Đề thi học sinh giỏi môn tiếng anh 6 năm học 2015 2016 trường chu mạnh chinh

tr−êng thcs
chu m¹nh Trinh

§Ò thi häc sinh giái cÊp tr−êng
n¨m häc 2015 - 2016
M«n: TiÕng Anh 6
Ngµy thi: 12 th¸ng 05 n¨m 2016
Thêi gian lµm bµi: 120 phót
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Họ tên học sinh: ………………………………………………………

Phòng thi số: ……..

Ngày sinh: …………….………...……................ Lớp: …….............

Số báo danh: ……..
Số phách: ……..

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(HĐ chấm ghi)


§Ò thi häc sinh giái cÊp tr−êng
n¨m häc 2015 - 2016
M«n: TiÕng Anh 6
Ngµy thi: 12 th¸ng 05 n¨m 2016
Thêi gian lµm bµi: 120 phót
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tr−êng thcs
chu m¹nh Trinh

Họ tên, chữ ký giám khảo

Điểm
Bằng số: …………………......

Giám khảo 1: ……………………….

Bằng chữ: …………………

Giám khảo 2: …………...………….

Số phách

PART I: LISTENING. (3,0 points)
I.
(Questions 1-5): Listen and circle A, B, C or D to complete the passage (1,5 points)
Lam is a student in grade 7. His school is very (1)……..….from his house. Everyday, he
gets up at 6:00. He has bread and (2)……..…. for breakfast. Then he put on his uniform. He
walks to the station. He waits for the bus a few minutes. He goes to school by (3)……..…. .
School starts at 7:00 and ends at 11:00. He goes home and has lunch at home. In the afternoon,
he goes to the (4)……..…. club. He plays basketball with his friends from 2:00 to 4:00. After
that, he goes (5)……..…. . He returns home at 6:00.
1. A. far
B. near
C. next to
D. behind
2. A. noodle

B. eggs
C. meat
D. fish
3. A. car
B. bike
C. bus
D. motorbike
4. A. game
B. sport
C. tennis
D. soccer
5. A. shopping
B. swimming
C. fishing
D. camping
1. ……………… 2. …………….. 3. ……………… 4. ……………… 5. ……………
II. (Questions 6-10): Listen to the conversation and circle the option A, B, C or D as
you hear (1,5 points)
6. Phong’s telephone numbers is………………….. .
A. 8.537.471
B. 8.534.427
C. 8.537.456
D. 8.598.336
7. They are going to the ………………….. .
A. zoo
B. concert
C. movie theater
D. post office
8. What time will the film start?
A. 6.30

B. 6.45
C. 7.00
9. They will meet before the film start………………….. minutes.
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
10. When will they meet?
A. this afternoon
B. in the evening
C. on Sunday
1. ……………… 2. ……………..

D. 7.15
D. 30
D. tomorrow

3. ……………… 4. ……………… 5. ……………

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PART II: PHONETICS. (1,0 point)
Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others: (1,0
point)
1. A. noodle
B. food
C. door
D. stool
2. A. take
B. game

C. gray
D. hand
3. A. buses
B. goes
C. boxes
D. couches
4. A. music
B. lunch
C. mum
D. up
5. A. ear
B. heavy
C. head
D. bread
B. yard
C. market
D. warm
6. A. garden
7. A. aerobics
B. carrot
C. lemonade
D. correct
8. A. armchair
B. sandwich
C. chocolate
D. school
9. A. ahead
B. white
C. behind
D. hungry

10. A. stadium
B. accident
C. finally
D. animal
1. ……………… 2. ……………

3. ……………

4. ……………

5. ……………

6. ……………

8. ……………

9. ……………

10. …………….

7. ……………

PART III: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR. (6,0 points)
I. Choose the best answer to complete the sentences. (3,0 points)
1. Their cows produce .................. .
A. a lot of milk
B. many milk
C. lots milk
D. a few milk
2. My brother is a .................. driver. He drives very.................. .

A. carefully/careful
B. careful/ carefully
C. careful/careful
D. care/carefully
3. Whose book are you reading? It's.................. .
A. English book
B. interested
C. Mary's
D. about Mary
4. There is a .................. behind my classroom.
A. big flower garden
B. flower big garden
C. garden big flower
D. big garden flower
5. “I’d like some meat, please.” - “How much .........................?”
A. do you like
B. do you want
C. 'd you like
D. you need
6. Tam’s house is ………………… a bookshop ……………..a restaurant.
A. next to - and
B. between - and
C. next to - of
D. between - of
7. Do you go to school …………….bike or …………… foot?
A. by - by
B. on - on
C. on - by
D. by - on
8. ……………….does your brother go jogging? – Everyday.

A. How
B. How often
C. How long
D. What time
9. - Would you like something to drink? - ……………….
A. Thank you. I’m full.
B. No, I don’t like.
C. No, thanks.
D. Yes, I like.

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10. The boy ……………….thin, but he is strong.
A. is looking
B. look
C. looks
D. looking
11. She is not doing …………….in the garden, just walking with her dog.
A. anything
B. nothing
C. something
D. one thing
12. My brother and I …………….. our grandmother next weekend.
A. visit
B. am going to visit
C. am visiting
D. are going to visit
13. I don’t want much sugar in coffee. Just ……………, please.
A. a little

B. little
C. few
D. a few
14. …………………straight across the road.
A. Don’t run
B. Not run
C. No running
D. Can’t run
15. ……………… are you going to stay here? ~ For a week.
A. How often
B. How long
C. How many
D. How far
1. ……………

2. ……………… 3. ……………… 4. ……………..

5. ………………

6. …………….

7. ……………… 8. ……………… 9. ……………..

10. …………….

11. …………….

12. ……………

13. ……………

14. …………….. 15. …………….

II. Supply the appropriate form of the words in the brackets. (2,0 points)
1. Is that your____________ house?
2. Mrs. Nga _________us English.
3. They have a lot of ........................ in the summer.
4. Don't ride too quickly. It is .........................
5. He greets me in a ......................... way.
6. Lan’s classroom is on the ___________ floor.
7. Mai speaks English ___________ than me.
8. The Great Wall of China is the world’s ___________ structure.
9. There are a lot of ___________ mountains in Viet Nam.
10. I’m Vietnamese. What’s your___________?

(BEAUTY)
(TEACHER)
(ACT)
(DANGER)
(FRIEND)
(TWO)
(WELL)
(LONG)
(BEAUTY)
(NATION)

1. …………………………………………….

6. ……………………………………………

2. ……………………………………………

7. ……………………………………………

3. ……………………………………………..

8. ……………………………………………

4. …………………………………………….

9. ……………………………………………

5. ……………………………………………..

10. ……………………………………………

III. Complete the sentences with the correct form of the verb in parenthese (1,0 point)
1. Peter has a ticket for the football match tonight, so he (watch)………..the match.
2. Mary (not/ work) …….………. today because it’s Sunday.
3. (Walk)…….……….in the rain is very interesting.
4. We (visit) …….………..President Ho Chi Minh’s mausoleum this summer.
5. My brother (drive) …….………. his car into the garage at the moment.

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6. You mustn’t (eat) …….………. food in the classroom.
7. Let’s (help) …….……….. mom, Lan. She (clean) …….………. the floor.
8. Watch! The plane (come) …….………. towards the airport. It (land) …….………...
1. …………………………………………….

5. ……………………………………………

2. ……………………………………………

6. ……………………………………………

3. ……………………………………………..

7. ……………………………………………

4. …………………………………………….

8. ……………………………………………

PART IV: READING COMPREHENSION. (5,0 points)
I. Read the passage and circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the assigment (2,0
points)
I don’t usually eat breakfast. I only have (1) …….……….of coffee. I don’t eat (2)
…….……….until about eleven o’clock. Then I have a biscuit and a glass of (3) …….………..
For lunch, I usually have a salad. That’s (4) …….……….about two o’clock. I have
(5)…….……….at half past six in the afternoon. I’m a vegetarian, so I don’t eat (6)
….……….or fish. I eat cheese and eggs and things like that. I have a glass of water or fruit (7)
…….…….with my meal. At (8) …….……. weekend, I go to the restaurant in the evening.
You can (9) …….……….vegetarian meals in a (10) …….………. restaurants now.
1. A. a packet
B. a cup
C. a can
D. a bar
2. A. any

B. some
C. anything
D. something
3. A. soap
B. rice
C. chocolate
D. milk
4. A. at
B. on
C. in
D. of
5. A. breakfast
B. lunch
C. dinner
D. supper
6. A. meat
B. rice
C. vegetables
D. noodles
7. A. water
B. soda
C. juice
D. lemonade
8. A. the
B. a
C. one
D. on
9. A. get
B. getting
C. to get

D. gets
10. A. many
B. much
C. dozens
D. lot of
1. ……………… 2. ……………… 3. ……………… 4. ……………… 5. ………………
6. ……………… 7. ……………… 8. …………….. 9. ……………… 10. ……………..
II. Read the passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D (1,0 point)
People usually sing because they like music or because they feel happy. They express
their happiness by singing. When a bird sings, however, its song usually means much more
than that the bird is happy. Birds have many reasons for singing. They sing to give
information. Their songs are their language. The most beautiful songs are sung by male birds.
They sing when they want to attract a female bird. It is their way of saying that they are
looking for a wife. Birds also sing to tell other birds to keep away. To a bird, his tree or even a
branch of a tree is his home. He does not want strangers to come near him, so he sings to warn

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them. If a bird cannot sing well, he usually has some other means of giving important
information. Some birds dance, spread out their tails or make other signs.
1. What is one of the main reasons why birds sing?
A. They are in a bad temper.
B. They want to give information.
C. They are sad.
D. They can sing many songs.
2. Which birds sing the most beautiful songs?
A. Male birds.
B. Young birds which attract male birds.
C. Female birds which attract male birds.

D. Female birds.
3. According to the passage, a bird sings ……………...
A. to stop sadness
B. to tell strangers to keep away
C. to warn about the approach of people
D. to tell other birds to come quickly
4. Most birds usually ……………..if they cannot sing well.
A. give information in another way
B. warn other birds to go away
C. find a wife
D. fly in the sky
5. What is the main of the passage about?
A. People like music.
B. People or birds sing for many purposes.
C. Birds like music.
D. Birds only sing for fun.
1. ……………… 2. …………….. 3. ……………… 4. ……………… 5. ………………
III. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word. (2,0 points)
I live in a house near the sea. It is (1)________old house, about 100 years old and
(2)________very small. There are two bedrooms upstairs (3)________a bathroom. The kitchen
is (4)________the ground and there is a living- room where there is a lovely old fire place.
There is a garden (5)________the house. The garden (6)________down to the beach and in
spring and summer, (7)________flowers everywhere. I live alone (8)________my dog, John,
but we have a lot of visitors. My friends often stay with (9)________.
I love my house for (10)________reasons. Maybe I like fresh air here.
1. ……………

2. ……………

3. ……………

4. ……………

5. ……………

6. ……………… 7. ……………
8. ……………
9. ……………
10. …………….
PART V: WRITING. (5,0 points)
I. Read the first sentence and complete the second sentence with the same meaning. (3,0
points)
1. My house has a living – room, two bedrooms and a kitchen.
-> There …………………………………………………………………………………………..……………………
2. This pencil belongs to my brother.
-> This is …………………………………………………………………………………………..………………….
3. What’s your father’s weight?
-> How …………………………………………………………………………………….………………………...?
4. No one in my class is taller than Nam.
-> Nam …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. Huy walks to school everyday.

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-> Huy goes ………………………………………………………………..………………………………………..
6. How much is a bowl of noodle?
-> What’s …………………………………………………………….…………………………………………….?
7. Lan’s hair is long.
-> Lan …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. Nam rides his bike to school everyday.
-> Nam goes …………………………………………………………..………………………………………………..
9. Let’s go swimming
-> What about …………………………………………………………..………………………………………………..?
10. My house is behind the post office.
-> The post office ……………………………………………………………………………………………………...
II. Write about your summer vacation ( about 80 to 100 words) (2,0 points)
Note: Don’t show your name, your school or your village.
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tr−êng thcs
chu m¹nh Trinh

H−íng dÉn chÊm
§Ò thi häc sinh giái cÊp tr−êng
n¨m häc 2015 - 2016
M«n: TiÕng Anh 8
Ngµy thi: 12 th¸ng 05 n¨m 2016
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PART I: LISTENING. (3,0 points)
I.

(Questions 1-5): Listen and circle A, B, C or D to complete the passage (1,5 points)

– (0,3p/ a sentence )
1. A
II.

2. B

3. C

4. B

5. B

(Questions 6-10): Listen to the conversation and circle the option A, B, C or D as you hear

(1,5 points) – (0,3p/ a sentence )
1. A

2. C

3. C

4. B

5. D

PART II: PHONETICS. (1,0 point)
Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others: (1,0 point)
– (0,1p/ a sentence )
1. C

2. D

3. B

4. A

5. A

6. D

7. A

8. D

9. B

10. C

PART III: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR. (6,0 points)
I. Choose the best answer to complete the sentences. (3,0 points) – (0,2p/ a sentence )
1. A

2. B

3. C

4. A

5. B

6. B

7. D

8. B

9. A

10. C

11. A
12. D
13. A
14. A
15. B
II. Supply the appropriate form of the words in the brackets. (2,0 points) – (0,2p/ a sentence )

1. beautiful

6. second

2. teaches

7. better

3. activities

8. longest

4. dangerous

9. beautiful

5. friendly

10. nationality

III. Complete the sentences with the correct form of the verb in parenthese(1,0 point)–(0,1p/ a verb )

1. is going to watch/ is watching

5. is driving

2. doesn’t work

6. eat

3. Walking

7. help; is cleaning

4. are going to visit

8. is coming; is landing

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PART IV: READING COMPREHENSION. (5,0 points)
I. Read the passage and circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the assigment (2,0 points)
– (0,2p/ a sentence )
1. B

2. C

3. D

4. A

5. C

6. A
7. C
8. A
9. A
10. D
II. Read the passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D (1,0 point) – (0,1p/ a sentence )
1. B
2. A
3. C
4. A
5. B
III. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word. (2,0 points) – (0,2p/ a sentence )

1. an

2. it’s

3. and

4. on

5. in front of

6. goes

7. there are

8. with

9. me

10. many

PART V: WRITING. (5,0 points)

I. Read the first sentence and complete the second sentence with the same meaning. (3,0
points) – (0,3p/ a sentence )
1. There is a living –room, two bedrooms and a kitchen in my house.
2. This is my brother’s pencil.
3. How heavy is your father?
4. Nam is the tallest (student) in my class.
5. Huy goes to school on foot everyday.
6. What’s the price of a bowl of noodle?
7. Lan has long hair.
8. Nam goes to school everyday by bike/ bicycle.
9. What about going for a swim?
10. The post office is in front of my house.
II. Write about your summer vacation ( about 80 to 100 words) (2,0 points)
- Organization: (Bố cục bài luận rõ ràng, ñầy ñủ 3 phần: mở bài, thân bài, kết luận) (0, 25 pts)
- Discourse: (Thể hiện khả năng viết mạch lạc, chặt chẽ; nối kết câu, chuyển mạch tốt) (0, 5 pts)
- Sentence structure (morphology, vocabulary and spelling): Cấu trúc câu, ngữ pháp, từ vựng; câu
linh hoạt (ñơn, phức.) (0, 5 pts)
- Ideas: (Ý hay, phong phú, biểu ñạt nội dung liên quan chặt chẽ với chủ ñề của ñề thi) (0, 5 pts)
- Length: (Đảm bảo ñủ số lượng từ qui ñịnh, không quá dài hoặc quá ngắn. (0, 25 pts)
Note: Bài viết không quá 02 lỗi chính tả và dưới 02 lỗi ngữ pháp ñược cho ñiểm tối ña.
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