AAMC MCAT test 8 a

1. With respect to bonding and electrical conductivity, respectively, sulfur hexafluoride, SF6(g), would be described
as:
A )covalent and a nonconductor.
The passage states that the vast majority of covalent compounds are comprised exclusively of nonmetallic
elements, whereas binary ionic compounds are made up of a metal and a nonmetal. Because neither sulfur
nor fluorine is a metallic element, sulfur hexafluoride is a covalent compound. The passage also states that
aqueous solutions of covalent compounds do not conduct electricity. Sulfur hexafluoride is covalent and a
nonconductor. Thus, A is the best answer.
B )ionic and a nonconductor.
C )covalent and a conductor.
D )ionic and a conductor.

2. Where are nonmetals found in the periodic table?
A) Right side
The noble gases and halogens are found on the right side of the table. These are nonmetals. Thus, A is the best answer.
B ) Left side
C ) Top half
D ) Bottom half
3. Which of the following pairs of compounds provides an example of ionic and covalent bonding, respectively?
A ) HBr(g) and NaCl(s)
B ) NaCl(s) and NaI(s)
C ) NaI(s) and NaCl(s)
D ) NaCl(s) and HBr(g)
The passage states that the vast majority of covalent compounds are comprised exclusively of nonmetallic elements,
whereas binary ionic compounds are made up of a metal and a nonmetal. Sodium is a metal and chlorine is a nonmetal;
consequently, NaCl is an ionic compound. Hydrogen and bromine are both nonmetals, which means HBr is a covalent
compound. Thus, D is the best answer.
4. Which of the following compounds has the most ionic character?
A ) KBr(s)
B ) CsCl(s)
The compound with the greatest difference in electronegativities between the metal and nonmetal has the most ionic

character. The data in Table 1 show that electronegativities tend to decrease down a group of the periodic table. Cs
would have an electronegativity of approximately 0.8 or lower and Cl has an electronegativity of 3.0. The difference
between the electronegativities of these two elements is the greatest of the compounds listed. Thus, B is the best
answer.
C ) NaI(s)
D ) RbBr(s)

5. Which of the following statements is consistent with the incorrect conclusion that HCl is an ionic compound?
A ) It is a gas at room temperature.
B ) A 1 M solution freezes below 0°C.


C ) A 1 M solution conducts electricity.
The passage states that an aqueous solution of an ionic compound conducts electricity. Thus, C is the best answer.

D ) It is composed of two nonmetals.
6. According to the passage, the magnitude of B3 at the position of a given hydrogen nucleus is determined by the:
A ) chemical environment of the nucleus.
The passage states that B3 is the vector sum of the magnetic fields of the electrons and other nuclei near the H atom, so
the chemical composition of the material around the H nucleus being examined will contribute to B3. Only Foil A
relates to the material around the H nucleus. Thus, A is the best answer.

B ) mass of the nucleus.
C ) radius of the nucleus.
D ) charge of the nucleus.

7. Consider an H nucleus with µ pointing in a direction 180° from a magnetic field. When the nucleus relaxes, which of the
following most likely will result?
A ) The magnitude of µ will decrease to zero.
B ) The magnitude of the magnetic field will decrease to zero.

C ) The nucleus will emit a photon.
Based on the passage, µ is an intrinsic property of the atomic and subatomic particles, and the magnetic fields are
either externally controlled (B1, B2) or intrinsic to the electrons and nuclei (B3). The passage also states that energy is
emitted when an H nucleus relaxes, which is compatible only with emitting a photon. Thus, C is the best answer.

D ) The nucleus will absorb a photon.

8. X-ray imaging sometimes requires the use of contrast dyes. In MRI, dyes are:
A ) less toxic.
B ) not needed.
The dyes used in X-ray imaging must consist of elements from the lower part of the periodic table to take advantage of
attenuation’s being “roughly proportional to the atomic numbers of elements contained in the tissue.” In contrast, the
passage states that “adjacent locations with different chemical compositions,” when imaged by MRI, already have
“contrasts of several hundred percent.” This implies that a dye is not necessary. Thus, B is the best answer.

C ) needed but not always used.
D ) always used.

9. Human proteins are composed mostly of the elements C, H, O, N, and S. Without dyes, X-ray images of tissue containing
different proteins do NOT have high contrasts, most likely because:
A dyes do not bind well to proteins.
B protein bonds are broken by the radiation, resulting in the formation of free radicals.


C the differences in the atomic numbers of the elements are not large enough.
Because attenuation is “roughly proportional to the atomic numbers of elements contained in the tissue,” to see
significant differences in the X-ray image one needs a sizable difference in atomic number. Noting that bones, but not
much else, easily appear in an X ray of undyed tissue, one can infer that Ca has an atomic number high enough to
significantly attenuate X rays. Of the elements C, H, O, N, and S, only sulfur has an atomic number approaching (but
still less than) that of Ca. Thus, C is the best answer.

D proteins are opaque to X rays.

10.

For a given magnitude of B1, the nucleus with the nonzero precession frequency will be which of the following?
A4
He
2
B1
6 O
8
C1
9 F
9
Because protons and neutrons have spin just as electrons do, to guarantee a nonzero net spin, an odd number of
nucleons is needed. Of the foils, the only element that has an odd number of nucleons is. Thus, C is the best answer.
D 208
Pb
82

11. To adjust ωd of H nuclei, a diagnostician is most likely to vary which of the following?
A ) B1
Based on the passage, the angular frequency ωd is

One can see that B1 is the only externally controllable variable. Thus, A is the best answer.
B ) B3
C) h
D) µ
12. According to the passage, at resonance, B2 rotates an H nucleus through an angle of:
A ) 45°.

B ) 90°.
C ) 180°.
The passage states that to precess µ at a frequency of ωd, µ must be parallel to B1. If the precesssing H atom becomes
antiparallel, this means µ has turned by 180°. Thus, C is the best answer.
D ) 270°.

13. The effect of temperature on the rate of the reaction can best be determined by comparing Tube 5 with which of the
following tubes?
A ) Tube 2
B ) Tube 3
C ) Tube 4
To determine the effect of temperature on the rate of the reaction, Tube 5 must be compared with another tube in
which all conditions were the same, except the temperature. Tube 5 contained 20 mL each of solutions A and B and no
water at 32ºC. Tube 4 contained 20 mL each of solutions A and B and no water at 12ºC. Thus, C is the best answer.
D ) Tube 6


14. The results in Table 1 would most likely NOT be affected if the students had added excess:
A ) KI(aq) to Solution A.
B ) Na2S2O3(aq) to Solution A.
C ) (NH4)2S2O8(aq) to Solution B.
D ) starch to Solution B.
Starch is not a participant in any of the reactions, acting only as an indicator of excess I2. Thus, D is the best answer.
15. In Tube 6, what is the most likely function of CuSO4(aq)?
A ) Reactant
B ) Indicator
C ) Inhibitor
D ) Catalyst
A comparison of the results for Tube 1 and Tube 6, which are identical except for the addition of CuSO4 to Tube 6,
shows that it takes longer for the combined solution in Tube 1 to turn dark blue than it takes for the combined solution

in Tube 6. Thus, D is the best answer.
16. The solution in Tube 1 turned dark blue more rapidly than did the solution in Tube 4, because the:
A ) rate of Reaction 2 was slower in Tube 1 than in Tube 4.
B ) average kinetic energies of I–(aq) and S2O8–(aq) were greater in Tube 1 than in Tube 4. The reaction conditions for
tubes 1 and 4 are identical except Tube 1 was run at 22ºC and Tube 4 was run at 12ºC. The higher the temperature, the
greater the average kinetic energy of the components of the reaction. Thus, B is the best answer.
C ) concentrations of I–(aq) and S2O8–(aq) were greater in Tube 1 than in Tube 4.
D ) concentration of starch was greater in Tube 1 than in Tube 4.
17. Which of the following graphs best shows the number of moles of S4O62–(aq) in Tube 6 as time passes?
A)

B)

The data in Table 1 show that the reaction is complete in 19 sec. The amount of S4O62–
would increase for 19 sec and then level off. Thus, B is the best answer.
C )


D

)

18. According to the results of Galileo’s experiments described in the passage, the ratio of d to t2 attained its maximum value
when:
A ) the inclined plane was horizontal.
B ) the inclined plane was vertical.
Because the acceleration of gravity is in the vertical direction, the greatest acceleration of a sphere will occur when the
plane is also vertical. Thus, B is the best answer.
C ) natural motion began.
D ) violent motion ceased.

19. As described in the passage, Aristotle’s theories of motion do NOT deal with which of the following observations?
A ) An object in a vacuum can move with constant velocity.
Of the foils, the only situation that does not occur naturally on Earth’s surface is that of an object in a vacuum. Thus, A
is the best answer.
B ) An object in free fall can reach a constant velocity.
C ) A mass on a spring undergoes violent motion.
D ) A heavy body falls with a greater velocity than a light one.

20. When designing his experiment, Galileo could have allowed spheres to drop from a height of 10 m rather than using the 10m inclined plane described in the passage. The main advantage to using the inclined plane is that on the inclined plane the:
A ) final velocity of a sphere is smaller.
B ) final velocity of a sphere is larger.
C ) spheres take longer to reach the bottom.
Ignoring air resistance, rotation, and friction, the final velocity of a sphere that drops is the same as the final velocity of
a sphere that moves down the inclined plane. Meanwhile, the path is longer on the inclined plane than in free fall,
leading to a longer time for a sphere to reach the bottom. Thus, C is the best answer.
D ) spheres take less time to reach the bottom.

21. Spheres A, B, C, and D have identical radii and masses of 10 g, 40 g, 20 g, and 30 g, respectively. According to Aristotle’s
theory, if the spheres are dropped to the ground from the same height, which object will have the highest terminal velocity?
A ) Object A
B ) Object B
Aristotle’s theory states that an object’s time of fall t is inversely proportional to its weight W. Symbolically, this is
t ∝ 1/W. The question asks one to determine the highest terminal velocity (when striking the ground). The highest
terminal velocity should then be inversely proportional to t because spheres A–D all fall from the same height.
Because the largest mass in this group is Sphere B, its weight will also be the largest, so Aristotle’s theory predicts the
shortest t for it. Thus, B is the best answer.
C ) Object C
D ) Object D
22. Object A has 2 times the density and ½ the volume of Object B. According to Aristotle’s theory, if A and B are dropped to

Earth from the same height, which object will reach Earth first? (Note: Ignore the effects of friction.)
A ) Object A, because it is denser than object B


B ) Object A, because it is heavier than object B
C ) Object B, because it is heavier than object A
D ) The objects will reach Earth at the same time.
Object A is given as having twice the density of Object B (ρA = 2ρB) and having half of Object B’s volume
(VA = VB/2). To find which object has the shorter time of fall under Aristotle’s theory (t ∝ 1/W), one must determine
the weight of each object from its mass. Because W = mg and m = ρV,
WB = mBg = ρBVBg, and
WA = mAg =ρAVAg = (2ρB)(VB/2)g = ρBVBg
This means that WA = WB, and the time of fall for each object will be the same. Thus, D is the best answer.

23. A sparingly soluble metal hydroxide, M(OH)2 has a molar solubility of S mol/L at 25°C. Its Ksp value is:
A ) S2.
B ) 2S2.
C ) 2S3.
D ) 4S3.
The Ksp for a substance, AaBb, equals [A]a[B]b. The Ksp for M(OH)2 = [M][OH–]2. If the solubility of M(OH)2 is S
mol/L, then [M] = S mol/L and [OH–] = 2S mol/L. The Ksp = S(2S)2 = S(4S2) = 4S3. Thus, D is the best answer.
24. If the quantity of gas remains unchanged while its temperature increases, the volume of the gas will:
A ) always increase, because volume is directly proportional to temperature.
B ) always decrease, because volume is inversely proportional to temperature.
C ) increase if pressure remains constant.
The ideal gas law shows that PV = nRT. If n (the quantity of gas) is constant and T (temperature) increases, then PV
(pressure × volume) will increase. If the pressure remains constant, then the volume must increase. Thus, C is the best
answer.
D ) decrease if pressure remains constant.

25. An astronaut on Earth notes that in her soft drink an ice cube floats with 9/10 of its volume submerged. If she were instead
in a lunar module parked on the Moon where the gravitation force is 1/6 that of Earth, the ice in the same soft drink would
float:
A ) with more than 9/10 submerged.
B ) with 9/10 submerged.
The floating ice cube implies that its weight is balanced by the buoyant force on it
Wice = mg = ρfluidVsubmergedg
Note that both the weight and the buoyant force are proportional to g, making the numerical value of g irrelevant to the
volume of the ice cube that is submerged. Thus, B is the best answer.
C ) with 6/10 submerged.
D ) totally submerged.
26. A glass fiber carries a light digital signal long distances with a minimum loss of amplitude. What optical property of glass
allows this phenomenon?


A ) Dispersion
B ) Refraction
C ) Reflection Light can be carried along a distance within a transparent material by means of total internal reflection.
Thus, C is the best answer.
D
)
Diffraction
27.

Reaction 1 is an effective means of decreasing the hardness of an acidic water sample because it:
A ) increases the pH and decreases the solubility of CaCO3.
According to the passage, calcium ions in the water contribute to the hardness of the water and CaCO3 is soluble in
acidic solutions. Boiling the water causes Reaction 1 to take place; the solubility of CO2 decreases as the temperature
increases. Reaction 1 decreases the hardness of an acidic water sample by removing CaCO3 from the sample and
increasing the pH by reducing the amount of CO2 in the sample. Thus, A is the best answer.

B ) decreases the pH and decreases the solubility of CaCO3.
C ) increases the pH and converts HCO3– to water.
D ) decreases the pH and removes Ca2+ from solution.

28. What is the effect of a high level of atmospheric CO2 on the hardness of water in limestone regions?
A ) It would lower the pH and increase the solubility of CaCO3.
High levels of CO2 in the atmosphere would result in CO2 dissolved in the water. When CO2 dissolves in water it
becomes carbonic acid, causing a decrease in the pH. The passage states that CaCO3 is very soluble in acidic solutions.
The pH would be lowered and the solubility of CaCO3 would increase. Thus, A is the best answer.
B ) It would raise the pH and increase the solubility of CaCO3.
C ) It would lower the pH and decrease the solubility of CaCO3.
D ) It would raise the pH and decrease the solubility of CaCO3.

29. How many grams of CaCO3 would be formed in Reaction 1 if the CO2 evolved occupies 11.2 L at STP?
A ) 0.5 g
B ) 11.2 g
Solution

Guess

C ) 50 g
At STP, 1 mole of gas occupies 22.4 L; therefore, 0.5 mol CO2 was generated. According to Reaction 1, 1
mol CaCO3 forms for every mole of CO2 that forms. There is 0.5 mol CaCO3, which has a formula weight of
100 g/mol. The amount of CaCO3 formed is 50 g. Thus, C is the best answer.
D ) 100 g

30. If the pH of the water sample were high such that all the carbonate is present as CO32–, what would be the
concentration of Ca2+? (The Ksp of CaCO3 is 4.8 × 10–9.)
A ) (4.8 × 10–9)2 M
Solution

Guess

B ) (4.8 × 10–9)1/2 M
The Ksp of CaCO3 = [Ca2+][CO32–] = 4.8 × 10–9. If all of the carbonate is in the form of CO32–, then [Ca2+] =
[CO32–] = (4.8 × 10–9)1/2 M. Thus, B is the best answer.
C ) 4.8 × 10–9 M
D ) (4.8 × 10–9)1/3 M

31. The addition of excess Ca2+ to a solution containing Ca2+ and CO32– ions causes CaCO3 to precipitate because:
A ) Ksp for CaCO3 would increase due to the increase in [Ca2+].


B ) Ksp for CaCO3 would decrease due to the increase in [Ca2+].
Solution

C ) [CO32–] would increase to maintain Ksp.
D ) [CO32–] would decrease to maintain Ksp.
When CaCO3 is in solution, the following takes place: CaCO3(s) ↔ Ca2+(aq) + CO32–(aq) and Ksp =
[Ca2+][CO32–]. When excess Ca2+ is added, some CaCO3 precipitates in accordance with Le Châtelier’s
principle. [CO32–] therefore decreases and the Ksp is maintained. Thus, D is the best answer.

Guess

32. What is the expression for the angular frequency ω of a pendulum?
A ) 2πmg/L
B ) (L/g)1/2
C ) 2π(g/L)1/2
D ) (g/L)1/2
Because the frequency f of a pendulum in Hz is

the angular frequency ω (in rad/s) is

Thus, D is the best answer.
33. The equation for tension used in the passage requires θo to be units of radians. How is an angle of 30° converted to
radians?
A ) θo = 30° × π
Solution

B ) θo = 30° × 2π
C ) θo = 30° × π/180°

Guess

Because 2π rad = 360°, the appropriate conversion factor for degrees-to-radians is π rad/180°. Thus, C is the
best answer.
D ) θo = 30° × π/360°


34. If all the resistors in Figure 3 are 200 Ω, what is the current from the battery when V0 = 12 V?
A ) 30 mA
Solution
B ) 60 mA
Guess

There are two branches to this parallel circuit: one passes through R1 and R2 in series, and the other passes
through R3 and RSG in series. The total resistance of the parallel circuit is then

Given that R1, R2, R3, and RSG are each 200 Ω, Rtotal is also 200 Ω, and the current Itotal = V/Rtotal is then
0.060 A. Thus, B is the best answer.

C ) 120 mA
D ) 240 mA
35. What is the magnitude of the restoring force on the pendulum bob at angle θ?
A ) mg
Solution

Guess

B ) mgsinθ
The restoring force on a pendulum points along the tangent to the circular arc of its motion. Figure 1 shows
the free-body diagram of the pendulum bob, and the only force acting along the direction of motion is
mgsin θ. Thus, B is the best answer
C ) mgcosθ
D ) mgtanθ

36. What mechanism supplies the tension in the string at the molecular level?
A ) Magnetic forces
Solution

B ) Electron transfer
C ) Gravitational forces

Guess

D ) Stretching bond lengths
Intermolecular forces and the physical structure of the molecules determine the structure of the string at the
molecular level. Physically stretching the string affects the intermolecular forces (which are primarily
electrostatic) and the bond lengths within the molecules. Thus, D is the best answer.

37. Each lead weight has a volume of 4 × 10–6 m3. What buoyancy force does the water exert on a lead weight?

A ) 4.0 × 10–2 N The buoyancy force FB is

Thus, A is the best answer.
B ) 4.5 × 10–2 N
C ) 4.1 × 10–1 N
D ) 4.5 × 10–1 N


38. Which of the following items of information would NOT help in predicting the results shown in Figure 1?
A ) The number of air molecules inside the balloon
B ) The thermal conductivity of the rubber
C ) The variation with depth in the speed of the balloon
D ) The total mass of the water in the tank
The mass of the water in the tank will not have an effect on the temperature of the air or the depth of the balloon. Thus,
D is the best answer.
39. Which of the following statements best explains the temperature change shown in Figure 1?
A ) The work done on the gas by the water pressure decreases its temperature.
B ) The work done by the gas in expanding decreases its internal energy.
Solution

Guess

The key to understanding the correct statement is to realize that in Figure 1, depth increases to the right. This
means that air temperature in a rising balloon will follow the plotted curve from right to left, and temperature
falls as the balloon rises. The true statement must reflect the decreasing temperature and pressure in the
balloon as it rises. Thus, B is the best answer.
C ) The balloon and water exchange heat, increasing the temperature of the gas.
D ) The compression of the gas decreases its temperature.

40. Air-filled, thin-walled steel spheres were suggested for experiments in the tank instead of rubber balloons. The

most likely reason that this idea was rejected is that steel spheres would:
A ) not be sufficiently flexible.
Solution

Guess

According to the passage, the tank is used to study the effects of pressure on gases. If air-filled, thin-walled
steel spheres were used, it would be difficult to vary the pressure on the gases. Thus, A is the best answer.
B ) be too heavy.
C ) not be airtight.
D ) rust too quickly.

41. What vertical forces are acting on a balloon as it ascends?
A ) Weight only
Solution

B ) Buoyancy force only
C ) Weight and buoyancy force only

Guess

The foils list only water pressure, buoyancy, and gravity as acting on a balloon. Of these, gravity and
buoyancy act in the vertical direction, while water pressure acts perpendicularly to all surfaces of the balloon.
Thus, C is the best answer.
D ) Water pressure and buoyancy force only

42. If the valve is opened to drain the tank, where is the speed of the flowing water the greatest?
A ) At the top of the tank
B ) At the bottom of the tank
Solution

C ) At the wide end of the pipe
D ) At the narrow end of the pipe

Guess
For a given volume flow rate, the speed of fluid flow is inversely proportional to the cross-sectional area
through which the fluid flows. Thus, D is the best answer.


43. A balloon is attached to a weight that keeps it from ascending quickly enough for the air in the balloon to change
temperature. When the volume of the balloon has doubled, how has the pressure of the air inside changed?
A ) It has been reduced to one-quarter the original pressure.
Solution

Guess

B ) It has been reduced to one-half the original pressure.
The amount of air in the balloon and the temperature of the air will remain constant. Using the ideal gas law,
nRT = P1V1 = P2V2. If the volume of the balloon doubles, then V2 = 2V1, P1V1 = P2 × 2V1, and P2 = P1/2. The
pressure therefore reduces by 1/2. Thus, B is the best answer.
C ) It has remained at the original pressure.
D ) It has been increased to twice the original pressure.

44. The process taking place at the cathode was:
A ) oxidation by a loss of electrons.
B ) oxidation by a gain of electrons.
C ) reduction by a loss of electrons.
D ) reduction by a gain of electrons.
According to the passage, H2(g) was produced at the cathode. The reaction taking place at the cathode was 2H+(aq) +
2e– → H2(g), which means the H+ was gaining electrons and undergoing reduction. Thus, D is the best answer.

45. What is the electron configuration of the metal ion produced when Ca reacted with water in Experiment 1?
A ) 1s22s22p63s23p64s2
B ) 1s22s22p63s23p64s1
Solution

Guess

C ) 1s22s22p63s23p6
When Ca is added to water, the following reaction takes place: Ca(s) + 2H2O(l) → Ca2+(aq) + 2OH–(aq) +
H2(g), producing a basic solution. The metal ion produced is Ca2+. Ca has the atomic number 20 and
therefore has 20 electrons. Two electrons are removed to form Ca2+, so Ca2+ has 18 electrons. The electron
configuration for Ca2+ is 1s22s22p63s23p6. Thus, C is the best answer.
D ) 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d2

46. Which of the following properties is most useful in explaining the trend in the reactivities in Experiment 1?
A ) Electronegativity
B ) Ionization potential
Solution

Guess

The metals that reacted in Experiment 1 underwent oxidation. The energy required to remove an electron
from an atom is the ionization potential. The reactivity of a metal depends on its ionization potential. Among
the metals listed in Table 1, potassium has the smallest ionization potential and magnesium has the largest
ionization potential. Therefore, potassium reacted the most vigorously and there was no obvious reaction
with magnesium. Thus, B is the best answer.
C ) Electron affinity
D ) Polarizability

Solution

Guess

47. Experiment 1 was repeated with 0.40 g of calcium, and the gas that evolved was collected. The identity of the gas,
and its approximate volume at 1.0 atm and 27°C were:
(Note: R = 0.0821 L•atm/mol•K)
A ) H2, 250 mL.
Calcium undergoes the following reaction with water: Ca(s) + 2H2O(l) → Ca2+(aq) + 2OH–(aq) + H2(g). The
gas produced was H2. If 0.40 g calcium reacted, then the number of moles of calcium reacted was equal to
(0.40 g)/(40.1 g/mol) = 0.01 mol. The amount of H2 formed was also 0.01 mol. At 1.0 atm and 27°C, the
volume of 0.01 mol H2 = [(0.01 mol)(0.0821 L⋅atm/mol⋅K)(300 K)]/1.0 atm = 0.246 L = 246 mL. Thus, A is


the best answer.
B ) H2, 500 mL.
C ) O2, 250 mL.
D ) O2, 500 mL.

Solution

Guess

48. When alkali metals are held in a colorless flame, the metals vaporize and impart a brilliant color to the flame.
Lithium imparts a bright red color, sodium a yellow color, and potassium a violet color. What is the origin of these
colors?
A ) Excited electrons in the metals drop to lower energy levels and emit specific wavelengths of light.
When alkali metals are held in a flame, the electrons in the atoms are excited to higher energy levels. As the
excited electrons drop to lower energy levels, they emit specific wavelengths of light. Thus, A is the best
answer.
B ) Electrons in the metals are raised to higher energy levels by absorbing specific wavelengths of light.

C ) Electrons in the metals are converted into gases in the flame that emit specific wavelengths of light.
D ) Specific wavelengths of light are absorbed when the metal is converted from the solid phase to the gas phase
in the flame.

49.

Consider the phase diagram of water below.

The arrow proceeding from Point A to Point B represents:
A ) melting.
B ) sublimation.
C ) condensation.
D ) vaporization.
In the phase diagram, Point A is in a region where water exists as a liquid and Point B is in a region where water exists
as a vapor. The arrow proceeding from Point A to Point B represents the transition from liquid to vapor, or
vaporization. Thus, D is the best answer.
50. Which of the following statements best characterizes a material that is a good insulator but a poor conductor?
A ) The material contains no electrons.
B ) The magnitude of the electric field inside the material is always equal to zero.
C ) The atoms in the material can easily move from one lattice site to another.
D ) Electrons in the material cannot easily move from one atom to another.
In insulators, the valence electrons are tightly bound to their atoms, and it takes a great amount of energy to free them
from their atomic energy levels. Thus, D is the best answer.


51. An object with a mass of 0.1 kg absorbs 250 J of heat while changing temperature from 20°C to 25°C. What is the
specific heat of the object?
A ) 125 J/(kg•°C)
Solution

B ) 250 J/(kg•°C)
C ) 375 J/(kg•°C)

Guess

D ) 500 J/(kg•°C)
Heating that produces only a temperature change obeys the relationship

Given 250 J of heat absorbed by the object’s mass of 0.1 kg, the temperature change of 5°C implies a
specific heat of about 500 J/(kg•°C). Thus, D is the best answer.
52. At a given temperature, the resistance of a wire to direct current depends only on the:
A ) voltage applied across the wire.
B ) resistivity, length, and cross-sectional area.
Solution
The resistivity relation at a fixed temperature is
Guess

Thus, B is the best answer.
C ) inductance, length, and cross-sectional area.
D ) resistivity, length, and capacitance.

53. Which of the following electron configurations of nitrogen is the most stable?
A ) 1s22s12p4
Solution

Guess

B ) 1s22s22p3
The atomic number of nitrogen is 7. The electrons will begin to fill the lower energy levels first;
consequently, the 1s level will fill first with two electrons, followed by 2s with two electrons, and then the 2p

level with the last three electrons. The resulting electron configuration is 1s22s22p3. Thus, B is the best
answer.
C ) 1s12s22p4
D ) 1s22s22p23s

54. How many sodium ions are in the initial 50.00-mL solution of Na2CO3?
A ) 1.50 × 1022
B ) 3.00 × 1022
The solution contains 7.15 g Na2CO3⋅10H2O. Dividing by the molar mass will give the number of moles: (7.15
g)/(286.14 g/mol) = 0.0250 mol. Because each mole of Na2CO3⋅10H2O contains 2 mol Na+, there is 0.0500 mol Na+.
Using Avogadro’s number, the number of sodium ions is (0.0500 mol)(6.02 × 1023 ions/mol) = 3.01 × 1022 ions. Thus,
B is the best answer.
C ) 6.02 × 1023
D ) 12.0 × 1023


55. If red litmus paper is dipped into the Na2CO3 solution, it will:
A ) remain red, because carbonate is an acidic salt.
B ) remain red, because sodium carbonate is neutral.
C ) turn blue, because carbonate reacts with water to produce OH–.
In water, carbonate will undergo the following reaction: CO32–(aq) + H2O(l) → HCO3–(aq) + OH–(aq). Red litmus
paper will turn blue in a base. Thus, C is the best answer.
D ) turn blue, because sodium ions form sodium hydroxide in water.

56. What is the maximum number of moles of nickel carbonate (NiCO3) that can form during the precipitation
reaction?
A ) 0.025 mol
Solution

Guess

There is 0.025 mol Ni from NiSO4⋅6H2O: (6.57 g)/(262.84 g/mol) = 0.025 mol. There is also 0.025 mol
CO32– from Na2CO3⋅10H2O: (7.15 g)/(286.14 g/mol) = 0.0250 mol. The maximum number of moles of
NiCO3 that can form is 0.025 mol. Thus, A is the best answer.
B ) 0.25 mol
C ) 1.00 mol
D ) 2.25 mol

57. According to the information in the passage, the gas that evolves is:
A ) sulfur dioxide.
B ) sulfur trioxide.
Solution

Guess

C ) carbon dioxide.
According to the passage, the gas is given off when HCl is added to one portion of the slurry. HCl reacts
with CO32– to form CO2(g). Thus, C is the best answer.
D ) carbon monoxide.

58. The ion responsible for the color of the solutions is:
A ) sulfate, because sulfur has s and p orbitals.
B ) nickel(II), because it has a charge of +2.
Solution

Guess

C ) nickel(II), because it has unfilled d orbitals.
The solution containing nickel(II) ions is green-colored. The color arises because nickel(II) ion has partially
filled d orbitals and the electrons in the lower energy d orbitals absorb visible light to move to the higher

energy d orbitals. Thus, C is the best answer.
D ) sulfate, because it is a resonance-stabilized anion.

59. Suppose a scientist tests Metals K, L, and M for use in Plate A of the photoelectric experiment. The work functions of K, L,
and M are 5.0 eV, 8.0 eV, and 6.0 eV, respectively. If each metal is struck by a 7.0 eV photon, what will be the maximum
kinetic energies (in eV) of the electrons ejected, if any, from K, L, and M, respectively?
A ) 2.0, 0.0, 1.0
The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons is always E − W. Note that because Metal L has WL > E, the maximum
K = 0 (there are no photoelectrons). Thus, A is the best answer.


B ) 2.0, 1.0, 1.0
C ) 2.0, 15.0, 0.0
D ) 12.0, 15.0, 13.0

60. In the photoelectric experiment, which of the following changes will produce the largest increase in the value for
I?
A ) Plate A is replaced with one having a higher work function.
Solution

Guess

B ) The electrical potential of Plate B is made more positive relative to that of Plate A.
The current I will be directly proportional to the number of photoelectrons leaving the metal at Plate A. A
photoelectron that leaves Plate A will only be counted among the current I if its value of K is greater than the
stopping potential. Foil B describes a change that reduces the stopping potential, allowing more
photoelectrons to reach Plate B. Thus, B is the best answer.
C ) The flux of photons having energies less than W is increased.
D ) The average frequency of the photons is decreased.

61. In Young’s experiment, if wavelength is increased, the bright fringes will become:
A ) brighter.
B ) bluer.
Solution

C ) closer together.
D ) farther apart.

Guess
In Young’s double-slit experiment, bright fringes appear on the screen as the column of dark spots in the
following figure.

For a bright fringe to appear, the difference in distances
is equal to an integral number of
wavelengths, and the distance from one fringe to the next on the screen reflects a change in the value of
that is directly proportional to one wavelength. Thus, D is the best answer.
62. If light is wavelike and if diffractive effects are ignored, the fringes on T3 in Figure 1 should disappear when:
A ) λ is increased slightly.
Solution

B ) light intensity is increased.
C ) S1 is covered.

Guess

D ) T3 is moved farther from T2.


D ) T3 is moved farther from T2.

63. In Young’s experiment, S produces spherical wave fronts. The light entering S1 and S2 will most likely consist of
plane waves if the distance between:
A ) T1 and T2 is large.
Solution

Because wavefronts from a spherical source become flatter and flatter as they move away from their source,
increasing the distance between T1 and T2 will cause waves from S to become more planar. Thus, A is the
best answer.
B ) T1 and T2 is small.

Guess

C ) S1 and S2 is large.
D ) T2 and T3 is small.

Solution

64. When Waves A, B, and C meet at the same point on the target screen, Wave A is 180° out of phase with Wave B
and 0° out of phase with Wave C. If each of the 3 waves has an amplitude E when it reaches this point, the
resulting wave amplitude at the point will be:
A ) zero.
B ) E.
The principle of superposition allows one to add incoming waves’ amplitudes together to determine the total
amplitude at a point. Based on the passage, if Wave A has amplitude +E, the amplitudes of waves B and C
will be −E and +E, respectively, and the sum will be +E. Thus, B is the best answer.
C ) 2E.

Guess

D ) 3E.

65. The wave theory states that for an electron to be ejected from a metal, light of sufficient intensity must be used.
Based on the passage, does the particle theory agree with this aspect of the wave theory?
A ) Yes, because light intensity determines the work function of a metal
Solution

B ) Yes, because light intensity depends only on frequency
C ) No, because light waves cannot carry sufficient energy to eject an electron

Guess

D ) No, because an electron can be ejected by a single high-energy photon
At the core of the photoelectric effect is the concept that even a single photon can release a photoelectron,
but only if that photon carries enough energy. Intensity in the photon picture is a measure of how many
photons are arriving each second, not how much energy each photon has. This means that photoelectrons can
be released even when only a few high-energy photons are present. If, however, the photon energy is too
low, even a flood of photons will not release any photoelectrons. Thus, D is the best answer.

66. If Solution A contains Ag+, the anion component must be:
A ) CrO42–.
B ) Cl–.
C ) F–.
According to the passage, the ionic compound in Solution A was completely soluble in water. The information in Table
1 shows that the only Ag+ salt studied that is soluble in water is AgF. Thus, C is the best answer.
D ) S2–.
67. When aqueous solutions of the various anions and cations were mixed, precipitates formed because:
A ) few aqueous solutions can contain more than one cation or anion.
B ) the anions precipitated as solid metals.
C ) the solubilities of cations were decreased by the other cations.

C ) the solubilities of cations were decreased by the other cations.
D ) the solubility product of a compound was exceeded.
The amount of a substance that will dissolve in water is described by the Ksp. The Ksp for a substance, AaBb, equals
[A]a[B]b. If the amount of the compound present is in excess of the Ksp, then a precipitate would form to maintain the
Ksp. Thus, D is the best answer.
68. All of the precipitation reactions in Table 1 can be classified as:
A ) metathesis reactions.
The precipitation reactions in Table 1 are the result of mixing aqueous solutions of cations and anions. The ionic
compounds switch the ions with which they are paired. These are reactions of the type AB + CD → AD + CB, where
one of the products is a precipitate. This type of reaction is a metathesis reaction. Thus, A is the best answer.
B ) decomposition reactions.
C ) hydrolysis reactions.
D ) oxidation reactions.

69. In Table 1, which cation allowed for the greatest number of soluble compounds?
A ) Ag+
Solution

Guess

B ) Ca2+
According to Table 1, Ag+ had one soluble compound, Ca2+ had three soluble compounds, and Cu2+ and Fe3+
each had two soluble compounds. Ca2+ had the greatest number of soluble compounds. Thus, B is the best
answer.
C ) Cu2+
D ) Fe3+

70. Ba2+(aq) is an ion that is very toxic to mammals when taken internally. Which of the following compounds, mixed
in water, would be the safest if accidentally swallowed?

A ) BaSO4, Ksp = 1.1 × 10–10
Solution

Guess

The lower the value of Ksp is, the lower the concentrations of the cation and anion in an aqueous solution and
the lower the solubility of the compound in water. If mixed with water and accidentally swallowed, the Ba
salt with the lowest value of Ksp would be the safest. Thus, A is the best answer.
B ) BaCO3, Ksp = 8.1 × 10–9
C ) BaSO3, Ksp = 8.0 × 10–7
D ) BaF2, Ksp = 1.7 × 10–6

71. Which one of the following cations or anions would be useful in differentiating between a solution containing
FeCl3 and one containing FeF3?
A ) CrO42–
Solution

Guess

B ) Ca2+
According to the data in Table 1, CaF2 will form a white precipitate, but CaCl2 is water-soluble. Using Ca2+,
one could differentiate between a solution of FeCl3 and FeF3. Thus, B is the best answer.
C ) S2–
D ) Cu2+

72. A battery in a circuit has an electromotive force given by E and an internal resistance of r. The battery provides a current i
to the circuit What is the terminal voltage of the battery?
A) E

A) E
B ) E – ir
The terminal voltage is the voltage provided to the external components of the circuit. The battery voltage ¼ will be
reduced by the voltage required to overcome the internal resistance, so V = ¼ − ir. Thus, B is the best answer.
C ) E + ir
D ) E + i2r

73.

Solution

Guess

A beam of light shines into a transparent medium with parallel surfaces. Part of the beam is reflected back into the
air as diagrammed above. (The figure is NOT to scale.) The index of refraction of the medium is 1.5. Which of the
following is true?
A ) θ < θ ′ and θ < α
B ) θ = θ ′ and θ > α
Because the medium’s surfaces are parallel, a perpendicular line drawn to the lower surface of the medium
will be parallel to both of the perpendiculars shown in the figure. This means that the angle of incidence at
the lower surface will also be α, as will the angle of reflection at the lower surface, and the beam reflecting
from the lower surface of the medium will then be a mirror image of the incoming beam, so θ′ = θ. Further,
because air’s index of refraction is about 1.0, Snell’s law would show that θ > α. Thus, B is the best answer.
C ) θ = θ ′ and θ < α
D ) θ > θ ′ and θ > α

Solution

74. Although only molecules having much greater than the average kinetic energy can escape from a liquid, the
temperature of a liquid in equilibrium with its vapor is found to be the same as that of the vapor. How can this be

interpreted?
A ) The excess kinetic energy is transferred to air molecules.
B ) The excess kinetic energy is lost in collisions with the walls of the container.
C ) The higher kinetic energy of the vapor molecules is compensated for by their lower potential energy.

Guess

D ) The excess kinetic energy is expended on overcoming attractive forces exerted by the molecules of the
liquid.
If the liquid and the vapor have the same temperature, then the average kinetic energy of the liquid and the
vapor must be the same. The molecules that escape from the liquid are those with greater than the average
kinetic energy. It takes energy for the molecules to escape from the liquid. Thus, D is the best answer.

75. Sound of a known frequency, wavelength, intensity, and speed travels through air and bounces off an imperfect
reflector which is moving toward the source Which of the following properties of the sound remains the same
A ) Speed
Within still air the speed of sound remains constant Thus A is the best answer
B ) Intensity
Solution
C ) Frequency


C ) Frequency
Guess

D ) Wavelength

76. In order to determine the relative speed of approach of a sound source by Doppler measurements, three of the
following items of data are necessary. Which one is NOT required?
A ) The speed of sound in the medium

Solution

B ) The frequency of the emitted sound
C ) The frequency of the observed sound

Guess

D ) The distance between source and observer
Given that v is the speed of sound in the medium, the Doppler equation for a source that is approaching
(receding from) an observer can be written as

Thus, D is the best answer.
77. Which of the following is equal to a change in momentum of an object?
A ) Force
B ) Acceleration
Solution

Guess

C ) Velocity
D ) Impulse
A change in momentum can be accomplished by the action of a force F over a time interval ∆t. This product,
F∆t, is referred to as an impulse. Thus, D is the best answer.

78. The assertion that the introduction of an alphabet changes cognitive habits is:
A ) true, on the basis of the low literacy rate in the U.S.
The author makes no reference to the literacy rate in the U.S. or whether it is low or high, so no determination on
whether this is true can be made here.
B ) supported by objective data in the passage.
This assertion is made in one sentence without elaboration or objective data. The main body of the passage is devoted

to the impact of technology, in particular, television, on culture and does not further discuss the impact of introducing
the alphabet.
C ) perhaps true but not explicitly supported by passage information.
This assertion is introduced in the context of the larger point being made in the paragraph about television’s
revolutionary impact on society, which was as great, perhaps even greater than introduction of the alphabet. The
assertion functions to set up a comparison, so the author’s assertion must be assumed to be perhaps true in order for the
point made about television’s revolutionary impact to be convincing.
D ) contradicted by the assertion that television watching is pervasive in the U.S.
The assertion contrasts with, but is not contradicted by the passage assertion about the pervasiveness and cultural
impact of television watching in the U.S. See rationale C.
79. Which of the following findings would most weaken the author’s argument about the extent to which U.S. society
has fulfilled the Huxleyan prophecy?
Solution
A ) A high percentage of the U.S. adults who watch television regularly have a good understanding of the
politics and validity of the media.
The author makes a large point about how the television revolution occurred without resistance from a


Guess

point about the unthinking acceptance of television by the people in the final paragraph: “Huxley believed
that we are in a race between education and disaster, and he wrote continuously about the necessity of our
understanding the politics and epistemology of media. . . . he was trying to tell us that what afflicted people
in Brave New World was not that they were laughing instead of thinking but that they did not know what
they were laughing about and why they had stopped thinking.” It stands to reason, then, that the existence of
a U.S. television audience that was sophisticated and understood the politics and validity of the media would
most challenge and weaken the passage argument.
B ) A high percentage of the U.S. adults who watch television regularly failed to vote in the last presidential
election.
This would not necessarily weaken the argument since this could arguably underscore the author’s point

about how television has enforced compliance from the people without discussion, opposition, or a vote. It
would only follow that, if it were true that television-watching adults were be less inclined to vote, then this
would be another instance in which television removed the critical discernment and motivation to engage
actively in politics, or even create opposition.
C ) More U.S. adults are able to name the judge on the television show “The People’s Court” than are able to
name the U.S. chief justice.
This would prove, not weaken, the author’s point about how pervasively television is able to mediate the
reality of television-watching adults and remove them from participation in public life. See rationale A.
D ) More U.S. adults have read 1984 than have read Brave New World.
Even if this were true, this would have little effect on the author’s conclusions, especially since, unlike the
author, U.S. readers would likely not see television culture in light of 1984 or Brave New World. In addition,
nothing is said about how many people have read 1984 or Brave New World relative to how many watch
television. If the number of readers of these books was much smaller than the number of television
watchers, then, even if some of these readers reached the same conclusions as the author, this would have
little influence on the culture as a whole.
80. The passage suggests that if a news commentator presented an editorial agreeing with the Huxleyan warning,
many viewers would:
A ) take whatever action was necessary to combat the danger.

Solution

Guess

This response would be more likely in the case of an Orwellian culture, which the author states is like “a
prison” and “much easier to recognize, and oppose than a Huxleyan [world].”
B ) listen carefully to the commentator and then explain the ideas to others.
The passage suggests the opposite response: “Huxley believed that we are in a race between education and
disaster, and he wrote continuously about the necessity of our understanding the politics and epistemology of
media. . . . he was trying to tell us that what afflicted people in Brave New World was not that they were
laughing instead of thinking but that they did not know what they were laughing about and why they had

stopped thinking.” See rationale C.
C ) charge that the commentator was irrational or needlessly alarming viewers.
The passage suggests that the commentator would invite this charge: “Those who speak about this matter
must often raise their voices to a near hysterical pitch, inviting the charge that they are everything from
wimps to public nuisances to Jeremiahs.” The author goes on to explain that the reason television critics are
compelled to go to such extremes is to call attention to how the Huxleyan world of television culture appears
benign—this commentator might be “the antidote to a culture’s being drained by laughter.”
D ) be receptive to learning more about the danger.
The viewers would be unreceptive to learning about the danger, because, according to the author, this world
would appear benign. See rationale C.
81. One can justifiably infer from the author’s argument that if a presidential election campaign in the U.S. involved
trivial candidates and discussion, the public would:

Solution

A ) vote for the candidates they found to be most trivial.
The public would not be drawn to the most trivial candidate because they would not even notice which one
B ) vote for the candidates they found to be least trivial.

Guess


According to the author, the public would not be able to discern which candidate was the least trivial. See
rationale D.
C ) denounce the entire campaign.
In a Huxleyan world, the public would not even be discerning enough to denounce the campaign, which
would be a greater likelihood in an Orwellian world.
D ) not even notice the triviality.
The most justifiable inference is that the public would not even notice based on the author’s discussion of
how television culture took over without even a pretense of a debate. This also can be inferred from the

author’s discussion of Brave New World in relation to the Huxleyan world of television culture in the final
paragraph: “…he was trying to tell us that what afflicted people in Brave New World was not that they were
laughing instead of thinking but that they did not know what they were laughing about and why they had
stopped thinking.”
82. The author sees the U.S. “consuming love affair” with television as relevant to Huxley’s warning because:

Solution

I.
II.
III.

television discusses vital matters.
television is changing people’s way of thinking.
technology can cause negative social changes.

A ) I only
Guess
References to “public business [becoming] a vaudeville act,” “serious discourse [dissolving] into giggles,”
and “a culture’s being drained by laughter” suggest that television either does not discuss vital matters or, at
best, trivializes them.
B ) II only
Option III is also correct. See rationale D.
C ) I and II only
Option I is incorrect. See rationale A.
D ) II and III only
The author points out how Huxley warns of the negative social consequences of technology: “What Huxley
teaches…is that in the age of advanced technology, spiritual devastation is more likely to come from an
enemy with a smiling face than from one whose countenance exudes suspicion and hate.” This is then
reinforced by a reference to “technological distractions.” The author later makes an even stronger statement

concerning technology and negative social change: “To be unaware that technology comes equipped with a
program for social change, to maintain that technology is neutral, to make the assumption that technology is
always a friend to culture is…stupidity plain and simple.” The author also underscores the idea that
technology is changing the way people think: “for it imposes a way of life, a set of relations among people
and ideas, about which there has been no consensus, no discussion, and no opposition, only compliance.
Public consciousness has not yet assimilated the point that technology is ideology.”
83. A study concluding that political experts consider the U.S. presidential election a personality contest rather than a
clash of issues would:
Solution

Guess

A ) support the author’s point that public business has become another aspect of entertainment.
The author states the seriousness of reducing public business to entertainment: “When . . . people become an
audience and their public business a vaudeville act, then a nation finds itself at risk; culture death is a clear
B ) support the author’s point that no one is warning the U.S. public of the Huxleyan nightmare.
The author does point out that someone is warning of this, but that they are simply not being heard: “Those
who speak about this matter must often raise their voices to a near hysterical pitch, inviting the charge that
C ) suggest that Orwell was right in saying that Big Brother is watching people.
The author suggests that, in the Huxleyan world, it is the other way around: “Big Brother does not watch us,
by his choice. We watch him, by ours.”


C ) suggest that Orwell was right in saying that Big Brother is watching people.
The author suggests that, in the Huxleyan world, it is the other way around: “Big Brother does not watch us,
by his choice. We watch him, by ours.”
D ) suggest that people believe in the inevitability of progress.
Accepting the inevitability of progress has more to do with the author’s point about how acceptance of
television technology happens almost unnoticed than with the author’s point of how public discourse has
become entertainment. See rationale A.

84. What is the main idea of the passage?
A ) Those who create literature understand it more completely than do those who only study it.
The author does not imply this, but, rather, points out that these are two separate activities: “One is creative, an art; the
other, if not precisely a science, is a species of knowledge or of learning.” The author then elaborates on this
distinction, perhaps even implying that more complete knowledge may come from the study than from the creation of
literature: “…useful as the experience of literary creation is, the task of the student is completely distinct. The student
must translate the experience of literature into intellectual terms, assimilate it to a coherent scheme which must be
rational if it is to be knowledge.”
B ) The methodologies of science and the study of literature have many features in common.
The author makes this point prior to further developing the main idea. See rationale C.
C ) There are valid methods for studying literature that differ from the methods of science.
The author explains how some of the methodologies of science and literary study overlap, but then goes on to say that
this has not fulfilled expectations and that literary study “has its own valid methods” distinct from the natural sciences:
“It should be simply recognized that there is a difference between the methods and aims of the natural sciences and the
humanities.”
D ) The achievements of the humanistic disciplines have been obscured by the achievements of the physical sciences.
This is only a minor point the author makes in acknowledging that this may be so, but the author also proposes that the
humanities can be resuscitated to a place of greater prominence.
85. According to the passage, the job of the student of literature is to:
I.
II.
III.

discover ways to approach literature intellectually.
separate the rational from the irrational elements in literary works.
integrate the experience of literature as art and the analysis of literature as knowledge.

A ) I only
The author defines the task of the literature student as a purely intellectual exercise: “The student must translate the
experience of literature into intellectual terms, assimilate it to a coherent scheme which must be rational if it is to be

knowledge.” The author goes on to describe some of the methods literary study shares with science such as causality,
collection of facts, and quantitative methods, and name the methods common to most disciplines such as “induction
and deduction, analysis, synthesis, and comparison.”
B ) II only
The author only acknowledges that literature contains irrational elements, but not that the literature student must
separate the rational from the irrational. The author implies that the student of literature only must find rational means
of explaining literature, which is no different than the task confronting the musicologist or art historian.
C ) III only
The author argues against the need to integrate what the author sees as two distinct activities, literature and literary
study.
D ) I and II only
Only Option I is correct. See rationale A.
86. The author suggests that both art history and musicology should be approached:


A ) with a strict scientific methodology.
Solution

The author does not advocate this for musicology or art history. The author suggests that the transfer of
scientific methodology to literary study “has not fulfilled the expectations with which it was made
originally.” By extension, the same would hold true for art history and musicology.
B ) only by those who practice the art form.

Guess
The passage opens with the author describing this approach as it applies to literature, then arguing against it.
By extension, the author would make the same distinction between music and musicology and art and art
history.
C ) intellectually, despite their irrational components.
The author discusses the need to approach the study of literature intellectually, despite irrational elements,
which is no different than the task facing the art historian or musicologist.

D ) with the understanding that they are essentially inaccessible to rational study.
The author explains that it is possible to approach the study of literature rationally, even if literature contains
irrational elements. The author extends this argument to musicology and art history.
87. Assume that a scholar is planning an extensive study of the children’s story, Red Riding Hood. The author of the
passage probably would say that the most important task to be performed is:
A ) examining the social context in which the story was written.
Solution

Guess

A discussion of the social context would likely focus on elements surrounding the story without getting
inside it. Although useful, this approach would not be what the author advocates because such a study would
not translate the experience of the story itself into terms that convey knowledge of the story’s literary
elements in particular. Arguably, this would be a socio-historical study more than a literary study.
B ) comparing the occurrence of words indicating various concepts (family relationships, food, emotional states,
etc.).
While this approach would illustrate isolated literary elements in relation to isolated concepts, it would be
too fragmented and not create the coherent knowledge the author is looking for. See rationale D.
C ) tracing prior literary influences on the structure of the story and its influence on later works.
This would, arguably, be an example of the approach borrowed from evolutionary biology insofar as it would
trace the evolution of literature. While the author would not reject that approach, finding it has some
validity, the author would not find it entirely satisfactory either. Such a study would mimic science rather
than include the valid methods of literary scholarship that are unique to literary study itself. This study
would largely focus on matters extraneous to the story itself rather than the experience of the story, which is
what the author advocates.
D ) isolating the story elements that explain its enduring popularity.
Isolating the story elements into a coherent argument to the end of explaining the story’s popularity would be
an example of the kind of approach the author calls for, which is to “translate the experience of literature into
intellectual terms, assimilate it to a coherent scheme which must be rational if it is to be knowledge.”

Solution

Guess

88. The reader can infer from the passage that its author believes that the use of “induction and deduction, analysis,
A ) appropriate, because such methods are common to all intellectual disciplines.
B ) appropriate, because no certainty about a subject is possible unless information about it is obtained
C ) inappropriate, because literature, unlike science, includes irrational aspects that cannot be investigated


student is able to translate these elements into intellectual terms and into rational, coherent knowledge.
D ) inappropriate, because of the different purposes of the sciences and the humanities.
The author does acknowledge that the methods of literary scholarship “are not always those of the natural
sciences.” However, the author also states that the sciences and literary study share many methodologies in
common. See rationale A.

89. If the author of the passage wants to get the most convincing evidence for passage assertions, the author should:
A ) investigate the process of creating a literary work.
Solution

Guess

The author makes a clear distinction between the creation of a literary work and the study of literature and
would not find this approach useful.
B ) use the scientific method to study irrational elements in a literary work.
Because the scientific method focuses largely on objective, quantitative methods to the end of producing
certainty, this method, arguably, may have difficulty in accounting for irrational elements in a way that the
methods and intellectual terms unique to literary scholarship may not. Therefore, this would be at best a
limited approach and at worst a failed approach, which would not provide the evidence the author needs in
order to support the main argument of the passage.

C ) apply a particular scientific technique to both a literary work and a problem in the natural sciences.
This approach would exclude methods that are unique to literary scholarship, which would fail to support the
author’s main point. See rationale D.
D ) compare a literary analysis and a scientific analysis of a literary work.
This approach would be most effective, because the author maintains that literary scholarship shares methods
in common with scientific analysis but also uses methods unique to literary study itself.
90. How could the author best clarify the statement that literature is “irrational, or at least contains strongly unrational
elements”?
A ) By providing definitions of both irrational and unrational

Solution

Guess

Since unrational is not a part of common usage, and not found in standard dictionaries, the author would
need to define it, which would be at best a provisional definition and one lacking authority. The distinction
would be better served by a specific instance of an unrational element in a specific literary work. See
rationale B.
B ) By giving an example of an unrational element in a specific work of literature
The word unrational does not represent common usage and the author is clearly coining a word here meant
to be distinguished from irrational, which is familiar to common usage. Therefore, this word would be best
served by a specific example.
C ) By discussing the irrationality of the creative process
This would not explain the implied distinction in degree that the author makes between unrational and
irrational.
D ) By adding the explanation, “Human behavior is irrational; therefore stories depicting the truth of human
behavior are likely to seem unrealistic.”
This statement would not be relevant to the implied distinction the author is making, since it says nothing
about what is meant by unrational.
91. The passage suggests that the author believes the study of literature to be important because it:

A ) shows that the scientific method can be applied to a wide variety of disciplines.
B ) helps the student to become more creative.

Solution

Guess


distinct” (italics added).
C ) teaches that the truth can be discovered by nonscientific means.
This implies that knowledge and truth, which the author does not discuss, are the same thing. Even if they
were the same thing, the author is not simply saying that knowledge (or truth) can be discovered by
nonscientific means but, more crucially, that literary study, in particular, offers its own unique form of
knowledge.
D ) offers a type of knowledge unavailable from other disciplines.
The author makes a point about the unique knowledge produced by literary studies: “Literary scholarship
has its own valid methods, which are not always those of the natural sciences but are nevertheless intellectual
methods.” The author enlarges this discussion to include the unique contributions to knowledge produced by
all of the humanities, of which literary study is a part.
92. Assume that contemporary literary studies involving a systematic analysis of text have yielded evidence of
underlying attitudes that traditional literary criticism had not detected. How does this assumption relate to
assertions made in the passage?
Solution

I.
II.

Guess

III.

It is consistent with the assertion that the transfer of the methods of the natural sciences to art has not
fulfilled expectations.
It constitutes evidence for the assertion that there is a field in which the methodologies of science and
literary study overlap.
It is inconsistent with the assertion that philosophy, history, and theology have worked out valid
methods of knowing that can be modified to apply to the humanities.

A ) I only
The opposite would be true, namely, that this would be an instance in which transfer did fulfill expectations.
B ) II only
The author states that analysis is common to all types of systematic knowledge, including literary study.
This achievement of contemporary literary studies would provide demonstrable evidence that this was true.
C ) I and III only
This would only show that systematic analysis can create new knowledge about literature. It does not
logically follow that this added knowledge and methodology would contradict the idea that methods unique
only to literary studies have been worked out—these methods would still be unique, even with the addition
of one of the scientific methods to the field of literary study. See rationale A.
D ) II and III only
Only Option II is correct. See rationales B and C.
93. Elsewhere, the author says that “literature is no substitute for sociology or politics,” nor is it “substitute
philosophy.” This statement agrees most closely with the passage assertion that:
A ) literary works are sometimes studied in relation to economic, social, and political conditions.
Solution

Guess

This does not assert the uniqueness of literary study, but, rather, where it intersects with other
disciplines.
B ) literary study has its own unique justifications and aims.

The author states: “Literary scholarship has its own valid methods….” This states the author’s main point
that, while literary study shares methodologies with other disciplines, it also produces its own unique
knowledge.
C ) unlike sociology, politics, or philosophy, literature is an artistic pursuit.
The author would say, instead, that literary study is an intellectual discipline, not an artistic endeavor.
D ) the methodologies of science and literary study often overlap.
The author takes care to point out that, while there is this overlap, literary study offers methods unique unto
itself.