AAMC MCAT test 4r answers

MCAT
Practice Test IV

SOLUTIONS

IV

M CAT
MEDICAL COLLEGE ADMISSION TEST

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AAMC MCAT P RACTICE T EST IV
S OLUTIONS
Edited, produced, typeset, and illustrated by
Steven A. Leduc
National Director of Medical Research & Development,
The Princeton Review

Special thanks to:
Jennifer Wooddell
Judene Wright

Copyright © 2001 by Princeton Review Management, L.L.C.
All rights reserved.
MCAT is a service mark of the Association of American Medical Colleges (AAMC).
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Version 1.0

www.PrincetonReview.com

MCAT P RACTICE T EST IV
S OLUTIONS
C ONTENTS :
Verbal Reasoning .............. 3

Physical Sciences .......... 19
Biological Sciences ...... 28

010110

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VERBAL REASONING
Passage I
1. D
Item I:
Yes. The country’s level of development is included in a list of relevant factors given in lines 53-55.
Item II. Yes. See line 53. “Circumstances” is a synonym for “context”.
Item III. Yes. The author posits this as the most important consideration (lines 55-57).
2. B
A: The passage never indicates who originated the concept of human rights, only that the idea was not forced on other
nations by Western cultures.
B: Yes. In the first paragraph, the author argues that the idea of human rights was familiar to most non-Western
cultures before it was advocated to them by Western nations (lines 7-13).
C: This choice contradicts the main idea of the first paragraph; that the idea of human rights is ancient and pervasive, and
was not invented by certain Western cultures and then forced on the rest of the world. There is no mention of resistance
to human rights specifically from non-Western cultures.
D: The author states that they were familiar with the idea of freedom “even if there were no explicit covenants to that

effect” (lines 10-12). “Traditional societies” here corresponds to the reference to non-Western cultures in line 9.
3. D
A: This is the right answer to the wrong question. The claim that the idea of freedom was not alien to non-Western cultures
comes later in the paragraph. The author cites the two documents mentioned in the question to show that the concept of
human rights is an ancient one.
B: Again, this is the right answer to the wrong question. It is true, according to the passage, but the author does not cite
these two Declarations in order to show that it is true. Compare this choice to answer choice D.
C: Again, right answer, wrong question. The second paragraph includes this statement in lines 14-15, but not in reference
to the claim that human rights is an ancient idea as shown by the content of these two documents.
D: Yes. This choice accurately describes the author’s purpose in this part of the passage. These two documents are
cited as direct evidence that the concept of human rights is an ancient one.
4. A
A: Yes. In lines 55-58, the author argues that the most important factor to consider is whether or not there is a trend
toward greater human rights. The tone of the passage is strongly positive about increased recognition of human
rights, and yet the author says that it will not happen all at once (lines 51-52). Thus, the author would call for
cautious praise.
B: While the passage does discuss monitoring in the third paragraph, the author never connects a positive trend towards
recognition of human rights (as described in the question) with a need for intense monitoring (see lines 51-57).
C: While the author argues that we must take level of development into account (lines 53-55), the passage never indicates
that forgiveness of abuses is called for. In fact, the author states that there is no possible excuse for certain kinds of
violations (lines 58-62).
D: The passage states that implementation of human rights protections may take some time; we must consider whether or
not there is a move toward human rights in a particular country when evaluating that case (lines 51-57). The scenario
presented by the question clearly indicates a move in the right direction; the author would praise, not criticize this
nation.

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5. D

A: In the passage as a whole, the author criticizes human rights abuses, and in the final paragraph sets out certain kinds of
abuses that can never be tolerated, regardless of the country’s level of development (lines 58-62). However, the author
never indicates that state use of private property qualifies as a human rights abuse at any level. Be careful not to use
outside knowledge or personal opinion to answer questions.
B: See the explanation for choice A. The author does not suggest that placing conditions (which could include age,
citizenship, etc.) on the right to vote qualifies as a violation of human rights.
C: See the explanation for choice A. The author does not argue that freedom can never be curtailed, even in emergency
situations.
D: Yes. In lines 58-61 the passage lists torture as one of several abuses that can never be tolerated, regardless of
level of development.
6. C
A: The author claims that the United Nations has failed to become “an effective instrument for the promotion of human
rights” (lines 32-35).
B: Always pay close attention to the word “most” (as in “most benefit”) when it appears in a question. While the
Organization of American States did pass a human rights declaration (lines 37-39), the passage does not show that the
OAS ever takes direct action to rectify specific abuses. Be careful not to use outside knowledge; the credited response
must be directly supported by the passage.
C: Yes. The author describes how Amnesty International calls public attention to specific abuses, and may
“mobilize public support” to bring about action (lines 46-50).
D: The author does not suggest that people being abused by their own government would benefit by appealing to the
leaders of the abusive state.
7. B
A: The correct answer will weaken or be inconsistent with a claim made by the author. While the passage never
specifically calls for civil disobedience, the author does say that certain abuses are never tolerable (lines 58-62). We do
not know that these “unjust laws” fall into this category, but the answer choice is consistent, not inconsistent with the
overall tone of the passage.
B: Yes. In the second paragraph the author asserts that human rights may transcend or supersede the laws of
nations, in part through citing Dr. Evatt’s claims in lines 23-28. Thus the author argues that outside interference
may in fact by called for, in opposition to the statement made in the answer choice.
C: The passage itself suggests this to be true in its discussion of trends (lines 51-55).

D: This choice is entirely consistent with the author’s statement that “the walls of oppression would not crumble at the
first clarion call” (lines 51-52).

Passage II
8. A
A: Yes. In paragraph 5, the author claims that “women writers,” by using that term to describe themselves, send
the message that women need to segregate themselves only until they “become politically strong . . . a visible,
viable social factor” (lines 48-51).
B: This choice takes words from the passage out of context. The author asserts that women writers claim to recognize
humanity-as-a-whole (lines 45-47), not that they are waiting for literature to recognize it. In fact, the passage indicates
that true literature, by definition, recognizes the universality of humanity (lines 24-30).
C: As in choice B, this answer takes words from the passage, but does not form them into an appropriate answer. The
author states in lines 38-41 that feminists (who, according to the author are not “women writers”) believe that the
imagination cannot be liberated, because it is already free. Women writers, as described in the passage, are not waiting
for the liberation of the imagination, but for political and social power (lines 48-55).
D: Again, this choice takes words and ideas from the passage out of the context of the question. The author refers to the
appearance of a new generation of authors (lines 58-59), but this does not correspond to the time when women writers
plan to rejoin the world (lines 48-55).
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9. B
A: This choice contradicts the passage. The author contrasts women writers who segregate themselves, believing that they
have an inherent common ground as women (lines 15-21), with feminists who reject gender-based identities and selfsegregation (lines 31-40). Be careful to use the author’s own definition of feminism, as it is described in the passage, to
answer the questions.
B: Yes. According to the author, feminism came into being in order to eliminate the “myth-fed condition” of genderbased segregation (lines 32-34), and feminism in the arts arose to eliminate “mythological divisions” (lines 3840).
C: This is what women writers (lines 14-23), not feminists do (lines 31-41).
D: According to the passage, women writers already accept humanity-as-a-whole (lines 45-47).
10. C
A: The author asserts that women who consciously write as women are engaged in the politics of sex (lines 1-3), not that

all women who write use the language of politics. The author uses the label “women writers” to refer to something
much more ideologically specific then simply “women who write.”
B: According to the passage, the author believes that “the separate male and female states of intellect” do not in fact exist
(lines 14-17, 24, 31-38). The author uses the term rather to describe the language of women who write as women, with
a particular social and political agenda. The politics of sex may include a belief in separate intellects, but the author
does not use the phrase to refer to that belief.
C: Yes. In lines 8-13, the author describes contexts in which the politics of sex is appropriate, that is, in movements
that fight in political or socioeconomic arenas for equality for women. The author objects to “women writers” on
the basis that their writing assumes a certain agenda or set of premises (the politics of sex) from the beginning,
rather than imaginatively seeking out new ideas (lines 14-23). Thus they import the politics of sex into literature,
where the author believes it does not belong.
D: The author does not believe any real separation exists. Furthermore, even women writers who engage in the politics of
sex do not conceive of the separation as a permanent one (lines 55-56).
11. A
A: Yes. The correct response will be a statement that is inconsistent with the author’s opinions as they are expressed
in the passage. The author argues that the idea that women have separate life experiences is a myth (lines 31-38);
throughout the passage the author asserts a commonality, not a distinction between men and women.
B: Notice that this choice does not specify that these views would be expressed through literature. The author argues that
literature [fiction and poetry (line 42)] should not be written in the language of politics (lines 12-14), but never
indicates that female authors should not make their views known in other ways.
C: This is a direct paraphrase of the passage (lines 24-26). The author would most likely agree, not disagree with his or her
own words.
D: The author mentions the struggle for equal employment as an appropriate arena for the politics of sex. The passage
does not indicate that the author would oppose greater wage equality in any way; what the author criticizes is the
incorporation of politics or politicized self-images into literature.
12. D
A: The passage portrays the beliefs of women writers and feminists as mutually exclusive (lines 14-23, 31-40), and gives
no hint that women writers are evolving into feminists.
B: According to the author, the minute a person calls herself a woman writer, she becomes political (lines 1-7, 14-23).
Thus, those who are called women writers do not eventually become political, but are already politicized.

C: This choice is too extreme. While the author claims that the human component of literature is denied by women writers
(lines 24-30), the passage does not suggest that that component will be eradicated from all literature if the label
“women writer” is used.
D: Yes. The author argues that the supposedly temporary strategy of segregation will turn into a permanent reality
in 4-5 years, and authors will find themselves divided into two categories: “women writers” and (male) “writers”
(lines 58-64).

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13. D
A: The correct answer will be a statement from the passage that is inconsistent with the scenario presented in the question.
If the author did in fact admire the fiction or poetry of a woman writer, it would have no bearing on the passage’s
discussion of the origins of classical feminism (lines 31-34).
B: The author’s admiration for a woman writer’s work would not be inconsistent with the author’s depiction of the beliefs
of women writers (lines 19-23).
C: The scenario in the question is discrepant with the author’s disapproval of the work of women writers and concern over
the potential impact of their use of the term “woman writer.” However, it is not specifically inconsistent with the
author’s description of that impact [an uninspiring world in which all the “writers” are men (lines 60-66)]. Compare
this choice with answer choice D.
D: Yes. According to the author, women writers, by labeling themselves as such, inappropriately incorporate the
language of politics into the world of literature (lines 12-14). Literature should be driven by the imagination and
should build connections between the sexes. This it cannot do, according to the passage, if it is politicized (lines
24-30). Thus, if the author admired the work of a woman writer, it would be discrepant or inconsistent with the
author’s assertion that the language of politics should not be used in literature.
14. A
A: Yes. According to the passage, literature “engenders sympathies from sex to sex, from condition to condition...”
(lines 24-28).
B: The passage defines literature as fiction or poetry when the author defines a “writer” as a “fiction writer or a poet” in
line 42 (see also lines 12-13, 24-30). This answer choice describes a nonfiction essay.

C: While a novel is fiction, true literature according to the author foments sympathy, not antagonism between the sexes
(lines 24-26).
D: Such a tract would be non-fiction, and written in the language of politics. Both of these characteristics would disqualify
it as literature in the eyes of the author (lines 12-13, 42).

Passage III
15. C
A: The passage does not ever raise the issue of prisoners’ beliefs regarding their right to privacy. There is no direct
evidence in the passage to support this choice.
B: Prisoners’ concern or lack of concern for their own health is not an issue in the passage.
C: Yes. The author argues that physician–patient confidentiality in prison is especially important, as patient
distrust could cause prisoners to fail to disclose important health-related information (lines 13-15, 20-23). Thus it
would be reasonable to conclude based on the passage that the inmates refused a diagnostic procedure because
of this distrust.
D: As in choices A and B, this choice requires too much speculation. While the author does raise the issue of detection of
weapons (lines 38-43, 62-67), the passage does not suggest that prisoners refuse procedures out of fear that a weapon
will be detected. Furthermore, the author does not indicate whether prisoners carry weapons for self-protection or for
other, more aggressive reasons. Compare this choice to choice C—the passage directly addresses the possibility that
patients may refuse to cooperate fully in their own diagnosis and treatment due to distrust of prison physicians.
16. D
A, B, and C: All three of these choices are wrong for the same reason: they are not strong enough. The author places no
conditions on or exceptions to the “duty to warn” held by a physician when a weapon is detected (lines 38-46). Later in
the passage, the author does state that a patient should be given the opportunity to surrender the weapon voluntarily, but
prison authorities are still involved (lines 62-67).
D: Yes. In lines 38-46, the author asserts that the imminent threat posed by a weapon overrides the patient’s right to
privacy, and the physician has a “duty to warn” the prison authorities.

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17. D
A: The passage indicates that a certain level of confidentiality and physician autonomy is necessary for good medical care
(lines 9-15, 24-25). However, the author does not suggest that the absence of these qualities is the only possible cause
of a decline in the quality of medicine. Therefore, if the quality declines, it is not necessarily because of a lack of
confidentiality.
B: The passage suggests that the ability to keep certain kinds of information from prison authorities is one factor in
physician autonomy (lines 24-32). However, we don’t know from the passage that it is the only factor. Thus a physician
could refuse to reveal information, and still lack autonomy.
C: This choice is wrong for the same reasons as choice A. Respect for confidentiality is one necessary condition for good
medical care (lines 9-15), but the passage does not claim that it is the only necessary condition. Therefore,
confidentiality could be respected while the quality of care is poor for other reasons.
D: Yes. The author claims that confidentiality and physician autonomy are necessary conditions for good medical
care (lines 9-15, 24-25). Thus, if a physician was forced to break confidentiality, the quality of care would suffer.
18. B
A: The author refers to “necessary information” in the context of explaining that without confidentiality, prisoners may fail
to reveal information important for their own health care. The passage gives no indication that past criminal activities
would likely be related to an inmate’s health.
B: Yes. The author introduces the passage through the example of prisoner A, found by a physician to have drugs
and paraphernalia on or in his person. The author then goes on to argue that information regarding drug use
could be crucial to a patient’s treatment, so physicians should not be required to reveal this “necessary
information” to the authorities (lines 13-23, 33-36, 67-70).
C: The author uses the term “necessary information” to indicate information necessary to the patient’s medical treatment.
Be careful not to take the words out of the context of the passage.
D: Pay close attention to the words “most specifically” in the question. While one could imagine a patient’s psychiatric
history being an important factor in their current medical treatment, psychiatric history is never specifically mentioned
in the passage. However, the author explicitly and repeatedly argues that doctors must know of a patient’s drug use in
order to effectively treat him or her (lines 1-7, 33-36, 67-70).
19. A
A: Yes. By claiming that “respect for patient confidentiality is particularly important in a prison hospital setting”
because patients might distrust prison doctors (lines 20-23), the author indicates that inmates are less likely to

expect confidentiality than are non-incarcerated patients of private doctors.
B: This choice takes words out of context of the passage. The author mentions incompetence as an exception to the
requirement that informed consent be provided by patients (lines 56-59), not as a reason why confidentiality would be
especially important.
C: The question is not asking when an inmate’s ability to keep secrets is threatened. Confidentiality may not apply to cases
where diagnostic tools reveal the presence of weapons, but physician confidentiality is not itself threatened by the use
of these tools. Finally, the use of X rays is not depicted as “invasive” by the author.
D: The author states just the opposite. While inmates do not have “full Constitutional rights to privacy,” physician
confidentiality is one of those rights which they do have in most circumstances (lines 16-19).

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20. B
A: The correct response will be inconsistent with the author’s claim that physician confidentiality is especially important
in prisons because inmates distrust doctors who are hired by the prison (lines 19-23). First of all, the author argues that
confidentiality should not be respected when weapons are detected (lines 38-46). Secondly, prisoners’ awareness that
X rays will detect weapons would not affect the author’s argument about the need for patients to be able to trust their
doctors and the unlikelihood that inmates will do so.
B: Yes. The author argues that inmate patients distrust prison hospitals because the doctors may be employees of
the prison. This is the basis of the author’s assertion of the special need to respect physician confidentiality in
prison settings. If inmates do not believe that prison doctors are controlled by the institution, then prison
hospitals do not present a unique situation. Therefore, while the physician–patient covenant would still be
important, it would have no special importance in a prison setting.
C: This choice would strengthen, not weaken the author’s argument. If prison officials often question physicians about
inmates, inmates would have reason to fear that information given to a physician about activities such as drug use
might be revealed to the authorities.
D: This choice is too vague to have any impact on the author’s argument. It does not specify whether or not prisoners
misunderstand their Constitutional rights to privacy. Nor does it indicate whether this misunderstanding is of a sort that
would decrease the trust they place in their doctors.

Passage IV
21. D
A: This choice is too narrow to be the main idea. It is directly stated in lines 8-9, but it is only one small part of the
author’s overall argument that altruism may be as “biological” as selfishness.
B: This choice (directly stated in lines 20-22) ignores the final three paragraphs of the passage. The author goes on to
argue that natural selection may allow for altruism as well through kin selection.
C: While this is an important part of the author’s argument about altruism in animals (lines 32-33), the author goes on to
claim that human altruism may therefore be just as “animal” or biological as selfishness. Thus it is evidence for the
main point, not the main point itself.
D: Yes. The author argues that animals act altruistically when those acts benefit kin. Therefore, human kindness
may not be a “unique overlay,” but instead a characteristic that we share with the animal kingdom.
22. A
A: Yes. In the first paragraph, the author argues that we tend to attribute selfish acts to our animal nature. We also
tend to believe that we act for the benefit of others only when we can overcome that animal part of ourselves
through our uniquely human capacity for reason or rationality (lines 11-14). Thus, according to common belief,
altruism is a uniquely human imposition or overlay on our basic animal nature.
B: This is the opposite of the correct response. In the context of the passage, the “unique overlay” is human rationality,
which acts against our animalistic tendencies.
C: As in choice B, this is the opposite of the correct response. The passage describes selfishness as an animalistic, not
uniquely human behavior (lines 8-11).
D: This choice takes the passage’s reference to self-criticism out of context. We criticize ourselves for “animalistic”
behavior (lines 8-11), but the passage does not claim that the ability to do so is uniquely human. Be careful not to use
common sense or outside knowledge. When the passage uses the term “unique overlay,” it is specifically in reference to
altruistic behavior that we (falsely) believe to be non-animalistic.
23. C
A: Altruism and rationality are not compared to each other. The passage states that we tend to believe that it is our
rationality that allows us to behave altruistically (lines 11-14).
B: Both traits are listed as part of our “apish ancestry” (lines 9-11), but selfishness and aggressiveness are not compared to
each other.

C: Yes. A major theme of the passage is the comparison between the belief that altruism is unique to humans (lines
8-14) and the author’s belief that animals as well may act altruistically through kin selection (lines 29-34, 53-56).
D: Determinism is discussed in lines 44-52, while rationality is mentioned in line 13 in a very different context; the two
are never compared to each other.
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24. C
A: The sentence given in the question refers to the belief that specific behavior (hoarding and giving) can be determined
by (“attributed to”) genetics. This is just the opposite of free will as it is described in the passage (lines 46-50).
B: The main point of the fourth paragraph (lines 51-66) is that altruistic behavior may have a biological basis, but is not
completely determined by genetics. The passage discusses rationality in the first paragraph in a different context, when
it describes the view of many that human beings use their unique capacity for reason to override animalistic, selfish
impulses (lines 9-14).
C: Yes. The section of the passage referred to by the question presents the author’s claim that specific behaviors are
not completely determined by genetics. The statement in the question, that some have attributed both selfish and
altruistic behaviors to genetics, could be used to illustrate “deterministic speculation” (lines 44-46).
D: The author argues that human nature is not completely determined by genetics (lines 44-50). Thus a statement
describing deterministic beliefs would not illuminate or illustrate that claim.
25. A
A: Yes. This assertion is made in lines 46-50, with no reference to authority or example. “Free will” is described, but
the passage does not provide an example of how free will affects human behavior.
B: The author refers to Freud as an authority who has made this claim (lines 56-59), and gives Copernicus, Newton, and
Freud as examples (lines 59-63).
C: The passage cites Hamilton as an authority on this point (lines 26-32).
D: The author supports this assertion through reference to Freud (lines 1-6).
26. B
A: The author discusses natural selection in the second paragraph in order to introduce the question of how altruism could
be biological (lines 19-25). The author does not deal with that question until the subsequent paragraph, through the
discussion of kin selection.

B: Yes. The passage discusses kin selection (lines 26-34) in order to resolve the question of how altruism could have
a biological basis.
C: The passage states that civilization requires altruistic behavior and the suppression of selfish and aggressive biological
instincts (lines 1-6). That part of the passage does not deal with the paradox raised in the quoted section of how this
altruistic behavior could have a biological basis; that resolution does not come until the author’s discussion of kin
selection in the third paragraph.
D: The question asks where the author most directly deals with the question of biologically-based altruism. Evolution is
related to kin selection by the passage (lines 29-34), but it is in the discussion of kin selection itself that the author most
directly deals with the problem. Compare this choice to answer choice B.
27. D
A: The author indicates that while we once believed that we lived at the hub of the universe, we have been forced to accept
that that belief is not valid (lines 56-60).
B: The passage states that “before Freud, we imagined ourselves as rational creatures” (lines 61-63), suggesting that we no
longer, post-Freud, see ourselves as rational.
C: This choice is inconsistent with the author’s rejection of genetic determinism (lines 44-50).
D: Yes. According to the passage, we once believed that our capacity for altruism was not based in biology, and so
that our ability to be kind distinguished us from non-human animals (lines 11-14). However, once we recognize
that altruism, like selfishness, may have a genetic, evolutionary basis, we may see that we have more in common
with other animals than we thought (lines 53-56, 63-66).
28. A
A: Yes. The main idea of the passage is that while we by nature are selfish and aggressive (lines 3-11), we are also by
nature kind and altruistic (lines 42-44, 53-56). Thus the author would likely argue that our natural tendency
towards conflict may be tempered or counteracted by our coexisting natural tendency towards kindness.
B: This choice misrepresents the author’s position. The author argues that our true biological nature includes both brutality
and altruism (lines 37-39, 42-44).
C: The author claims that our biological nature includes both brutality and kindness (lines 37-39, 42-44). Furthermore, the
passage never raises the issue of spirituality.
D: The author introduces this view in the first paragraph in order to go on to reject it. The passage indicates that altruism is
not imposed upon our biological nature by rationality, but may in fact arise from our biological nature (lines 26-42).
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29. B
A: The author rejects biological determinism (lines 44-50).
B: Yes. The passage asserts that human social life and the survival of civilization requires reciprocal altruistic
behavior; that is, that we all act for the good of others and of the social body (lines 1-6).
C: The passage argues just the opposite: that in order to live together and ensure the survival of our civilization, we must
temper or reduce our animal aggression through kindness and altruism (lines 1-6).
D: The passage never mentions genetic mutation.
30. C
A: This statement strengthens Freud’s argument by reinforcing his claim that we have a natural tendency toward
aggression.
B: This choice also strengthens Freud’s claim that our biology drives us towards animalistic, selfish behavior.
C: Yes. If lower animals are capable of altruism as well as selfishness, then we may be able to behave altruistically
not by suppressing but by embracing our “animalistic, biological instincts.” Thus this statement weakens
Freud’s argument.
D: The agonizing dilemma mentioned in the passage (with reference to Freud) is that we are selfish by nature, and yet
civilization requires altruism (lines 1-6). This is not inconsistent with the statement by Freud cited in the question that
we must renounce our nature in order to be altruistic.

Passage V
31. A
A: Yes. The passage states that once beetles feeding on sap exuded by ovules (ovules play a vital role in
reproduction) became a vehicle for pollination, the ovules themselves had to be protected (lines 24-26).
B: This choice reverses the relationship between insects and flowers as it is presented in the passage. The author mentions
a variety of ways in which flowers evolved so as to take better advantage of insects (lines 21-23, 24-28, 42-50, 53-65).
The passage never indicates that flowers influenced the evolution of insects.
C: The passage does discuss the dispersal of pollen to and from seed-bearing plants in the first two paragraphs (although
the range of pollen dispersal is not discussed). However, dispersal of the seeds is never mentioned. Be careful not to
rely on outside knowledge.

D: The passage indicates just the opposite. Restriction, not expansion of the variety of means of fertilization, was the
problem to be solved (lines 56-68). The passage does discuss the advantages of insect over wind pollination, but insects
represented an alternative, not an additional means for individual plant species (lines 18-23).
32. B
A: The passage refers to the structure and behavior of insects living 70-150 million years ago. Modern insect species never
explicitly come into the picture.
B: Yes. The tone of the passage is clearly speculative. The author constantly uses words and phrases like “probably”
(lines 3, 6) and “must have,” “would have,” “may have,” or “could be” (lines 13, 17, 19, 29, 32, 48, 51). As for the
theoretical basis of the passage, the author does not argue for or defend natural selection as an appropriate
theoretical model, but simply assumes that the reader will accept it as valid.
C: The only reference to modern times is a brief mention of modern survivors of ancient plants (lines 8-10). The passage is
not framed in terms of (nor does it even discuss) ongoing evolutionary trends, however.
D: Only once does the passage specifically mention the fossil record (lines 1-3). While the author may well be drawing on
fossil evidence for his or her conclusions, the passage is primarily characterized by the author’s educated guesses about
the likely course of flower evolution (see the explanation for choice B).

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33. C
A: In terms of number of species, the passage suggests just the opposite. Flowers evolved ways to screen out unwanted
visitors and to restrict pollination to certain insect species (lines 65-68). In terms of sheer number of insects, the
passage does not mention evolutionary trends that might have boosted the number of insects (regardless of species)
attracted to flowers. By discussing a shift from “promiscuous” to “restricted” pollination, the passage indicates that this
was not in fact the case.
B: The passage states just the opposite. Reproductive structures evolved that screened out short-tongued, non-flying
insects (see last paragraph). Furthermore, the author does not suggest that tubular corollas were more accommodating
to “specialized and flower-constant species,” just that they were less accommodating to beetles and inadequately
equipped flies.
C: Yes. The flower petals fused to form a tubular corolla, which kept the attractive nectar hidden from and out of

reach of beetles and short-tongued flies (lines 56-64).
D: No mention is made of how the reproductive structure of flowers affected insect evolution. It may well have done so in
reality, but it is never discussed in the passage.
34. C
A: The correct answer will be related to a theme already present in the passage, as well as to the main idea of the passage
as a whole. The passage is about the evolutionary influence of insects on flowers, and gives no hint as to what role
climate might play.
B: The passage presents the “big picture” of long-term evolutionary trends in flower structures. There is nothing in that
picture that could be directly used to answer questions about biochemistry.
C: Yes. The author speculates about how the structure of flowers, including pigmented petals (lines 48-50), may
have evolved so as to maximize pollination by the most appropriate insects. This change, according to the author,
contributed to reproductive success. This could be appropriately extended to speculation about how the color of
flowers may play a role in attracting those same insects.
D: We know from the passage when flowers originated (lines 1-3) and when specific types of winged insects (bees, moths,
butterflies, and long-tongued flies) came into being (lines 53-55). We can infer from the latter discussion that other
types of winged insects (including small flies, lines 60-62) existed before bees et. al. appeared on the scene, but the
passage gives no indication of how long before.
35. B
A: The correct answer will weaken the author’s assertion that corollas evolved in order to restrict access to certain insects
that fly regularly between flowers of the same species (lines 60-68). This choice would tend to strengthen that claim by
suggesting that “promiscuous pollination” was now no longer possible, and that these flowers now depended on a
limited number of insects pollinators.
B: Yes. If the long-tongued insects of the Tertiary Period (lines 53-57) could not fly, then the author’s hypothesis
that the corolla evolved in the Tertiary Period in order to allow access only to long-tongued flying insects (lines
61-64) is questionable.
C: The fact that the genes which control one advantageous development (corollas) also cause a disadvantageous
development (fungus) would have no impact on the author’s claims about why and how insects are related to the
evolution of flowers.
D: Whether or not flowers can now be chemically induced to form corollas has no bearing on the author’s argument about
how corollas originally evolved.

36. D
A: To answer the question, one must frame the botanist’s claims in terms of the issues raised in the passage. The passage
concerns itself with the evolution of insects only to the extent that it affects the evolution of flowers. Knowing why
beetles retained short tongues would not help us understand why flowers evolved to exclude them.
B: The botanist, in the context of the passage, would need to explain why flowers evolved to admit only long-tongued
flies. The evolutionary goings-on of bees, moths, and butterflies has no direct relevance to this question.
C: We don’t care how the flies survived before corollas evolved. We care why the flowers evolved so as to attract only
these flies.
D: Yes. In the passage, the author describes restrictive pollination as a “great step forward in floral design” (lines
65-68), and throughout the passage refers to advantages conferred by various stages of floral evolution. Thus, to
explain in the context of the passage why flowers evolved to be pollinated by a single species of fly, the botanist
would need to explain why this represents a reproductive or evolutionary advantage.
11


Passage VI
37. D
A: This statement, while supported by the passage (lines 4-6), is too narrow to be the central thesis of the passage. The
author uses orangutans as one example in the context of the passage’s overall argument about training and sensitivity.
B: The author writes that orangutans are different than chimpanzees (paragraphs 2 and 3), but does not suggest that this
difference makes them more interesting. In fact, the passage states that chimps look “inferential, ingenious, and ever so
active” while problem solving (lines 15-16), which sounds like reasonably interesting behavior. Even if this choice
were supported by the passage, it would be too narrow to qualify as the main idea or central thesis.
C: This choice takes words from the passage out of context. The final paragraph argues that a better understanding of
animals may help us better respect other species, not our own.
D: Yes. The first three paragraphs demonstrate the intelligence and responsiveness of animals. The final two
paragraphs build on that theme to argue that “true training” must be reciprocal, which requires sensitivity to
and respect for these qualities in the “trainee.”
38. C
A: The passage does not discuss the comparative speed with which chimps and orangutans understand or solve problems.

B: Chimpanzees use a different method to solve problems, but the passage does not indicate that it is a more appropriate
method.
C: Yes. The passage describes how the chimpanzee takes the hexagonal peg and experiments until it finds the
correct hole (lines 15-21). The orangutan, on the other hand, appears to be uninvolved in the test until it
“casually, as if thinking of something else” completes the task (lines 22-29). Thus we cannot observe how the
orangutan has solved the problem, while the chimpanzee looks “inferential, ingenious and ever so active.”
D: The author cites Prof. Miles’ judgment that orangutans are no less smart than chimpanzees (lines 29-31) and her
evaluation of the nature of their intelligence (lines 31-34).
39. D
A: While the author claims that orangutans have few social encounters (lines 6-10), the passage never indicates whether or
not they are aggressive in the encounters that they do have.
B: A lack of social interaction does not constitute or indicate a lack of responsiveness to any external stimuli. In fact, the
passage shows in its discussion of Berosini’s orangutans that they can be trained (lines 1-4, 35-38), and in the third
paragraph describes how orangutans do respond, in their own way, to the stimulus provided by the intelligence test.
C: While orangutans may be difficult to train because they “are not dependent on social support and approval” (lines 410), the author does not describe this as “temperamental” behavior.
D: Yes. While we might not naturally think of the word “poetic” in order to describe independent behavior, that is
the way in which the author uses the term in the context of the passage. In the first paragraph, the passage
explains how orangutans have little social interaction with each other in the wild. The quote from Miles is given
to illustrate the claim that an orangutan is “irredeemably his or her own person,” that is, not interested in the
support and approval of others (lines 8-12).
40. B
A: The author does not claim that they lack initiative, only that we cannot observe it in action (lines 22-29). In contrast,
the chimp clearly displays its initiative as it tests the peg in various holes (lines 19-20). Finally, the theme of the first
paragraph, in which the author mentions the difficulty of training orangutans, is not problem solving but the asocial and
independent nature of these animals.
B: Yes. In the first paragraph the author discusses Berosini’s claim that orangutans are difficult to train because
they are “self-contained” (lines 4-6), that is, they care little about the “social support and approval of others”
(lines 8-10).
C: Limited attention span is never mentioned.
D: The author does not argue that orangutans distrust humans, just that they don’t care much about receiving human (or

ape) approval (lines 8-10). The fact that Berosini successfully trains orangutans [which according to the author involves
a reciprocal and respectful relationship between trainer and trainee (lines 38-42)] indicates that these orangutans must
trust humans to some extent.

12


41. A
A: Yes. The main idea of the paragraph in which this statement appears is that training is a two-way,
“symmetrical” relationship. In the subsequent paragraph, the author states that the “intelligent responsiveness
of trainers” within this reciprocal relationship may be seen as respect for the animal (lines 58-61).
B: The focus of the aphorism, and of the passage, is on the attentiveness of the trainer as a prerequisite for the
attentiveness of the animal being trained.
C: The author does refer to the natural social structure (or lack thereof) of orangutans (lines 6-7), but not in reference to
training techniques.
D: By “heed the animal” the author means pay attention to what the animal is saying through its behavior during training.
The example given is not one of disobedience, but of “intelligent responsiveness” (lines 42-47, 54-55).
42. A
A: Yes. The passage as a whole argues that we should treat and train animals with respect for their own intelligence.
It is this intelligence that attracts us to animals (lines 54-55). In the cited part of the passage, the author suggests
that if we come to understand that animals have something of value to say to us, we will perhaps feel less alone in
the world.
B: In the passage, the author proposes that we recognize the unique and varied intelligence of the apes, not that apes are
just like us. Secondly, this choice is not appropriate to the main idea of the cited part of the passage. The intent of the
author in those lines is not to show our similarity with apes, but to suggest that showing proper respect for other species
will make us less alone in the world.
C: The passage indicates just the opposite. The author wishes to eliminate sentimental attitudes toward animals (lines 6164).
D: Nowhere in the passage does the author attempt to justify demanding obedience. In fact, the author suggests that we
should earn, not demand the obedience or cooperation of other species by obeying or heeding what they say to us (lines
47-50).

43. D
A: The author never recommends any form of punishment. This choice is inconsistent with the main idea of the passage,
which stresses listening to and working together with the animal being trained.
B: While this choice is not inconsistent with the overall tone of the passage, neither is it supported or suggested by any
statement made by the author.
C: As in B, this choice is not at odds with the positive attitude of the author towards animals, but the passage never
mentions the use of rewards.
D: Yes. The author describes a proper training as one that establishes a “symmetrical” (line 41) or cooperative
relationship with the animal (or human) being trained (lines 38-42, 48-53).
44. B
A: The author indicates just the opposite. We gain the attention of animals or humans being trained by interacting with and
responding to them (lines 47-53). Therefore we should not “drop” the child or discontinue training, but instead
recognize what the child is communicating through his or her lack of attention.
B: Yes. The author argues that training does not end once a dog has appropriately responded to a command.
Rather, it has just begun, and we must continue to attentively interact and communicate with the animal (lines
42-50). The author states that this is also true when we train other humans (line 48).
C: This choice takes the statement that the trainer must “obey” or heed the trainee out of context (lines 48-50). By this the
author does not mean that the trainer gives in to the demands of those being trained, but that he or she attentively listens
to them in the course of continuing the training.
D: Trainers may well like their trainees. However, the author does not argue that true training is accomplished through
demonstrating affection, but rather through respectful attentiveness. Therefore, a good trainer should say “I hear you,”
not “I like you.”

13


45. A
A: Yes. In the first paragraph, the author relates the behavior of orangutans in the wild to their behavior in
captivity. Their life in the wild is not conditioned by social interaction with other apes, and so they have not come
to depend on the support and approval of others (lines 6-10). This attitude manifests itself in captivity as well,

making it difficult to train them because they are not anxious to gain the approval of the trainer (lines 4-6). If
we apply this to the new information in the question, we could reasonably conclude that wild-born orangutans
do not exhibit chimp-like problem-solving behaviors in captivity because they did not need or depend on them in
their natural environment. Those born in captivity would have been raised in a very different context, with
different challenges, and so would exhibit different behaviors.
B: This choice is incompatible with the author’s suggestion that orangutans are no less intelligent than chimpanzees (lines
29-31).
C: The author does not indicate that an orangutan’s “insight oriented” approach is any less efficient than a chimp’s
“problem solving” orientation (lines 31-34).
D: Neither the passage nor the new information in the question gives us any evidence that the same would be true for
chimpanzees.
46. D
A: The passage does not suggest that orangutans cannot concentrate, just that they don’t appear to be concentrating on the
task at hand (lines 22-34). They may be concentrating on other things (dreams and visions), or they may be
concentrating on the task in a less visible way. Note that in the end, they do in fact successfully complete the test.
Finally, since orangutans are trainable (lines 1-4, 35-36), they must be able to concentrate on the trainer’s commands.
B: The comparative speed of chimps’ and orangutans’ thought processes is never an issue in the passage. The author does
not tell us how long each animal takes to fit the peg in the hole, just that they accomplish it in different ways.
C: The author indicates that orangutans are just as intelligent as chimpanzees (lines 29-31).
D: Yes. Chimps pick up the peg and test it in different holes until they find the right one (lines 15-21). Orangutans,
according to the passage, accomplish the same task through insight (lines 32-33), not experimentation.

Passage VII
47. A
A: Yes. The author defines consciousness as “the facility for deep introspection that enables us to see into our own
minds and those of others,” and that makes us aware of our own knowledge of the world around us (lines 14-18).
Thus a person with consciousness is aware of him or her self as an individual distinct from other individuals and
from the surrounding environment. An animal without self-consciousness would not have this awareness.
B: Animals without consciousness have knowledge of the world around them (lines 16-17), and so may be able to learn
from their experiences in that world. This choice says nothing about knowledge of self, which comes only with

consciousness.
C: An animal may not have language [“a vehicle for complex thought processes” (lines 23-24)], but the passage does not
suggest that animals have no way to express themselves.
D: This choice contradicts the author’s statement that “an animal without consciousness may ‘know’ the world it inhabits”
(lines 16-17).

14


48. D
A: These are two separate issues. Darwin’s theory was revolutionary because it showed us that we are “not separate from,
but a part of, nature” (lines 1-7). This raised the question of why we see ourselves as unique or special, if we are in fact
“nothing but an animal” (lines 7-10). Culture is one part of the answer to that question, but accepting the author’s
description of the effects of culture on evolution (rapid change) does not depend on the acceptance of the claim that
Darwin forced us to change our self-image through recognition of our animal nature.
B: Culture could affect human evolution even if it did not contribute to our sense of specialness. The author’s argument
about cultural evolution does not depend on the argument that consciousness and culture distinguish us from other
animals. Even if animals had culture and consciousness, the author’s argument about the nature and speed of cultural
evolution could still be valid—it would simply apply to other animals as well.
C: As in choice B, the author’s claim about the effects of culture on human evolution does not depend on the acceptance of
the claim that only humans have consciousness and culture [and thus curiosity about the world (paragraph 3)]. Choices
A, B, and C all focus on issues from the wrong parts of the passage.
D: Yes. The passage argues that cultural evolution contributes something to human evolution that genetic evolution
does not: “the potential for exceedingly rapid rates of cultural change” (lines 60-63). Genetic evolution,
according to the author, requires tens of thousands of years (lines 51-53). If genetic mutation did cause rapid
social changes, it would undermine the author’s assertion that “what has enabled Homo sapiens to speed up the
pace of change in its world is culture” (lines 53-55).
49. C
A: The passage says that cultural evolution occurs through cause and effect, when a particular invention or “novel artifact”
transforms entire societies (lines 68-71). Advances in art and learning are not “novel artifacts” analogous to computers

(line 71), and the answer choice gives no indication that the entire society was rapidly transformed.
B: This choice is wrong for the same reasons as choice A. According to the passage, cultural evolution involves “novel
artifacts, which sometimes transform entire societies virtually instantaneously” (lines 68-71). No novel artifacts are
involved, and we are not told that the spread of socialist ideas led to the transformation of entire societies.
C: Yes. The steam engine was a new invention or novel artifact, and the ability to more easily travel and transport
goods over long distances significantly transformed society (lines 68-71).
D: The exploration of outer space is not currently something that dramatically affects society as a whole in the same way
as long-distance travel (choice C) or the electronic computer (lines 69-71).
50. A
A: Yes. The passage defines natural selection as “adaptation to shifting circumstances and environments” (lines 4041). The correct answer will not fit this definition. Here, there is no element of change or adaptation.
B: This choice describes television producers responding and adapting to popular tastes.
C: Here, voters adapt their electoral preferences to the changing (declining) economic climate.
D: This answer describes the adaptation of language to shifts in terminology from generation to generation.
51. D
Note: This is an unusual question type, a mutated version of a “weaken” question. Both the new information in the question
and the correct answer choice are inconsistent with the author’s argument in the passage. However, the question does not
ask for a choice that weakens the passage (A, B, C, and D all do so), but for a statement that is suggested by the information
presented in the question stem.
A: If most humans limit their attention to their immediate surroundings, that does not show that they gain no benefit from
their capacity for consciousness. It is possible that having such a narrow focus carries some advantage.
B: The issue presented in the question stem relates to humanity’s supposed “insatiable appetite for knowledge” (line 36).
The relative pace of genetic and cultural evolution has no direct relevance.
C: According to the passage, language allows for (not guarantees) complex thought. If most humans pay attention only to
their immediate physical surrounding, that does not suggest that language does not in fact have this capacity, only that
most humans do not fully utilize it.
D: Yes. The passage states that civilized human beings have a thirst for knowledge about themselves and the world
(lines 30-36). If the new information in the question were shown to be true, and most people cared little about
anything but their immediate physical environment, it would indicate that the passage is in error, and that
civilized animals (human beings) do not necessarily seek knowledge and understanding.

15


52. D
A: According to the passage, language is a crucial part of culture (lines 20-24). However, the author does not suggest that
culture is a prerequisite for the existence of language. Language is necessary for culture, but as far as we know culture
is not necessary for language.
B: This choice is only partially correct. The passage does indicate that culture is uniquely human (lines 10-13, 18-23), but
not that nonhuman animals may have languages. By describing language as a “vehicle for complex thought processes”
(lines 23-24), the author suggests that language too is unique to human animals.
C: Language is a vehicle for complex thought (lines 23-24), but the author never implies that it is the only vehicle.
D: Yes. The author describes language as a vital aspect of culture in the context of discussing how culture allows us
to “participate in a collective, cumulative learning experience” (lines 22-23), and to pass on wisdom to current
and future generations (lines 24-27).

Passage VIII
53. A
A: Yes. The critics and proponents of democracy are arguing over what type of political regime best allows for and
promotes economic development. If each side is evaluating the value of democracy based on whether or not it
leads to economic growth (lines 13-16, 21-23, 36-38), each position must be based on an assumption that growth
is a necessity, especially for developing nations (lines 16-19, 32-34).
B: The first set of scholars described in the passage believes that democracy and economic growth are incompatible (lines
1-3).
C: The critics of democracy do not see social benefits as necessary; they propose holding down wages to force a reduction
in consumption (lines 6-10). These scholars claim that democratically-elected leaders who implemented such policies
would be removed from office by consumers who do not perceive limited consumption to be a social benefit (lines 712).
D: The critics described in the second half of the passage argue that democracy, not authoritarianism, best promotes
necessary growth (lines 55-63).
54. B
A: The opinion cited in the question is challenged by the proponents of democracy in lines 41-54, but with no reference to

an increase in production.
B: Yes. In the fifth paragraph, the advocates of democracy argue that consumption in the areas of health and
education also constitutes investment in human capital (lines 48-51). Thus, some forms of consumption
contribute both to investment surplus and human welfare.
C: The critics of the opinion expressed in the question argue that consumption and investment are not mutually exclusive
(lines 46-54). They do not, however, make any claims about allowing for steady consumption.
D: The critics of the opinion cited in the question make no reference to decreased demand (see paragraph 5).
55. A
A: Yes. The premises stated in the question indicate that the governments presiding over recent successful
development have all intervened in the economy, and that development is most likely to occur in the presence of
political stability. Therefore, it is reasonable to conclude that any recent case of successful development will
include these two conditions.
B: This choice is too extreme. The premises reproduced in the question state that development is best promoted in
conditions of political stability, but not that stability is absolutely necessary for development.
C: The premises draw no direct connection between stability and intervention. The scenario of an unstable interventionist
government is not inconsistent with the position described in the question.
D: See the explanation for choice C.

16


56. D
A: The world market has no direct relevance to this history.
B: We do not know from the story presented that China in the 1950s was politically unstable.
C: The new information in the question gives no evidence of a lack of investment.
D: Yes. The first view presented in the passage asserts that intensive state intervention in the economy comes first in
the course of economic development, while citizen participation can only come later (lines 36-40). The history
provided in the question indicates that the two can coexist; the state redistributed land and organized the
collectives, and yet those collectives were democratic in nature.
57. A

A: Yes. The claim that democracy hampers economic growth is predicated in part on the belief that growth requires
an investable surplus, and that the only way to increase this surplus is to limit consumption (lines 3-7). The
percentage of wages kept in savings accounts would not be available for consumption (spending), and so would
be available for investment (lines 5-6). Note that these are low-income workers; it is likely that the required
percentage exceeds their current rate of savings.
B: The passage indicates just the opposite. The scholars who argue that democracy limits growth claim that both a
reduction in consumption (which would likely result when low-income people are forced to increase their savings) and
political stability are necessary conditions for growth. Thus, it would be logically inconsistent for these scholars to
claim that policies limiting consumption lead to instability.
C: The passage indicates just the opposite—see the explanation for choice A.
D: This choice misrepresents the relationship between consumption and democracy presented in the first half of the
passage. The scholars who argue that democracy is incompatible with economic growth claim that a necessary longterm reduction in consumption cannot occur in a democratic state, because the politicians who impose it will be voted
out of office (lines 7-12). This does not mean that forced limitations on consumption prevent democracy from
developing.
58. B
A: According to this argument, an authoritarian government does not need popular support (lines 7-12).
B: Yes. Those who believe democracy cannot coexist with economic growth base this belief in part on a claim that
democracy opens up a regime to pressures from different groups in society, making it difficult to maintain the
stability necessary for development (lines 13-20). An authoritarian regime would be less vulnerable to this kind
of public pressure.
C: As described in the passage, those who believe democracy holds back economic growth are more concerned with the
economic development of the nation as a whole than with the concerns of individual groups within the nation (lines 1619). The author never discusses what the views of these scholars might be regarding the protection of minority groups.
D: The author does not explicitly address this issue in the first half of the passage. However, the scholars who believe
democracy hurts growth, as described here, do not appear to be concerned with the issue of fairness.

Passage IX
59. A
A: Yes. In lines 16-20, the author states that both primal spirits (Angra Mainyu and Ahura Mazda) deliberately
chose between good and evil, and that all persons are required to make the same choice.
B: Only Ahura Mazda is eternal (lines 10-12); the evil Angra Mainyu will be destroyed in the great battle between good

and evil at the end of time (lines 21-23).
C: Angra Mainyu is “equally uncreated” (lines 14-15), not a creation of Ahura Mazda.
D: This is the belief of the Zurvanite heretics (lines 43-46), not of all Zoroastrians.
60. B
A, C, and D: The author draws no comparison between Indian and Babylonian conceptions of time (Indian conceptions are
not mentioned in the passage) and does not claim that the Zurvanites were influenced only by Babylonian ideas. Thus this
discovery would have no effect on the author’s argument, as stated in choice B.
17


61. B
A: According to the author, Zoroaster’s teaching was unprecedented because he proclaimed Ahura Mazda as the “one
uncreated god, existing eternally” (lines 9-12). The author discusses the utter separateness of the primal spirits later
in the passage in the discussion of the Zurvanite heresy (lines 52-56).
B: Yes. The Zurvanite’s believed that Ahura Mazda and Angra Mainyu were twins from the same father, thus
violating Zoroaster’s tenet that the two were completely “distinct by origin and nature” (lines 52-56). This is
the basis of the author’s accusation of heresy.
C: This is a different issue. The author does not give any explicit support for the claim that the Zurvanites were
familiar with the Babylonian idea of time; it is simply asserted as a fact (lines 29-33).
D: Again, this is a separate issue. The author discusses Zoroaster’s fundamental doctrine of separateness to
demonstrate the heretical nature of the Zurvanites in lines 52-56. With the word “moreover” in line 56, the author
moves on to a new issue, free will.
62. D
A: This choice is too narrow to serve as the main point. The author mentions Zoroaster’s vision as part of the
introductory description of how the religion came into being (lines 3-7).
B: This choice is also too limited. The origin and nature of Zoroastrian religion are described in order to set the stage
for the author’s discussion of the Zurvanite heresy.
C: This is the view of the Zurvanite heretics (lines 37-40); it does not characterize Zoroastrianism as a whole.
D: Yes. The author describes the teachings of Zoroaster in the first two and a half paragraphs. The rest of the
passage explains how the Zurvanites heretically broke with those teachings.

63. C
A: The author does not claim that Zoroaster was the first to proclaim the end of history, just that this claim was one of
the “most striking elements” in his teaching (lines 27-29). This discovery would not be inconsistent with the
passage.
B: The author suggests that the Zurvanite conception of time as a sentient being was based in Babylonian speculations
that time is cyclical, and so unending (lines 29-35). An early Zurvanite denial that history has an end (i.e., a claim
that history and time do not end) would strengthen, not weaken the author’s argument.
C: Yes. The author very strongly argues that the Zurvanites committed “a deep and grievous heresy” by
claiming that the two primal beings were brothers (lines 52-56). If Zoroaster himself made this claim, the
Zurvanites would not in fact have “betrayed Zoroaster’s fundamental doctrine.”
D: The author does not argue that Zoroaster had no premonitory inkling of what heresies were to come. This
discovery would have no effect on the author’s position.
64. D
A: The passage tells us nothing about all religions, just this one religion.
B: We know that Zoroastrianism did not maintain wholly consistent doctrines, as it gave rise to the Zurvanite heresy.
The passage gives no clue as to whether or not other religions did so.
C: There is no discussion in the passage of justification of any, and certainly not of all, religious doctrines.
D: Yes. The Zurvanites (who were converts to Zoroastrianism, lines 25-27) interpreted Zoroaster’s writings in a
way that was inconsistent with Zoroaster’s own beliefs (lines 40-43).
65. C
A: The Zurvanites and the Orphic Greeks both existed in the 6th century B.C. (lines 26-27). Therefore, one group
could have influenced the other.
B: See the explanation for choice A.
C: Yes. Zoroaster lived between 1400 and 1200 B.C., roughly 6 to 8 centuries before the existence of the Orphic
Greeks. Thus, it is impossible that the Orphic Greeks had an influence on Zoroaster.
D: See the explanation for choice C. Zoroaster predates the Orphic Greeks. Therefore, it is not inconceivable that he
had some influence on them.

18

PHYSICAL SCIENCES
Passage I
66. D. As the mass on the hook falls, its gravitational potential energy decreases and is converted to kinetic energy, both of
the falling mass and of the wooden block on the table.
67. A. According to the data in Table 1, whether the base area is 0.001 m3, 0.002 m3, or 0.003 m3, the threshold mass for the
wood block is essentially the same: 0.049 kg. Whether the base area is 0.001 m3, 0.002 m3, or 0.003 m3, the threshold mass
for the stone block is the same: 0.068 kg. And whether the base area is 0.001 m3, 0.002 m3, or 0.003 m3, the threshold mass
for the steel block is the same: 0.055 kg. We can conclude that the threshold mass (and, therefore, static friction) depends
on the type of material the block on the table is composed of, but not on its base area.
68. C. The gravitational force on the sliding block does zero work since it’s perpendicular to the displacement of the sliding
block. However, the tension in the string does positive work, and the force of kinetic friction does negative work.
69. B. First, we can eliminate choice A. The experiment described in the passage does not have metal surfaces in contact;
part of the experiment has a steel block sliding on a wooden board. Since the threshold mass was smallest for the wood
block, we conclude that the attractive molecular forces between surfaces were weakest between wood surfaces.
70. A. If the wooden board on which the blocks slide is coated with lubricant, the static friction force should be smaller
with any block material. Therefore, we’d expect the threshold mass would decrease in all cases.
71. D. The force of kinetic friction on the sliding block has magnitude Ff = µmg, where m is the mass of the block. This
force remains constant while the block slides. The net force on the sliding block is FT – Ff, where FT is the tension in the
string. Since FT remains constant (as we’re told in the question), the net force on the block is also constant. Therefore, the
acceleration of the sliding block, a = Fnet/m, is constant, which means its speed will increase linearly with time (v = at).
72. D. The experiment described in the passage measures the minimum mass that must be placed on the hook to get the
block to begin sliding. This procedure allows the researchers to deduce the maximum force of static friction between the
various blocks and the wooden board, since static friction attains its maximum strength just before the block starts to slide.
To do the same thing by tipping the board, the researchers will want to measure the angle at which the block starts to slide
down. If this angle is θ, then the force of static friction just before the block begins to slide has magnitude µsmg cos θ, and
the gravitational force on the block has magnitude mg sin θ. Just before the block slides, these forces balance, so µsmg cos θ
= mg sin θ, which means µs = (sin θ)/(cos θ) = tan θ. So, by measuring the angle that the board makes with the horizontal,
the researchers can determine the coefficient of static friction: µs = tan θ.

Passage II
73. A. The lone pair of electrons on the nitrogen atom in NH3 is donated to the transition metal cation to form a coordinate
covalent bond, so the answer is A. (While choices B, C, and D are all true statements, they don’t answer the question.)
74. C. A compound’s boiling point depends on the strength of its intermolecular forces and the ability of its molecules to
enter the gaseous state from the liquid state. Choice A is eliminated since the reactivity of a compound with other
compounds is irrelevant; we’re interested here only in the behavior of the pure compound. Choice B is eliminated since, for
one thing, electronegativity is reserved for an individual atom (not a molecule) and its propensity for attracting electrons
when forming a bond with another atom. But once again, the concept of electronegativity does not apply here, since a
compound’s boiling point does not depend on its ability to form bonds with atoms of another compound. And even though
choice D is a true statement, it does not answer the question: the N2 and O2 molecules will still contain a triple bond and
double bond, respectively, in the gaseous phase.

19


75. A. First, eliminate choice D; adding a catalyst to a reaction that’s already at equilibrium will have no effect. By Le
Châtelier’s principle, the addition of a reactant will shift the equilibrium to the right; so, if H2 is added, more NH3 should be
formed. Choice B is wrong since a decrease in pressure will cause the reaction to favor the side with the greater number of
gas molecules; in this case, the equilibrium would be shifted to the left, consuming NH3. Choice C is wrong since Reaction
IV is exothermic (∆H is negative). We can therefore think of heat as a product, so increasing the temperature will cause the
equilibrium to shift to the left, consuming NH3.
76. D. Fractional distillation separates the components of a mixture by their boiling points. The most volatile compound—
the one with the lowest boiling point—will be isolated first.
77. B. According to Reaction I, one mole of O2 molecules reacts with one mole of sulfur atoms to form one mole of SO2.
Since the reaction begins with 32 g of O2 (which is 1 mole of O2), the reaction could consume one mole of S atoms. Sulfur
has a molecular weight of just 32.1 g/mol, so having 36 g of S means that there will be some unreacted sulfur. Since all the
O2 has already been consumed, it is the limiting reagent.

Passage III
78. D. The key to answering this Doppler Effect question is to find a situation in which the transmitter and receiver have

the same relative velocity. The original situation given in the question has the transmitter and receiver moving away from
each other at 300 m/s, so our task is to find another situation in which the transmitter and receiver are also separating at a
relative velocity of 300 m/s. This immediately rules out choice C. We can also rule out choices A and B: If the receiver is
moving in the opposite direction as the jet, then their relative velocity of separation will be greater than the velocity of the
jet itself, which is 600 m/s. The answer must be D: If the receiver moves at 300 m/s toward the jet, then the jet is moving
away from the receiver at a relative velocity of only 600 – 300 = 300 m/s.
79. C. According to the data in Table 1, the magnitude of the “Change in f ” increases as f increases. Since a frequency, f,
of 2.5 × 106 Hz is between 2.00 × 106 Hz and 3.00 × 106 Hz, we’d expect the change in frequency to be between –1.79 Hz
and –2.68 Hz (the values for f = 2.00 × 106 Hz and 3.00 × 106 Hz, respectively). Only choice C, –2.2 Hz, falls in this range.
80. A. Look at Table 2. In each case, f and λ were constant; only the speed with which the transmitter moves away is
varied. We see that as the speed increases, so does the change in λ (and vice versa). Therefore, if we graph speed vs.
“change in λ,” the graph should increase. Of the choices given only the graph in choice A increases.
81. C. Look again at Table 2: As the speed increases, so does the change in λ. If the change in λ increases, then the
wavelength received also increases, so, by definition, the distance between adjacent peaks increases.
82. A. First, eliminate choices B and C. Sound waves have frequencies of less than 20,000 Hz, while the radio waves used
in these experiments have frequencies in the millions of hertz. Therefore, B is false (and, therefore, so is C). There is
nothing in the passage to support the statement in D, so the best response is A. It is a true statement (since radio waves
travel at the speed of light), and the relative velocities of the transmitters and receivers in these experiments are hundreds of
meters per second, a significant fraction of the speed of sound but only a miniscule fraction of the speed of radio waves.
83. A. If the transmitting and receiving jets are flying side by side, then the velocity of either one is zero with respect to the
other. If there is no relative velocity, there is no Doppler shift.
84. D. Since the wavelength received is shorter than the wavelength emitted, the frequency received is higher than the
frequency emitted. We always associate a frequency shift upward with relative motion toward (whether it’s with sound
waves, radio waves, or light waves). Of the choices given, only choice D could explain relative motion toward.

20


Passage IV
85. D. The “millivolt recorder” simply measures the voltage drop across the resistor R, which is proportional to the current

I through it (V = IR), which is in turn proportional to the number of electrons that flow through it [I = Q/t = (ne)/t]. If
another gas were in the stream that also undergoes a reduction similar to that of oxygen gas, then more electrons would be
produced (as a result of Equation 3 which follows from a reaction similar to Equation 1), thus increasing the current in, and
the voltage drop across, the resistor R. Therefore, the voltage drop would be greater than what it would be if only oxygen
were present. As a result, the researcher would think that the oxygen concentration is greater than it actually is (since “the
oxygen concentration is proportional to the potential”), thus decreasing the accuracy of the oxygen determination.
86. C. Use the Combined Gas law: P1V1/T1 = P2V2/T2. At T1 = 30°C = 303 K and P1 = 756 mmHg, we have V1 = 10 L.
So, at STP (P2 = 760 mmHg and T2 = 0°C = 273 K), the volume of the gas is
V2 = V1 ⋅

P1 T2
756 mmHg 273 K (10)(756)(273)
⋅
= (10 L) ⋅
⋅
=
L
P2 T1
760 mmHg 303 K
(760)(303)

87. B. According to the passage, reduction occurs at the silver electrode (immediately eliminating choice D), and “the
electrochemical reaction is completed at the cadmium electrode.” Therefore, the cadmium electrode must be the site of
oxidation, so it is the anode.
88. C. One percent is equal to 1/100. Multiplying both the numerator and denominator of this fraction by 104 = 10,000,
we see that 1% = 104/106 = 10,000 parts per million.
89. D. Oxygen is reduced in Equation 1, its oxidation state decreasing from 0 (in O2) to –2 (in OH–). The carbon atom in
CH4, however, is already in a –4 (its lowest) oxidation state and won’t be reduced further in a reaction with water.
Therefore, OH– ions would not be produced, so Equation 3 would not occur, and no current would flow through R for the
voltmeter to register. Note: Choice C is false since hydrogen is in a +1 oxidation state in CH4 and thus not in its lowest

oxidation state.

Independent Questions
90. A. The combination of (stoichiometric amounts of) a strong acid with a weak base will leave the aqueous solution the
most acidic and thus with the lowest pH.
91. C. The pressure at depth h below the surface of a liquid is P = P0 +ρgh, where P0 is the pressure on the surface (which
is Patm if the container is open to the atmosphere) and ρ is the density of the liquid. Since P = 250 Pa when h = 5 cm, we
have 250 Pa = P0 + ρg(5 cm); and since P = 450 Pa when h = 10 cm, we have 450 Pa = P0 + ρg(10 cm). If we multiply both
sides of the first equation by 2, we get 500 Pa = 2P0 + ρg(10 cm), and then subtracting the second equation from this one,
we get 50 Pa = P0. Now, substituting this result into the first equation gives 250 Pa = 50 Pa + ρg(5 cm), so ρg = 200 Pa/5
cm = 40 Pa/cm. Therefore, P = (50 Pa) + (40 Pa/cm)(h). [You can check that this formula works for all the entries in the
table given with the question.] If we now have a liquid with twice the density of the first, then ρ′g = (2ρ)g = 2(ρg) = 2(40
Pa/cm) = 80 Pa/cm, so the pressure at depth h below the surface of the second liquid is given by the formula P = (50 Pa) +
(80 Pa/cm)(h). When h = 10 cm, this formula gives P = (50 Pa) + (80 Pa/cm)(10 cm) = 850 Pa.
92. C. Let V be the volume of the object. Since the object “suffers an apparent loss of 5 grams” when immersed, the
object experiences an apparent loss of weight of (5 grams)(g), so the buoyant force on the object must have magnitude
(5 grams)(g). The buoyant force on the object is given by the expression ρfluidVg (note that Vsub = V since the object is
immersed; that is, totally submerged). Therefore, (5 grams)(g) = ρfluidVg, so ρfluidV = 5 grams. The mass of the object is
ρobjectV, which we’re told is 15 grams, so ρobjectV = 15 grams. We can now combine these equations to find that

ρobject V
ρ fluid V

=

15 grams
5 grams

⇒

ρobject
ρ fluid

= 3 ⇒ ρ object = 3ρ fluid = 3ρ benzene = 3(0.7ρ H2O ) = 2.1ρ H2O

21


93. A. Since the metal is at its exact melting point, it is ready to undergo a phase transition from solid to liquid. Since the
temperature of a compound remains constant during a phase change, choices C and D are eliminated. A small amount of
additional heat energy absorbed by the sample will thus melt some of it, but the temperature will not change. It is safe to
assume that if the 0.1 kg sample of metal is held over the flame for only a “fraction of a second,” there won’t be enough
heat energy to melt all of it, so A is a better response than B.

Passage V
94. C. The passage gives the molar mass of KHP as M = 204.2 g/mol, and Table 2 shows that Student A had 0.55 g of KHP.
Therefore, the number of moles of KHP present in the sample of KHP used by Student A is
n=

m
0.55 g
0.5 g
1
1
1
=
≈
=
g mol = ×
g mol = 0.25 × 10 −2 g mol = 2.5 × 10 −3 g mol

M 204.2 g mol 200 g mol 400
4 100

95. C. Since the temperature rose during the mixing process, ∆H must be negative for Equation 1, so Item I is true. This
eliminates choices B and D. Since an aqueous solution of a dissolved solute has greater disorder than the separate pure
solid NaOH(s) and pure liquid H2O(l), the entropy increased during the mixing process, so Item III is also true. Therefore,
the answer must be C. [Since the solid NaOH dissolved spontaneously in solution, the value of ∆G must be negative for
this reaction, which is why Item II is false.]
96. A. The passage states that the instructor “prepared a solution of NaOH(aq) by dissolving 8 g of NaOH(s) (MM = 40.00)
in 2 L of H2O.” Eight grams of NaOH(s) thus represents 8/40 = 1/5 = 0.2 mol; dividing this by 2 L, we find that [NaOH] =
(0.2 mol)/(2 L) = 0.1 mol/L = 0.1 M.
97. D. At the equivalence point of the titration of a weak acid by a strong base, the solution is basic (that is, pH > 7).
98. D. To find the conjugate base of chlorobenzoic acid, HC7H4ClO2, simply remove an H+; the result is C7H4ClO2–.
99. B. First, eliminate choices C and D: According to the formula given in Table 1, succinic acid is diprotic, not triprotic.
And, since the acid is diprotic, more base will be required to neutralize this acid than if the acid were only monoprotic, so
the answer must be B, not A.
100. A. If the KHP sample contains water, then the mass of the sample will be greater than the mass of the KHP alone. As
a result, when the student uses this to calculate the number of moles of KHP in the sample, the student will derive a value
that’s greater than the true value. Using Equation 2, the student would then conclude that more NaOH is needed to reach
the equivalence point (since the student derived a greater-than-actual value for the number of moles of KHP). Therefore,
the molarity determined for the NaOH(aq) solution would be too high, because the number of moles of KHP used in the
calculation is greater than the actual number of moles of KHP titrated. This statement is equivalent to choice A.

Passage VI
101. C. Nothing in the passage supports choice A or B. Choice D must be eliminated, since momentum is conserved in the
collision and, in addition, momentum is not converted to energy. Choice C says it best: The kinetic energy of the gas from
the ordinary companion star that collides completely inelastically with the surface of the white dwarf becomes heat energy.
102. A. By equating mg with GMm/r2, we see that the gravitational field strength, g, at the surface of a star is given by the
formula g = GM/r2, where M is the mass of the star and r is its radius. The passage states that a white dwarf has the same
mass, M, as the Sun, but a much smaller radius, r. Since M is the same but r is much smaller for a white dwarf, the value of

g = GM/r2 is much greater at the surface of a white dwarf than at the surface of the Sun. Thus, choice A is the answer.
Choice B is false, since all three hypotheses include the fact that the white dwarf does experience nuclear fusion, and
nothing in the passage supports choice C or D.

22


103. B. First, eliminate choices A and C: Fusion of bare nuclei is not the same as bonding of atoms containing electrons.
And choice D is false, since hydrogen nuclei (which are simply protons) are much lighter than carbon nuclei, and therefore
should move much faster, on average, than carbon nuclei at the same temperature. The answer must be B: It is easier to
fuse two hydrogen nuclei (two protons) than two carbon nuclei, because each hydrogen nucleus is only a single proton,
while each carbon nucleus contains six protons. The electrical repulsion is much lower between a pair of single protons
than between a pair of 6-proton nuclei.
104. D. The following balanced nuclear reactions show that decay of either 56Ni or 56Co is accompanied by the emission of
56
0 +
56
0 + (that is, both 56Ni and 56Co undergo β+ decay).
a positron, e+: 56
and 56
28 Ni → 27 Co + +1 e
27 Co → 26 Fe + +1 e
105. D. While choices B and C are both true, they don’t answer the question. As for choice A, the second sentence in the
paragraph describing Hypothesis III would, if anything, cast doubt on this statement. The best response is D: The
“runaway” (that is, very rapid) nature of the fusion reaction would be manifested by a sudden, large increase in brightness.

Passage VII
106. B. The oxidation of Zn(s) has a potential of +0.76 V (reverse the reaction given in Table 2). Combining this with the
reduction of Cu2+ (E° = +0.34 V) gives a cell voltage of +1.10 V, which is the measurement made by Student 3:
oxidation:

reduction:

Zn(s)
→ Zn2+(aq) + 2e–
2+
–
Cu (aq) + 2e → Cu(s)

E° = +0.76 V
E° = +0.34 V

Cu2+(aq) + Zn(s) → Cu(s) + Zn2+(aq)

E° = +1.10 V

107. D. Since the molar mass of the white solid used by Student 4 is 58.5 g/mol, a mass of 29.25 g represents 0.5 mol of
the solid. If this is present in an aqueous solution of volume 250 mL = 0.25 L, then the concentration is (0.5 mol)/(0.25 L)
= 2 M.
108. C. Consider each molecule of Fe2(SO4)3 as composed of 2 Fe3+ cations and 3 SO42– anions. Thus, iron is in a +3
oxidation state—that is, iron(III)—eliminating choices A and B. Since SO42– is sulfate (SO32– is sulfite), the compound is
iron(III) sulfate.
109. B. Since the reaction is spontaneous, the cell voltage must be positive (Ecell > 0 ⇒ ∆G < 0 ⇒ spontaneous).
Therefore, the half-reactions must be
reduction:
oxidation:

Ag+(aq) + e– → Ag(s)
Al(s)
→ Al3+(aq) + 3e–

E° = +0.80 V
E° = +1.66 V

Balancing the electrons in these reactions, we multiply the reduction half-reaction by 3 (but not its potential!):
reduction:
oxidation:

3 Ag+(aq) + 3e– → 3 Ag(s)
Al(s)
→ Al3+(aq) + 3e–

E° = +0.80 V
E° = +1.66 V

Giving the overall reaction,
3 Ag+(aq) + Al(s) → 3 Ag(s) + Al3+(aq)

E° = +2.46 V

Since pure solids are omitted from the equilibrium and reaction-quotient expressions, we have
Q=

[Al 3+ ]
[Ag + ]3

23


Passage VIII
110. B. The molar mass of KNO3 is 101.g/mol and that of H2O is 18 g/mol. Therefore, in a 1 L solution whose KNO3

concentration is 226.5 g/L and whose H2O concentration is 906.1 g/L (see Table 1), the mole fraction of KNO3 in the
solution is
XKNO 3 =

nKNO 3
nKNO 3 + nH 2 O

=

(

(

)(1 L)
)(1 L)
)(1 L) + (

226.5 g L
101.1 g mol

226.5 g L
101.1 g mol

906.1 g L
18 g mol

111. C. Each of the compounds in choices A, B, and D contains a common ion with KNO3—that is, either K+ or NO3–. By
the common-ion effect, any of these added to a saturated solution of KNO3 would cause precipitation of crystals. However,
Choice C, NH4Cl, has no common ion with KNO3 and would not cause precipitation.
112. D. The passage states that the condosity of a solution is the molar concentration of sodium chloride that has the same

conductance as the solution. According to the data in Table 1, the student’s KNO3(aq) 2.241 M solution has a condosity of
2.49 M. So, if we plot conductance vs. molarity, the fact that the student’s solution and the 2.49 M NaCl(aq) solution have
the same conductance means that they’d lie on the same horizontal line in the plot, eliminating Points A and C. And since
the molarity of the student’s solution is less than that of the NaCl(aq) solution, the KNO3(aq) point should be to the left of
the NaCl(aq) point in the plot. Thus, the answer must be Point D.
113. C. According to Table 1, the solute concentration of the KNO3(aq) solution is 226.5 g/L, which is equivalent to
22.65 g in 0.1 L (= 100 mL).
114. D. Since the concentration of the KNO3(aq) solution is 2.241 M, the student’s 1-liter solution contains 2.241 moles of
KNO3. Since each mole of KNO3 contains 6.02 × 1023 K+ ions, 2.241 moles of KNO3 contain (2.241) × (6.02 × 1023) ≈
1.3 × 1024 K+ ions.

Independent Questions
115. C. The balanced reaction is CH4(g) + 2 O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2 H2O(g). Therefore, the mole fraction of H2O(g) in the
product mixture is
nH 2 O
2
2
XH 2 O =
=
=
nCO 2 + nH 2 O 1 + 2 3
Applying Dalton’s law, we find that the partial pressure of H2O(g) in the product mixture is
pH 2 O = XH 2 O ⋅ ptotal = 23 ⋅ (1.2 torr) = 0.8 torr

116. A. Since carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen have molar masses of 12 g, 1 g, and 16 g, respectively, the sample described in
the question contains 1 mole of C atoms, 2 moles of H atoms, and 1 mole of O atoms. Therefore, the formula for this
compound must be CH2O. (Note that choices C and D can be eliminated immediately since they’re not empirical formulas.
An empirical formula contains the smallest whole number subscripts that have the same ratio as the subscripts on the atoms
in the compound’s actual molecular formula.)
117. D. If the pipe is open at both ends, then both ends are displacement antinodes (A). The simplest standing wave—the

fundamental standing wave—must therefore have a node (N) in the center of the pipe: A N A. The distance from one
antinode to the adjacent antinode on a standing wave is always equal to one-half the wavelength. So, if the length of the
pipe is 1 m, the distance from one antinode to the other antinode on the fundamental standing wave is 1 m. Since this must
be equal to λ/2, we find that λ = 2 m.

24


118. A. When the voltage is turned on, charge begins to build up on the capacitor plates. The rate at which the charge
builds is not steady, but gradually decreases, since it’s more difficult to place additional charge on a capacitor that already
has some charge, because we’re “fighting against” the electric field in the capacitor created by the charge that’s already
there. Then, once the voltage is turned off, the charge gradually leaks off, quickly at first and then more slowly near the
end. Since the voltage between the capacitor plates is proportional to the charge (Q = CV), the voltage between Points A
and B will exhibit the same behavior as the charge on the capacitor. Thus, the voltage rises, at a rate that decreases with
time, then the voltage drops, also with a rate that decreases with time. This is shown in graph A.
119. B. Mechanical waves transport momentum and energy from one point to another, but they do not cause particles of the
medium to travel great distances. For example, the wave in a rope does not transfer rope particles from one end of the rope
to the other, and water waves created thousands of miles offshore do not transport water that distance.

Passage IX
120. A. The total momentum of the colliding objects is conserved in a collision. It makes no sense to say that impulse
(choice D) was conserved, since impulse is force multiplied by time; there was no contact force between the continents
before their collision, so there was no impulse before the collision. Also, we know that energy was not conserved; only in
elastic collisions, where the objects simply bounce of each other, is kinetic energy conserved. But these continents did not
cleanly bounce of each other: The formation of the mountain ranges in North America and Africa tells us that. As for
potential energy (gravitational, supposedly), there is no reason to believe (or evidence to support) the extraordinary
contention that the total potential energy of the continents before the collision was equal to their total potential energy
afterwards. Collisions conserve the momentum of the system; energy (in either form) is not necessarily conserved.
121. C. First, we can eliminate choice A. The second paragraph of the passage tells us that 40K is radioactive, so no organic
material need be present to use this type of radioactive dating procedure to ascertain the age of the rock. [Radiocarbon

(carbon-14) dating, on the other hand, does require the presence of organic material. However, the half-life of carbon-14 is
only about 5700 years, so radiocarbon dating is not a reliable method for determining the age of specimens (such as rocks)
that are hundreds of millions of years old. Radiocarbon dating is used only for artifacts that are at most tens of thousands of
years old.] The second paragraph contains the clue to answering this question. We’re told that “the age of the rock can be
determined by measuring the amount of radioactive potassium in the rock and the amount of its decay product, argon gas in
the sample.” Clearly then, it is measuring the relative amount of parent and daughter nuclei that is critical. So, to obtain an
accurate dating, researchers would want the decay product to be trapped in the rock since its formation, so all of it can be
measured to determine how much decay has occurred. Choice B is eliminated because it says “any gases” (only the relative
amounts of potassium and argon gas are necessary for this procedure), and nothing in the passage supports choice D.
122. A. If the continents stick together after the collision, then by Conservation of Momentum, we have m1v1 + m2v2 =
(m1 + m2)v′, so v′ = (m1v1 + m2v2)/(m1 + m2).
123. D. The passage states that the daughter nucleus of the decay of 40K is 40Ar. The following balanced nuclear reaction
40
0 +
shows that the decay of 40K is accompanied by the emission of a positron, e+: 40
19 K → 18 Ar + +1 e .
124. B. By Newton’s Third law, the force that the first continent exerts on the second continent is equal in magnitude to the
force that the second continent exerts on the first. (The masses of the continents are relevant to their resulting accelerations,
but not to the magnitude of the force the continents exert on each other. Newton’s Third law says nothing about mass.)

25