AAMC MCAT test 7 a

Test 7R P Physic 1 - 77
1

26.

2.

27.

3.

28.

4.

29.

5.

30.

6.

31.

7.

32.

8.

33.

9.

34.

10.

35.

11.

36.

12.

37.

13.

38.

14.

39.

15.

40.

16.

41.

17.

42.

18.

43.

19.

44.

20.

45.

21.

46.

22.

47.

23.

48.

24.

49.

25.

50.

51.

76.

52.

77.

53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.

65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.


Test 7R Verbal 78 -137
78.

103.

79.

104.

80.

105.

81.

106.

128.

82.

107.

129.

83.

108.

130.

84.

109.

131.

85.

110.

132.

86.

111.

133.

87.

112.

134.

88.

113.

135.

89.

114.

136.

90.

115.

137.

91.

116.

92.

117.

93.

118.

94.

119.

95.

120.

96.

121.

97.

122.

98.

123.

99.

124.

100.

125.

101.

126.

102.

127.


Test 7R Biology 140 - 216
140.

165.

141.

166.

142.

167.

143.

168.

144.

169.

145.

170.

146.

171.

147.

172.

148.

173.

149.

174.

150.

175.

151.

176.

152.

177.

153.

178.

154.

179.

155.

180.

156.

181.

157.

182.

158.

183.

159.

184.

160.

185.

161.

186.

162.

187.

163.

188.

164.

189.
.

190.

215.

191.

216.

192.
193.
194.
195.
196.
197.
198.
199.
200.
201.
202.
203.
204.
205.
206.
207.
208.
209.
210.
211.
212.
213.
214.

7R Key


EXPLANATIONS for test 7R
1. A nitrogen atom has 3 single electrons and 1 lone pair. Hydrogen has one electron.
The structure in C correctly shows each nitrogen with three bonds and a one lone
pair. Each atom in this molecule has a full outer shell of electrons and all
electrons are present.
2. Equation 1 shows that the Raschig process requires the reaction of 2 moles
of ammonia to form 1 mole of hydrazine. The molar mass of ammonia is 17
g/mol (14 + 1 + 1 + 1). Therefore 34 g of ammonia is required to form 1 mole of
hydrazine.
3. The passage states that the formula for hydrazine hydrate is N2H4·H2O. The
formula weight for hydrazine is 32 g/mol (14 x 2 + 4 x 1). The formula weight for
hydrazine hydrate is 50 g/mol (32 + 2 x 1 + 16). The percent by weight of
hydrazine in the hydrate would be 32.0/50.0 x 100%.
4. The reaction shows the formation of hydrazine from its elements. The value of
∆Hf° for a substance is the enthalpy change when one mole of that substance is
formed at 1 atm pressure and 25°C from the elements in their stable states at that
pressure and temperature. Table 1 shows that ∆Hf° for hydrazine is 50.6 kJ/mol,
therefore, the enthalpy change for the reaction shown would be 50.6 kJ/mol.
5. The basicity constant is a measure of the strength of a base. It is the equilibrium
constant for the reaction of the base with water. The lower the value of Kb, the
weaker the base.
6. In order for a reaction to be a spontaneous process, the value for ∆Go must be less
than 0.
7. Because there are 3 reactant moles, all liquids, and 7 product moles, all gases, the
entropy increases in this reaction. Gas molecules have more freedom and
randomness, and therefore higher entropy.
8. Since the ions are thousands of times more massive than the electron, answer B is

justified (the hydrogen ion is the lightest ion and is nearly 2000 times more
massive than the electron). An ion with so much mass compared to an electron
will not be able to respond quickly because of its inertia.
9. The potential energy of an oscillatory motion is ½kx2 where x is the displacement.
Since the maximum displacement occurs at A and C, answer D is justified.
10. The frequency is given by 9n0.5. With n = 1018, n0.5 = 109. Thus, frequency is
9 *109, which is answer C.
11. Wavelength is given by speed/frequency = 3 *107/109 or 3*10-2 m. This is the
same as 3 cm or answer A.
12. This is basically a conservation of energy question. As the electrons move from A
to B they convert potential energy into kinetic energy (½mv2) and gain velocity


and hence momentum (mv) as they do so. This momentum is just enough to allow
the electrons to go from B to C; i.e. the kinetic energy reconverts to potential
energy—just equal to the amount of potential energy at point A.
13. This is basically a conservation of energy question. As the electrons move from A
to B they convert potential energy into kinetic energy (½mv2) and gain velocity
and hence momentum (mv) as they do so. This momentum is just enough to allow
the electrons to go from B to C; i.e. the kinetic energy reconverts to potential
energy—just equal to the amount of potential energy at point A. As the electrons
move from A to B they convert potential energy (½kx2) into kinetic energy
(½mv2), where x is the displacement from point B. It is conservation of energy.
14. The passage states that silicon cannot be purified by electrolytic techniques. These
techniques involve isolating silicon from silicate minerals by decomposing the
minerals with an electrical current. It would follow that the silicon could not be
purified by electrolytic techniques if the minerals do not decompose easily.
15. Silicon is the fourth element in the third row of the periodic table and has 14
electrons. The first 10 electrons would have the same electron configuration as Ne.
The next 2 electrons would fill the 3s orbitals and the last 2 electrons would begin

to fill the 3p orbitals following Hund’s Rule (electrons will not pair up until each
orbital in that sublevel has 1 electron.). The unpaired electrons have parallel spins.
16. According to VSEPR theory, 4 electron pairs around an atom will result in a
tetrahedral geometry.
17. Elements in the same group share chemical properties. Because potassium is a
Group 1 element, one would assume that sodium, another Group 1 element would
be the best substitute.
18. Van der Waals forces are weak intermolecular attractive forces. The relatively
low boiling point of the SiCl3H indicates that the intermolecular forces are not
strong and are most likely van der Waals forces.
19. Fractional distillation can be used for purification when the components to be
separated have different boiling points.
20. A1 and A2 represent the nuclear masses of the fragments of fission. This is given
by the sum of their proton and neutrons. Since the reaction started with 236
nucleons and three neutrons were 3 = 233 mass units or−taken away the sum of
the fragments must contain 236 nucleons.
21. This reaction is exactly a reproduction of the statement of beta decay as given in
the stem. We see the new nucleus, a beta particle (an electron) and a neutrino. The
new nucleus is one atomic number higher because of the emission of the electron
leaving an extra proton in the nucleus.
22. The relative rate of decay for Ra compared to Pu is the inverse ratio of their halflives or 24000/1600 = 15. This is answer B.


23. The total volume held by 106 kg of ash would be (106 kg/1000 kg/m3) = 1000 m3.
This volume is held in a cube 10 m on a side since (10 m)3 = 1000 m3. This is
answer B.
24. The value for Eocell is equal to the sum of Eo of the half reactions. -1.23 + 0.34 = 0.89 V.
25. The ideal gas law makes the assumption that molecules have no volume. This
assumption is adequate when the gas is at 1 atm, but when the pressure is
increased to 500 atm the volume of the gas molecules is no longer negligible.

26. velocity.×Power P is force Since speed v is fixed we must compare the forces F
and Ft. The force is the coefficient of friction between tiresµmg, where µon the
level road F is by notingµand road. We can find

Now the force required to be overcome in going uphill Ft is

The power in t his case, Pt, is Ft v. The extra× power needed is then Pt minus the
original power P or:

Since cos 10o 1,≈
This is answer D.
27. Light slows down because the index of refraction in the glass is greater than in the
air. The index is a measure of the ratio of the velocity in air to the velocity in the
medium. For sound the speed becomes greater because the speed of sound in a
solid is much greater than in air (the glass has stiff rigid bonds which gives rise to
a speed more than 10 times greater than in air).
28. The passage states that the reaction is zero order with respect to bromine
indicating that bromine is not involved in the rate determining step. If the reaction
proceeds by the same mechanism with chlorine, then the reaction with chlorine


will have the same rate as it does with bromine because it would be zero order
with respect to chlorine.
29. The passage states that the reaction is zero order with respect to bromine,
therefore bromine can be removed from Equation 2. A comparison of the results
for Experiments 2, 4 and 6 (all with acetone concentrations of 0.80 M) shows that
after dividing the rates of the reactions by the rate constants, the values obtained
are directly proportional to the H+ concentration indicating the reaction is first
order in H+.The passage states that the reaction is zero order with respect to
bromine, therefore bromine can be removed from Equation 2. A comparison of

the results for Experiments 2, 4 and 6 (all with acetone concentrations of 0.80 M)
shows that after dividing the rates of the reactions by the rate constants, the values
obtained are directly proportional to the H+ concentration indicating the reaction
is first order in H+.
30. The passage states that the reaction is zero order with respect to bromine,
therefore bromine can be removed from the expression. If the reaction is first
order with respect to acetone and hydronium ion, then a = 1 and c = 1.
31. The passage states that the density of acetone is 0.791 g/mL and the molar mass is
58 g/mol. The molarity of pure acetone can be calculated as follows:
(0.791 g/mL)(1000 mL/L)(1 mol/58 g) = 13.6 mol/L

32. Light in the visible region of the spectrum ranges from approximately 400 nm to
700 nm. The next region of light, below 400 nm is the ultraviolet region.
33. This is found as the difference between 894 MHz and 824 MHz since these are
given as the upper and lower frequencies. This is 70 MHz and is answer C.
34. Since power P is current I multiplied by voltage V, V = 12 Volts, and the
maximum power is 3 watts, then the current I must be 3/12 or 0.25 A. This is
answer C.
35. This answer is implied by the passage. The conversations must be on different
frequencies to be unique and so no two frequencies can be used by different
phones at the same time.
36. Here we must calculate P/r2. The maximum value occurs for answer D. The
intensities are:
A. (0.6/4) W/mile2 = 0.15 W/mile2


B. (0.6/9) W/mile2 = 0.067 W/mile2
C. (3/25) W/mile2 = 0.12 W/mile2
D. (3/16) W/mile2 = 0.19 W/mile2, making D the key.
37. Light is a transverse wave with its electric and magnetic fields oscillating at right

angles to the propagation vector where as sound is a longitudinal pressure wave.
This comes from prior knowledge brought to bear on the problem. Answer A
correctly states the result.
38. The two plates of the capacitor collect charges of opposite sign. As more charge
arrives it is harder and harder to fill the plates until finally an equilibrium occurs,
thus C is correct.
39. As the capacitor discharges the voltage across it falls, thus to maintain a constant
current, R must be proportionately reduced. This is so from Ohm’s law, I = V/R.
To keep I fixed, R must fall with V. This is answer B.
40. Since energy is lost by heating the small resistor, r, the energy stored in the
capacitor must be less than the work done by the battery during the charging
process. The battery supplies the energy for both processes and answer B is
justified.
41. The capacitor charges up and stores energy in the electric field between the places.
The energy stored is ½CVc2, where Vc is the voltage across the capacitor. The
battery is the source of energy for the circuit and thus is a store of energy. The
resistor is not a storage device for energy and answer C is the correct answer.
42. With 12 Volts initially across the capacitor during its discharge (the capacitor will
charge to the battery voltage of 12V) and a current of 0.002 A as found in
Figure 2, then the initial . This is answerΩresistance R must have been
R = V/I = 12/0.002 = 6000 D.
43. The rate law for Reaction 3 is second order with respect to hydrogen ion. At a pH
of 1 the hydrogen ion concentration is 1x10-1. When the pH is increased to 2, the
hydrogen ion concentration is 1x10-2. Because all other conditions remain the
same, the rate is decreased: (1 x 10-2)2/(1 x 10-1)2 or 1 x 10-2 times. The rate would
therefore be (1.0 x 10-2 M/s) x (1 x 10-2) or 1 x 10-4 M/s.
44. No kinetic information is given for Reactions 1 and 2, only equilibrium constants.
45. Reaction 1 requires that a reaction takes place between two anions which would
experience electronic repulsion due to their negative charges. Protonation of the
oxygen would generate an electrically neutral species and the repulsion forces

would be reduced.
46. The passage states that the reaction of H218O and SO3 is fast. Singly labeled SO4-2
would be prepared most quickly by reacting the unlabeled SO3 and the labeled
H2O.


47. In this reaction the oxygen is transferred from the chlorine to the nitrogen. The
transition state shown in Foil C is the only transition state that indicates the bond
between the chlorine and oxygen breaking and a new bond between the oxygen
and nitrogen forming.
48. The passage states that the Sequences I and III in Reaction 3 are fast and
Sequence II is slow. This indicates that Sequence II would have the highest
energy barrier, as is shown in the energy diagram in Foil B.
49. A substance boils when enough heat has been supplied to overcome the
intermolecular forces. The fact that ammonia has a higher boiling point that
phosphine indicates that ammonia requires more heat to overcome the
intermolecular forces than does phosphine and therefore the intermolecular forces
in ammonia are stronger than those in phosphine.
50. Density is mass/volume. The densities of the four objects are:
A.(1.5/0.50) = 3.0 g/cc
B.(3.0/0.75) = 4.0 g/cc
C.(4.5/1.00) = 4.5 g/cc
D.(6.0/1.50) = 4.0 g/cc
Thus, answer C with 4.5 g/cc has the highest density.
51. Chlorine needs 1 electron to fill its outer shell.
52. The ammonium ion is an acid. It is a proton donor.
53. This is a Snell Law problem:
where the n’s are the indices of refraction. Taking the index of refraction of air to
be nearly 1 then:

This is answer B.
54. According to the information in Table 1, the solution would contain 37.7 g
Pb(NO3)2/100 mL H2O. The molality (mol solute/kg solvent) can be calculated as
follows:
(37.7 g Pb(NO3)2/100 mL H2O) x (1000 mL H2O/1 kg H2O) x (1 mol
Pb(NO3)2/331 g Pb(NO3)2)
= 1.14 mol Pb(NO3)2/kg H2 O = 1.14 m.
55. The passage states that the freezing point depression constant for water is Kf = 1.86oC/m. A solution that is 10.75 m ethylene chloride would lower the freezing
point of water by 1.86oC/m x 10.75 m or 20.0oC. The freezing point of water is
0oC, so the freezing point of the solution would be 0oC - 20.0oC or -20.0oC.
56. The freezing point depression depends on the number of particles in the solution.
A 0.1 M solution of lead nitrate would have a particle concentration of 0.3 M (1
mole of lead ions and 2 moles of nitrate ions for each mole of lead nitrate) while a
0.1 M solution of ethylene glycol would have a particle concentration of 0.1 M.
The lead nitrate would therefore have a 3-fold greater effect on the freezing point
of water.


57. Ethylene glycol has two alcohol functionalities making it a polar molecule. Water
is also a polar molecule. Table 1 shows that ethylene glycol is infinitely soluble in
water at both temperatures. Thus the “like dissolves like” generalization applies
while temperature dependence of solubility generalization does not.
58. The interstitial fluid is hypertonic, meaning that the concentration is greater in the
interstitial fluid than in the cellular fluid. There will be an osmotic effect because
the cell wall is a semi-permeable membrane. Solvent will pass through the cell
wall from the cell to the interstitial fluid resulting in an increase in the
concentration of the cellular fluid.
59. Table 1 shows that lead nitrate has a solubility of 37.7 g/100 mL H2O at 0oC. The
solution described in the stem would be saturated with 1.3 g (39.0 g - 37.7 g) of
undissolved lead nitrate remaining.

60. The mole fraction can be determined as follows:
10 g Pb(NO3)2 x (1 mol Pb(NO3)2/331 g Pb(NO3)2) = 0.03 mol Pb(NO3)2
90 g H2O x (1 mol H2O/18 g H2O) = 5 mol H2O
Mole fraction = 0.03 mol Pb(NO3)2/(0.03 mol Pb(NO3)2 + 5 mol H2O) = 0.006
61. Since acceleration is the rate of change of velocity, Case II will have the lower
acceleration (or deceleration). It will be in the ratio of the inverse times or
(0.1/0.25) or 0.4. This is answer B.
62. Each car has kinetic energy of ½mv2. Thus the total kinetic energy transformed
into heat and deformation is 2 (½mv2) = (1000)(20)2 = 400,000 J. This is answer
B.
63. Certainly the change in the coefficient of friction as one goes from soft rubber to
hard would not influence the required tire pressure. Thus answer D is correct in
that we expect this prediction not to hold.
64. This answer follows directly from the passage. Without the spring the collision
time will be short making the deceleration and the resulting force large. The
spring absorbs some of the energy and is set into oscillatory motion—this will
increase the net time of the collision. Thus the answer is A.
65. The passage tells us that during each second Car A travels 30 m and Car B travels
20 m. To make up 100 m the two cars must travel 10 seconds. This is answer D.
66. Since momentum is conserved and is given by mass multiplied by velocity we
have mv + MV = (m + M) Va, where v and V are the initial velocities of cars A
and B and Va is the velocity of both after the inelastic collision. So


This is answer C.
67. Since we would expect the quake information to propagate in all directions, it
does not support the coincidence hypothesis to learn that subsequent quakes
occurred in all directions. The other three answers all stress the possibility of
coincidence.
68. Lasting deformations go as (L/d)3 according to the passage. Thus for two different

values of d, d1 and d2, the ratio of lasting deformations will go as (d2/d1)3. This
value will be (4/16)3 = (1/4)3 = 1/64. This is answer C.
69. Answer A certainly makes sense qualitatively. The relatively small trigger
unleashed a quake that was basically ready to go with a small provocation.
Answer B sounds good but the passage argues against elastic oscillations causing
lasting deformations. Answers C and D make no sense and are wrong. Thus A is
the best answer.
70. The speed of a wave v is given by its wavelength λ divided by its period T:

The order of magnitude is then thousands of meters per second or answer B.
71. The Doppler Effect will cause a bunching or squeezing of the waves moving with
the rupture and an elongation of the waves opposing the rupture. This is answer C.
72. The difference in pressure in a fluid on Earth is:
(change in × g ×(density of fluid) height) = (1000)(10)(0.25) = 2500 N/m2
This is answer C.
73. The reaction equation shows the reduction of H+ by Cd. Because the H+ accepts
the electron readily from Cd, it can be determined that H+ has the highest electron
affinity.
74. According to the relation given in the passage, the energy of an electron in orbit
n = 3 is less negative or greater than the energy in orbit n = 2. Thus energy is
required to make the transition from n = 2 to n = 3 and the atom gains energy.
Answer D states precisely this and only D is consistent with this result.
75. To find the relative refractive index to air one needs both the incident and
refracted angles. Since the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection we
will know the angle of reflection. We still must know the angle of refraction and


this is answer B. None of the other answers will allow one to know the angle of
refraction.
76. A faraday is equal to one mole of electric charge. Because each aluminum ion

gains 3 electrons, 0.1 faraday of charge will reduce 0.1/3 moles of aluminum, or
0.033 moles of aluminum.
77. The indicator will change color over a specific pH range. The range at which the
color change takes place depends on the point at which HIn is converted to In-,
and this depends on the pKa of the indicator.
78. Changes brought on by human judgment are natural.
This thesis is implied or stated by the author throughout the passage, including the
view that such adaptation is natural to a peculiarly human evolution: “If we
believe that all life shares a certain quality of sensitivity, or self-awareness, then
Homo sapiens was an astonishing and wholly unpredictable leap forward in this
respect….” This view is reinforced by the author’s point about the superiority of
cultural over genetic adaptation: “When human beings encounter new
circumstances, adaptation rarely depends on which individuals are genetically
best suited to adjust…. No, human beings tend to cut the loop short by noticing
the new, puzzling over it…attempting to find out immediately what is edible,
combustible, domesticable….” The author sets this view against the view of
“human presence is a sort of monolithic [natural] disaster” that is making the
world’s “‘natural’ continuance impossible.”
79. The author states that the human capacity for reasoned judgment sets it apart from
other creatures: “What seems simple to us is far beyond them.” The author
elaborates by focusing on human problem-solving and inventiveness as a means
of adaptation. By reasonable implication, the author would say the same for a
species with greater capacities than humans.
80. While the author acknowledges the concerns about the rates of extinctions, saying
these are what “alarms so many life historians,” the author does not share their
alarm, instead asserting that change, “one of the most reliable constants,” occurs
rapidly because of human agency: “…I don’t think [North America] is a poorer
place now than it was twenty thousand years ago.” Compared with other creatures,
“it’s almost as if we move so fast that we are invisible [to other creatures], and
they are still trying to pretend that the world is the same as it was before we

arrived.” The speed of human adaptability accounts for humans’ “wholly
unpredictable [evolutionary] leap forward,” according to the author. This implies
that human adaptability is a natural occurrence.
81. The superiority of human cultural adaptation over genetic adaptation is a key
feature of the author’s central argument that humans are conscious agents of
change on this planet. It follows that the author would focus on human
inventiveness as the key to survival on Mars.
82. The author emphasizes how life historians support this particular argument:
“What alarms so many life historians is not that extinctions are occurring but that


they appear to be occurring at a greater rate than they have at all but a few times
in the past….”
83. In discussing “cultural adaptation,” the author states: “When humans encounter
new circumstances, adaptation rarely depends on which individuals are
genetically best suited to adjust….” Instead, humans adapt “by noticing the new,
puzzling over it, telling their friends, and attempting to find out immediately
whether it is edible, combustible, domesticable….”
84. The author is fairly direct on this point; after questioning the belief of many
people “that these changes [brought about by human cultural adaptation] are often
for the worse,” the author states: “The more convinced we are that our species is a
plague, the more we are obliged to yearn for disasters.” The author is convinced
that human potential allows for rapid and beneficial adaptation: “Consciousness.
Mind. Insight. Here are qualities that, if not exclusively human, seem appallingly
rudimentary elsewhere. Plainly, our planet contained vast opportunities for
creatures willing to shape it consciously toward their ends.” The author strongly
implies that only humans took this opportunity in the form of cultural adaptation.
85. After stating that no artist prior to Cézanne had attempted to view the world
objectively, and pointing out how several periods in art history had attempted to
make art “imitative,” the author points out that “there always intervened between

the visual event and the act of realizing the vision an activity which we can only
call interpretative.” The author elaborates on this by stating the differences
between sensual perception and art: “This intervention seemed to be made
necessary by the very nature of perception, which does not represent to the senses
of flat two-dimensional picture with precise boundaries but a central focus with a
periphery of vaguely apprehended and seemingly distorted objects.” The author
discusses the role of imagination and intellect being “like a map” in helping the
artist interpret perceived reality by means of, for example, “a system of
perspective,” and then states: “One might conclude from the history of art that
reality in this sense is will-o’-the wisp, an actuality we can see but never grasp.”
Interpretation, for the artist, becomes part of the act of seeing.
86. The author establishes the central thesis in the first paragraph, citing the singleminded determination of [Cézanne] to see the world objectively.” The author
devotes much of the remainder of the passage to discussing how much of art
previous to Cézanne represented an interpretation of reality by bringing “extravisual faculties” such as imagination and intellect into play. Cézanne by seeing
the world as object attempted to succeed in this “where [his predecessors] had
failed.”
87. The author states this idea outright: “Great revolutionary leaders are people with a
single and a simple idea, and it is the very persistency with which they pursue this
idea that endows it with power.”
88. The author says: “[Cézanne’s] immediate predecessors, the Impressionists, had
seen their world subjectively—that is to say, as it presented itself to their senses in


various lights, or from various points of view. Each occasion made a different and
distinct impression on their senses…..”
89. The context of the phrase indicates that it refers to the inability of artists before
Cézanne to effectively depict reality: “One might conclude from the history of art
that reality in this sense is a will-o’-the wisp, an actuality we can see but never
grasp.” Prior to this statement, the author had discussed how reality had eluded
artists before Cézanne, including through the use of the “system of perspective:”

“like a map, [perspective] serves to guide the intellect; perspective does not give
us any glimpse of the reality.”
90. The author asserts Greek and Roman art was “possessed of a desire to represent
the world ‘as it really is’” without offering specific examples or discussion of
exactly how Greek and Roman artists attempted this.
91. The key to the author’s point about Cézanne is the influence Cézanne’s
persistence exerted on modern art: “There is no doubt that what we call the
modern movement in art begins with the single-minded determination of a French
painter to see the world objectively.” The author, referring to Cézanne, discusses
the persistence of great revolutionaries in pursuing an idea. Near the end of the
passage, the author reinforces this point, saying, “But Cézanne…did not despair
of succeeding where his predecessors had failed.”
92. The author asserts in the beginning of the passage that Cézanne founded the
modern movement with his “single-minded determination…to see the world
objectively” and later implies that Cézanne’s contribution to art was revolutionary.
This discovery would represent a strong challenge to the author’s premise.
93. The argument that “extra-visual faculties” enabled artists to interpret their
perception of the world through art is one of the most fully developed in the
passage. The author discusses the role of imagination in creating “an ideal space
occupied by ideal forms” and the role of intellect in creating “a scientific chart, a
perspective in which the object could be given an exact situation.” The author also
says that these faculties helped guide the intellect but did not grasp objective
reality.

94. The author is explicit on this point, drawing a direct analogy between maps and
the system of perspective: “But a system of perspective is no more an accurate
representation of what the eye sees than a Mercator’s projection is what the world
looks like from Sirius. Like a map, it serves to guide the intellect….”
95. The poetic qualities of the passage occur in the emphasis on vivid physical
descriptions and imagery that appeal to the senses or the emotions rather than

reflect scientific accuracy: “…this sunflower became incredibly beautiful, subtly


turning its face daily, always toward the light, its black center alive with a deep
blue light, as if flint had sparked an elemental fire there…;” “…”bees with legs
fat with pollen, grasshoppers with clattering wings and desperate hunger…;” “…I
never learned the sunflower’s golden language….” The author observes both
changes and orderly occurrences, one example being the bamboo that flowers
once a century on the same day no matter where they are located.
96. One example in the passage where cyclical regularity occurs is with the bamboo
that blooms once a century—all plants, no matter their location, bloom on the
same day by some special hidden mode of communication. The author observes:
“Some current we cannot explain passes through this primitive life. Each with a
share of communal knowledge, all are somehow one plant.”
97. Prior to describing the sandstorm and the dead horse, the author observes:
“Changes also occurred in the greater world of the plant.” The sandstorm
particularly had an impact, drying out and blowing away the petals before another
change came: “Then birds arrived to carry the seeds to the future.” The author in
non-judgmental fashion simply observes these changes as necessary, especially
birds carrying the seeds away, with the implication being that this is a means by
which new flowers are planted.
98. Nowhere does the passage suggest humans will satisfy their curiosity about nature.
The tone of the passage reflects the author’s sense of wonder at the variety and
tumult of life in its changing and recurring patterns, especially the more aware a
person becomes. This is reflected in the following: “Sometimes you can hear the
language of the earth…. Once, in the redwood forest, I felt something like a
heartbeat, a hardly perceptible current that stirred kinship and longing in me….”
The final paragraph, especially, touches on the notion that human wonder and
curiosity before the natural world will never cease, but is passed on though the
ages: “Without written records, they registered the passage of the gods of night,

noting the fine details of the world around them and the immensity above them.”
The author shares this sense of wonder with ancestors: “Behind me, my ancestors
say, ‘Be still. Watch and listen. You are the result of the love of thousands.’”
99. The emphasis in the passage is on symbiotic relationships: the sunflower as a host
to various insect species, birds carrying away the seeds of the sunflower. The
further implication of this is that these symbiotic relationships in nature continue
even with human land use. Another implication in the passage and in final
paragraph is that humans can know, appreciate, and become a part of the natural
world and its symbiotic relationships—human awareness of these relationships
may even be the key to their continuation.
100.
The major emphasis in the passage, especially in the tone and attitude, is
the author observing and learning from nature, culminating in the final paragraph
with the author participating in the collective knowledge and wisdom of previous
generations: “Tonight I watch the sky, thinking of the people who came before me
and their knowledge of the placement of stars…. Whichever road I follow, I walk
in the land of many gods. Behind me my ancestors say, ‘Be still. Watch and
listen….’”


101.
The sense of unity is communicated by the author’s word choice, in
particular, kinship: “Once, in a redwood forest, trees, I felt something like a
heartbeat, a hardly perceptible current that stirred a kinship and longing in me….”
Other word choice, such as heartbeat, implies that the author’s kinship is with
some of the vital life-producing currents.
102.
The author supports this by explaining that Schöenberg “disclosed that the
ultimate expansion of possible relations to include the whole range of
combinations contained in the semitonal scale demands a revaluation of every

aspect of musical language.” The author further explains that the “atonal
composer…can take nothing for granted” and that atonality “merely [stipulates]
the absence of a priori functional connections among the twelve notes of the
semitonal scale.” Among these “a priori functional connections” would be the
“seven-tone scale, triadic harmonic structure, and…key center” the author refers
to earlier.
103.
The author first states that the diatonic tonal system presupposes “the
existence of specific properties of that system: a seven-tone scale, triadic
harmonic structure, a key center….” The author then goes on to state that
atonality is defined as “merely stipulating the absence of a priori functional
connections among the twelve notes of the atonal scale.” The purpose of this
comparison is then to show how atonality largely resists the limitations of
adhering to preconceived concepts of musical organization.
104.
This conclusion is implied more than once in the passage. The author
states that a composer “working within the diatonic tonal system may take for
granted the existence of specific properties of that system [such as a seven-tone
scale].” The word choice of take for granted implies that the composer assumes
those limitations whereas the atonal system implies that a composer has far more
choices: “The atonal composer…can take nothing for granted except the existence
of a given limiting sound world, the semitonal scale.” The author alludes to a
greater range of choice for the composer later in the passage when discussing how
the general composition of an atonal work may vary greatly from one work to the
next, even in works by the same composer.
105.
The “absence of a priori functional connections among the twelve notes of
the semitonal scale” means that other more readily apparent structures such as
triadic harmonic structures will not be available to the listener. The idea that
atonal music will have a less readily apparent structure is implied by the statement

that the composer is still working under certain constraints such as “the existence
of a certain limiting sound world, the semitonal scale.”


106.
The author infers that in the atonal system the ordering is determined more
by the composer’s choices than by the compositional conventions of the diatonic
tonal system: “An unambiguous ordering is assumed; but the degree to which this
ordering actually determines the general musical procedures varies greatly from
one work to another, even though they may be by the same composer.”
107.
The author makes two observations revealing that the author is particularly
concerned about the United States. The first concerns the part of U.S. work force
that is employed by low-road firms: “About 40 percent of U.S. workers receive no
formal training beyond a high-school education.” The second concerns U.S.
competitiveness in particular: “For the United States to compete in an eventual
global economy based on skilled workers and quality products, additional
employer investment in training is needed now.”
108.
The author points out that high-road firms emphasize investments in
highly skilled workers and long-term goals, both of which may delay profits and
discourage investors wanting short-term profits. The author further points out that
only dominant firms “protected from domestic or international competitors by
technological advantages, large-scale production, or government regulations” can
afford to invest in skilled workers and long-term goals. With this last observation,
the author is saying such a firm is going to have to grow before it can be
competitive and go public.
109.
The author asserts the earning power of being able to use a computer on
the job: “Workers who use computers on the job also earn more than do those of

the same education level who do not use computers at work. Moreover, the
earning difference increases with the level of technological competence.”
110.
The author emphasizes the importance of investing in worker training in
high-road firms and producing “highly skilled employees who can react quickly
to changing technologies and markets.” The author also emphasizes what kind of
investment in worker training is most desirable: “Workers who receive formal
company training command higher wages than do similar workers who attend
only vocational school or receive informal on-the-job instruction.”
111.
In discussing the “muddy road,” the author specifically refers to workers
who get “Some advanced education or job-related training but [are] unlikely to
enter the dynamic high-road labor market….” The author later warns of this
phenomenon again in discussing job-related training: “Although for a particular
job, employer-based training or vocational preparation can substitute for general
schooling, specific training degrades rapidly, and narrow skills seldom transfer
well to new job requirements.”
112.
The author encourages policies that realize the highest returns, and, while
the author does not discuss a policy of repaying tuition, such a policy would be
consistent with the author’s advocacy of putting policies in place that further


worker training goals, for example, policies that “encourage the coordination of
employer-provided training and broader schooling.”
113.
In discussing automated production processes, the author advocates
“encouraging workers at all stages of their operation to demonstrate expertise and
responsibility.” Using a computerized bulletin board to share tips with one
another is a way of empowering workers by giving them expertise and

responsibility.
114.
The author explains increasing disparity in earnings by how earnings
increase when computers are used at work, adding that “earning difference
increases with the level of technological competence.” This observation is most
consistent with this example in instances where former low-level workers get
more sophisticated equipment and training when they move into managerial-level
positions.
115.
The author, in advocating training workers for high-skilled positions,
offers by way of warning the caveat that all trained workers may not benefit from
advanced training: “If the investment in workers outpaces the number of good
jobs, many very competent workers will face an employment market of many
very undemanding jobs.”
116.
The author states that the low-road emphasizes downsizing and
outsourcing to cut labor costs, so it logically follows that a firm that emphasizes
cutting jobs is likely going to have fewer workers. This explains why there is a
greater percentage of these firms in the U.S., since there are going to need to be
more of these firms with fewer workers in order to accommodate the U.S. work
force.
117.
The author cites the following mortality figures: “A quarter of the people
born in seventeenth-century France died during their first year, another quarter
died before the age of twenty, and a third quarter died by the age of forty-five….”
Therefore, it follows that a person who lived to age forty and began having
children at age twenty could see 50 percent of these children die.
118.
The author notes that 75 percent of all people who died did so by age 45.
The author further notes that by 1980 average life expectancy was 73.6 years,

which “was mainly due to success in reducing infant, childhood, and maternal
mortality.” To put it another way, many more people now live past age 60, which
is why the association of death with old age has become a recent phenomenon.
119.
The author states that advertisements for retirement living made promises
of the good life and reflected a sense of optimism and common goals: “Lured by
glossy advertisements depicting a life of warm friendships and endless pleasures,
many retirees welcomed these new complexes as a new adventure.” The author


later notes that surveys of elderly showed that these promises largely proved to be
true as the elderly found the friendship and leisure in these retirement
communities that was advertised. Therefore, the director’s statement supports the
optimistic assumptions made by the author and the fact that many retirement
communities have “evolved from mere developers’ tracts into communities with
traditions of their own.”
120.
The emphasis in the passage is that the current rate of longevity is
unprecedented and that the comparison between now and seventeenth-century
France documented this. The author’s thesis is that the appearance of retirement
communities is a kind of frontier: “Old age is hardly new, but for an entire
generation to reach old age with its membership almost intact is new.” This
comparison supports that thesis.
121.
The author, in discussing longevity, shows that people are not living
appreciably longer in actual years but that more people are living into old age and
that life expectancy depends on health in earlier years. This statistic underscores
this crucial difference between life expectancy, which has increased dramatically,
and longevity, which has increased comparatively little.
122.

By referring to the school readiness theory of education as a “usual
practice…of treating learning as an abstraction,” the author is implying that this
theory is generally accepted. The author points out that the outlook behind this
theory was opposed by educational theorists Jean Piaget and A.L. Gesell who
advocated developmentally appropriate, personally meaningful education for
children, a view supported by observers of modern education: “Most modern
observers of children think that if a task is developmentally appropriate and has
personal meaning for a child, it is approached as a pleasing challenge, not a
struggle.” The author implies that any educational theory that goes counter to the
kind advocated by Piaget and Gesell is “ineffective.”
123.
The author states: “In the literature promoting their approach, the
advocates of generalized readiness are clearly directing their appeal to school
administrators.”
124.
The author points out: “Developmentally appropriate instruction…appears
to be a hard sell to decision makers concerned with uniformity.” This statement
implies that uniformity is more convenient than an individualized approach, with
the added benefit of “higher percentages on standardized tests.”
125.
This analogy is most apropos because the author contends that, much like
a form letter, school readiness is too impersonal and standardized whereas
developmentally appropriate instruction, much like a personal note to a friend, is
focused on the individual needs of children and is designed to be personally
meaningful to them.


126.
The author discusses the importance of developing a test to validate
curricular reforms and educational effectiveness.

127.
.The author would likely doubt the accuracy and quality of the report since
that is how the author reacted to efforts to introduce school readiness. The author
also devotes the first two paragraphs to explaining why reformers should take care
to prove their reforms are needed and credible.
128.
The objector does not say that politicians are better decision makers than
anyone else, so the argument that politicians could “decide anything” is relevant.
The author reinforces that argument by saying: “A government is made up of
individuals who are fundamentally similar to me, and to ‘err is human’ applies to
us all.” The author concedes that a government leader or official may be more
well informed or expert in a particular issue. Therefore, an individual could accept
the decision on the basis that the decision is likelier to achieve a better outcome,
but even the decision to decide whether the government is right or wrong still is
the responsibility of the individual.
129.
The author commits somewhat of a logical fallacy by asserting that it is
impossible to surrender responsibility. One could do so freely—although the
author is right in saying that once you make that choice you have “enslaved your
will to some else’s will.” In the case of someone with the hypothetical
psychological condition referred to in the question, a person surrenders
responsibility involuntarily, because that person would be incapable of making
the decision whether to be responsible or abdicate responsibility; nonetheless, that
person surrenders it.
130.
This theme runs throughout the passage. The author states: “You cannot
hand over your autonomy willy-nilly to…the government or any one else.” The
author also states: “No government, no body of people, no position, no individual
can have moral authority over any individual.” The author also points out that
“the final arbiter is the individual,” even if the government has good reason to

require a particular behavior.
131.
This hypothetical finding theoretically represents a strong challenge to the
assertion that the individual is the final moral arbiter, even if that assertion
remains a valid argument, because it greatly increases the individual’s burden of
proof and, hence, individual responsibility for decisions.
132.
Even if people drive on different sides of the road in different countries,
the central thesis is unchanged by knowing this. The author already gives the
example of driving on the left side of the road; therefore, introducing the example
of people driving on the right side of the road in another country neither weakens
nor lends further support to the central thesis than is already in the passage. At
most this new information is simply a variation on the exact same argument. The
decision to drive on the right side of the road in a country where it is the law to do
so has the same obvious benefits in that country as it does in a country where it is
the law to drive on the right side of the road. A responsible individual would obey
the law because of these obvious benefits, not because the government mandates
driving on the left side, or right side, of the road.


133.
Even if people drive on different sides of the road in different countries,
the central thesis is unchanged by knowing this. The author already gives the
example of driving on the left side of the road; therefore, introducing the example
of people driving on the right side of the road in another country neither weakens
nor lends further support to the central thesis than is already in the passage. At
most this new information is simply a variation on the exact same argument. The
decision to drive on the right side of the road in a country where it is the law to do
so has the same obvious benefits in that country as it does in a country where it is
the law to drive on the right side of the road. A responsible individual would obey

the law because of these obvious benefits, not because the government mandates
driving on the left side, or right side, of the road.
134.
The ethnic conflict in Bosnia reflects Gibbon’s view of history as well as
view of human nature that extends from his historical analysis: “[Gibbon]
instructs us that human nature never changes and that humanity’s predilection for
factionalism, augmented by environmental and cultural differences, is the
determinant of history.”
135.
According to the author, Gibbon “was a conservative along the lines of his
contemporary, Edmund Burke, who saw humankind’s best hope in moderate
politics and flexible institutions that would not become overbearing.” The author
also observes that a state or an empire can endure only if it generally limits itself
to adjudicating disputes among its citizens.” The role of the U.S. Constitution,
with its checks and balances among the three branches of government, is to limit
government in this way.

136.
Ethnic diversity, in Gibbon’s view, is one of the destabilizing factors in
human history. Therefore, a stable society that is ethnically diverse would most
challenge Gibbon’s view—his view might hold up if this society were explained
by a system of limited government that adjudicated these ethnic differences.
137.
The role of Milan and Nicomedia as functional capitals shows how
historical changes occur gradually, because these roles came “decades before the
formal division of the Empire into western and eastern halves and almost two
centuries before Rome officially ceased to be the imperial capital….”


140.

According to Theory II, the metabolic rates of mammals are directly
proportional to the rate of generation of free radicals. The information presented
in the item stem, comparing humans, rats, and mice indicates that metabolic rate
for humans is at 25cal/g/day, that of rats is at 150 cal/g/day, and that of mice is
greatest at 180 cal/g/day. Thus the generation of free radicals, and subsequent
evidence of a free-radical-induced DNA damaged product in urinary output, is
consistent with the graph shown in foil A. Foil A shows a direct relationship
between metabolic rate (x-axis) and the urinary output of a free-radical-induced
DNA damaged product (y-axis). This is consistent with Theory II.
141.
According to Theory II, aging and cell death is caused by the
accumulation of damaged DNA, RNA, and other molecules in the cell. This
damage is caused by free radicals. This theory also indicates that addition of
antioxidant vitamins, such as Vitamins C and E, can reduce the amount of damage
caused by free radicals, and therefore slow the rate of aging and cell death.
Additionally, according to Theory I, connective tissue cells are known to divide a
total of 50 times before dying, regardless of the conditions and treatments.
Assuming that connective tissues have already undergone 30 divisions prior to
treatment with Vitamin E, Theory I would be supported if the cells undergo 20
more divisions before dying, but Theory II would be supported if the cells
undergo more than 20 additional divisions. If the cells undergo 40 divisions after
treatment, this would clearly support Theory II.
142.
According to the item, the female octopus broods her eggs, but eats less
than normal while caring for them, then dies after the eggs hatch. If a certain
endocrine gland is removed, the brooding behavior is eliminated, so the female
resumes regular feeding and her life cycle is extended. This provides the strongest
support for Theory I because it shows that various characteristics of the
organism’s life (brooding and feeding behavior) are hormonally controlled. Thus,
removing the endocrine gland, and source of hormones, can alter the behavior and

lifespan of the organism.
143.
The item asks the examinee to identify the process that would not lead to
free-radical-induced aging. According to the passage, Vitamins C and E remove
free radicals, thus rendering them harmless. Thus, Vitamins C and E would not
facilitate aging caused by free radicals.
144.
According to Theory II, lifespan is proportional to metabolic rate, and
metabolic rate can be reduced somewhat by limiting dietary intake. Thus,
supporters of Theory II would predict that the rats in the “fasting” group would
outlive the rats in the “fed” group by some finite amount. The results presented
under Theory II indicate that rats with a minimal diet live approximately 60
weeks longer than rats that are fed more food.


145.
According to the passage, Sarah was in excellent physical condition prior
to her trip to the Caribbean Sea to go skin diving. After her first diving experience,
she noticed an elevated pulse rate and ventilation rate. The most likely
explanation for her body’s response was the activation of her sympathetic
autonomic nervous system—the “fight or flight” response caused by adrenaline.
146.
According to the passage, Sarah went skiing in the mountains of Colorado.
At first, she noticed an elevated pulse rate and ventilation rate. As the week
progressed, these rates dropped, but were still higher than usual. This prolonged
increase in heart rate and breathing rate was most likely the cause of hypoxia
(insufficient oxygen to the body cells) caused by insufficient blood hemoglobin to
supply oxygen for exercise at the low oxygen pressure found at high altitudes.
147.
According to the passage, Sarah was in excellent physical condition prior

to her trip to the Caribbean Sea to go skin diving. After her first diving experience,
she noticed an elevated pulse rate and ventilation rate. According to the item, she
also noticed that she produced more urine than usual. The increased urine
production can be explained by an increased blood pressure caused by adrenaline,
released in response to excitement or anxiety—the fight or flight response.
148.
After Sarah’s accident, the physician detected myoglobin in Sarah’s urine.
Myoglobin is the substance that holds oxygen in the muscles and organs. The
physician’s observation is consistent with an injury to muscle or organs, but not
bone.
149.
Control of heart rate, muscle coordination, and appetite is maintained by
the brain stem, cerebellum, and hypothalamus, respectively.
150.
According to the item, Sarah noticed that her skin blood vessels were
usually constricted to conserve body heat in the cold environment of the Colorado
mountains where she went skiing. Occasionally, however, her vessels would
dilate for short periods of time to enable a sufficient supply of blood (and oxygen)
to her cells. Due to the physical exertion of skiing, her cells had an increased need
for oxygen.
151.
The Cahn-Ingold-Prelog system, susbtituents are listed in order of
decreasing atomic number. The atoms directly bonded to the chiral carbon atom
(x) are H, C, C, and N. Nitrogen has the highest atomic number and therefore the
NHCHO group has the highest priority.
152.
The analog of Compound 8 would undergo a Wittig reaction with
Ph3P=CH2 to form the double bond in Compound 1.

153.
The number of stereoisomers can be calculated using the formula 2n,
where n is the number of stereocenters in the molecule. Compound 1 has 4
stereocenters.
154.
The hydrogen on α-carbons c and d are most acidic. It can be determined
that the hydrogen at carbon c is removed because alkylation occurs at this carbon.
155.
The compound contains one ketone group, one ester group, and one
carbon–carbon double bond.
156.
According to the passage, reverse transcriptase uses viral RNA as a
template for making viral DNA inside the cell of the host. This process is the
reverse of RNA synthesis, a process that normally occurs in the host cell.
157.
According to the passage, one method of combating the AIDS virus is to
interfere with the binding of the virus to the helper T cell. This is done by
producing antibodies to the gp120 proteins on the viral surface. However, the
variability of the antibody-evoking region of the gp120 protein makes it difficult
for B cells to produce antibodies that neutralize the AIDS virus in the host
because antibodies are very specific
158.
AZT is effective for treating AIDS because it is missing a hydroxyl group
on the 3’ carbon, a normal site for the bonding between a phosphate and sugar in
the growing DNA polymer. AZT becomes incorporated into the growing DNA
chain in place of a regular nucleotide (which would have the hydroxyl group on
the 3’ carbon), thereby interfering with the process of DNA polymerization.
159.
Antibiotics that are effective in interfering with bacterial (but not
eukaryotic) ribosomes are ineffective at combating viruses because viruses

typically lack ribosomes. Thus, a drug that interferes with ribosome function
would have no effect against a virus.
160.
According to the passage, during the infection of a helper T cell, gp120
proteins of the viral coat first bind to the CD4 antigens on the cell membrane.
Then the viral coat fuses with the membrane, dumping its RNA core into the cell.
Once dumped, this RNA core would be transformed into DNA by reverse
transcriptase, and the viral DNA would then become incorporated into the host
cell’s chromosomes until activated (replicated) at a later time. Thus, when an
AIDS virus has been incorporated into a CD4 cell, but has not yet been replicated,
the viral genetic information is located in the CD4 cell’s nucleus—incorporated
into the host’s DNA.