bo de thi thu thpt quoc gia nam 2016 mon tieng anh so 1

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QUANG TRI DEPARTMENT OF
EDUCATION & TRAINING

THE STATE’S HIGH SCHOOL GRADUATION
EXAMINATION MOCK TEST No.1

DONG HA HIGH SCHOOL

Allotted time: 90 minutes

Academic Year: 2014-2015
Candidate Full Name: ………………………………………………………… - Candidate No. ………

PART 1: MULTIPLE CHOICE (0.125 x 64 = 8.0p)
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
The Planets of Jupiter
The largest of the giant gas planets, Jupiter, with a volume 1,300 times greater than Earth’s, contains
more than twice the mass of all the other planets combined. It is thought to be a gaseous and fluid planet
without solid surfaces, Had it been somewhat more massive, Jupiter might have attained internal
temperatures as high as the ignition point for nuclear reactions, and it would have flamed as a star in its
own right. Jupiter and the other giant planets are of a low-density type quite distinct from the terrestrial
planets: they are composed predominantly of such substances as hydrogen, helium, ammonia, and
methane, unlike terrestrial planets. Much of Jupiter’s interior might be in the form of liquid, metallic
hydrogen, Normally, hydrogen is a gas, but under pressures of millions of kilograms per square centimeter,
which exist in the deep interior of Jupiter, the hydrogen atoms might lock together to form a liquid with
the properties of a metal. Some scientists believe that the innermost core of Jupiter might be rocky, or
metallic like the core of Earth.
Jupiter rotates very fast, once every 9.8 hours. As a result, its clouds, which are composed largely of

frozen and liquid ammonia, have been whipped into alternating dark and bright bands that circle the planet
at different speeds in different latitudes. Jupiter’s puzzling Great Red Spot changes size as it hovers in the
Southern Hemisphere. Scientists speculate it might be a gigantic hurricane, which because of its large size
(the Earth could easily fit inside it), lasts for hundreds of years.
Jupiter gives off twice as much heat as it receives from the Sun. Perhaps this is primeval heat or beat
generated by the continued gravitational contraction of the planet. Another star like characteristic of
Jupiter is its sixteen natural satellites, which, like a miniature model of the Solar System, decrease in
density with distance from rocky moons close to Jupiter to icy moons farther away. If Jupiter were about
70 times more massive, it would have become a star, Jupiter is the best-preserved sample of the early solar
nebula, and with its satellites, might contain the most important clues about the origin of the Solar System.
1. The word attained in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. attempted

B. changed

C. lost

D. reached

C. terrestrial

D. substances

2. The word they in paragraph 1 refers to _____.
A. nuclear reactions

B. giant planets

3. According to the passage, hydrogen can become a metallic-like liquid when it is _____.
A. extremely hot

B. combined with helium

C. similar atmospheres

D. metallic cores

4. According to the passage, some scientists believe Jupiter and Earth are similar in that they both have
_____.


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A. solid surfaces

B. similar masses

C. similar atmospheres

D. metallic cores

5. The clouds surrounding Jupiter are mostly composed of _____.
A. ammonia

B. helium

C. hydrogen

D. methane

6. It can be inferred from the passage that the appearance of alternating bands circling Jupiter is caused
by _____.
A. the Great Red Spot
B. heat from the Sun
C. the planet’s fast rotation
D. Storms from the planet’s Southern Hemisphere
7. The author uses the word puzzling in paragraph 2 to suggest that the Great Red Spot is _____.
A. the only spot of its kind
B. not well understood
C. among the largest of such spots
D. a problem for the planet’s continued existence
8. Paragraph 3 supports which of the following conclusions?
A. Jupiter gives off twice as much heat as the Sun.
B. Jupiter has a weaker gravitational force than the other planets.
C. Scientists believe that Jupiter was once a star.
D. Scientists might learn about the beginning of the Solar System by Studying Jupiter.
9. Why does the author mention primeval heat in paragraph 3?
A. To provide evidence that Jupiter is older than the Sun
B. To provide evidence that Jupiter is older than the other planets
C. To suggest a possible explanation for the number of satellites that Jupiter has
D. To suggest a possible source of the quantity of heat that Jupiter gives off
10. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?
A. If Jupiter had fewer satellites, it would be easier for scientists to study the planet itself.
B. If Jupiter had had more mass, it would have developed internal nuclear reactions.
C. If Jupiter had been smaller, it would have become a terrestrial planet.
D. if Jupiter were larger, it would give off much less heat.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
11. A. lean

B. teammate

C. beacon

D. overhead

12. A. challenge

B. snatch

C. brochure

D. chocolate

13. A. naked

B. sacred

C. learned

D. studied

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.


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14. A. description

B. counselor

C. inspector

D. amendment

15. A. psychiatry

B. inexpensive

C. patriotic

D. scientific

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
16. By tomorrow, the car _____ by me.
A. will have been bought B. will be bought

C. was being bought

D. was bought

17. “_____” is used to express disagreement.
A. I couldn’t disagree with you any more.

B. That’s not a good idea.

C. That’s the way I see it.

D. That’s what I’m not thinking of.

18. The meeting has been put _____ to Friday as so many people have got the flu.
A. up

B. in

C. out

D. back

19. The activities of the international marketing researcher are frequently much broader than _____.
A. the domestic marketer has

B. the domestic marketer does

C. those of the domestic marketer

D. that which has the domestic marketer

20. I am wrong, _____?
A. aren't I

B. are I

C. are not I

D. am I

21. - A: “John got married again.” - B: “Really? Who _____?”

A. with

B. at

C. to

D. about

22. The child was told to _____ for being rude to his uncle.
A. excuse

B. apologize

C. forgive

D. confess

23. Mai: “Wow, I’ve never seen such a nice cell phone, Nam” - Nam: “_____”.
A. Oh, I don’t know.

B. Thank you. I’m glad you like it.

C. You’re welcome.

D. I agree with you.

24. - A: “Are you interested in scuba diving?” - B: “A lot. Undersea life is _____.”
A. fascinating

B. fascinate

C. fascinates

D. fascinated

25. "_____ anyone ring while I’m away, please take a message."
A. Will

B. May

C. Should

D. Would

26. She had to pass all her exams, or _____ she would not have a holiday.
A. instead

B. else

C. though

D. therefore

27. The meeting has been brought _____ to Monday due to the seriousness of the situation.
A. on

B. out

C. down

D. forward

28. If you want your son to do better on his exams, I suggest he _____ harder.
A. will study

B. studies

C. will study

D. study

29. My uncle was _____ ill last summer; however, fortunately, he is now making a slow but steady
recovery.
A. seriously

B. deeply

C. fatally

D. critically


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30. The chief foods eaten in any country depend largely on _____ best in its climate and soil.
A. what grows

B. it grows

C. does it grow

D. what does it grow

31. She made a list of what to do ______ forget anything.
A. in order to

B. so as not to

C. so that

D. not to

32. A: “Can I smoke in here?” - B: “I’d rather you _____.”
A. don’t

B. didn’t

C. won’t

D. can’t

C. smooth-skinned

D. smooth skin

33. The grape is the _____, juicy fruit of a woody vine.
A. skin which is smooth B. skinned is smooth

34. The _____ collar workers received a rise, but the workers on the shop-door were told they had to wait.
A. blue

B. black

C. grey

D. white

35. _____ wooden buildings helps to protect them from damage due to weather.
A. The paint

B. Painted

C. By painting

D. Painting

36. She kept him _____ because he had a high temperature.
A. on

B. in

C. off

D. out

37. Using many symbols makes _____ to put a large amount of information on a single map.
A. it possible

B. possible

C. it is possible

D. that possible

38. Having been served lunch, _____.
A. the problem was discussed by the members of the committee
B. it was discussed by the committee members the problem
C. the committee members discussed the problem
D. a discussion of the problem was made by the members of the committee
39. Not until the dedication of Yellowstone Park in the late nineteenth century _____ a national park.
A. the United States had

B. did the United States have

C. when the United States had

D. the United States having

40. _____ mammals have hair at some time in their lives, though in certain whales it is present only
before birth.
A. Most

B. The most

C. Most of which

D. In most of the

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

41. Polluted water and increased water temperatures have driven many species to the verge of extinction
A. enriched

B. contaminated

C. purified

D. strengthened

42. The story told by the teacher amused children in the class.
A. astonished

B. frightened

C. jolted

D. saddened

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
43. You must answer the police’s questions truthfully; otherwise, you will get into trouble.
A. in a harmful way

B. as trustingly as you can


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C. with a negative attitude

D. exactly as you can

44. It takes me 15 minutes to get ready.
A. to prepare

B. to wake up

C. to go

D. to get up

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
45. It is vitally important that she takes this medication night and morning.
A

B

C

D

46. Had it not been for you help me, I wouldn't have succeeded.
A

B

C

D

47. Children enjoy telling and listening to ghosts stories, especially on Halloween night.
A

B

C

D

48. We had better to review this chapter carefully because we will have some questions on it on our test
tomorrow.
A
B
C
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
49. Due to the fact that the demand for tea was very high in the 19th century, its price was astronomical.
A. It was not until the 19th century that the demand for tea started to increase.
B. It was its astronomical price which decreased the demand for tea in the 19th century.
C. In the 19th century the price for tea didn't increase despite the demand.
D. The demand for tea was so high in the 19th century that its price was enormous.
50. French is the only language other than English spoken on five continents.
A. French and English are spoken widely in official and commercial circles.
B. Unlike French, English is spoken on five continents.
C. French and English are the only languages that are spoken on five continents.
D. Before English, French was the only language spoken on five continents.
51. Adults laugh less than children, probably because they play less.
A. unlike adults children laugh more while playing games.

B. Since adults have less time playing games; they don't laugh as much as children.
C. The reason why adults laugh less than children might be that they play less.
D. No matter how much adults play, they can't laugh more than children.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines the pair
of sentences given in each of the following questions.
52. The fire-fighters made every effort to put off the flames. The building burned down completely.
A. The building burned down completely though the fire-fighters made every effort to put off the
flames.
B. Had it not been for the fire-fighters’ every effort, the building would have burned down
completely.
C. Making every effort to put off the flames, the fire-fighters completely burned down the building.


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D. Since the fire-fighters made every effort to put off the flames, the building burned down
completely.
53. Marry loved her stuffed animal when she was young. She couldn’t sleep without it.
A. When Marry was young, she loved her stuffed animal so as not to sleep with it.
B. As Marry couldn’t sleep without her stuffed animal when she was young, she loved it.
C. When Marry was young, she loved her stuffed animal though she couldn’t sleep without it.
D. When Marry was young, she loved her stuffed animal so much that she couldn’t sleep without it.
54. She phoned him early in the morning. She didn’t want him to forget to bring along the document.
A. She phoned him early in the morning when she didn’t want him to bring along the document.
B. She phoned him early in the morning so that she wanted him to bring along the document.
C. She phoned him early in the morning lest he would forget to bring along the document.
D. She phoned him early in the morning though she didn’t want him to forget to bring along
the document.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Environmental Concerns
Earth is the only place we know of in the universe that can support human life. (55) _____ human
activities are making the planet less fit to live on. As the western world (56) _____ on consuming twothirds of the world's resources while half of the world's population do so just to stay alive we are rapidly
destroying the (57) _____ resource we have by which all people can survive and prosper. Everywhere
fertile soil is (58) _____ built on or washed into the sea. Renewable resources are exploited so much that
they will never be able to recover (59) _____. We discharge pollutants into the atmosphere without any
thought of the consequences. As a (60) _____ the planet's ability to support people is being reduced at the
very time when rising human numbers and consumption are (61) _____ increasingly heavy demands on it.
The Earth's (62) _____ resources are there for us to use. We need food, water, air, energy, medicines,
warmth, shelter and minerals to (63) _____ us fed, comfortable, healthy and active. If we are sensible in
how we use the resources, they will (64) _____ indefinitely. But if we use them wastefully and
excessively, they will soon run out and everyone will suffer.
55. A. Although

B. Yet

C. Still

D. Despite

56. A. continues

B. repeats

C. follows

D. carries

57. A. individual

B. alone

C. very

D. solitary

58. A. neither

B. sooner

C. rather

D. either

59. A. utterly

B. completely

C. quite

D. greatly

60. A. result

B. reaction

C. development

D. product

61. A. making

B. doing

C. having

D. taking

62. A. living

B. real

C. natural

D. genuine

63. A. maintain

B. stay

C. hold

D. keep

64. A. remain

B. go

C. last

D. stand

PART 2: WRITING TASK (2.0p)
You should spend about 30 minutes writing a paragraph.


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Do you agree or disagree with the following statement?
'Parents are the best teachers.'
Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer. You should give reasons for your answer
using your own ideas and experience.
Write at least 250 words.---------------- THE END ----------

KEYS
1. D

17. B

33. C

49. D

2. B

18. D

34. D

50. C

3. C

19. C

35. D

51. C

4. D

20. A

36. B

52. A

5. A

21. C

37. A

53. D

6. C

22. B

38. C

54. C

7. B

23. B

39. B

55. B

8. D

24. A

40. A

56. D

9. D

25. C

41. C

57. C

10. B

26. B

42. D

58.D

11. D

27. D

43. D

59. B

12. C

28. D

44. A

60. A

13. D

29. A

45. C

61. A

14. B

30. A

46. B

62. C

15. A

31. B

47. B

63. D

16. A

32. B

48. A

64. B


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QUANG TRI DEPARTMENT OF
EDUCATION & TRAINING

THE STATE’S HIGH SCHOOL GRADUATION

EXAMINATION MOCK TEST No.2

DONG HA HIGH SCHOOL

Allotted time: 90 minutes

Academic Year: 2014-2015
Candidate Full Name: ………………………………………………………… - Candidate No. ………

PART 1: MULTIPLE CHOICE (0.125 x 64 = 8.0p)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1. A. Breathing

B. Ethane

C. Thank

D. Healthy

2. A. School

B. Blood

C. Choose

D. Bamboo

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

3. A. Charity

B. Helicopter

C. Enthusiasm

D. Operate

4. A. Corporation

B. Unexpected

C. Centenarian

D. Authority

5. A. Acquaintance

B. Attraction

C. Suspicion

D. Influence

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
6. By the time I _____ to bed last night, I _____ my homework.
A. went – have already finished

B. had gone – already finished

C. went – had already finished

D. was going – were already finishing

7. In an _____ to diffuse the tension, I suggest that we break off for lunch.
A. attempt

B. advance

C. effort

D. ability

8. Electric lights are _____, clean, and give more light than gas.
A. economy

B. economical

C. economic

D. economics

9. The survey was to find out the young people’s attitudes _____ love.
A. towards

B. above

C. beneath

D. with

10. Peter: “I thought your game was much better last night.” – Dave: “You’ve got to be kidding! _____!
A. I myself like it very much

B. I thought it was terrible

C. I’m sure you enjoy it

D. I suppose it was not bad

11. _____ her hard work, she could not have passed the exam.
A. Due to

B. Because

C. Though

D. Had it not been for

12. _____ handball is fast becoming _____ popular sport worldwide.
A. The - the

B. A - 

C.  - a

D.  - the

13. It is our responsibility to contribute to _____ our own lives.

A. growing

B. heightening

C. bettering

D. increasing


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14. He was not prepared for the test; _____, he managed to pass it.
A. however

B. therefore

C. so

D. but

15. Early morning parties were held across the city to mark the _____ event.
A. historical

B. history

C. historian

D. historic

16. She suggested that we _____ at the restaurant in the Hilton Garden Inn for a change of venue.

A. could meet

B. meet

C. will meet

D. met

C. try out

D. put on

17. Michael could hardly wait to _____ his new bike.
A. sit down

B. turn back

18. There _____ two stone lions at the gate of that old house. Isn’t that right?
A. used to be

B. used to

C. were used to

D. being used

19. My father and his teacher talked a lot about the things and persons _____ they could remember.
A. who

B. which

C. what

D. that

20. I am 17 years old now. I wish my parents wouldn't treat me as if I _____ a child.
A. was

B. were

C. am

D. have been

21. Mr. Li made up his mind to devote all he could _____ his oral English before going abroad.
A. improve

B. to improve

C. improving

D. to improving

22. Mai: “Our living standards have been improved greatly” – Susan: “_____.”
A. Thank you for saying so

B. Sure. I couldn’t agree more

C. No, it’s nice to say so

D. Yes, it’s nice of you to say so

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
23. Tommy was one _____.
A. of the happiest children in the class

B. of the happiest child in the class

C. child who was happiest of all the class

D. happy children of his class

24. _____ falls on the 2nd of September.
A. Vietnam's Independent Day

B. The day of the Vietnamese independence

C. Vietnam's Independence Day

D. Vietnamese's Independence Day

25. George knew _____ improve his test scores, but he did not have enough time to study.
A. what to

B. how he could

C. how that

D. how could he

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
26. Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance on the island. The islanders even exported the surplus.
A. large quantity

B. excess

C. small quantity

D. sufficiency

27. She decided to remain celibate and devote her life to helping the homeless and orphans.
A. married

B. divorced

C. separated

D. single

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.


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28. I could see the finish line and thought I was home and dry.
A. hopeless

B. hopeful

C. unsuccessful

D. successful

29. You will need a sound understanding of basic teaching skills if you want to enter the classroom with
great confidence.
A. sufficient

B. defective

C. inadequate

D. thorough.

30. We spent the entire day looking for a new apartment.
A. the long day

B. all day long

C. all long day

D. day after day

Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
31. If I knew you were coming, I would have met you at the airport.
A

B

C

D

32. I enjoyed talking to the people with that I met at the party last night.
A

B

C

D

33. Despite of the fact that I washed my hands, they still look dirty.
A

B

C

D

34. In my opinion, he maybe elected because he is honest, knowledgeable and competent.
A

B

C

D

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
MUSIC – A UNIVERSAL LANGUAGE
Music is universal - it is produced by all cultures. Some scientists believe that music came before
speech and (35) _____ as a development of mating calls. In fact, there is one theory that the (36) _____
languages were chanted or sung rather than spoken. Indeed, in some cultures, music is a form of (37)
_____ history. The Aboriginal Australians, for example, use music as a means to pass on stories of the
land and spirits to the next (38) _____.
New evidence suggests that music does not just (39) _____ the feel-good factor but it is also good for
the brain. A study of intellectually disabled children showed that they could recall more (40) _____ after it
was given to them in a song than after it was read to them as a story.
Researchers also report that people score better on a standard intelligence (41) _____ after listening to
Mozart. The so–called 'Mozart effect', has also been (42) _____ by findings that rats brought up on Mozart
run faster through a complex network of paths or passages, (43) _____ as a maze. Overall, it seems that in
most instances people who suffer from any form of mental (44) _____ benefit from listening to music.
35. A. was

B. swelled

C. arose

D. reacted

36. A. simplest

B. newest

C. easiest

D. earliest

37. A. enjoying

B. making

C. recording

D. stating

38. A. children

B. people

C. tribe

D. generation

39. A. convince

B. satisfy

C. please

D. prefer

40. A. information

B. knowledge

C. memory

D. facts

41. A. form

B. scheme

C. demonstration

D. test


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42. A. supported

B. given

C. marked

D. remembered

43. A. called

B. heard

C. regarded

D. known

44. A. badness

B. hurt

C. illness

D. pain

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54.
Cities develop as a result of functions that they can perform. Some functions result directly from the
ingenuity of the citizenry, but most functions result from the needs of the local area and of the
surrounding hinterland (the region that supplies goods to the city and to which the city furnishes services
and other goods). Geographers often make a distinction between the situation and the site of a city.
Situation refers to the general position in relation to the surrounding region, whereas site involves physical
characteristics of the specific location. Situation is normally much more important to the continuing
prosperity of a city. If a city is well situated in regard to its hinterland, its development is much more
likely to continue. Chicago, for example, possesses an almost unparalleled situation: it is located at the
southern end of a huge lake that forces east-west transportation lines to be compressed into its vicinity,
and at a meeting of significant land and water transport routes. It also overlooks what is one of the world’s
finest large farming regions. These factors ensured that Chicago would become a great city regardless of
the disadvantageous characteristics of the available site, such as being prone to flooding during
thunderstorm activity.
Similarly, it can be argued that much of New York City’s importance stems from its early and
continuing advantage of situation. Philadelphia and Boston both originated at about the same time as New
York and shared New York’s location at the western end of one of the world’s most important oceanic
trade routes, but only New York possesses an easy-access functional connection (the Hudson-Mohawk

Lowland) to the vast Midwestern Hinterland. This account does not alone explain New York’s primacy,
but it does include several important factors. Among the many aspects of situation that help to explain
why some cities grow and others do not, original location on a navigable waterway seems particularly
applicable. Of course, such characteristic as slope, drainage, power resources, river crossings, coastal
shapes, and other physical characteristics help to determine city location, but such factors are normally
more significant in early stages of city development than later.
35. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The development of trade routes through United States cities.
B. Contrasts in settlement patterns in United States.
C. Historical differences among three large United States cities.
D. The importance of geographical situation in the growth of United States cities.
36. The word “ingenuity” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. wealth

B. resourcefulness

C. traditions

D. organization

37. According to the passage, a city’s situation is more important than its site in regard to the city’s ____.
A. long-term growth and prosperity

B. ability to protect its citizenry

C. possession of favorable weather conditions

D. need to import food supplies

38. The author mentions each of the following as an advantage of Chicago’s location EXCEPT its ____.

A. hinterland

B. nearness to a large lake

C. flat terrain

D. position in regard to transport routes

39. The word “characteristics” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. choices

B. attitudes

C. qualities

D. inhabitants


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40. The primary purpose of paragraph 1 is to _____.
A. summarize past research and introduce a new study
B. describe a historical period
C. emphasize the advantages of one theory over another
D. define a term and illustrate it with an example
41. According to the passage, Philadelphia and Boston are similar to New York City in _____.
A. size of population

B. age

C. site

D. availability of rail transportation

42. The word “functional” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. usable

B. unknown

C. original

D. alternate

C. connection

D. hinterland

43. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to _____.
A. account

B. primacy

44. The word “significant” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. threatening

B. meaningful

C. obvious

D. available

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64.
We believe the Earth is about 4.6 billion years old. At present we are forced to look to other bodies in
the solar system for hints as to what the early history of the Earth was like.
Studies of our moon, Mercury, Mars, and the large satellites of Jupiter and Saturn have provided
ample evidence that all these large celestial bodies were bombarded by smaller objects in a wide variety of
sizes shortly after the larger bodies had formed. This same bombardment must have affected Earth as well.
The lunar record indicates that the rate of impacts decreased to its present low level about 4 billion years
ago. On Earth, subsequent erosion and crustal motions have obliterated the craters that must have formed
during this epoch.
Scientists estimate the Earth's age by measuring the ratios of various radioactive elements in rocks.
The oldest Earth rocks tested thus far are about 3 1/3 billion years old. But no one knows whether these
are the oldest rocks on Earth. Tests on rocks from the moon and on meteorites show that these are about
4.6 billion years old. Scientists believe that this is the true age of the solar system and probably the true
age of the Earth
45. In paragraph 2, the word "obliterated" means _____.
A. created

B. destroyed

C. changed

D. eroded

46. According to this passage, how do scientists estimate the age of the Earth?
A. By measuring the ratios of radioactive elements in rocks.
B. By examining fossils.
C. By studying sunspots.
D. By examining volcanic activity.

47. Scientists estimate the age of the Earth as_____.
A. 3 1/3 billion years old B. 4 billion years old

C. 4.6 billion years old

D. 6 billion years old

48. Which of the following processes led to the obliteration of the craters formed by the bombardment of
the Earth by celestial bodies?


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A. Volcanic activity.

B. Solar radiation.

C. Gravity.

D. Crustal motions.

49. According to the passage, why are scientists forced to look at other bodies in the solar system to
determine the early history of the Earth?
A. Human alteration of the Earth.

B. Erosion and crustal motions.

C. Solar flares.

D. Deforestation.

50. What is the BEST title for this passage?
A. "Determining the Age of the Earth"
C. "Erosion and Crustal Motion of Earth"

B. "Determining the Age of the Solar System"
D. "Radioactive Elements in Rocks"

51. Which of the following bodies was NOT studied to give evidence that the Earth was bombarded in its
early history?
A. Mars.

B. Mercury.

C. Jupiter.

D. Earth's moon.

52. Bombardment of the Earth at one time by various sized bodies is _____.
A. inferred from what happened on other planetary bodies
B. documented fact
C. proven by the lunar record
D. indicated by erosion
53. The level of impacts of the bombardments of Earth has _____.
A. decreased to below normal

B. increased to a current high

C. increased after a periodic low

D. decreased to a current low

54. In paragraph 2, the word "bombardment" means _____.
A. an avoidance

B. an assault

C. an effect

D. a cause

PART 2: WRITING TASK (2.0p)
Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it. (0.5p)
1. The death of over fifty people was caused by the storm.
 The storm resulted...................................................................................................................................
2. It wasn’t nice of you not to invite me to your party.
 I might.....................................................................................................................................................
3. Gmail accounts are generally better than other email services.
 Other email services are generally.........................................................................................................
4. I had no sooner closed the door than somebody knocked.
 Hardly......................................................................................................................................................
5.

People believe that the Chinese invented paper in 105 A.D.

 Paper .......................................................................................................................................................
Part II. You should spend about 30 minutes on this task. (1.5p)
Write about the following topic:
Some universities require students to take the entrance examination with the English subject. Other

universities do not. Which is better? Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer.


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Write at least 140 words.
---------- THE END ----------


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QUANG TRI DEPARTMENT OF
EDUCATION & TRAINING

THE STATE’S HIGH SCHOOL GRADUATION
EXAMINATION MOCK TEST No.2

DONG HA HIGH SCHOOL

Allotted time: 90 minutes

Academic Year: 2014-2015
KEY ANSWER

PART 1: MULTIPLE CHOICE (0.125 x 64 = 8.0p)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1.

A. Breathing

2.

B. Blood

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
3.

C. Enthusiasm

4.

D. Authority

5.

D. Influence

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions. (6-24)
6. C. By the time I went to bed last night, I had already finished my homework.
7. A. In an attempt to diffuse the tension, I suggest that we break off for lunch.
8. B. Electric lights are economical, clean, and give more light than gas.
9. A. The survey was to find out the young people’s attitudes towards love.
10. B. Peter: “I thought your game was much better last night.” – Dave: “You’ve got to be kidding! I
thought it was terrible!”
11. D. Had it not been for her hard work, she could not have passed the exam.
12. C.  handball is fast becoming a popular sport worldwide.
13. C. It is our responsibility to contribute to bettering our own lives.

14. A. He was not prepared for the test; however, he managed to pass it.
15. D. Early morning parties were held across the city to mark the historic event.
16. B. She suggested that we meet at the restaurant in the Hilton Garden Inn for a change of venue.
17. C. Michael could hardly wait to try out his new bike.
18. A. There two stone lions at the gate of that old house. Isn’t that right?
19. D. My father and his teacher talked a lot about the things and persons that they could remember.
20. B. I am 17 years old now. I wish my parents wouldn't treat me as if I were a child.
21. D. Mr. Li made up his mind to devote all he could to improving his oral English before going abroad.
22. B. Mai: “Our living standards have been improved greatly” – Susan: “Sure. I couldn’t agree more .”
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.


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23. A. Tommy was one of the happiest children in the class .
24. C. Vietnam's Independence Day falls on the 2nd of September.
25. B. George knew how he could improve his test scores, but he did not have enough time to study.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
26. C. Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance (>< small quantity) on the island. The islanders even
exported the surplus.
27. A. She decided to remain celibate (>< married) and devote her life to helping the homeless and
orphans.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
28. D. I could see the finish line and thought I was home and dry. (= successful)
29. D. You will need a sound (= thorough) understanding of basic teaching skills if you want to enter the
classroom with great confidence.
30. B. We spent the entire day (= all day long) looking for a new apartment.

Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
31. A. If I knew you were coming, I would have met you at the airport. ( had known)
32. C. I enjoyed talking to the people with that I met at the party last night. ( whom)
33. A. Despite of the fact that I washed my hands, they still look dirty. ( Despite/ In spite of)
34. B. In my opinion, he maybe elected because he is honest, knowledgeable and competent. ( may be)
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. (35-44)
MUSIC – A UNIVERSAL LANGUAGE
Music is universal - it is produced by all cultures. Some scientists believe that music came before
speech and (35. C) arose as a development of mating calls. In fact, there is one theory that the (36. D)
earliest languages were chanted or sung rather than spoken. Indeed, in some cultures, music is a form of
(37. C) recording history. The Aboriginal Australians, for example, use music as a means to pass on
stories of the land and spirits to the next (38. D) generation.
New evidence suggests that music does not just (39. B) satisfy the feel-good factor but it is also good
for the brain. A study of intellectually disabled children showed that they could recall more (40. A)
information after it was given to them in a song than after it was read to them as a story.
Researchers also report that people score better on a standard intelligence (41. D) test after listening to
Mozart. The so–called 'Mozart effect', has also been (42. A) supported by findings that rats brought up on
Mozart run faster through a complex network of paths or passages, (43. D) known as a maze. Overall, it
seems that in most instances people who suffer from any form of mental (44. C) illness benefit from
listening to music.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54.
Cities develop as a result of functions that they can perform. Some functions result directly from the
ingenuity of the citizenry, but most functions result from the needs of the local area and of the
surrounding hinterland (the region that supplies goods to the city and to which the city furnishes services


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and other goods). Geographers often make a distinction between the situation and the site of a city.
Situation refers to the general position in relation to the surrounding region, whereas site involves physical
characteristics of the specific location. Situation is normally much more important to the continuing
prosperity of a city. if a city is well situated in regard to its hinterland, its development is much more
likely to continue. Chicago, for example, possesses an almost unparalleled situation: it is located at the
southern end of a huge lake that forces east-west transportation lines to be compressed into its vicinity,
and at a meeting of significant land and water transport routes. It also overlooks what is one of the world’s
finest large farming regions. These factors ensured that Chicago would become a great city regardless of
the disadvantageous characteristics of the available site, such as being prone to flooding during
thunderstorm activity.
Similarly, it can be argued that much of New York City’s importance stems from its early and
continuing advantage of situation. Philadelphia and Boston both originated at about the same time as New
York and shared New York’s location at the western end of one of the world’s most important oceanic
trade routes, but only New York possesses an easy-access functional connection (the Hudson-Mohawk
Lowland) to the vast Midwestern Hinterland. This account does not alone explain New York’s primacy,
but it does include several important factors. Among the many aspects of situation that help to explain
why some cities grow and others do not, original location on a navigable waterway seems particularly
applicable. Of course, such characteristic as slope, drainage, power resources, river crossings, coastal
shapes, and other physical characteristics help to determine city location, but such factors are normally
more significant in early stages of city development than later.
45. D. What does the passage mainly discuss? The importance of geographical situation in the growth
of United States cities
46. B. The word “ingenuity” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to resourcefulness.
47. A. According to the passage, a city’s situation is more important than its site in regard to the city’s
long-term growth and prosperity.
48. C. The author mentions each of the following as an advantage of Chicago’s location EXCEPT its flat
terrain.
49. C. The word “characteristics” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to qualities.
50. D. The primary purpose of paragraph 1 is to define a term and illustrate it with an example.

51. B. According to the passage, Philadelphia and Boston are similar to New York City in age.
52. A. The word “functional” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to usable.
53. A. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to account.
54. B. The word “significant” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to meaningful.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64.
We believe the Earth is about 4.6 billion years old. At present we are forced to look to other bodies in
the solar system for hints as to what the early history of the Earth was like.
Studies of our moon, Mercury, Mars, and the large satellites of Jupiter and Saturn have provided
ample evidence that all these large celestial bodies were bombarded by smaller objects in a wide variety of
sizes shortly after the larger bodies had formed. This same bombardment must have affected Earth as well.
The lunar record indicates that the rate of impacts decreased to its present low level about 4 billion years
ago. On Earth, subsequent erosion and crustal motions have obliterated the craters that must have formed
during this epoch.
Scientists estimate the Earth's age by measuring the ratios of various radioactive elements in rocks.
The oldest Earth rocks tested thus far are about 3 1/3 billion years old. But no one knows whether these


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are the oldest rocks on Earth. Tests on rocks from the moon and on meteorites show that these are about
4.6 billion years old. Scientists believe that this is the true age of the solar system and probably the true
age of the Earth
55. B. In paragraph 2, the word "obliterated" means destroyed.
56. A. According to this passage, how do scientists estimate the age of the Earth? By measuring the
ratios of radioactive elements in rocks.
57. C. Scientists estimate the age of the Earth as 4.6 billion years old.
58. D. Which of the following processes led to the obliteration of the craters formed by the bombardment
of the Earth by celestial bodies? Crustal motions.
59. B. According to the passage, why are scientists forced to look at other bodies in the solar system to

determine the early history of the Earth? Erosion and crustal motions.
60. A. What is the BEST title for this passage? "Determining the Age of the Earth"
61. C. Which of the following bodies was NOT studied to give evidence that the Earth was bombarded in
its early history? Jupiter.
62. A. Bombardment of the Earth at one time by various sized bodies is inferred from what happened
on other planetary bodies.
63. D. The level of impacts of the bombardments of Earth has decreased to a current low.
64. B. In paragraph 2, the word "bombardment" means an assault.
PART 2: WRITING TASK (2.0p)
Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it. (0.5p)
1. The death of over fifty people was caused by the storm.
 The storm resulted in the death of over fifty people,
2. It wasn’t nice of you not to invite me to your party.
 I might have been invited to your party.
3. Gmail accounts are generally better than other email services.
 Other email services are generally not as good as Gmail accounts.
4. I had no sooner closed the door than somebody knocked.
 Hardly had I closed the door when somebody knocked.
5.

People believe that the Chinese invented paper in 105 A.D.

 Paper is believed to have been invented by the Chinese in 105 A.D.
Part II. You should spend about 30 minutes on this task. (1.5p)
Write about the following topic:
Some universities require students to take the entrance examination with the English subject. Other
universities do not. Which is better? Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer.
Write at least 140 words.
Tiêu chí

Điểm

1. Bố cục toàn bài viết

0.4


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2. Phát triển ý: logic, dẫn chứng, ví dụ …

0.25

3. Sử dụng ngôn từ: văn phong, từ nối …

0.3

4. Nội dung đủ thuyết phục, độ dài +/- 5% (140 word: 12 words/ line = 11  13
lines)

0.3

5. Ngữ pháp, dấu câu, chính tả (1 lỗi: - 0.15p)

0.25

Tổng điểm

---------------------------------------------------------- THE END ----------

1.50


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SỞ GD-ĐT QUẢNG TRỊ
TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN THỊ TÂM

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2015
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Đề thi gồm có 06 trang

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

MÃ ĐỀ THI: 985

Họ và tên thí sinh:............................................................... Số báo danh:................................
Choose the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress.
Question 1: A. handle

B. gesture

C. retain

D. famine

Question 2: A. reflection

B. division

C. astronomy

D. interview

Question 3: A. humanity

B. necessity

C. academic

D. facilitate

Choose the word whose bold part is pronounced differently.
Question 4. A. solved

B. stylizled

C. survived

D. wounded

Question 5. A. cough

B. enough

C. laughter

D. plough

Choose the word phrase that best completes each sentence.
Question 6: _______ that she burst into tears.
A. So angry was she B. Such her anger

C. She was so anger D. Her anger was so

Question 7: At first sight I met her. I was impressed with her _______
A. big beautiful round black eyes
B. beautiful black big round eyes
C. beautiful big round black eyes
D. beautiful round big black eyes
Question 8: She had to hand in her notice ______ advance when she decided to leave the job.
A. with
B. from
C. in
D. to
Question 9:He was very lucky when he fell off the ladder. He _____ himself.
A. could have hurt
B. must have hurt
C. should have hurt

D. will have hurt

Question 10: John contributed fifty dollars, but he wishes he could contribute ______
A. the same amount also
B. more fifty dollars C. another fifty
D. one other fifty dollars
Question 11: Grace Kelly was first famous as a Hollywood actress and then ______ Prince Rainier of
Monaco.

A. to be the wife of B. she was the wife of
C. the wife of
D. as the wife of
Question 12: ______ for breakfast is bread and eggs.
A. That I only like
B. Which better I like

C. What I like most

D. The food what I like

Question 13: : ______ but he also proved himself a good athlete.
A. Not only he showed himself a good student
B. He did not show himself only a good student
C. Not only did he show himself a good student
D. A good student not only showed him
Question 14: ______, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
A. He felt very tired though
B. As he might feel tired
C. Tired as it was
D. Tired as he might feel
Question 15: - "Wow! What a nice coat you are wearing!" - "______"
A. Certainly. Do you like it, too?
B. I like you to say that.
C. Yes, of course. It's expensive.
D. Thanks. My mother bought it for me.
Question 16: : I like reading books________ this is a good way to get information.


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A. because

B. because of

C. so that

D. in order to

Question 17: John: “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our environment?”
Laura: “______”
A. Of course not. You bet!
B. Well, that’s very surprising.
C. There’s no doubt about it.
D. Yes, it’s an absurd idea.
Question 18: _________ Nam Cao is a realistic writer, but he still used a lot of romance in his stories.
A. On the contrary
B. On my part
C. On the whole
D. On the other hand
Question 19: The forecast has revealed that the world’s reserves of fossil fuel will have ______ by 2015.
A. taken over
B. caught up
C. used off
D. run out
Question 20: The beautiful girl died of an________morphine.
A. overweight
B. overhear
C. overdo

D. overdose

Question 21: The old houses were ______ down to make way for a block of flats.
A. banged
B. hit
C. knocked
D. put
Question 22: Will you just tidy your room, and stop ______ excuses!”
A. having
B. making
C. doing

D. taking

Question 23: James should have stayed out of the sun as his skin is so ____.
A. sensible
B. insensible
C. sensitive D. senseless
Question 24: Only 40 % of 5-year-olds have_______ to pre-school children.
A. access
B. approach
C. denial
D. recognition
Choose the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in the following questions
Question 25: Father has lost his job, so we’ll have to tighten our belt to avoid getting into debt.
A. earn money
B. save money
C. sit still
D. economize
Question 26: She was brought up in a well-off family. She can’t understand the problems we are facing.

A. wealthy
B. kind
C. broke
D. poor
Question 27:The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively commonplace in recent years.
A. absolutely
B. Relavently
C. Almost
D. comparatively
Question 28: Sharks are single – minded , and will usually ignore rescuers.
A. concentrate on only one purpose/aim …
B. are selfish C. are cruel

D. attack suddenly

Question 29: When Americans are invited to formal or informal get – togethers they usually try to make
others feel comfortable and relaxed.
A. meetings
B. conferences
C. conversations
D. social reunions
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 30: Mrs. Stevens, along with her cousins from New Mexico, are planning to attend the
festivities.
A
B
C
D
Question 31: The media have produced live covering of Michael Jackson’s fans around the world

mourning for him
A
B
C
D
Question 32: Helen likes to listen to music, to go to the cinema, to chat on the phone and going shopping.
A
B
C
D
Question 33: Many successful film directions are former actors who desire to expand their experience in
the film industry.
A
B
C
D
Question 34: Many people have found the monotonous buzzing of the vuvuzela in the 2010-World-Cup


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A
matches so annoyed.
D

B

C

Read the following passage and choose the correct word for each of the blanks.

Interpreting the feelings of other people is not always easy, as we all know, and we (35) __ _ as
much on what they seem to be telling us, as on the actual words they say. Facial (36) _ _ and tone of voice
are obvious ways of showing our (37) _ _ to something, and it may well be that we unconsciously express
views that we are trying to hide. The art of being ( 38) __ _ lies in picking up these signals, realizing what
the other person is trying to say, and acting so that they are not embarrassed in any way. For example, we
may understand that they are in fact (39) __ __ to answer our question, and so we stop pressing them. Body
movements in general may also indicate feelings, and interviewers often pay particular attention to the way
a candidate for a job walks into the room and sits down. However it is not difficult to present the right kind
of appearance while what many employers want to know relates to the candidate’s character traits, and (40)
__ __ stability. This raises the awkward question of whether job candidates should be asked to complete
psychological tests, and the further problem of whether such tests actually produce (41) __ __ results. For
many people, being asked to take part in such a test would be an objectionable (42) __ _ into their private
lives.
After all, a prospective employer would hardly ask a candidate to run a hundred meters, or expect his
or her family doctor to provide (43) _ _ medical information. Quite apart from this problem, can such tests
predict whether a person is likely to be a (44) __ __ employee or a values colleague?
Question 35:

A. rely

B. estimate

C. reckon

D. trust

Question 36:

A. looks

B. image

C. manner

D. expression

Question 37:

A. feeling

B. view

C. notion

D. reaction

Question 38:

A. good at

B. tactful

C. successful

D. humble

Question 39:

A. reluctant

B. used

C. hesitant

D. tending

Question 40:

A. psychological

B. relevant

C. physical

D. similar

Question 41:

A. faithful

B. regular

C. reliable

D. predictable

Question 42:

A. infringement

B. invasion

C. interference

D. intrusion

Question 43:

A. reticent

B. classified

C. confidential

D. secretive

Question 44:

A. conscientious

B. particular

C. laborious

D. thorough

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54.
Very few people in the modern world obtain their food supply by hunting and gathering in the
natural environment surrounding their homes. This method of harvesting from nature’s provision is the

oldest known subsistence strategy and has been practised for at least the last two million years. It was,
indeed, the only way to obtain food until rudimentary (sơ đẳng) farming and the domestication of wild
animals were introduced about 10,000 years ago. Because hunter-gatherers have fared poorly in
comparison with their agricultural cousins, their numbers have dwindled, and they have been forced to live
in marginal (giới hạn) environments, such as deserts and arctic (thuộc bắc cực) wastelands. In higher
latitudes, the shorter growing seasons have restricted the availability of plant life. Such conditions have
caused a greater dependence on hunting, and on fishing along the coasts and waterways. The abundance of
vegetation in the lower latitudes of the tropics, on the other hand, has provided a greater opportunity for
gathering a variety of plants. In short, the environmental differences have restricted the diet and have
limited possibilities for the development of subsistence societies. Contemporary hunter-gatherers may help
us understand our prehistoric ancestors. We know from the observation of modern hunter-gatherers in both
Africa and Alaska that a society based on hunting and gathering must be very mobile. While the entire


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community camps in a central location, a smaller party harvests the food within a reasonable distance from
the camp. When the food in the area has become exhausted, the community moves on to exploit another
site. We also notice seasonal migration patterns evolving for most hunter-gatherers, along with a strict
division of labor between the sexes. These patterns of behavior may be similar to those practised by
mankind during the Paleolithic Period. (đồ đá cũ)
Question 45: The word “domestication” in the first paragraph mostly means ______.
A. adapting animals to suit a new working environment
B. hatching and raising new species of wild animals in the home
C. teaching animals to do a particular job or activity in the home
D. making wild animals used to living with and working for humans
Question 46: According to the passage, subsistence societies depend mainly on ______.
A. hunter-gatherers’ tools B. nature’s provision C. farming methods D. agricultural products
Question 47: The word “marginal” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to “______”.
A. disadvantaged

B. suburban
C. forgotten
D. abandoned
Question 48: In the lower latitudes of the tropics, hunter-gatherers ______.
A. can free themselves from hunting
B. have better food gathering from nature
C. live along the coasts and waterways for fishing D. harvest shorter seasonal crops
Question 49: According to the passage, studies of contemporary subsistence societies can provide a
______.
A. further understanding of prehistoric times
B. broader vision of prehistoric natural
environments
C. further understanding of modern subsistence societies D. deeper insight into the dry-land
farming
Question 50: The word “conditions” in the second paragraph refers to ______.
A. the places where plenty of animals and fish can be found
B. the situations in which hunter-gatherers can grow some crops
C. the environments where it is not favorable for vegetation to grow
D. the situations in which hunter-gatherers hardly find anything to eat
Question 51: A typical feature of both modern and prehistoric hunter-gatherers is that ______.
A. they live in the forests for all their life
B. they don’t have a healthy and balanced diet
C. they don’t have a strong sense of community
D. they often change their living places
Question 52: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned?
A. Harvesting from the natural environment had existed long before farming was taken up.
B. The environmental differences produce no effect on subsistence societies.
C. The number of hunter-gatherers decreases where farming is convenient.
D. Hunting or fishing develops where there are no or short growing seasons.
Question 53: According to the author, most contemporary and prehistoric hunter-gatherers share ______.

A. some methods of production
B. some patterns of behavior
C. some restricted daily rules
D. only the way of duty division
Question 54: Which of the following would serve as the best title of the passage?
A. Hunter-gatherers and Subsistence Societies
B. Evolution of Humans’ Farming Methods
C. A Brief History of Subsistence Farming
D. Hunter-gatherers: Always on the Move
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Butterflies are among the most extensively studied insects, an estimated 90 percent of the world's
species have scientific names. As a consequence, they are, perhaps, the best group of insects for examining
patterns of terrestrial biotic diversity and distribution. Butterflies also have a favorable image with the


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general public. Hence, they are an excellent group for communicating information on science and
conservation issues such as diversity.
Perhaps the aspect of butterfly diversity that has received the most attention over the past century is
the striking difference in species richness between tropical and temperate regions.
For example, in 1875 one biologist pointed out the diversity of butterflies in the Amazon when he
mentioned that about 700 species were found within an hour's walk, whereas the total number found on the
British islands did not exceed 66, and the whole of Europe supported only 321. This early comparison of
tropical and temperate butterfly richness has been well confirmed.
A general theory of diversity would have to predict not only this difference between temperate and
tropical zones, but also patterns within each region, and how these patterns vary among different animal
and plant groups. However, for butterflies, variation of species richness within temperate or tropical regions,
rather than between them, is poorly understood. Indeed, comparisons of numbers of species among the

Amazon basin, tropical Asia, and Africa are still mostly "personal communication" citations, even for
vertebrates. In other words, unlike comparison between temperate and tropical areas, these patterns are still
in the documentation phase.
In documenting geographical variation in butterfly diversity, some arbitrary, practical decisions are
made. Diversity, number of species, and species richness are used synonymously; little is known about the
evenness of butterfly distribution. The New World butterflies make up the preponderance of examples
because they are the most familiar species. It is hoped that by focusing on them, the errors generated by
imperfect and incomplete taxonomy will be minimized.
Question 55: Which aspect of butterflies does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Their physical characteristics
B. Their adaptation to different habitats
C. Their names
D. Their variety
Question 56: The word "consequence" in the passage is closest in meaning to "_______".
A. requirement
B. analysis
C. result
D. explanation
Question 57: Butterflies are a good example for communicating information about conservation issues
because they _______.
A. are found mainly in temperate climates
B. have been given scientific names
C. are simple in structure
D. are viewed positively by people
Question 58: The word "striking" in the passage is closest in meaning to "_______".
A. noticeable
B. successful
C. confusing
D. physical
Question 59: The word “exceed” in the passage is closest in meaning to "_______".

A. allow
B. go beyond
C. come close to
D. locate
Question 60: All of the followings are mentioned as being important parts of a general theory of
diversity EXCEPT _______.
A. differences between temperate and tropical zones
B. variation of patterns of distribution of species among different animals and plants
C. patterns of distribution of species in each region
D. migration among temperate and tropical zones
Question 61: The author mentions "tropical Asia" in the passage as an example of a location where
_______.
A. a general theory of butterfly diversity has not yet been firmly established
B. butterflies are affected by human populations
C. butterfly behavior varies with climate
D. documenting plant species is more difficult than documenting butterfly species
Question 62: Which of the following is NOT well understood by biologists?
A. European butterfly habitats
B. Comparisons of behavior patterns of butterflies and certain animal groups
C. Differences in species richness within a temperate or a tropical region


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D. Differences in species richness between temperate and tropical regions
Question 63: The idea "little is known about the evenness of butterfly distribution" is that _______.
A. there are many other things that we don't know about butterfly evenness distribution
B. we don't know anything about butterfly evenness distribution
C. we know much about butterfly evenness distribution
D. we know about butterfly evenness distribution to some extent

Question 64: The word "generated" in the passage is closest in meaning to "_______".
A. assisted
B. estimated
C. requested
D. caused
WRITING:
Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it
65. It would have been a superb weekend if it hadn’t been for the weather.
 But……………….……………………………………………………………………………..
66. Mary is the most warm- hearted person I have ever known.
 I have …………………………………..…………….…………………………………………
67.“You didn’t pay attention to what I said,” the teacher said to him
 The teacher accused …………………………………………………………………………
68. It was such a boring film that we left before the end.
 The film ………………….……………………………………………………………………...
69. He tried hard. He wasn’t successful
 No matter ……….……………………………………………………………………………….
Part II: In about 140 words, write a paragraph about your hobby
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