted quality control—a system for monitoring the
accuracy of state welfare payments—into an instrument
for indirectly influencing states to become more restrictive
in the provision of welfare.

70

Quality control’s manifest purpose was to achieve
fiscal accountability. Through this instrument HEW could
monitor state welfare payments and withhold federal
reimbursement for those that it deemed to be improper.
However, quality control also served a latent, political
function, partly reflected in its design. It penalized states

only for overpayments and payments made to ineligible
individuals. It was not used to hold states accountable for
underpayments, erroneous denials, unreasonable delays, or
administrative practices that discouraged applications.
Quality control’s effectiveness depended on the
uncoordinated responses of street-level bureaucrats in
hundreds of local welfare offices to new demands that
administrative reform imposed at the workplace. For
example, welfare workers translated administrative
concern for procedural uniformity into demands that
welfare applicants routinely produce scores of documents
of dubious relevance to their eligibility. Applicants who
could not meet these procedural demands, whether
reasonable or not, were denied welfare.

by adding substantial procedural hurdles to financial and
categorical requirements. Quality control did not overtly
breach the integrity of theoretical entitlement to welfare
promised by statute and supported by legal precedent.
Rather, it seemed designed to protect this promise. But in
practice, quality control appears to have initiated a process
of effective disentitlement. Its adverse effects were
unmeasured and unobserved, leaving quality control’s
manifest legitimacy unimpaired. Government institutions
and officials were thus insulated from the effects of their
actions. In this sense, quality control ironically eroded the
government accountability that it was ostensibly intended
to guarantee. Furthermore, through quality control, federal
authorities could indirectly influence state administrative
practices without directly encroaching on areas of nominal

state authority. Performance measurement backed by fiscal
sanctions proved to be a relatively potent, if imperfectly
cast, instrument for penetrating a decentralized
bureaucracy and systematically restricting the provision of
welfare.

40.

According to the passage, which of the following
led directly to the implementation of quality control
in the welfare system?
A. difficulty in passing legislation to address the
growing problems with the welfare system
B. additional costs and less federal support for
welfare programs
C. complaints of corruption and fraud amongst
welfare administrators
D. ineffective efforts on the part of the executive
branch to stem the increase in welfare
caseloads

Administrative reform introduced systematic bias into
the welfare delivery process that, consistent with quality
control criteria, traded errors of liberality for errors of
stringency. Behaviors directed toward the helping aspects
of welfare policy were virtually displaced as workers
responded to incentives to maximize measured attributes
of performance, namely procedural uniformity and
productivity. At the same time, worker discretion to make
unreasonable procedural demands, even to the point of

harassment, was virtually unchecked.
Administrative reform in effect redefined and made
more restrictive the meaning of welfare as an entitlement

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
14


41.

All of the following are mentioned as adverse
effects of quality control EXCEPT:

44.

A. undue emphasis on administrative paperwork
and procedures.
B. arbitrary and inconsistent penalties for state
welfare agencies.
C. a decrease in the number of people who were
eligible for welfare benefits.
D. lack of accountability for certain systematic
infringements of the welfare system.

42.

A. Procedural changes in welfare agencies should
be established in ways that assure adherence to
regulations for both workers and applicants.
B. Administrative

reform
methods
like
performance monitoring may cause welfare
organizations to become overly restrictive in
their policies.
C. State payments and federal reimbursement
funding can be effectively monitored through
changes in welfare administration at the
national level.
D. Implementation of quality control methods
helped to hold the federal government
accountable for its actions.

The author of the passage would most likely agree
with which of the following statements?
A. Federal attempts to make the welfare system
more fiscally responsible helped to make the
system more effective in its dealings with
welfare recipients.
B. State authorities should continue to maintain a
certain amount of control over the welfare
offices within their jurisdiction.
C. Welfare reform can best be achieved through a
combination of legislation and revised
administrative policies and procedures.
D. Quality control measures instituted during the
Nixon administration have been unjustly
accused of causing disentitlement of deserving
welfare recipients.

43.

What does the passage suggest about the use of
common managerial tools to effect policy changes
in the welfare system?

45.

It can be inferred that quality control was
interpreted to include which of the following
activities?
A. holding states responsible for unreasonable
delays in the welfare process
B. making states accountable for overpayments
C. easing the rules for federal reimbursement
D. changing the statutory rules for welfare
eligibility

In paragraph 3, the phrase “uncoordinated responses
of street-level bureaucrats” is used in order to:

46.

A. support the author’s claim that unreasonable
administrative procedures caused many
applicants to be denied welfare benefits.
B. refute the theory that quality control was used
to hold states to a higher standard of
accountability in their fiscal administration.

C. prove that quality control policies were
implemented to serve a political rather than a
social agenda.
D. provide a potential reason for the
ineffectiveness of performance monitoring on
general welfare reform.

It can be inferred that the author would support
which of the following steps to counteract the
negative effects of the quality control system on
welfare entitlement?
A. passage of a law limiting the number of welfare
applications
B. more careful screening of welfare caseworkers
C. increases in welfare spending by the
government
D. enforcement of state accountability for
underpayments and other actions which affect
welfare recipients adversely

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
15


Passage VIII (Questions 47–53)

5

10

15

20

25

30

35

40

45

50

55

Locating hydrocarbons has never been easy, and by
now the locations of all obvious reserves of oil and gas
have been discovered. The need to expand oil and gas
reserves therefore, brings with it a need to find
hydrocarbon reservoirs that are difficult to locate using
current geological and geophysical means. To do so,
geologists look for rock formations that constitute the
seals and reservoirs within which hydrocarbons could be
trapped. After being formed deep within the earth,
hydrocarbons migrate upwards, following a complex path
of minute cracks and pore spaces, and will eventually
reach the surface and be lost unless they encounter

impermeable rocks (such as dense shale) through which
they cannot travel. If the rock within which they are
trapped is highly permeable (such as sandstone) the
hydrocarbons can be extracted by drilling through the
impermeable seal, and tapping into this permeable
reservoir.

60

65

There are a number of different types of traps, but they
can be divided into two broad categories. Structural traps
are formed by deformation after the rocks have been
formed, for example by folding or faulting. Stratigraphic
traps are formed when the loose sediments that will
eventually be turned into rocks were laid down. For
example if the sea level rises and the permeable sands of a
beach are covered with estuarine mud, the buried
sediments will, under compression, become sandstone
capped by impermeable siltstones, forming an ideal
reservoir and trap. Structural traps tend to be easier to
locate and are the source of most of the known
hydrocarbon reserves. Expanding our reserves therefore
means
locating
more
stratigraphically
trapped
hydrocarbons.

improved by simply generating higher frequency pulses, or
by filtering out the lower frequency components of the
seismic source. Moreover, the density contrasts between
oil-bearing sandstones and the shales that provide
stratigraphic seals for the oil are often very small, so that
the reflectivities, and hence the strength of the reflection,
will be so low that the events may not be observable above
background noise.
Recent developments such as zero phase wavelet
processing and multivariate analysis of reflection
waveforms have decreased noise and increased resolution.
In the future it is hoped that these techniques, and greater
understanding of stratigraphy itself, will prove fruitful in
expanding hydrocarbon reserves.

47.

The primary purpose of this passage is to:
A. explain how hydrocarbons are formed and
trapped within the earth.
B. detail how seismologists can locate hidden
deposits of hydrocarbons.
C. contrast the relative difficulty of locating
structural traps and stratigraphic traps.
D. discuss the formation of hydrocarbon reserves
and how they can be located.

The primary means of exploring for oil where there is
no surface expression of the underlying geology is by

seismology. When a seismic pulse transmitted into the
earth encounters an interface where the density changes,
typically the surface between two beds or an unconformity
with velocity-density contrasts, some of the energy is
reflected back upwards. A string of seismophones record
these reflections and after extensive computation
seismologists can build up a visual record of the intensity
of each reflection and the time taken for it to reach the
surface.

48.

According to the passage it is often difficult to
distinguish reflections from the interface between
oil bearing sandstones and the shales that provide
stratigraphic seals from background noise because:
A. high frequencies are attenuated as they travel
through the earth.
B. there is little density contrast between the oil
bearing sandstone and the shales which provide
stratigraphic seals.
C. the frequency of the seismic pulse is not high
enough.
D. they are thinner than the seismic wavelet.

The primary limitation of the seismic method for
locating stratigraphic traps is resolution: It is not possible
to resolve features that are thinner than a seismic wavelet.
The most common stratigraphic traps (with the possible
exception of carbonate reservoirs) are in sandstone layers

that are much thinner than a seismic wavelet. Seismic
wavelets can be narrowed by increasing the frequency of
the seismic pulse.
However, high frequencies are
selectively attenuated as the pulse travels through the
earth, so there are limits to how much resolution can be

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
16


49.

The example of a stratigraphic trap formed by a
rise in sea level (lines 24-29) is used by the author
principally to:

52.

A. contrast a typical stratigraphic trap with a
typical structural trap.
B. explain why sandstones covered by siltstones
make ideal reservoir and trap.
C. illustrate the point that stratigraphic traps are
formed when sediments were laid down.
D. show why stratigraphic traps can be difficult to
locate seismically.

50.

A.
B.
C.
D.

53.

presently ineffective but showing promise
intrinsically flawed
effective and profitable
theoretically useful but ineffectual in practice

Which of the following developments in seismic
technique would the author view as the greatest aid
in the detection of stratigraphic traps?
A. the discovery of a means of reducing the
attenuation of high frequency seismic wavelets
within the earth
B. the development of a seismic source with an
extremely high frequency
C. the development of a means of filtering all
noise out of seismic sections
D. further research into the origin of stratigraphic
traps

According to the passage, all of the following are
needed if oil is to be extracted from a reservoir
EXCEPT:
A. an impermeable seal above the reservoir.
B. an original source of hydrocarbons below the

reservoir.
C. high density contrast between the reservoir
rocks and the stratigraphic seal.
D. high permeability within the reservoir.

51.

Which of the following best describes how the
author views seismology as a tool in locating
hydrocarbons?

It can be inferred from the passage that carbonate
reservoirs are:
A.
B.
C.
D.

less dense than sandstone reservoirs.
easily located by seismology.
an important type of stratigraphic trap.
thicker than a seismic wavelet.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
17


Passage IX (Questions 54–60)
The social functions of popular music are in the
creation of identity, in the management of feelings, and in

the organization of time.

5

10

15

20

25

30

35

40

45

50

We use pop songs to create for ourselves a particular
sort of self-definition, a particular place in society. The
pleasure that a pop song produces is a pleasure of
identification: in responding to a song, we are drawn into
affective and emotional alliances with the performers and
with the performers' other fans. Thus music, like sport, is
clearly a setting in which people directly experience
community, feel an immediate bond with other people, and

articulate a collective pride. At the same time, because of
its qualities of abstractness, pop music is an
individualizing form. Songs have a looseness of reference
that makes them immediately accessible. They are open to
appropriation for personal use in a way that other popular
cultural forms (television soap operas, for example) are
not—the latter are tied into meanings which we may reject.
This interplay between personal absorption into music and
the sense that it is, nevertheless, something public, is what
makes music so important in the cultural placing of the
individual. Music also gives us a way of managing the
relationship between our public and private emotional
lives. Popular love songs are important because they give
shape and voice to emotions that otherwise cannot be
expressed without embarrassment or incoherence. Our
most revealing declarations of feeling are often expressed
in banal or boring language and so our culture has a supply
of pop songs that say these things for us in interesting and
involving ways.

54.

The author's primary purpose in discussing popular
music is to:
A. account for the importance of popular music in
youth culture.
B. contrast several sociological theories about
popular music.
C. compare popular music with other forms of
popular culture.

D. outline the social functions of popular music.

55.

The passage suggests that one similarity between
popular and classical music is that both:
A. articulate a sense of community and collective
pride.
B. give shape to inexpressible emotions.
C. emphasize the feeling of time.
D. define particular age groups.

And finally, as its third function, popular music shapes
popular memory, organizes our sense of time. Clearly one
of the effects of all music, not just pop, is to focus our
attention on the feeling of time, and intensify our
experience of the present. One measure of good music is
its "presence," its ability to "stop" time, to make us feel we
are living within a moment, with no memory or anxiety
about what has come before us, what will come after. It is
this use of time that makes popular music so important in
the social organization of youth. We invest most in
popular music when we are teenagers and young adults—
music ties into a particular kind of emotional turbulence,
when issues of individual identity and social place, the
control of public and private feelings, are at a premium.
What this suggests, though, is not that young people need
music, but that "youth" itself is defined by music. Youth is
experienced, that is, as an intense presence, through an
impatience for time to pass and a regret that it is doing so,

in a series of speeding, physically insistent moments that
have nostalgia coded into them.

56.

It can be inferred from the passage that the author's
attitude towards love songs in popular music is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

bored by the banality of their language.
embarrassed by their emotional incoherence.
interested by their expressions of feeling.
unimpressed by their social function.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
18


57.

The author probably refers to sport in paragraph 1
primarily in order to:
A.
B.
C.
D.

58.

59.

draw a parallel.
establish a contrast.
challenge an assumption.
introduce a new idea.

A. Pop songs are unpopular with older age
groups.
B. Love songs shape our everyday language.
C. Pop songs become personalized like other
cultural fonns.
D. Popular music combines public and private
experience.

In the last paragraph, the author is predominantly
concerned with:
A. defining the experience of youth.
B. describing how popular music defines youth.
C. speculating about the organization of youth
movements.
D. analyzing the relationship between music and
time.

The author cites which one of the following in
support of the argument that popular music creates
our identity?

60.

Which of the following, if true, would most
weaken the author's argument for the importance of
popular music in the social organization of youth?
A. Popular songs often incorporate nostalgic
lyrics.
B. Young people are ambivalent about the passage
of time.
C. Older people are less interested in popular
music than young people.
D. Pop songs focus our expectations on the
future.

STOP. IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED,
CHECK YOUR WORK. YOU MAY GO BACK TO ANY
QUESTION IN THIS SECTION ONLY.

STOP.