ngân hàng trắc nghiệm đề thi tiếng anh 12

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TRƯỜNG ĐẠI HỌC NGOẠI THƯƠNG
ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA 2017
VIỆN KINH TẾ&THƯƠNG MẠI QUỐC TẾ

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - Kỳ thi ngày 21/05

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. hood
U

B. hook

U

U

C. stood

U

U

D. tool

U

U

U

Question 2: A. canal

B. journal

C. refusal

D. infernal

Question 3: A. definition

B. politician

C. situation

D. production

Question 4: A. image

B. purchase

C. mislead

D. deadline

U

U

U

U

U

U

U

U

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5: Ocean currents that help transfer heat from the equator to the poles, thereby creating a
A
B
C
more balanced global environment.
D
Question 6: Our Spanish teacher would prefer us spending more time in the laboratory
A
B
C
practicing our pronunciation.
D
Question 7: She has been searching something in that book all morning, but she still hasn’t found
A
B
C

anything.
D
U

U

U

U

U

U

U

U

U

U

U

U

U

U

U

U

U

U

U

U

U

U

U

U

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 8: Ninety ______ the maximum length of time allowed for entrance exams to this school.
A. minutes is

B. minutes are

C. minute are

D. minute is

Question 9: James was ______ from school for bad behavior.
A. exiled

B. dismissed

C. expelled

D. discharged

Question 10: I meant to get up early but I forgot _________ up my alarm clock.
A. wind

B. winding

C. wound

D. to wind

Question 11: I saw him hiding something in a ______ bag.
A. plastic small black

B. small black plastic

C. black small plastic

D. small plastic black

Question 12: ______ the two sisters, Mary is ______.
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A. Of/ the prettier B. Between/ the prettiest
C. Of/ prettier
D. Between/ prettier
Question 13: ______ angles of any triangle always add up to 180 degrees.
A. If three
B. Three of
C. Three are
Question 14: The man was said to ______ lung cancer.
A. die by

B. die of

D. The three

C. die at

D. die out

Question 15: A part-time job gives me the freedom to ______ my own interests.
A. chase

B. seek

C. pursue

D. catch

Question 16: Some people say that in the future the whole world will experience a period of ______
depression.
A. economics

B. economic

C. economical

D. economy

Question 17: They had invited over one hundred guests, ______.
A. not any of whom I knew

B. I did not know any of whom

C. I knew none of whom

D. none of whom I knew

Question 18: They held a party to congratulate their son ______ his success to become an engineer.
A. in

B. on

C. with

D. for

Question 19: Born in a rich family, he has ______ for nothing all his life.

A. required

B. liked

C. needed

D. wanted

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: “Let's take the tent.” “______”
A. Don't!

B. Of course, not!

C. How about paying by cash?

D. Let’s not!

Question 21: “Why did Jesse leave the party so early?” “______”
A. You don’t say. B. Why not?

C. Beats me.

D. You left with him very early.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word or phrase in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively commonplace in recent years.
U

A. absolutely

B. relevantly

U

C. almost

D. comparatively

Question 23: A revolution in women's fashion during the second half of the twentieth century made
trousers acceptable for almost all activities.
U

A. available

U

B. permissible

C. attractive

D. ideal

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word or phrase in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The police intervened in order to stop the riot.
U

A. ignored

U

B. patrolled

C. attended

D. cautioned

Question 25: His extravagant ideas were never brought to fruition.
U

A. impressive

U

B. exaggerated

C. unacceptable

D. feasible

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: He is proud of being the captain of the national football team.
A. He prides himself on being the captain of the national football team.

B. Being the captain of the national football team prides him.
C. He gives a pride in being the captain of the national football team.
D. The captain of the national football team is proud of him.
Question 27: He is poor, but he leads a dignified life.
A. Being poor, he must lead a dignified life.
B. He lives a dignified life despite his poverty.
C. His poverty leads to a dignified life.
D. He leads the poor to a dignified life.
Question 28: I’d rather have listened to him in the first place.
A. I am sorry I have taken his advice in the first place.

B. He first gave me his advice and I took it immediately.
C. I wish I had taken his advice in the first place.
D. If only I took his advice in the first place.
Question 29: Now people believe that lifelong learning is the key to success. Today’s labor
market is competitive and demanding.

A.
Today’s labor market is competitive and demanding because people believe that lifelong
learning is the key to success.
B.
Believing that lifelong learning is the key to success, people now live in a competitive and
demanding labor market.
C.
Lifelong learning is believed to be the key to success in today’s competitive and
demanding labor market.
D.

Competitive and demanding people believe that lifelong learning is the key to success in
today’s labor market.

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Question 30: I tried hard. I couldn’t open the door.
A. It is difficult for me to open the door.

B. Try as I might, I couldn’t open the door.
C. No matter how hard as I tried, I couldn’t open the door.
D. I could open the door with difficulty.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that benefits each of the number blanks from 31 to 35.
With the (31) ______ of motor car at the end of the last century, a new era in personal transport
was born. The early motorist had his problems - the biggest one being whether his vehicle would
start or not. This problem has completely disappeared today, but others have taken its (32)
______. More traffic and faster vehicles mean that however safe and reliable a car may be, its
driver has to have much greater driving skill than before.
Today’s drivers can’t neglect their own personal (33) ______ for the accidents that happen
on the road every year. A good driver has many things in his qualities. Some of them, such as
experience and skill, will come only in time, but attitude - just as important - must be part of
him from the beginning. These qualities are a sense of responsibility for the safety of others, a
determination to focus on the job of driving, patience and courtesy. Together, these become (34)
______ is generally known as the driver’s attitude.
Therefore, every driver must make a real effort to develop these qualities and this effort must
start from the very beginning of the first driving (35) ______.
Question 31: A. coming

B. going

C. driving

D. getting

Question 32: A. place

B. part

C. turn

D. back

Question 33: A. right

B. responsibility

C. fault

D. concept

Question 34: A. that

B. it

C. what

D. there

Question 35: A. lesson

B. test

C. license

D. practice

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions from 36 to 42.
Many ants forage across the countryside in large numbers and undertake mass migrations;
these activities proceed because one ant lays a trail on the ground for the others to follow. As a
worker ant returns home after finding a source of food, it marks the route by intermittently
touching its stinger on the ground and depositing a tiny amount of trail pheromone - a mixture
of chemicals that delivers diverse messages as the context changes. These trails incorporate no
directional information and may be followed by other ants in either direction.
Unlike some other messages, such as the one arising from a dead ant, a food trail has to
be kept secret from members of other species. It is not surprising then that ant species use a wide
variety of compounds as trail pheromones. Ants can be extremely sensitive to these signals.
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Investigators working with the trail pheromone of the leafcutter ant Atta texana calculated that
one milligram of this substance would suffice to lead a column of ants three times around Earth.
The vapor of the evaporating pheromone over the trail guides an ant along the way, and
the ant detects this signal with receptors in its antennae. A trail pheromone will evaporate to
furnish the highest concentration of vapor right over the trail, in what is called a vapor space. In

following the trail, the ant moves to the right and left, oscillating from side to side across the
line of the trail itself, bringing first one and then the other antenna into the vapor space. As the
ant moves to the right, its left antenna arrives in the vapor space. The signal it receives causes it
to swing to the left, and the ant then pursues this new course until its right antenna reaches the
vapor space. It then swings back to the right, and so weaves back and forth down the trail.
Question 36: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The mass migration of ants
B. How ants mark and follow a chemical trail
C. Different species of ants around the world
D. The information contained in pheromones
Question 37: The word “forage” is closest in meaning to ______.
A. look up

B. walk toward

C. revolve around

D. search for food

Question 38: According to the passage, why do ants use different compounds as trail pheromones?

A. To reduce their sensitivity to some chemicals
B. To attract different types of ants
C. To protect their trail from other species
D. To indicate how far away the food is
Question 39: The author mentions the trail pheromones of the leafcutter ant to point out ______.

A. how little pheromone is needed to mark a trail
B. the different types of pheromones ants can produce

C. a type of ant that is common in many parts of the world
D. that certain ants can produce up to one milligram of pheromone
Question 40: According to the passage, how are ants guided by trail
pheromones?
A. They concentrate on the smell of food.

B. They follow an ant which is familiar with the trail.
C. They avoid the vapor spaces by moving in a straight line.
D. They sense the vapor through their antennae.
Question 41: The word “oscillating” is closest in meaning to ______.
A. falling

B. depositing

C. swinging

D. starting

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Question 42: According to the passage, the highest amount of pheromone vapor is found ______.
A. in the receptors of the ants

B. just above the trail

C. in the source of food

D. under the soil along the trail

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions from 43 to 50.
Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual becomes
sensitive to a substance that is harmless or even wholesome for the average person. Milk, wheat,
and egg, for example, rank among the most healthful and widely used foods. Yet these foods
can cause persons sensitive to them to suffer greatly. At first, the body of the individual is not
harmed by coming into contact with the substance. After a varying interval of time, usually
longer than a few weeks, the body becomes sensitive to it, and an allergy has begun to develop.
Sometimes it’s hard to figure out if you have a food allergy, since it can show up in so many
different ways. Your symptoms could be caused by many other problems. You may have rashes,
hives, joint pains mimicking arthritis, headaches, irritability, or depression. The most common
food allergies are to milk, eggs, seafood, wheat, nuts, seeds, chocolate, oranges, and tomatoes.
Many of these allergies will not develop if these foods are not fed to an infant until her or his
intestines mature at around seven months. Breast milk also tends to be protective.
Migraines can be set off by foods containing tyramine, phenathylamnine, monosodium
glutamate, or sodium nitrate. Common foods which contain these are chocolate, aged cheeses,
sour cream, red wine, pickled herring, chicken livers, avocados, ripe bananas, cured meats,
many Oriental and prepared foods (read the labels!). Some people have been successful in
treating their migraines with supplements of B-vitamins, particularly B6 and niacin. Children
who are hyperactive may benefit from eliminating food additives, especially, colorings, and
foods high in salicylates from their diets. A few of these are almonds, green peppers, peaches,
tea, grapes. This is the diet made popular by Benjamin Feingold, who has written the book “Why
your child is Hyperactive.” Other researchers have had mixed results when testing whether the
diet is effective.
Question 43: The topic of the passage is ______.
A. reactions to foods

B. food and nutrition

C. infants and allergies

D. a good diet

Question 44: According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to foods is due to
______.

A. the vast number of different foods we eat
B. the similarity of symptoms of the allergies to other problems
C. lack of a proper treatment plan
D. the use of prepared formula to feed babies
Question 45: The phrase “set off” is closest in meaning to ______.

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A. relieved
B. identified
C. avoided
D. triggered
Question 46: What can be inferred about babies from this passage?
A. They can eat almost anything.

B. They should have a carefully restricted diet as infants.
C. They gain little benefit from being breast fed.
D. They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early.
Question 47: The author states that the reason that infants need to avoid certain foods related to

allergies has to do with the infant’s ______.
A. lack of teeth

B. poor metabolism

C. underdeveloped intestinal tract

D. inability to swallow solid foods

Question 48: The word “these” refers to _____.
A. food addictives

B. food colorings

C. innutritious foods

D. foods high in salicylates

Question 49: Which of the following was a suggested treatment for migraines in the
passage?
A. Eating more ripe bananas
B. Avoiding all Oriental food

C. Getting plenty of sodium nitrate
D. Using Vitamin B in addition to a good diet

Question 50: According to the article the Feingold diet is NOT ___________.
A.
B.
C.

D.

1D
11B
21C
31A
41C

verified by researchers as being consistently effective
available in book form
beneficial for hyperactive children
designed to eliminate foods containing certain food additives

2A
12A
22D
32A
42B

3D
13D
23B
33B
43A

4C
14B
24A
34C
44B

ĐÁP ÁN
5B
6B
15C
16B
25D
26A
35A
36B
45D
46B

7A
17D
27B
37D
47C

8A
18B
28C
38C
48D

9C
19D
29C
39A
49D

10D
20D
30B
40D
50B

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TRƯỜNG ĐH NGOẠI THƯƠNG
VIỆN KINH TẾ & THƯƠNG MẠI QUỐC TẾ
KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
Môn: TIẾNG ANH – THI LẦN 5 (07/5/2017)
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Họ và tên:………………………………………………………

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. Christ
Question 2: A. naked

B. Christen
B. sacred

C. Christian
C. cowshed

D. Christmas
D. hatred

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from the other
three inthe position ofprimarystressin each ofthefollowingquestions.
Question 3: A. deficiency
Question 4: A. mature

B. psychology
B. nature

C. ecological
C. culture

D. competitor
D. measure

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5: In advanced stages of anorexia, the patient is unable to feed him.
A
B
C
D
Question 6: In my opinion, I think the problem should be solved as soon as possible.
A
B
C
D
Question 7: We were short of money, therefore we decided not to eat out that weekend.

A
B
C
D

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 8: Linguists have discovered that Nostratic and proto-Indo-European have many words in
A. relation
B. affinity
C. common
D. conjunction
Question 9: If no one
misbehaving, all pupils will be kept in after school.
A. admits off
B. admits in
C. owns up in
D. owns up to
Question 10: Their flat is decorated in a
combination of colors.
A. tasteful
B. sweet
C. delicious
D. tasty
Question 11: I seem to be
in energy this morning.
A. low
B. short
C. lack
D. bereft

Question 12: I would like to thank you,
my colleagues, for the welcome you have given us.
A. on account of
B. on behalf of
C. because of
D. instead of
Question 13: She wondered
her father looked like then, after so many years away.
A. how
B. whose
C. what
D. that
Question 14: The police car drove into the car park and
sharply.
A. pulled in
B. pulled up
C. pulled aside
D. pulled about
Question 15: We are going to have a meeting
the morning of December 21st.
A. at
B. in
C. on
D. to
Question 16: A native speaker of Spanish, for example, will
to learn than a native speaker of
Chinese
A. find Portuguese much easier
B. find that Portuguese is much easy
C. find Portuguese much easy

D. find Portuguese is much easier
Question 17: Your fare, accommodation and meals, are all
in the price of this holiday.
A. composed
B. collected
C. enclosed
D. included
Question 18: We will leave for the airport
he is ready.
A. while
B. during
C. until
D. as soon as
Question 19: Nothing is destroyed after the serious flood in this area,
?
A. is it
B. isn’t it
C. aren’t they
D. are they

Teacher: Nguyen Viet Ty

.


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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: This is my last portable CD player. I'll let you have it for fifty dollars. "
"
A. Could you give me a discount?
B. Could you possibly give me fifty dollars?
C. Could you give me your last CD?
D. Can you tell me your favorite type of music?
Question 21: "How far is the train station?" "
"
A. Approximately two miles long.
B. About ten minutes away.
C. Quite slow, I think.
D. It's really fast, isn't it?

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word or phrase in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Many young children are spending large amounts of time watching the TV without being aware of
its detriment to their school work.
A. harm
B. advantage
C. support
D. benefit
Question 23: The aircraft carrier is indispensable in naval operations against sea or shore based enemies.
A. unique
B. novel
C. exotic
D. vital

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word or phrase in each of the following questions.
Question 24: They have not made any effort to integrate with the local community.

A. cooperate
B. put together
C. separate
D. connect
Question 25: Mr. Smith’s new neighbors appear to be very friendly.
A. amicable
B. inapplicable
C. hostile
D. futile

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: It is not until a Vietnamese girl getting 18 years old that she is allowed to get married legally.
A. A Vietnamese girl is not allowed to get married legally only when she gets 18 years old.
B. They never allow a Vietnamese girl to get married legally when she is 18 years old.
C. The legal allowance for a Vietnamese girl to get married will be issued in 18 years.
D. A Vietnamese girl is allowed to get married legally only when she gets 18 years old.
Question 27: As soon as he approached the house, the policeman stopped him.
A. No sooner had he approached the house that the policeman stopped him.
B. Hardly had he approached the house when the policeman stopped him.
C. No sooner had he approached the house when the policeman stopped him.
D. Hardly he had approached the house that the policeman stopped him.
Question 28: Is anyone checking your essay about the environmental pollution?
A. Are you having your essay about the environmental pollution checked?
B. Are you checking your essay about the environmental pollution?
C. Are you going to check your essay about the environmental pollution?
D. Are you having someone to check your essay about the environmental pollution?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: Vietnam exports a lot of rice. It is grown mainly in the south of the country.
A. Vietnam exports a lot of rice which grown mainly in the south of the country.
B. Vietnam exports a lot of rice, that is mainly grown in the south of the country.
C. Vietnam exports a lot of rice grown mainly in the south of the country.
D. Vietnam, which is grown mainly in the south of the country, exports a lot of rice.
Question 30: He behaved in a very strange way. That surprised me a lot.
A. His behaviour was a very strange thing, that surprised me most.
B. He behaved very strangely, which surprised me very much.
C. What almost surprised me was the strange way he behaved.
D. I was almost not surprised by his strange behaviour.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Teacher: Nguyen Viet Ty


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correct word or phrase that benefits each of the number blanks from 31 to 35.

Ever since humans have inhabited the Earth, they have made use of various forms of communication.
Generally, this expression of thoughts and feelings had been in the form of oral (31)
. When there is
a language (32)
, communication is accomplished through sign language in which motions stand for
letters, words, and ideas. Tourists, the deaf, and the mute have had to (33)
to this form of
expression. Many of these symbols of whole words are very picturesque and exact and can be used
internationally, spelling, however,cannot.
Body language transmits ideas or thoughts (34)
certain actions, either intentionally or

unintentionally. A wink can be a way of flirting or indicating that the party is only joking. A nod signifies approval,
while shaking the head indicates a negative reaction.
Other forms of nonlinguistic language can be found in Braille (a system of raised dots read with the
fingertips), signal flags, Morse code, and smoke signals. Road maps and picture signs also guide, warn, and
instruct people.
(35)
verbalization is most common form of language, other systems and techniques also
express human thoughts and feelings.
Question
Question
Question
Question
Question

31:
32:
33:
34:
35:

A.
A.
A.
A.
A.

address
barrier
refer
on

While

B. speech
B. obstacle
B. rotate
B. from
B. As

C.
C.
C.
C.
C.

utterances
division
resort
of
Because

D.
D.
D.
D.
D.

claims
separation
revolve
by

However

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions from 36 to 42.
Carbon dating can be used to estimate the age of any organic natural material; it has been used
successfully in archeology to determine the age of ancient artifacts or fossils as well as in a variety of other
fields. The principle underlying the use of carbon dating is that carbon is a part of all living things on Earth.
Since a radioactive substance such as carbon-14 has a known half-life, the amount of carbon-14 remaining in an
object can be used to date that object.
Carbon-14 has a half-life of 5,570 years, which means that after that number of years, half of the
carbon-14 atoms have decayed into nitrogen-14. It is the ratio of carbon-14 in that substance that indicates the
age of the substance. If, for example, in a particular sample the amount of carbon-14 is roughly equivalent to
the amount of nitrogen-14, this indicates that around half of the carbon-14 has decayed into nitrogen-14, and
the sample is approximately 5,570 years old.
Carbon dating cannot be used effectively in dating objects that are older than 80,000 years. When
objects are that old, much of the carbon-14 has already decayed into nitrogen-14, and the miniscule amount
that is left doesn’t provide a reliable measurement of age. In the case of older objects, other age-dating
methods are available, methods which use radioactive atoms with longer half-lives than carbon has.
Question 36: This passage is mainly about
.
A. the differences between carbon-14 and nitrogen-14
B. one method of dating old objects
C. archeology and the study of ancient artifacts
D. various uses for carbon
Question 37: The word “it” refers to
.
A. carbon dating
B. the age
C. any organic natural material
D. archeology

Question 38: Which of the following is NOT true about carbon-14?
A. It is radioactive.
B. Its half-life is more than 5,000 years.
C. It can decay into nitrogen-14.
D. It and nitrogen always exist in equal amounts in any substance.
Question 39: The word “underlying” could best be replaced by
.
A. below
B. requiring
C. being studied through
D. serving as a basis for
Question 40: It can be inferred from the passage that if an item contains more carbon-14 than nitrogen-14,
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then the item is
.
A. too old to be age-dated with carbon-14
B. not as much as 5,570 years old
C. too radioactive to be used by archeologists
D. more than 5.570 years old
Question 41: It is implied in the passage that
.
A. carbon dating could not be used on an item containing nitrogen
B. fossils cannot be age-dated using carbon-14
C. carbon-14 does not have the longest known half-life
D. carbon dating has no known uses outside of archeology
Question 42: The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses
.

A. how carbon-14 decay into nitrogen-14
B. various other age-dating methods
C. why carbon-14 has such a long half-life
D. what substances are part of all living things

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions from 43 to 50.
Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology in college and zoology at
Johns Hopkins University, where she received her master’s degree in 1933. In 1936, she was hired by the U.S.
Fish and Wildlife Service, where she worked most of her life.
Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wind, was published in 1941. It received excellent reviews, but sales
were poor until it was reissued in 1952. In that year she published The Sea around Us, which provided a
fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface, emphasizing human history as well as geology and marine biology.
Her imagery and language had a poetic quality. Carson consulted no less than 1,000 printed sources. She had
voluminous correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in the field. However, she always realized the
limitations of her nontechnical readers.
In 1962, Carson published Silent Spring, a book that sparked considerable controversy. It proved how much
harm was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides. She detailed how they poison the food supply
of animals, kill birds and fish, and contaminate human food. At the time, spokesmen for the chemical industry
mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued propaganda to indicate that her findings were flawed.
However, her work was proved by a 1963 report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee.
Question 43: The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work .
A. as a researcher
B. at college
C. at the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service
D. as a writer
Question 44: It can be inferred from the passage that in 1952, Carson’s book Under the Sea Wind
.
A. was outdated
B. became more popular than her other books

C. was praised by critics
D. sold many copies
Question 45: Which of the following was NOT mentioned in the passage as a source of information for The Sea
around Us?
A. Printed matter
B. Talks with experts
C. A research expedition D. Letters from scientists
Question 46: Which of the following words or phrases is LEAST accurate describing The Sea around Us?
A. Highly technical
B. Poetic
C. Fascinating
D. Well researched
Question 47: The word “reckless” is closest in meaning to
.
A. unnecessary
B. irresponsible
C. continuous
D. limited
Question 48: According to the passage, Silent Spring is primarily
.
A. an attack on the use of chemical preservatives in food
B. a discussion of the hazards insects pose to the food supply
C. a warning about the dangers of misusing insecticides
D. an illusion of the benefits of the chemical industry
Question 49: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “flawed”?
A. faulty
B. deceptive
C. logical
D. offensive
Question 50: Why does the author of the passage mention the report of the President’s Science Advisory

Committee?
A. To provide an example of government propaganda
B. To support Carson’s idea
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C. To indicate a growing government concern with the environment
D. To validate the chemical industry’s claims
THE END

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TRƯỜNG ĐH NGOẠI THƯƠNG

KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC

VIỆN KINH TẾ & THƯƠNG MẠI

GIA NĂM 2017 Môn: TIẾNG ANH – THI

QUỐC TẾ

LẦN 4 (16/4/2017)
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian
phát đề

Họ và tên:………………………………………………………

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. massage

B. garage

C. collage

D. message

Question 2: A. cantaloupe

B. catastrophe

C. recipe

D. apostropheap

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
inthepositionofprimarystressineachofthefollowingquestions.
Question 3: A. assistance

B. consider

C. politely

D. compliment

Question 4: A. prevent

B. depend

C. mayhem

D. condemn

Mark the letter A, B, C or Don your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the followingquestions.
Question 5: To eliminate any delays on handover, we would remember you to bring all the necessary
documentation.
A

B

C

D

Question 6: If the water level had raised a little higher, the dam would probably have broken.
A

B

C

D

Question 7: The nitrogen makes up over 78 percent of the Earth’s atmosphere, the gaseous mass
surrounding
A

B

C

D

the planet.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
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questions.
Question 8: When the electricity failed, he
A. rubbed

a match to find the candles.

B. scratched

C. struck

Question 9: Doctors advise people who are deficient

D. started

Vitamin C to eat fruits and

vegetables.
A. from

B. of

C. in

Question 10: Going on this diet has really
A. done

D. for

me good. I’ve lost weight and I feel fantastic!

B. taken

C. made

D. had

Question 11: Once again poor Colin has been

for promotion.

A. stood by

C. locked out

B. passed over

D. struck

off Question 12: Life expectancy in the third world is relatively short, in the western
world it has increased substantially.
A. whereas

B. unlike

C. however

D. contrary

Question 13: I have told her thatI am not going to go ahead with my plans

she may think.

A. whether

D.

B. whatever

C. however

despite Question 14: The best way of writing a composition in a foreign language is to try
and write
A. unless

thinking in your own language.
B. except

Question 15: It is time every student
A. works

Question 17: She
A. blamed

C. work

B. learned

C. learning

D. learn

her neighbor’s children for the broken window.
B. complained

C. accused

B. invaluable

Question 19: I recommended that she
A. should

D. worked

a language if you don’t try to speak it too.

Question 18: This ring is only made of plastic, so it’s quite
A. valuable

D. apart from

harder for the coming exam.

B. should work

Question 16: It’s no use
A. to learn

C. without

D. denied
.

C. worthless

D. priceless

reduce her expenditure.

B. must

C. need

D. would

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each
of the followingexchanges.
Question 20: "How do you spell "accustomed"?" "

"

A. It's a difficult word.
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B. It's a long word, isn't it?
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C. I always have a dictionary.

D. I'm notsure. I'll look it up for you.

Question 21: "Do you mean he was fired?" "

"

A. How should I know?

B. Why should I care?

C. He's not very mean, I think.

D. That's what Miriam told me.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase CLOSEST in meaning
totheunderlinedwordorphraseineachofthefollowingquestions.
Question 22: During the recession, many small companies were eradicated.
A. taken over

B. wiped out

C. run on

D. set up

Question 23: For calculating a calendar, it is convenient to use the tropical solar year.
A. practical

B. critical

C. necessary

D. appropriate

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word or phrase in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The young are now far more materialistic than their precedents years ago.
A. monetary

B. greedy

C. spiritual

D.

C. easy

D. relaxing

object-oriented
Question 25: This shouldn’t be too taxing for you.
A. comfortable

B. demanding

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSET in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 26: A drug may affect several functions, even though it’s targeted at only one.
A.

Despite various other uses, a drug usually has a function for a special effect.

B.

The functions expected of a drug are various even if it is used for a specific disease.

C.

However effective a drug may be, its functions have to be several.

D.

A drug is taken for a specific purpose, but it may have a range of other effects.

Question 27: Although he was able to do the job, he wasn’t given the position.
A.

He was given neither the job nor the position.

B.

Because he couldn’t do the job, he wasn’t given the position.

C.

He got the position despite being unable to do the job.

D. The position wasn’t
Trang 3/4 – Đề thithử

given to him in spite of his ability to do the job.
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Question 28: Due to the fact that the demand for tea was very high in the 19th century, its price increased
much.
A.

It was not until the 19th century that the demand for tea started to increase.

B.

It was its price which decreased the demand for tea in the 19th century.

C.

In the 19th century the price for tea didn’t increase despite the demand.

D.

The demand for tea was so high in the 19th century that its price increased much

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: The driver in front stopped so suddenly. Therefore, the accident happened.
A.

If the driver in front didn’t stop so suddenly, the accident wouldn’t happen.

B.

If the driver in front hadn’t stopped so suddenly, the accident wouldn’t have happened.

C.

If the driver in front hadn’t stopped so suddenly, the accident would have happened.

D.

If the driver in front had stopped so suddenly, the accident would have happened

Question 30: The students may be intelligent. They will not get used to dealing with practical
situations.
A.

Intelligent as may be the students, they will get used to dealing with practical situations.

B.

The students may be too intelligent to get used to dealing with practical situations.

C.

The students will get used to dealing with practical situations although they are intelligent.

D.

Intelligent as they may be, the students will not get used to dealing with practical situations.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or Don your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrasethatbenefits eachof thenumber blanksfrom31 to 35.
When Hotmail was set up in 1996, it was not huge success that it is today. But on every
e-mail sent via Hotmail, there was a tine at the bottom saying, ‘Get your private, free e-mail at
hotmail.com’, providing them with a free advertisement. This simple idea soon paid (31) and
Hotmail went from strength to power ICQ, which stands for ‘I seek you’, an instant messaging
service that (32)

off in a similar wayand made a (33)

spread because users recommended is to their friends so

. The popularity of ICQ
that they could have people to chat

to online. The vast majority of Internet users tried it and it was eventual taken over by
Netscape so as to control their competition. These are example of what is known as “viral”
communication – so called because the message spreads like a virus. It used to be said that Roll
Royce never needed to advertise – despite (34)
Trang 4/4 – Đề thithử

high cost of the luxury
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cars – because owners were more than happy to tell their friends and neighbors how satisfied
they were. Nowadays, if you are (35)

to the Internet, the word

can be spread in half a second and, within a day; you might have indirectly communicated with
millions of people.
Question 31: A. up

B. back

C. off

D. for

Question 32: A. let

B. set

C. took

D. gave

Question 33: A. fortune

B. treasure

C. wealth

D. prosperity

Question 34: A. very

B. its

C. the

D. a

Question 35: A. associated

B. joined

C. downloaded

D. connected

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answerto eachofthefollowing questionsfrom36 to42.
Fish that live on the sea bottom benefit by being flat and hugging the contours. There are
two very different types of flatfish and they have evolved in very separate ways. The skates and
rays, relatives of the sharks, have become flat in what might be called the obvious way. Their
bodies have grown out sideways to form great “wings”. They look as though they have been
flattened but have remained symmetrical and “the right way up”. Conversely, fish such as plaice,
sole, and halibut have become flat in a different way. There are bony fish which have a marked
tendency to be flattened in a vertical direction; they are much “taller” than they are wide. They
use their whole, vertically flattened bodies as swimming surfaces, which undulate through the
water as they move. Therefore, when their ancestors migrated to the seabed, they lay on one side
than on their bellies. However, this raises the problem that one eye was always looking down
into the sand and was effectively useless. In evolution this problem was solved by the lower
eye “moving” around the other side. We see this process of moving around enacted in the
development of every young bony flatfish. It starts life swimming near the surface, and is
symmetrical and vertically flattened, but then the skull starts to grow in a strange asymmetrical
twisted fashion, so that one eye, for instance the left, moves over the top of the head upwards,
an old Picasso - like vision. Incidentally, some species of 20 flatfish settle on the right side,
others on the left, and others on either side.
Trang 5/4 – Đề thithử

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Question 36: The passage is mainly concerned with
A. symmetrical fish

B. bony flatfish

.

C. evolution of flatfish

D. different types of

flatfish
Question 37: The phrase “hugging the contours” means

.

A. swimming to the seabed

B. hiding in the sand at the bottom of the sea

C. floating just below the surface

D. lying still on the seabottom

Question 38: It can be inferred from the passage that horizontal symmetrical fish

.

A. have one eye each side of the head

B. have one eye underneath thehead

C. have two eyes on top of the head

D. have eyes that move around thehead

Question 39: According to the passage, fish such as plaice

.

A. have difficulties in swimming

B. live near the surface

C. have poor eyesight

D. have distorted head

Question 40: The word “this” refers to
A. the migration of the ancestors

.
B. the practice of lying on one side

C. the problem of the one eye looking downwards

D. the difficulty of the only one eye being

use
Question 41: According to the passage, the ability of a bony flatfish to move its eyes around is
.
A. average

B. weak

C. excellent

D. variable

Question 42: It can be inferred from the passage that the early life of a flatfish is
A. often confusing

B. pretty normal

C. very difficult

.

D. full of danger

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answerto eachofthefollowing questionsfrom43 to50.
The Beatles became the most popular group in rock music history. This quartet of extraordinarily
talented musicians generated a phenomenal number of pieces that won gold records. They inspired a
frenzy that transcended countries and economic strata. While all of them sang, John Lennon and
Paul McCartney wrote the majority of their songs. Originally, Lennon and five others formed a
group called the Quarrymen in 1956 with Paul McCartney joining them later that year. George

Harrison, John Lennon, and Paul McCartney, together with Stuart Sutcliffe, who played the bass
guitar, and Pete Best on the drums, performed together in several bands for a few years, until they
Trang 6/4 – Đề thithử

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finally settled on the Silver Beatles in 1960. American rock musicians, such as Chuck Berry and
Elvis Presley, influenced Lennon’s and McCartney’s music, whose first hits consisted of simple
tunes and lyrics about young love, “Love me Do” and “Please, Please me”. The Beatles’ US tour
propelled them to stardom and led to two movies “A Hard Day’s Night” and “Help” filmed in
1964 and 1965. The so- called British invasion of the United States was in full swing when they
took the top five spots on the single chart, followed by the release of their first film.
During the 1960s, their music matured and acquired a sense of melody. The lyrics of their
songs became deeper and gained in both imagination and meaning. Their popularity continued to
grow as the Beatles turned their attention to social problems and political issues in “Nowhere
Man” and “Eleanor Rigby”. Loneliness and nostalgia come through in their ballads “Michelle”
and “Yesterday”, which fully displayed the group’s professional development and
sophistication. Lennon’s sardonic music with lyric written in the first person, and Paul
McCartney’s songs that created scenarios encouraged individuals to contribute to the character
of the music produced by the group. In addition to their music, the Beatles set a social trend that
popularized long hair, Indian music, and mod dress.
For a variety of reasons, the musicians began to drift apart, and their last concert took place in
San Francisco in 1966. The newspaper and tabloids publicized their quarrels and lawsuits, and
the much idolized group finally disbanded in 1970. However, their albums had outsold those of
any other band in history. Although all of the Beatles continued to perform solo or form new rock
groups alone, none could achieve the recognition and success that they had been to win together.

Question 43: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The history and music of the Beatles

B. The history and milestones of rock music

C. The fashion and music popular in the 1960s D. The creation and history of a music group
Question 44: According to the passage, which of the Beatles had the greatest of musical talent?
A. John Lennon and Paul McCartney
C.

Stuart Sutcliffe and Pete Best

B. George Harrison and John Lennon
D. John Lennon, Paul McCartney and George Harrison

Question 45: The author of the passage implied that the Beatles
A.

competed with American musicians

C. became popular relatively quickly

.

B. wrote their music as agroup
D. were active in social movements

Question 46: According to the passage, the Beatles’ fame grew as a result of
A. Chucky Berry’s involvement

B. their American tour

C. two movies made in the US

D. their first two hits

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Question 47: The author of the passage implied that over time, the music and lyrics by the
Beatles
.
A.

became more complex than at the beginning of their career

B.

declined in quality and political significance

C.

were dedicated to women named Eleanor and Michelle

D.

made them the richest musicians in the world

Question 48: According to the passage, when did the Beatles experience their greatest success?
A. In the late 1950s

B. After their break-up in 1970

C. During the early and mid-1960s

D. Throughout their lifetime

Question 49: The word “scenarios” is closest in meaning to
A. sceneries

B. situations

C. life stories

.
D. love themes

Question 50: According to the passage, how did Lennon and McCartney enhance the music of
the group?
A.

They struggled to reach stardom in the U.S

B.

They composed lyrics to scornful songs and ballads

C.

Their music added distinctiveness to the Beatles’ repertoire

D.

Their loneliness and sadness made their music popular

THE END

Trang 8/4 – Đề thithử

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TRƯỜNG ĐẠI HỌC NGOẠI THƯƠNG

ĐỀ THI THỬ TIẾNG ANH THPT QUỐC GIA 2017

VIỆN KINH TẾ & THƯƠNG MẠI QUỐC TẾ

Thời gian làm bài 60 phút, không kế thời gian phát đề
Kỳ thi ngày 02/04

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. banner
Question 2: A. bathing

B. change
B. method

C. plane
C. bathroom

D. sale
D. width

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. literature
Question 4: A. historical

B. acupuncture
B. librarian

C. preventive
C. adolescence

D. temperature
D. phenomenon

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: She deeply resents to be told what to do by someone in a lower position than her.
A
B
C
D
Question 6: Color blindness may exist at birth or may occur later in life as a result from disease
or injury.
A
B
C
D
Question 7: The fact that certain animal species have become, or are about to become, extinct
A
B
today are entirely man’s responsibility.
C
D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.

Question 8: By May, Sarah _______ enough for a trip to Japan.
A. saves
B. will have saved
C. has saved

D. will be saving

Question 9: This monument ______ solders who died in the war.
A. celebrates

B. remembers
C. reminds
D. commemorates
Question 10: With the exception of mercury, _______ at standard temperature.
A. the metallic elements are solid
B. since the metallic elements are solid
C. metallic elements being solid
D. which is a solid metallic element
Question 11: We live in the _______ on the corner.
A. brick house old large
B. large old brick house
C. old brick large house
D. brick large old house
Question 12: Coal, oil and other similar _____ resources may eventually be replaced by solar
energy.
A. nature
B. nature’s
C. natural
D. native
Question 13: You _______ continue. You have made your point clear enough.
A. needn’t
B. mustn’t
C. don’t have
D. won’t
Question 14: _______ price is high, we cannot afford to buy a new car.
A. Now that
B. Although
C. Whereas
D. As long as
Question 15: Having been delayed by heavy traffic, _______.

A. her being late was inevitable
B. she was unable to arrive on time
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/>

C. it was difficult for her to arrive on time

D. it was impossible for her to arrive on time

Question 16: _______ it were well paid, I would accept this proposal.
A. Providing
B. Unless
C. But for

D. If only

Question 17: They still haven’t make a decision _______ to the new color scheme.
A. with regard
B. on reflection
C. in view
D. by contrast
Question 18: My English is progressing in ______.
A. odds and ends
B. leaps and bounds C. bounds and leaps
D. ends and odds
Question 19: I know we had an argument, but now I’d quite like to _______.
A. look down
B. make up
C. fall out
D. bring up

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Mr. Smith is going shopping to buy a pair of new shoes.
Mr. Smith: - I’d like to try on these shoes, please.
Salesgirl: - _______
A. That’s right, sir.
B. By all means, sir.
C. I’d love to.
D. Why not?
Question 21: Mary is moving out. She is having trouble with some heavy boxes and she wants Tom
to help her.
Mary: ―__________
Tom: - Yes, of course.
A. You won’t help me this time.
C. I don’t think I’ll need your help now.

B. You’d better give me one hand.
D. Could you give me a hand?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: The editor, preferring a more terse writing style, cut 500 words from the 2000-word
article.
A. elegant
B. factual
C. descriptive
D. concise
Question 23: My aunt’s new book is published next year.

A. comes on

B. comes in

C. comes out

D. comes up

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: He was so insubordinate that he lost his job within a week.
A. fresh
B. disobedient
C. obedient
D. understanding
Question 25: He didn’t bat an eye when he realized he failed the exam again.
A. didn’t want to see
B. surprised
C. cared
D. was happy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 26: At no time did the two sides look likely to reach an agreement.
A. The two sides had no time to reach an agreement.
B. The two sides never looked likely to reach an agreement.
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C. If the two sides had had time, they would have reached an agreement.
D. The two sides never looked like each other.

Question 27: People who are unhappy sometimes try to compensate by eating too much.
A. Unhappy people are usually overweight because they tend to eat too much.
B. Eating too much occasionally makes people unhappy and depressed.
C. For some people, eating too much is a reason to be miserable.
D. When depressed, people occasionally attempt to offset their misery by overeating.
Question 28: “Why don't you have your room repainted?” said Nick to Joey.
A. Nick suggested having Joey's room repainted.
B. Nick suggested that Joey should have his room repainted.
C. Nick asked Joey why you didn't have your room repainted.
D. Nick wanted to know why Joey doesn't have his room repainted
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: The agreement ended six-month negotiation. It was signed yesterday.
A. The agreement ended six-month agreement was signed yesterday.
B. The agreement signed yesterday lasted six months.
C. The negotiation which lasted six months was signed yesterday.
D. The agreement which was signed yesterday ended six-month negotiation.
Question 30: I think I should have cooked more food. There is nothing left now.
A. I should not have cooked so much food.
B. I regret cooking too much food now.
C. I did not cook much food and I think it is OK now.
D. I did not cook much food and I think it was a mistake.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
TREES FOR LIFE
Trees are amongst the biggest and longest-living things on Earth, some (31) _______ back longer
than the oldest buildings. But as well as being nice to look at, trees also play an important role in
improving the quality of our lives.
On a world-wide (32) _______, forests help to slow down the effects of global warming by using

up the gas known as carbon dioxide and giving (33) _______ the oxygen we need to breathe. At local
neighborhood level, trees also bring important environmental benefits. They offer shade and shelter,
which in turn reduces the amount of energy needed to heat and cool nearby buildings; at the same time,
they also remove other impurities from the air we breathe.
Urban trees are especially important because for many people they provide the only daily contact
with the natural world. What’s more, urban trees also provide a home for birds, small animals and
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butterflies. (34) _______ the trees we could lose the pleasure of seeing these creatures in our cities.
Unfortunately, (35) _______, trees in cities are now coming under threat. There is a limit to the level of
pollution they can put up with and, down at the street level, their roots are being seriously disturbed by
the digging needed to make way for modern telephone, television and other cables.
Question 31: A. dating

B. aging

C. growing

D. stretching

Question 32: A. range

B. size

C. scale

D. area

Question 33: A. in

B. away

C. up

D. out

Question 34: A. Within

B. Beyond

C. Without

D. Above

Question 35: A. therefore

B. however

C. despite

D. whilst

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Since the world became industrialized, the number of animal species that have either become
extinct or have neared extinction has increased. Bengal tigers, for instance, which once roamed the
jungles in vast numbers, now number only about 2,300. By the year 2025, it is estimated that they will
become extinct. What is alarming about the case of the Bengal tiger is that this extinction will have been
caused almost entirely by poachers who, according to some sources, are not always interested in

material gain but in personal gratification. This is an example of the callousness that is contributing to
the problem of extinction. Animals such as the Bengal tiger, as well as other endangered species, are
valuable parts of the world’s ecosystem. International laws protecting these animals must be enacted
to ensure their survival – and the survival of our planet.
Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in various ways. Some countries,
in an effort to circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to animal reserves. They
then charge admission prices to help defray the costs of maintaining the parks, and they often must also
depend on world organizations for support. This money enables them to invest in equipment and patrols
to protect the animals. Another solution that is an attempt to stem the tide of animal extinction is an
international boycott of products made from endangered species. This has had some effect, but it will
not, by itself, prevent animals from being hunted and killed.
Question 36: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Endangered species
B. Problems with industrialization
C. The Bengal tiger
D. International boycotts
Question 37: The word “callousness” could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. incompetence

B. indirectness

C. insensitivity

D. independence

Question 38: The passage is divided into two paragraphs in order to contrast _______.
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A. a comparison and a contrast

C. a statement and an illustration

B. a problem and a solution
D. specific and general information

Question 39: What does the word “this” in the first paragraph refer to in the passage?
A. Bengal tiger
B. Interest in material gain
C. Killing animals for personal satisfaction D. The decrease in the Bengal tiger population
Question 40: The word “defray” is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. make a payment on
B. raise
C. lower
D. make an investment toward
Question 41: The author uses the phrase “stem the tide” in the second paragraph to mean _______.
A. touch
B.stop
C. tax
D.save
Question 42: Which of the following best describes the author’s attitude?
A. indifferent
B. forgiving
C. concerned
D. surprised

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
RACES AND THEIR GENETIC DIFFERENCES
Genetics is the study of hereditary characteristics that are passed down from one generation of
living organisms to another. Although farmers have used selective breeding to improve the resilience

of crops and animals, it wasn't until the mid-1800s that Gregor Mendel started the science of genetics
as we know it today. Following Mendel's methods, scientists have discovered "chromosomes" and
"DNA". With the ability to study DNA, scientists were able to study the genetic differences between
races.
Modern genetics discovered that all humans are descendants of "Mitochondrial Eve," a woman
who lived over 150,000 years ago in Africa. Since the first humans were born, over 75,000 generations
have passed, and many subtle differences are now evident. Humans share at least 99% of their genetic
makeup. A 1% difference may not seem like much, but when you consider that a chimpanzee shares
98% of human genes, you realize how much a 1% difference makes!
Africans are more closely related to Europeans than any other two groups, despite the fact that
they differ so much in appearance. The biggest genetic differences are found between Africans and
the native populations of North America (22%). However, it is essential to note that the genetic
differences between people of the same race are much greater than the differences between people of
different races. This means that the argument which claims that genetic differences make one race
superior to another is nothing but a tall story.
The differences in various populations may also be the result of circumstances rather than
genetic makeup. Factors such as climate, diet, health care, education, and employment as well as other
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