Tham khao THPTQG 2017 t anh

ĐỀ SỐ 1
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1:A. ploughed
B. coughed
C. laughed
D. photographed
Question 2:A.bushes
B. offices
C. blades
D.branches
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. diverse
B. require
C. oblige
D. caring
Question 4: A. countryman
B. sacrifice
C. supportive
D. marvelous
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
the following questions.
Question 5:Every fuel has their own particular temperature at which it begins to burn.
A.to burn
B.Every fuel
C.at which
D.their own
Question 6:As his car had beenbroken down, she gave him a lift to work .
A
B

C
D
Question 7: I think she will be suitable for the work because she has been workinglike a teacher for a
A
B
C
D
long time.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 8: You should try to cooperate __________ that organization __________ every way.
A. to – in
B. with – in
C. with – for
D. to – for
Question 9:While in Europe on vacation, the twins roamed the countryside on their bikes.
A. rounded
B. rocked
C. wandered
D. rustled
Question 10: There was a long period without rain in this area last year so the harvest was poor.
A. famine
B. flood
C. drought
D. epidemic
Question 11: I have written her 3 letters but she hasn‟t answered __________them.
A. any ofB.some ofC.some
D.any
Question12:Nearly all of the reporters__________ the press conference had questions __________.
A.attended/asked

B. attending/to ask
C. attending/asked
D. attended/to ask
Question 13:Neither the nurses nor the doctor __________ there when the patient died.
A.are
B.is
C.were
D. was
Question 14:Can you keep calm for a moment? You_________ noise in class!
A. are always making
B. are always made
C.always make
D.have always made
Question15:Children! It‟s time you ___________ away those toys.
A.tidy
B.should tidy
C. tidied
D.to tidy
Question 16: ___________ for the fact that he was working abroad, he would have helped with the project.
A.If it had been
B.Hadn‟t it been
C. If it hadn‟t been
D.had it been
Question17:Doctor: “You __________ take more than two of these pills at once. Three might be fatal”.
A. mustn‟t
B.needn‟t
C.don‟t
D.mightn‟t
Question18:“Could you please turn off the stove? The potatoes _________ for at least 30 minutes.
A.boils

B.were boiling
C.are boiling
D. have been boiling
Question19: The boy has a collection of _____________.
A. old valuable Australian stamps
B. valuable Australian old stamps
C. valuable old Australian stamps
D. old Australian valuable stamps

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the
following exchanges.
Question 20: Ann: “__________!”
Sarah: “Thank you. I‟m glad you like it.”
A. What a lovely hat you have!
B.How lovely hat you are!
C.How your hat is lovely!
D.What lovely your hat is!
Question 21: Tom: “ My first English test was not as good as I expected.”
Sam: “_______________.”
A. Good Heavens!
B. That‟s brilliant enough!
C. Never mind, better job next time.
D. It‟s okay, don‟t worry.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: You may jot down your qualifications and experience that can relate to the job.


A.turn down
B. note down

C.pull down
D.put down
Question 23: Many large corporations will be wiped out and millions of jobs will be lost.
A.replaced completely
B.renewed completely
C.reduced completely
D. removed completely
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Why, according to pessimists, will the security of the earth be threatened?
A.scientists
B. optimists
C.conservationists
D.enthusiastists
Question 25: She is carrying out a health project for the disadvantaged in inner cities and rural areas.
A. urban
B. mountainous C. suburban
D. coastal
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the
following questions.
Question 26: “Why didn‟t your girlfriend attend the party?” he said.
A. He asked me why my girlfriend didn‟t attend the party.
B. He asked me why didn‟t my girlfriend attend the party.
C. He asked me why my girlfriend hadn‟t attended the party.
D. He asked me why had my girlfriend not attended the party.
Question 27: “Are you waiting for your exam result?” she said.
A. She asked me was I waiting for my exam result.
B. She asked me if I was waiting for my exam result.
C. She asked me whether was I waiting for my exam result.
D. She asked me whether I was waiting for your exam result.

Question 28: Fighting back tears, Sarah ran back to her room.
A. Sarah ran back to her room because of a fight.
B. Sarah tried not to cry and ran back to her room.
C. When someone had a fight, Sarah ran back to her room.
D. Fighting made Sarah cry and run back back to her room.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: She tried very hard to pass the driving test. She could hardly pass it.
A. Although she didn‟t try hard to pass the driving test, she could pass it.
B. Despite being able to pass the driving test, she didn‟t pass it.
C. No matter how hard she tried, she could hardly pass the driving test.
D. She tried very hard, so she passed the driving test satisfactorily.
Question 30: We didn‟t want to spend a lot of money. We stayed in a cheap hotel.
A. Rather than spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.
B. In spite of spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.
C. We stayed in a cheap hotel, but we had to spend a lot of money.
D. We didn‟t stay in a cheap hotel as we had a lot of money to spend.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
(31)______ more and more countries become industrialized, there will be more and more competition for
petroleum for cars, home heating, and industry. While (32)_______petroleum contributes greatly to acid rain, it is
less polluting than coal. Unfortunately, petroleum is more expensive than coal and the supply of petroleum will
eventually (33)________ out. Therefore, there will be more and more pressure to burn coal for energy. Coal is a
much dirtier energy source than petroleum. Since we already know (34)_______ destructive acid rain is, it is very
important that we increase our efforts to find a non-polluting source of energy as quickly as possible (35)_______
we can avoid further environmental damage.
Question 31: A. Although
B. Even
C.As
D. Also

Question 32:A. burning
B. flowing
C. blowing
D. releasing
Question 33: A. use
B. eat
C. run
D. make
Question 34: A. what
B. that
C. which
D. how
Question 35:A. so that
B. but
C. if
D. because
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Since the dawn of time, people have found ways to communicate with one another. Smoke signals and
tribal drums were some of the earliest forms of communication. Letters, carried by birds or by humans on foot or
on horseback, made it possible for people to communicate larger amounts of information between two places.
The telegram and telephone set the stage for more modem means of communication. With the invention of the
cellular phone, communication itself has become mobile.


For you, a cell phone is probably just a device that you and your friends use to keep in touch with family and
friends, take pictures, play games, or send text messages. The definition of a cell phone is more specific. It is a
hand-held wireless communication device that sends and receives signals by way of small special areas called
cells.
Walkie-talkies, telephones and cell phones are duplexcommunication devices. They make it possible for two

people to talk to each other. Cell phones and walkie-talkies are different from regular phones because they can
be used in many different locations. A walkie-talkie is sometimes called a half-duplex communication device
because only one person can talk at a time. A cell phone is a full-duplex device because it uses both frequencies
at the same time. A walkie-talkie has only one channel. A cell phone has more than a thousand channels. A
walkie-talkie can transmit and receive signals across a distance of about a mile. A cell phone can transmit and
receive signals over hundreds of miles. In 1973, an electronic company called Motorola hired Martin Cooper to
work on wireless communication. Motorola and Bell Laboratories (now AT&T) were in a race to invent the first
portable communication device. Martin Cooper won the race and became the inventor of the cell phone. On April
3, 1973, Cooper made the first cell phone call to his opponent at AT&T while walking down the streets of New
York City. People on the sidewalks gazed at Cooper in amazement. Cooper's phone was called A Motorola
Dyna-Tac. It weighed a whopping 2.5 pounds (as compared to today's cell phones that weigh as little as 3 or 4
ounces)
After the invention of his cell phone, Cooper began thinking of ways to make the cell phone available to the
general public. After a decade, Motorola introduced the first cell phones for commercial use. The early cell phone
and its service were both expensive. The cell phone itself cost about $ 3,500. In 1977, AT&T constructed a cell
phone system and tried it out in Chicago with over 2,000 customers. In 1981, a second cellular phone system
was started in the Washington D.C. and Baltimore area. It took nearly 37 years for cell phones to become
available for general public use. Today, there are more than sixty million cell phone customers with cell phones
producing over thirty billion dollars per year.
Question 36: What is the main idea of the passage?
A.The increasing number of people using cell phone.
B.How Cooper competed with AT&T.
C.The history of a cell phone.
D.The difference between cell phones and telephones.
Question 37: What definition is true of a cell phone?
A.A hand-held wireless communication device.
B.A version of walkie-talkie.
C.The first product of two famous corporations.
D.Something we use just for playing games.
Question 38: What is wrong about a walkie-talkie?

A.It has one channel.
B.It was first designed in 1973.
C.It can be used within a distance of a mile.
D. Only one person can talk at a time.
Question 39: The word "duplex" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to _______
A.quick
B.modern
C. having two parts
D.having defects
Question 40: To whom did Cooper make his first cell phone call?
A.A person on New York street.
B.The director of his company.
C. A member of Bell Laboratories.
D.His assistant at Motorola.
Question 41: How heavy is the first cell phone compared to today's cell phones?
A. ten times as heavy as
B.as heavy as
C.much lighter
D.2 pounds heavier
Question 42: When did Motorola introduce the first cell phones for commercial use?
A. in 1981
B. in 1983
C.in the same year when AT& T constructed a cell phone system
D.in the early years when he first made a cell- phone call
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
The Nobel Peace Prize is awarded annually and the first woman to win this prize was Baroness Bertha
Felicie Sophie von Suttner in 1905. In fact, her work inspired the creation of the Prize. The first American woman
to win this prize was Jane Addams, in 1925. However, Addams is best known as the founder of Hull House.
Jane Addams was born in 1860, into a wealthy family. She was one of a small number of women in her

generation to graduate from college. Her commitment to improving the lives of those around her led her to work
for social reform and world peace. In the 1880s Jane Addams traveled to Europe. While she was in London, she
visited a 'settlement house' called Toynbee Hall. Inspired by Toynbee Hall, Addams and her friend, Ellen Gates


Starr, opened Hull House in a neighborhood of slums in Chicago in 1899. Hull House provided a day care center
for children of working mothers, a community kitchen, and visiting nurses. Addams and her staff gave classes in
English literacy, art, and other subjects. Hull House also became a meeting place for clubs and labor unions.
Most of the people who worked with Addams in Hull House were well educated, middle-class women. Hull House
gave them an opportunity to use their education and it provided a training ground for careers in social work.
Before World War I , Addams was probably the most beloved woman in America. In a newspaper poll
that asked, "Who among our contemporaries are of the most value to the community?" Jane Addams was rated
second, after Thomas Edison. When she opposed America's involvement in World War I, however, newspaper
editors called her a traitor and a fool, but she never changed her mind. Jane Addams was a strong champion of
several other causes. Until 1920, American women could not vote. Addams joined in the movement for women's
suffrage and was a vice president of the National American Woman Suffrage Association. She was a founding
member of the National Association for the Advancement of Colored People (NAACP) and was president of the
Women's International League for Peace and Freedom. Her reputation was gradually restored during the last
years of her life. She died of cancer in 1929.
Question 43: With which of the following subjects is the passage mainly concerned ?
A. The first award of the Nobel Peace Prize to an American woman
B. A woman's work for social reform and world peace
C. The early development of Social Work in America
D. Contributions of educated women to American society
Question 44: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The work of Baroness Bertha Felicie Sophie von Suttner was an inspiration to Jane Addams.
B. Jane Addams is most famous for her opening of Hull House.
C. Those who lived near Hull House had very poor literacy skills.
D. Jane Addams considered herself as a citizen of the world rather than of one particular country.
Question 45: The word "commitment" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.

A. involvement
B. obligation
C. dedication D. enthusiasm
Question 46: Jane Addams was inspired to open Hull House because ________.
A. it gave educated women an opportunity to use their education and develop careers in social work
B. she traveled to Europe in the 1880s
C. she visited Toynbee Hall
D. she was invited by a 'settlement house' in Chicago
Question 47: The word "their" in paragraph two refers to ________.
A. children of working mothers
B. middle - class women
C. visiting nurses
D. labor union members
Question 48: The word 'contemporaries' in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. people of the same time
B. famous peple still alive
C. elected officials
D. people old enough to move
Question 49: According to the passage, Jane Addams' reputation was damaged when she _________ .
A. allowed Hull House to become a meeting place for clubs and labor unions
B. joined in the movement for women's sufferage
C. became a founding member of the NAACP
D. opposed America's involvement in World War I
Question 50: In paragraph three, the word "gradually" is closest in meaning to _________ .
A. in no time
B. step by step
C. minute by minute
D. time after time

ĐỀ SỐ 2
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of
the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. included
B. wanted
C. decided
D. noticed
Question 2. A. perfume
B. persuade
C. return
D. purse
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. effort
B. survive
C. enlarge
D. disguise
Question 4. A. reliable
B. conventional C. insurance
D. intellectual
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
the following questions.
Question 5: One of the most effective method of helping children learn new vocabulary words is to
A
B
teach unfamiliar words used in a text prior to the reading experience.
C
D
Question 6: Vietnamese studentsmay encounter some problems whenstudying in abroad.
A B

C
D
Question 7: Daisy is reading her essay because she has a test tomorrow. She shouldbe studying.
A
B
C
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the
following questions
Question 8: “ Hello. My name‟s Richard”
_ “__________”
A. Are you Richard?
B. Mine‟s John, hello
C. Yes, I know
D. Oh, ok thank you
Question 9: Lucy: “You look really nice in that red sweater!”
Sue: “__________”
A. Don‟t mention it.
B. How dare you?
C. I‟m afraid so. D. Thank you.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 10: Organizing some extra-curricula activities has occupied a lot of my time recently.
A. taken in
B. taken up
C. taken over
D. taken after
Question 11: Everything was in a thorough mess.
A. utter
B. full

C. complete
D. appalling
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE meaning to
the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 12: John failed to stop smoking though he had had a bad cough.
A. successful
B. was able
C. could
D. succeed
Question 13: This shouldn‟t be too taxing for you.
A. comfortable B. demanding
C. easy
D. relaxing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in each of the following
questions.
Question 14: We bought some_________.
A. German lovely old glasses
C. German old lovely glasses
B. lovely old German glasses
D. old lovely German glasses
Question 15: This is the third time James__________ the volunteer program to the village.
A. joins
B. joined
C. has joined
D. has been joining
Question 16: The higher the content of carbon dioxide in the air is,________.
A. the more heat it retains
B. the heat it retains more
C. it retains the more heat
D. more heat it retains

Question 17: He was so awkward, but luckily only one of the dinner _________ broken.
A. plate was
B. plates have been
C. plates was
D. plares is
Question 18: We should participate in the movements _________ the natural environment.
A. organizing to conserve
B. organized conserving
C. which organize to conserve
D. organized to conserve
Question 19: Deborah is going to take extra lessons to ___ what she missed when she was away.
A. cut down on B. put up with
C. catch up on D. take up with
Question 20: The workers'claim for a ten percent pay rise has been under ________ by the government.
A. consideration B. inquiry
C. regard
D. application
Question 21: The _________ dressed woman in the advertisement has a pose smile on her face.
A. stylistic
B. stylishly
C. stylish
D. stylistically
Question 22: I haven't got a passport, _______ means I can't leave my country.
A. which
B. that
C. this
D. it
Question 23: The goverment should take ________ to reduce the current high unemployment rate.
A. step
B. measures

C. changes
D. solutions
Question 24: Only because she had to support her family _________ to leave school.


A. that Alice decides

B. did Alice decide

C. does Alice decide

D. Alice decide

Question 25: George won five medals at the competition. His parents_________ very proud of him.
A. can‟t be
B. can‟t have
C. must have been
D. could have been
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions.
New surveys suggest that the technological tools we use to make our lives easier are killing our leisure
time. We are working longer hours, taking fewer and shorter vacations (and when we do go away, we take our
cell phones, PDAs, and laptops along). And, we are more stressed than ever as increased use of e-mail, voice
mail, cell phones, and the Internet is destroying any idea of privacy and leisure.
Since the Industrial Revolution, people have assumed that new labor-saving devices would free them
from the burdens of the workplace and give them more time to grow intellectually, creatively, and socially –
exploring the arts, keeping up with current events, spending more time with friends and family, and even just
„goofing off‟.
st
But here we are at the start of the 21 century, enjoying one of the greatest technological boom times in

human history, and nothing could be further from the truth. The very tools that were supposed to liberate us have
bound us to our work and study in ways that were inconceivable just a few years ago. It would seem that
technology almost never does what we expect.
In „the old days‟, the lines between work and leisure time were markedly clearer. People left their offices
at a predictable time, were often completely disconnected from and out of touch with their jobs as they traveled to
and from work, and were off-duty once they were home. That is no longer true. In today‟s highly competitive job
market, employers demand increased productivity, expecting workers to put in longer hours and to keep in touch
almost constantly via fax, cell phones, e-mail, or other communications devices. As a result, employees feel the
need to check in on what is going on at the office, even on days off. They feel pressured to work after hours just
to catch up on everything they have to do. Workers work harder and longer, change their work tasks more
frequently, and have more and more reasons to worry about job security.
Bosses, colleagues, family members, lovers, and friends expect instant responses to voice mail and email messages. Even college students have become bound to their desks by an environment in which faculty,
friends, and other members of the college community increasingly do their work online. Studies of time spent on
instant messaging services would probably show staggering use.
This is not what technology was supposed to be doing for us. New technologies, from genetic research to
the Internet, offer all sorts of benefits and opportunities. But, when new tools make life more difficult and stressful
rather than easier and more meaningful – and we are, as a society, barely conscious of it – then something has
gone seriously awry, both with our expectations for technology and our understanding of how it should benefit us.
From “Summit 1” by Joan Saslow & Allen Ascher
Question 26: According to the first three paragraphs, technological tools that were designed to make our lives
easier__________.
A. have brought us complete happiness
B. have fully met our expectations
C. have not interfered with our privacy
D. have turned out to do us more harm than good
Question 27: Which of the following is NOT true about technological tools, according to new surveys?
A. They make our life more stressful.
B. They bring more leisure to our life.
C. They are used even during vacations. D. They are being increasingly used.
Question 28: The word “inconceivable” in the passage is closest in meaning to”______”.

A. unforgettable B. unimaginable C. predictable
D. foreseeable
Question 29: It can be inferred from the fourth paragraph that__________.
A. it is compulsory that employees go to the office, even on days off
B. employees have more freedom to decide what time they start and finish work
C. employers are more demanding and have efficient means to monitor employees
D. life is more relaxing with cell phones and other technological devices
Question 30: The word “They” in the fourth paragraph refers to__________.
A. employers
B. employees
C. workers
D. tasks
Question 31: This passage has probably been taken from__________.
A. a science review
B. a political journal
C. an advertisement
D. a fashion magazine
Question 32: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Expectations and Plain Reality
B. Benefits of Technology
C. Research on the Roles of Computers D. Changes at the Workplace
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase
that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
In “Cerealizing America”, Scott Bruce and Bill Crawford remark that the cereal industry uses 816 million
pounds of sugar per year. Americans buy 2.7 billion packages of breakfast cereal each year. If (33)________ end
to end, the empty cereal boxes from one year‟s consumption would stretch to the moon and back. One point
three (1.3) million advertisements for cereal are broadcast on American television every year at a(n)


(34)________ of $762 million for airtime. Only automobile manufacturers spend more money on television

advertising than the makers of breakfast cereal.
(35)________ of the boxed cereals found in supermarkets contain large amounts of sugar and some
contain more than 50% sugar. Cereal manufacturers are very clever in their marketing, making many cereals
appear much healthier than they really are by “fortifying” them with vitamins and minerals. Oh, lovely - you now
have vitamin-fortified sugar!
Before you eat any cereal, read the ingredient list and see how (36)________ sugar appears on the
ingredient list. Then check the “Nutrition facts” panel.
There are actually only a small handful of national commercially-branded cereals that are made
(37)________ whole grains and are sugar-free.
From “Foods That Burn Fat, Foods That Turn to Fat” by Tom Ventulo
Question 33:
A. to lay
Question 34: A. charge
Question 35: A. Most
Question 36: A. tall
Question 37: A. by

B. laying
B. average
B. Mostly
B. large
B. from

C. lay
C. cost
C. Almost
C. high
C. at

D. laid

D. expense
D. Furthermost
D. many
D. in

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions.
Very few people, groups, or governments oppose globalization in its entirety. Instead, critics of
globalization believe aspects of the way globalization operates should be changed. The debate over globalization
is about what the best rules are for governing the global economy so that its advantages can grow while its
problems can be solved.
On one side of this debate are those who stress the benefits of removing barriers to international trade
and investment, allowing capital to be allocated more efficiently and giving consumers greater freedom of choice.
With free-market globalization, investment funds can move unimpeded from the rich countries to the developing
countries. Consumers can benefit from cheaper products because reduced taxes make goods produced at low
cost from faraway places cheaper to buy. Producers of goods gain by selling to a wider market. More competition
keeps sellers on their toes and allows ideas and new technology to spread and benefit others.
On the other side of the debate are critics who see neo-liberal policies as producing greater poverty,
inequality, social conflict, cultural destruction, and environmental damage. They say that the most developed
nations – the United States, Germany, and Japan – succeeded not because of free trade but because of
protectionism and subsidies. They argue that the more recently successful economies of South Korea, Taiwan,
and China all had strong state-led development strategies that did not follow neo-liberalism. These critics think
that government encouragement of “infant industries” – that is, industries that are just beginning to develop –
enables a country to become internationally competitive.
Furthermore, those who criticize the Washington Consensus suggest that the inflow and outflow of
money from speculative investors must be limited to prevent bubbles. These bubbles are characterized by the
rapid inflow of foreign funds that bid up domestic stock markets and property values. When the economy cannot
sustain such expectation, the bubbles burst as investors panic and pull their money out of the country.
Protests by what is called the anti-globalization movement are seldom directed against globalization itself
but rather against abuses that harm the rights of workers and the environment. The question raised by

nongovernmental organizations and protesters at WTO and IMF gatherings is whether globalization will result in a
rise of living standards or a race to the bottom as competition takes the form of lowering living standards and
undermining environmental regulations.
st
One of the key problems of the 21 century will be determining to what extent markets should be
regulated to promote fair competition, honest dealing, and fair distribution of public goods on a global scale.
From “Globalization” by Tabb, William K., Microsoft ® Student 2009 [DVD]
Question 38: It is stated in the passage that_________.
A. the protests of globalization are directed against globalization itself
B. the United States, Germany, and Japan succeeded in helping infant industries
C. suppoters of globalization stress the benefits of removing trade barriers
D. critics of globalization say that the successful economies are all in Asia
Question 39: Supporters of free-market globalization point out that__________.
A. consumers can benefit from cheaper products
B. there will be less competition among producers
C. taxes that are paid on goods will be increased
D. investment will be allocated only to rich countries
Question 40: The word “allocated” in the passage mostly means “___________”.
A. removed
B. solved
C. offered
D. distributed
Question 41: The phrase “keeps sellers on their toes” in the passage mostly means “_________”.
A. makes sellers responsive to any changes
B. allows sellers to stand on their own feet
C. forces sellers to go bare-footed
D. prevents sellers from selling new products


Question 42: According to critics of globalization, several developed countries have become rich because

of__________.
A. their neo-liberal policies
B. their help to developing countries
C. their prevention of bubbles
D. their protectionism and subsidies
Question 43: Infant industries mentioned in the passage are__________.
A. successful economies
B. young companies
C. development strategies
D. young industries
Question 44: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Critics believe the way globalization operates should be changed.
B. The anti-globalization movement was set up to end globalization.
C. Some Asian countries had strong state-led economic strategies.
D. Hardly anyone disapproves of globalization in its entirety.
Question 45: The debate over globalization is about how__________.
A. to use neo-liberal policies for the benefit of the rich countries
B. to spread ideas and strategies for globalization
C. to govern the global economy for the benefit of the community
D. to terminate globalization in its entirely
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions
Question 46: Sam speaks Chinese well and his Japanese is good, too.
A. Sam is good at either Chinese or Japanese.
B. Not only Chinese but also Japanese Sam is good at.
C. Not only does Sam speak Chinese but also Japanese.
D. Sam not only speaks Chinese well but also is good at Japanese.
Question 47: It’s a bad line. Do you want me to give you a ring later?
A. Can I call you later?
B. I would like to give you a ring as a present.

C. Would you like to become my wife? D. Can I give the ring back to you later?
Question 48: Had she read the reference books, she would have been able to finish the test.
A. If she had read the reference books, she could finish the test.
B. Not having read the reference books, she couldn‟t finish the test.
C. Although she didn‟t read the reference books, she was able to finish the test.
D. Because she read the reference books, she was able to finish the test.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions
Question 49: We’d better leave them a note. It’s possible they’ll arrive later.
A. If they arrive late, we‟d better leave them a note.
B. We‟d better leave them a note as they possibly arrive later.
C. They‟ll probably arrive later so that we‟d better leave them a note.
D. We‟d better leave them a note in case they arrive later.
Question 50: Women still cover their heads in some countries. They did so in the past.
A. In the past, women cover their heads but they do so today in some countries.
B. Women still cover their heads in some countries as they did in the past.
C. Women still cover their heads in some countries similar to what they did so in the past.
D. Women still cover their heads in some countries as they did so in the past.
_______THE END________


ĐỀ SỐ 3
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1:A. missed
B.laughed
C. stopped
D. closed
Question 2:A.tooth
B. boot

C. smooth
D. look
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3:A. disappear
B.arrangement
C. apponent
D.contractual
Question 4:A. invention
B. delicateC.domestic
D.bacteria
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
the following questions.
Question 5: With the victory over Germany in the final match, Brazil became the first team wonthe trophy
AB
C
five times.
D
Question 6: : Globally and internationally, the 1990's stood out as the warmest decade in the history of
A
B
C
weather records.
D
Question 7:All of his friends were surprisingat his success
A
BC
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.

Question 8:Whistling or clapping hands to get someone„s attention is considered ______ and even rude in some
circumstances.
A. suitable
B. unnecessary
C. appropriate
D. impolite
Question 9: No _______ water polo player except _______ goalie can hold the ball with both hands.
A. a / the
B. the / Ø
C. the / a
D. Ø / the
Question 10: The more expensive the car is, the ___________________it is.
A. Less buyers
B. more comfortable
C. more quickly
D. less economical
Question 11: John was the youngest boy ___.
A. that was joined the club
B. to be admitted to the club
C. admitted to the club
D. joining the club
Question 12: The X-ray____________ in 1895.
A. is said to have been discovered
B. is said to be discovered
C. said to have been discovered
D. said to discover
Question 13: It is of great importance to create a good impression _______ your interviewer.
A. on
B. about
C. for

D. at
Question 14: Swimming produces both_______________and physical benefits.
A. psychology
B. psychological
C. psychologically
D. psychologist
Question 15: There should be an international law against _____.
A. reforestation
B. afforestation
C. forestry
D. deforestation
Question 16: Conservationists ______that experiments on animals be stopped.
A. recommended
B. banned
C. said
D. complained
Question 17: It‟s nice I am now in London again. This is the second time I ______ there.
A. have been
B. will be
C.would be
D. was
Question 18:At the end of this month, scientists at the institute will conduct their AIDS research, the results of
__________will be published within 6 months.
A. which
B. whom
C. that
D. it
Question 19: I can‟t ______________up with your bad behavior any more.
A. put
B. stand in for

C. sit out
D. stand up
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the
following exchanges.
Question 20:– Max: “How lovely your pets are!” - Min: “ _________”
A. Thank you, it's nice of you to say so B. Really? They are
C. can you say that again
D. I love them, too
Question 21:- “Oh, I‟m really sorry!”. - “____________________”.
A.It was a pleasure.
B. That„s all right. C.Thanks
D.Yes, why?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Many plant and animal species will be in danger if we don't take any actions to protect them.
A. on purpose
B. at ease
C. at stake
D. in advance
Question 23:People of diverse backgrounds now go to different places for pleasure, business or education
A. distinctive
B. different
C. isolated
D. distant


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24:1. We ought to keep these proposals secret from the chairman for the time being.
A. lively

B. frequented
C. accessible
D. revealed
Question 25:3. There has been insufficient rainfall over the past two years, and farmers are having trouble.
A. adequate
B. unsatisfactory C. abundant
D. dominant
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 26:When the unemployment rate is high, the crime rate is usually also high.
A. The higher the unemployment rate is, the higher the crime rate is.
B. The high rate of unemployment depends on the high rate of crime.
C. The unemployment rate and the crime rate are both higher.
D. The unemployment rate is as high as the crime rate.
Question 27:But for his father’s early retirement, Richard would not have taken over the family business.
A. Richard‟s father didn‟t want him to take over the family business despite his retirement.
B. Richard didn‟t take over the family business because his father didn‟t retire.
C. Richard only took over the family business because his father decided to retire early.
D. His father retire early, but he still ran the family business.
Question 28:No sooner had she put the telephone down than her boss rang back.
A. Hardly she had hung up, she rang her boss immediately.
B. As soon as her boss rang back, she put down the telephone.
C. She had hardly put the telephone down without her boss rang back.
D. Scarcely had she put the telephone down when her boss rang back.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: He didn’t take his father’s advice. That’s why he is out of work.
A. If he takes his father‟s advice, he will not be out of work.
B. If he had taken his father‟s advice, he would not be out of work.
C. If he had taken his father‟s advice, he would not have been out of work.

D. If he took his father‟s advice, he would not be out of work.
Question 30: John is studying hard. He doesn't want to fail the next exam.
A. John is studying hard in order that he not fail the next exam.
B. John is studying hard in order not to fail the next exam
C. John is studying hard in order to not to fail the next exam.
D. John is studying hard so as to fail the next exam.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
THE HISTORY OF WRITING
The development of writing (31) ___ a huge difference to the world and might see it as the beginning of the
media. Pieces of pottery with marks on that are probably numbers have been discovered in China that date from
around 4000 BC. Hieroglyphics and other forms of "picture writing" developed in the (32)_____ around
Mesopotamia (modern-day Iraq), where the ancient Sumerian civilization was based, from around 3300 BC
onwards. However, the first true alphabet was used by the Phoenicians around 1050 BC. Their alphabet had 22
letters and it is estimated that it lasted for 1000 years. The first two signs were called "aleph" and "beth", which in
Greek became "alpha" and "beta", which gave us the modern word "alphabet" The modern European alphabet is
based on the Greek and (33) ____ to other European countries under the Romans. A number of changes took
place as time passed. The Romans added the letter G, and the letter J and V were (34) ____ to people in
Shakespeare's time. If we (35) ____the history of punctuation, we also find some interesting facts.
Question 31. A. did
Question 32. A. distance
Question 33. A. spread
Question 34. A. infamous
Question 35. A. look into

B. had
B. area
B. appeared
B. unpopular
B. bring on

C. made
C. length
C. was
C. unknown
C. make off

D. took
D. earth
D. occurred
D. hidden
D. hold up

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Wolfgang Amadeus Mozart was born in 1756 in Austria. He would become one of the most talented composers
to ever live. He started to write and play music before he was even eight years old.
As a three-year-old, Mozart already loved music. He would listen to his father teach his older sister. She was
learning to play the piano. Mozart looked up to his sister, and copied her playing.


Mozart‟s father noticed Mozart‟s talent in music. He began to teach his son. Mozart was a fast learner. Before he
was even five years old, Mozart could play full songs.
Before long, Mozart wrote hís own musical composition at the age of five. He knew how to read and write music
before he could read or write words! His first piece was very short.
Soon, Mozart‟s father and the family toured all the major musical centers in Western Europe. Mozart played
music in the cities. He played for nobles and royalty. Many times he played music with his sister. During the tour,
Mozart met some musicians and learned from them. One of the musicians was Johann Christian Bach, the
youngest son of Johann Sebastian Bach.
When he was eight years old, Mozart started writing music for the full orchestra. Before long, he finished writing

his first symphony.
Mozart died on December 5, 1791. He was only 35 years old, but he composed more than 600 musical pieces.
More than 200 years later, Mozart is still known as one of the greatest composers ever.

36. When did Mozart start to write and play music?
A. before he was five years old
B. before he was eight years old
C. when he was 10 years old
D. when he was 35 years old
37. The passage descibes the early years of Mozart‟s life. Which of the following events happened first?
A. Mozart wrote his first own musical compositionB. Mozart started writing music for the full orchestra
C. Mozart toured all the major musical centers in Western EuropeD. Mozart listened to his father teach his sister
how to play music
38. Mozart was a very gifted child. What evidence from the passage supports this conclusion?
A. Before he was even five years old, Mozart could play full songs
B. While touring different cities throughout Europe Mozart played for nobles and royalty.
C. Mozart was only 35 years old when he died
D. Mozart is still known as one of the greatest composers ever
39. Who taught Mozart how to play music?
A. Johann Christian Bach
B. Johann Sebastian Bach
C. his father
D. his sister
40.The word “composed” in the passage is the closest in meaning to_________.
A. played
B. taught
C. purchased
D. wrote
41. Where would the passage most likely be found?
A. in a novel about MozartB. in a book of poetry about classical musicians

C. in a book of biographies of classical musiciansD. in a newspaper article from 1791
42. What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Mozart composed more than 600 musical pieces during his life.
B. Mozart was a very talented child and grew up to become one of the greatest composers
C. Mozart‟s father and the family toured all the major musical centers in Western Europe
D. Mozart‟s father taught both Mozart and his sister how to play music.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Some companies seem to have a knack for revolutionizing any market that they enter. They produceinnovative
new products that sell in huge numbers, change people‟s expectations, and become world famous. In the movie
world, for example, you may know Pixar and Dreamworks. Online, you are probably familiar with Google and
Facebook. In the computer world, there is one name that instantly comes to mind. That company is Apple.
The beginning of Apple is a legendary story. In 1976, twenty-one year old Steve Jobs started the company from
his family home in California. He worked with computer scientist Steve Wozniak, and businessman Ronald
Wayne, to develop, build, and market a personal computer, their first product. These first computers were not
very slick or professional, but they were definitely innovative. The Apple I was the first low-cost computer system
to have built-in video capabilities, This means it was able to display its output on a TV screen.
Following the success of Apple I, Apple launched a second computer in 1977. This model came with its own
monitor and keyboard and was called the Apple II. This new model‟s main selling point was that it could display
information in color, another first for low-cost computer system. The popularity of the Apple II increased when it
was chosen as the platform for the first spreadsheet program, called VisiCalc. This made the Apply II popular
with business users as well.


Apple‟s next innovative success came in January 1984 when it released the Apple Macintosh. It was the first
commercially successful computer to feature a mouse and a graphical user interface (GUI). Before the
Macintosh, computer users operated their computer by typing instructions on a keyboard. Now they could
operate their computer by pointing and clicking on the GUI with a mouse. The Macintosh inspired many similar
operating system, including Microsoft Windows.
Visionary founder, Steve Jobs, left Apple in 1985 and the company‟s reputation for innovation seemed to leave

with him. However, when Jobs returned to his old job in 1996, he quickly revitalized the company. Most people
are familiar with Apple‟s success since Job‟s return. Starting in 1998 and continuing to the present day, Apple
has released several new and very popular products, including the iMac (1998), the iPod (2001), the iPhone
(2007), and finally the iPad (2010). All these products combined stylish good looks with a powerful, simple to
use, operating system- a combination that is very popular with consumers. These days, Apple‟s reputation for
innovation is second to none.
43. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that____________________
A. some people have heard of Pixar and DreamWorksB. Pixar and DreamWorks are two movie-making
companies
C. Pixar and DreamWorks are similar companies to AppleD. many people have heard of Pixar and DreamWorks
44. Why does the writer mention Pixar and DreamWorks, Google, and Facebook in paragraph 1?
A. They are very popular with kids and teenagers.B. They are examples of innovation and success.
C. They are related to computer systemsD. Apple developed the four companies.
45. According to the passage, which of the following words best describes Apple‟s first computer ?
A. slick
B. professional
C. innovative
D. legendary
46. What did Apple launch in 1977 ?
A. Apple I
B. a new TV screen

C. Apple II

D. Apple Macintosh

47. What was special about Apple‟s Macintosh ?
A. It was the first computer to have built-in videoB. It was the first computer with a monitor and keyboard
C.It could display its output on a TV screenD. It had a mouse and a graphical user interface.
48. Which sentence about Apple is true ?

A. Steve Wozniak is now in charge of the companyB. It created the first spreadsheet program called VisiCalc
C. It released the iPad before the iMacD. Apple was first started in Steve Job‟s home.
49. Which sentence about Apple is NOT true ?
A. The Apple Macintosh „s GUI inspired Microsoft WindowsB. Steve Jobs left the company but later returned
C. It has reputation for innovationD. It created Google and Facebook
50. What can be the best title for the passage ?
A. The Sweetest Apple
B. Apple- The Most Innovative
C. Computers in Shape of Apple
D. Apple to Change the World
________THE END_________


ĐỀ SỐ 4

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1. A. shifts
B. thinks
C. soups
D. joins
2. A. proved
B. surveyed
C. discussed
D. rained
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
3. A. confine
B. maintain
C. oblige

D. certain
4. A. diversity
B. traditional
C. attractiveness
D. generation
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
the following questions.
5. (A) While I (B) drove home, I (C) turned on the radio and (D) heard the news about the accident.
6. No one (A) came to see (B) us since we (C) bought these (D) bloodhounds.
7. At 9:00 p.m. last Friday, my boss (A) called me and (B) told me I (C) have to go into the office (D) the next day.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
8. My mother takes the responsibility for running the household.
A. moving quickly
C. making the house run
C. going
D. managing
9. If you are walking across the school yard and see your teacher approaching you, a small friendly wave is
appropriate.
A. greeting
B. waving at
C. coming near
D. following
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following.
10. For a big party like this, you should wear formal clothes like a suit and tie, not jeans and pullover.
A. casual smart
B. casual
C. long
D. warm

11. Don‟t be so nervous! Try to answer the questions clearly.
A. worried
B. quiet
C. calm
D. stressful
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the
following exchanges.
12 – “Can you give my regards to your family?”_” ……………………………..”
A. My parents will be happy
B. By all means
C. Thank you, I will
D. Not at all
13. Hung: ………………………………………………………..
Hoa : Thanks. I‟m glad you like it. My sister gave it to me yesterday.
A. What a fashionable dress you are wearing!
B. Oh, I like your fashionable dress.
C. I think you have a fashionable dress.
D. Your fashionable dress must be expensive.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
14. I am a _______ student this year.
A. twelve-grade
B. twelve‟s-grade
C. twelfth-grade
D. twelfths-grade
15. My younger brother is rather _______, but he is always obedient and hard-working.
A. mischievous
B. caring
C. helpful
D. generous

16. The change of the plan is strange, but I don‟t think it‟s _______.
A. significance
B. significant
C. significantly
D. signifies
17. It‟s not easy to change people‟s _______ toward a certain problem.
A. attitude
B. idea
C. opinion
D. thinking
18. Non-verbal _______ such as waving, nodding or shaking of the head also have cultural meanings.
A. signs
B. hints
C. marks
D. signals
19. Then, he _______ something that his boss _______ some time before.
A. remembered/ had said
B. had remembered/said
C. remembered/ was saying
D. was remembering/ said
20. In my family, all of us must share household _______.
A. appliances
B. duties
C. chorus
D. chores
21. When the teacher wants to get your attention, he/she can _______ at you.
A. show
B. wave
C. point
D. nod

22. We always believe that love always _______ marriage because if we have love, we will have a happy
marriage.
A. goes after
B. goes by
C. follows
D. precedes
23. Lan: When does the luncheon take place?
Hoa: It ………………… in the dining room right now.
A. serves
B. served
C. is serving
D. is being served
24. In ………….. or elementary grades, students may spend all the day with one teacher.
A. main
B. chief
C. primary D. secondary


25. ………………… school helps children develop their intellectual and physical skills and learn to get along with
others.
A. Nurse
B. Nurses
C. Nursing
D. Nursery
26. If you …………..to my advice in the first place, you wouldn‟t be in this mess right now.
A. listen
B. listened
C. will listen
D. had listened
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of

the following questions.
27. I have never played golf before.
A. This is the first time I have ever played golf.
B. I used to played golf but I gave it up
already.
C. It‟s the last time I played golf.
D. It‟s the first time I had played golf.
28. “ What made you change your mind?” Joe asked.
A. Joe asked what made me change my mind
B. Joe wanted to know what had changed my
mind.
C. Joe asked what had made me change my mind.
D. Joe asked what changed my mind.
29. We have planned to leave for Hanoi tomorrow.
A. We will leave for Hanoi tomorrow. B. We are leaving for Hanoi tomorrow.
C. We will be going for Hanoi tomorrow.
D. We will have left for Hanoi tomorrow.
30. The last time he went swimming was three years ago.
A. I swam a lot when we were three years ago.
B. I hadn‟t been swimming before three years
ago.
C. I went swimming for three years. D. I haven‟t been swimming for three years.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Studying abroad and studying in your own country both have definite (31)_____ for a student. Living in
another country can be an exciting experience (32)_____ everything seems new and different. The challenge of
living in a new environment can give you courage and self confidence, (33)______ . if you want to learn
(34)_____ language, living abroad is a great way to do that because you can read magazines or newspapers,
watch television programs, or make friends with people who are (35)______ …
31. A. disadvantages

B. drawbacks
C. benefits
D. profits
32. A. because
B. that
C. but
D. so
33. A. either
B. however
C. even
D. too
34. A. other
B. others
C. another
D. one another
35. A. mother tongue
B. native speakers
C. foreigners
D. English-speaking
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Our eyes and ears might be called transformers because they sense the light and sound around us and
turn them into electrical impulses that the brain can interpret. These electrical impulses that have been
transformed by the eye and ears reach the brain and are turned into messages that we can interpret. For the eye,
the process begins as the eye admits light waves, bends them at the cornea and lens, and then focuses them on
the retina. At the back of each eye, nerve fibers bundle together to form optic nerves, which join and then split
into two optic tracts. Some of the fibers cross, so that part of the input from the right visual field goes into the left
side of the brain, and vice versa. The process in the ear is carried out through sensory cells that are carried in
fluid-filled canals and that are extremely sensitive to vibration. Sound that is transformed into electricity travels
along nerve fibers in the auditory nerve. These fibers form a synapse with neurons that carry the messages to the

auditory cortex on each side of the brain.
36. According to the author, we might call our eyes and ears “transformers” because:
A. They sense light and sound.
B. They create electrical impulses
C. The brain can interpret the input.
D. The messages travel in the brain.
37. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “admits”?
A. selects
B. interprets
C. lets in
D. focuses on
38. The word “bundle” could be best replaced by which of the following:
A. group
B. grow
C. branch
D. settle
39. The word “split” could be best replaced by which of the following:
A. tear
B. fracture
C. separate
D. crack
40. According to the passage, when input from the right visual field goes into the left side of the brain, what
happens?
A. The nerve fibers bundle together.
B. The optic nerves split.
C. The retina receives light waves.
D. Input from the left field goes to the right side.
41. The phrase “carried out” could be best replaced by which of the following:
A. brought over
B. taken away

C. accomplished
D. maintained
42. According to the passage, optic nerves eventually:
A. split
B. bend
C. admit light wave
D. become messages
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 43 to 50.


The most common causes of tsunamis are underwater earthquakes. To understand underwater earthquakes, you
must first understand plate tectonics. The theory of plate tectonics suggests that the lithosphere, or top layer of
the Earth, is made up of a series of huge plates. These plates make up the continents and seafloor. They rest on
an underlying viscous layer called the asthenosphere.
Think of pie cut into eight slices. The pie crust would be the lithosphere and the hot, sticky pie filling underneath
would be the asthenosphere. On the earth, these plates are constantly in motion, moving along each other at a
speed of 1 to 2 inches (2.5-5 cm) per year. The movement occurs most dramatically along fault lines (where the
pie is cut). These motions are capable of producing earthquakes and volcanism, which, when they occur at the
bottom of the ocean, are two possible sources of tsunamis.
When two plates come into contact at a region known as a plate boundary, a heavier plate can slip under a lighter
one. This is called subduction. Underwater subduction often leaves enormous “handprints” in the form of deep
ocean trenches along the seafloor. In some cases of subduction, part of the seafloor connected to the lighter
plate may “snap up” suddenly due to pressure from the sinking plate. This results in an earthquake. The focus of
the earthquake is the point within the Earth where the rupture first occurs, rock break and the first seismic waves
are generated. The epicenter is the point on the seafloor directly above the focus.
When this piece of the plate snaps up and sends tons of rock shooting upward with tremendous force, the energy
of that force is transferred to the water. The energy pushes the water upward above normal sea level. This is birth
of a tsunami. The earthquake that generated the December 26, 2004 tsunami in the Indian Ocean was a 9.0 on
the Richter scale- one of the biggest in recorded history.

43. Which of the following best states the topic of this text?
A. The birth of a tsunami
B. The magnitude of tsunamis
C. Tsunamis in the Indian Ocean
D. Series of huge plate on earth
44. According to the first paragraph, continents and seafloor are part of _____________.
A. lithosphere
B. asthenosphere
C. plate tectonics
D. huge plates
45. The word “which” in the passage refers to _____________.
A. these motions
B. earthquakes and volcanism
C. fault lines
D. tsunamis
46. It can be inferred from the passage that the earthquake will never occur when _____________
A. the subduction is evidenced. B. seismic waves are generated.
C. no fault line of plate tectonics happens.
D. heavier plates and lighter ones break up.
47. The place within the Earth where the first rupture occurs is called _____________.
A. the epicenter
B. the vocal
C. the focus
D. the center
48. The word “tremendous” in the passage is CLOSEST in meaning to _____________.
A. remarkable
B. huge
C. challenging
D. explosive
49. Which of the following natural disasters happening in Indonesia (in the Indian Ocean) is related to the fault

movement of plate tectonics?
A. Volcanic eruptions
B. Soil erosion
C. Forest fires
D. Floods
50. The following is mentioned in the text about tsunamis, EXCEPT that they are _____________
A. predictable following any incidence of earthquakes.
B. close to the rise of sea levels from the sinking plate.
C. connected to deep ocean trenches along sea floors.
D. related to strong movements of plate tectonics.
___________________________-- THE END--________________________________


ĐỀ SỐ 5
I. Choose the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
1: A. eventually
B. capacity
C. altogether
D. particular
2: A. appearance
B. ambitious
C. performance D. telephone
II. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest.
3.A. boots
B. books
C.stops
D.learns
4. A. student
B. supportive
C. curriculum

D. tutor
III. Choose the underlined word/ phrase that needs correcting
5. Foreign students who are doing (A) a decision about which (B) school to attend (C) may not know exactly
where the choices (D) are located.
6. Could (A) you mind telling me ( B ) the way to ( C) the nearest (D) post office?
7. The children were playing(A) last night outdoors (B) when it began (C) to rain very hard (D).
IV. Choose the word which best fits each gap of the sentence
8. The success of the party was mainly due to the presence of several_______ .
A. celebrations B. celebrated
C. celebrities
D. celebrates
9. When a fire broke out in the Louvre, at least twenty _______ paintings were destroyed, including two by Picasso.
A. worthless
B. priceless
C. valueless
D. worthy
10. His brother refuses to even listen to anyone else's point of view. He is very_______.
A. open – minded
B. kind – hearted
C. narrow- minded
D. absent – minded
11. Communities in remote areas are extremely________ to famine if crops fail.
A. defenseless
B. helpless
C. disappointed D. vulnerable
12. I could hear voices but I couldn‟t ________what they were saying.
A. turn up
B. bring about
C. make out
D. try out

13. John is intelligent but he ............common sense.
A. fails
B. lacks
C. misses
D. wants
14. His sister's marriage has been arranged by her family. She is marrying a man .............
A. she hardly knows him
B. whom she hardly know
C. she hardly knows
D. that she hardly know
15. Instead of ............about the good news, Peter seemed to be indifferent.
A. exciting
B. being excited C. to excite
D. to be excited
16. There are several means of mass communication. The newspaper is one. Television is .............
A. another
B. other
C. the another
D. the other
17. Tony never comes to class on time and ...........
A. neither does Pedro
B. so does Pedro
C. so doesn‟t Pedro
D. neither doesn‟t Pedro
18. David painted the room black. It looks dark and dreary. He ............chosen a different color.
A. had to
B. should have
C. must have
D. could have been
19. In most_______ developed countries, up to 50% of_______ population enters higher education at some time

in their lives.
A. the/ 
B. / 
C. the/ a
D.  /the
V. Choose the word / phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined one in this sentence.
20. Catherine rejected many suitable men before settling on Tom.
A. said no to
B. accepted
C. met
D. saw
21. Those companies were closed due to some seriously financial problems.
A. taken off
B. put away
C. wiped out
D. gone over
V. Choose the word / phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined one in this sentence.
22. Adding a garage will enhance the value of the house.
A. stabilize
B. alter
C. diminish
D. increase
23. It‟s extremely rude not to say “Thank you” when you are given something.
A. polite
B. casual
C. careless
D. embarrassing
VI. Choose the best answer among A, B, C, or D which has the same meaning with the original sentence.
24. Be he rich or poor, she will many him.
A. She doesn‟t want to marry him because he is poor. C. She wants to marry him if he is rich.

B. She will marry him whether he is rich or poor.
D. She will marry him however poor he may be.
25. When I met my long-lost brother, I was at a loss for words.
A. When the speaker met his brother, he was puzzled about what to say.
B. When the speaker met his brother, he had much to say.
C. When the speaker met his brother, he refused to say anything.
D. When the speaker met his brother, he had nothing pleasant to say.
26. It‟s a pity that you didn‟t tell us about this.
A. I wish you had told us about this
C. I wish you have told us about this.
B. I wish you told us about this
D. I wish you would tell us about this.
27. My brother and I went to that school.
A. I went to that school and my brother, too.
C. I went to that school and so my brother did.
B. I went to that school and so did my brother. D. I went to that school and so my brother did, too.
28. Wealthy as they were, they were far from happy.
A. They were as wealthy as they were happy.
B. They were not happy as they were wealthy.
C. Even if they were wealthy, they were not unhappy. D. Although they were wealthy, they were not happy.
VII. Choose the correct response to this situation.


29. Tom. "I'm sorry. I won't be able to come".
- Mary. “_______”.
A. Great
B. Oh, that's annoying
C. Well, never mind
D. Sounds like fun
30. “ You have a good voice! You sang so beautifully!”

- “..................................................”
A. Your compliment isn‟t corrects
B. Your compliment is encouraging.
C. Don‟t joke me
D. Better than you are thinking
VIII. Read the passages and choose the word/ phrase that best fits each of the blanks.
Many people travel to New Zealand to learn about the Maori culture. The Maori were the
(31)…………inhabitants of New Zealand, arriving on the island around 1,000 to 1,500 years ago. Probably the
best known aspects of Maori culture is the haka, the Maori war dance. The main reason (32)…………..this is that
the New Zealand rugby team still dances this haka before all of their games. This, in addition (33)………..the fact
that their rugby team is very good, has (34)………. New Zealand‟s rugby team one of the most famous teams in
rugby. The intention of the haka is to intimidate the enemy. The dance seeks to intimidate people through
stomping, loud shouts, and frightening facial (35)………… Perhaps the most intimidating part of the haka is that it
is done in perfect unison by all members.
31. A. origin
B. original
C. originate
D. originally
32. A. for
B. of
C. by
D. about
33. A. with
B. to
C. of
D. at
34. A. got
B. taken
C. made
D. done

35. A. express
B. expressive
C. expressively
D. expressions
IX. Read the following paragraph and choose the correct answer to each of the questions from 36- 42.
The official residence of the president of the United States is the White House, located at 1600 Pennsylvania
Avenue, in Washington, D.C. The Commissioners of the District of Columbia held a meeting in 1792 and decided
to hold a contest for the best design for the Presidential House. James Hoban, an architect born in 1reland, was
the winner. His bid for the construction of the mansion asked for $200,000, but the final cost of the building came
to twice that amount. The work on the project began during the same year, and the grounds of approximately one
and a half miles west of the Capitol Hill were chosen by Major Pierre-Charles L. Enfant, who was in charge of city
planning. However, the construction continued for several more years, and George Washington had stepped
down as president before the building was habitable. When John Adams, the second president of the United
States and his wife Abigail moved in 1800, only six rooms had been completed.
The grey sandstone walls of the house were painted white during construction, and the color of the paint
gave the building its name. The building was burned on August 24, 1814, and James Hoban reconstructed the
house for President James Monroe and his family, who moved there in 1817. The north portico was added to the
building in 1829, water pipes were installed in 1833, gas lighting in 1848, and electricity in 1891. In 1948,
inspectors announced that the building was so dilapidated that it was beyond repair and suggested that it was
cheaper to construct a new one than repair the existing dwelling. However, the national sentiment was to keep
the original form intact, and Congress appropriated $5.4 million dollars for repairs. In 1961, Jacqueline Kennedy
launched a program to redecorate the rooms and appointed a Fine Arts Committee to make choices of furnishing
and colors.
The house of the president accords its residents a great deal of space. The living quarters contain 107
rooms, 40 corridors, and 19 baths. The White House contains a doctor's suite, a dentist's office, a large solarium,
a broadcasting room, and a two-floor basement for storage and service rooms. The office in which the president
works is not located in the White House, but in a separate building called the West Wing. The White House
stands on 16 acres of park-land and overlooks a broad lawn, flower gardens, and wood groves.
36. The word “contest” is closest in meaning to
A. hearing

B. tournament
C. competition
D. computation
37.What does the passage imply about the cost of the White House construction?
A. It was proposed at the meeting of the commissioners.
B. It did not adhere to the original estimate.
C. It was not included in the architectural design.
D. It was considered excessive for the presidential home.
38.The word "grounds" is closest in meaning to
A. high ground
B. several lots
C. hills
D. site
39.It can be inferred from the passage that
A. George Washington often used the White House steps
B. George Washington contributed to the White House design
C. George Washington never lived in the White House
D. The White House was excluded from the city planning
40. The author of the passage implies that the construction of the main White House building continued
A. up to 1800
B. after 1800
C. until 1814
D. until 1792
41.The word "dilapidated" is closest in meaning to
A. ornate
B. run-down
C. old-fashioned
D. obscure
42. What can be inferred about the White House from the information in the second paragraph?
A. Few changes occurred in the structure in the first half of the 20th century.

B. The building was modernized extensively during one decade.
C. Running water was installed in the second half of the 19th century.
D. Each president added new features to the building's conveniences.
X. Read the following paragraph and choose the correct answer to each of the questions from 43- 50.


Today‟s cars are smaller, safer, cleaner, and more economical than their predecessors, but the car of the future
will be far more pollution-free than those on the road today. Several new types of automobile engines have
already been developed than run on alternative sources of power, such as electricity, compressed natural gas,
methanol, steam, hydrogen, and propane. Electricity, however, is the only zero-emission option presently
available.
Although electric vehicles will not be truly practical until a powerful, compact battery or other dependable source
of current is available, transport experts foresee a new assortment of electric vehicles entering everyday life:
shorter-range commuter electric cars, three-wheeled neighbourhood cars, electronic delivery vans, bikes and
trolleys.
As automakers work to develop practical electrical vehicles, urban planners and utility engineers are focusing on
infrastructure systems to support and make the best use of the new cars. Public charging facilities will need to be
as common as today‟s gas stations. Public parking spots on the street or in commercial lots will need to be
equipped with devices that allow drivers to charge their batteries while they stop, dine, or attend a concert. To
encourage the use of electric vehicles, the most convenient parking in transportation centres might be reserved
for electric cars.
Planners foresee electric shuttle buses, trains, buses and neighbourhood vehicles all meeting at transit centres
that would have facilities for charging and renting. Commuters will be able to rent a variety of electric cars to suit
their needs: light trucks, one-person three-wheelers, small cars, or electric/gasoline hybrid cars for longer trips,
which will no doubt take place on automated freeways capable of handling five times the number of vehicles that
can be carried by freeway today.
43. The author‟s purpose in the passage is to...........
A. criticize conventional vehicles
B. support the invention of electric cars
C. narrate a story about alternative energy vehicles

D. describe the possibilities for transportation in the
future
44. The passage would most likely be followed by details about...........
A. the neighbourhood of the fixture
C. electric shuttle buses
B. automated freeways
D. pollution restrictions in the future
45. The word „compact‟ in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to...........
A. squared
B. long-range
C. inexpensive
D. concentrated
46. In the second paragraph, the author implies that..........
A. everyday life will stay much the same in the future.
B. a single electric vehicle will eventually replace several modes of transportation
C. a dependable source of electric energy will eventually be developed.
D. electric vehicles are not practical for the future
47. According to the passage, public parking lots of the future will be ...........
A. much larger than they are today
C.common as today‟s gas stations
B. more convenient than they are today
D. equipped with charging devices
48. The word „charging‟ in this passage refers to...........
A. aggression
B. lightning
C. electricity
D. credit cards
49. The word „commuters‟ in paragraph 4 refers to............
A. visitors
B. cab drivers

C. shoppers
D. daily travelers
50. The word „hybrid' in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to............
A. hazardous
B. futuristic
C. automated
D. combination


ĐỀ SỐ 6
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1. A. broad
B. load
C. road
D. boat
2. A. measure
B. pleasure
C. ensure
D. leisure
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in
each of the following questions.
3. A. accuracy
B. Canada
C. banana
D. countryside
4. A. contaminate
B. continent
C. conquer
D. comfortable

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
5.Never having flied(A) before, Mark wasvery (B) excited as (C) he drove to the (D)airport.
6. If classes had finished (A) sooner(B), I would go(C) to Canada last month(D).
7. The (A) law of that countryforbids anyone (B)under (C)eighteen driving(D)a car.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
8.Although he was completely ________, he produced the most beautiful table.
A. unable
B. incapable
C. uneducated
D. untrained
9. It is doubtful whether newspapers……………. governments to any great degree.
A. draw
B. influence
C. catch
D. attract
10. Many companies……………. to take part in illegal logging.
A. denied
B. rejected
C. protested
D. refused
11. The music……………..the composer‟s joy of life
A. arouses
B. appeals
C. expresses
D. attracts
12. By the 1300s, the Spanish had learnt that gunpowder could____ propel an object with incredible force.
A. using it to
B. used to
C. be used to

D. been used to
13. Rodney____ for the company for very long before he was promoted.
A. hadn’t been working B. hasn‟t been working C. didn‟t used to work D. didn‟t work.
14. “Do you think Harry will want something to eat after he gets here?”
“I hope not. It‟ll probably be after midnight, and we____.”
A. be sleeping
B. are sleeping C. will be sleeping
D. have been sleeping
15. Mr. Lee was upset by____ him the truth.
A. us not tell
B. we didn‟t tell C. not to tell
D. our not having told.
16. ____ for the fact that he was working abroad, he would have helped win the project.
A. Had it been
B. Hadn‟t it been
C. If it hadn’t been
D. If it had been
17. I didn‟t see anyone but I felt as though I____.
A. am watched
B. have been watched C. was being watched D. be watched
18. Let‟s leave early, so we‟ll be ahead of the rush of commuters. We can‟t risk____ in heavy traffic during rush
hour.
A. to hold up
B. holding up
C. having held up
D. being held up
19. He _____ a big fortune when he was young, so he didn‟t have to work hard.
A. came into
B. came up
C. came across D. came round

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
20. -A: “Excuse me, is anybody sitting here?” - B: “_______”
A.Sorry,the seat is taken
B. Yes, I am so glad C. No, thanks.
D. Yes, yes. You can sit here.
21. Jane: “ _______ " – David: "Thanks. I‟ll write to you when I arrive there."
A. Good luck
B. Have a go
C. Have a good trip
D. Good bye
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the
following questions.
22.I will communicate with you as soon as I have any news.
A. be related
B. be interested in
C. get in touch
D. have connection
23. I couldn‟t see what she was doing. It was so dark down there.
A. make out
B. make up
C. make for
D. make from
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of
the following questions.
24:She could not hide her dismay at the result.
A. disappointment
B. depression
C. happiness
D. pessimism
25:Certain courses are compulsory; others are optional.

A. voluntary
B. free
C. pressure
D. mandatory
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
26. They arrived too late to get good seats.
A. When they arrived, the good seats were already taken.
B. They got good seats some time after they arrive.
C. Although they were late, they found some good seats.
D. They had to stand for the whole show.
27. He started to play the guitar five years ago.
A. He has been playing the guitar since five years.
B. he has been playing the guitar for five years.
C. He has been starting to play the guitar for five years.


D. He has started playing the guitar for 5 years.
28. The switch was too high for him to reach.
A. He wasn‟t tall enough for reaching the switch.
B. He wasn’t tall enough to reach the switch.
C. He wasn‟t enough tall to reach the switch.
D. He wasn‟t so tall that he can reach the switch.
29. It‟s possible to cross the road because of the traffic.
A. The traffic makes people be impossible to cross the road.
B. The traffic makes everyone be impossible to cross the road.
C. The traffic makes it be impossible to cross the road.
D. The traffic makes it impossible to cross the road.
30. I would prefer you not to smoke in here.
A. I‟d rather you shouldn‟t some in here.
B. I’d rather you didn’t smoke in here.

C. I‟d rather you not to smoke in here.
D. I‟d rather you don‟t smoke in here.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from
31 to 35.
Health is something we tend to (31) …………..when we have it. When our body is doing well, we are hardly
(32)…………..of it. But illness can come, even when we are young. In fact, childhood has been a very susceptible
time. Many diseases attack children in particular, and people know very little (33) …………… to cure them once
they struck. The result was that many children died. About a century ago, however, scientists found out about
germs, and then everything changed. The (34) …………..of many diseases was found, and cures were
developed. As this medical discovery spread, the world became much safer for children. Undoubtedly, medical
science will continue to (35) ……………. Some people will be able to avoid medical problems that are
unavoidable today.
31. A. forget
B. ignore
C. give up
D. throw away
32. A. awake
B. keen
C. aware
D. concerned
33. A. how
B. what
C. which
D. when
34. A. reason
B. origin
C. source
D. cause
35. A. speed up
B. advance

C. accelerate
D. run
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Telecommuting is some form of computer communication between employees‟ homes and offices. For
employees whose job involve sitting at a terminal or word processor entering data or typing reports, the location
of the computer is of no consequence. If the machine can communicate over telephone lines, when the work is
completed, employees can dial the office computer and transmit the material to their employers. A recent survey
in USA Today estimates that there are approximately 8,7 million telecommuters. But although the numbers are
rising annually, the trend does not appear to be as significant as predicted when Business Week published “The
Portable Executive” as its cover story a few years ago. Why hasn‟t telecommuting become more popular?
Clearly, change simply takes time. But in addition, there has been active resistance on the part of many
managers. These executives claim that supervising the telecommuters in a large work force scattered across the
country would be too difficult, or, at least, systems for managing them are not yet developed, thereby
complicating the manager‟s responsibilities.
It is also true that employees who are given the option of telecommuting are reluctant to accept the
opportunity. Most people feel that they need regular interaction with a group, and many are concerned that they
will not have the same consideration for advancement if they are not more visible in the office setting. Some
people feel that even when a space in their homes is set aside as a work area, they never really get away from
the office.
36. With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned?
A. The advantages of telecommuting.
B. A definition of telecommuting.
C. An overview of telecommuting.
D. The failure of telecommuting.
37. The phrase “of no consequence” means____.
A. of no use
B. of no good
C. unimportant
D. irrelevant
38. The author mentions all of the following as concerns of telecommuting, EXCEPT____.

A. the opportunities for advancement.
B. the different system of supervision.
C. the lack of interaction with a group.
D. The work place is in the home.
39. The word “executives“ in line 10 refers to____.
A. telecommuters
B. managers
C. employees
D. most people
40. The reason why telecommuting has not become popular is that the employees____.
A. need regular interaction with their families.
B.are worried about the promotion if they are not seen at the office.
C. feel that a work area in their home is away from the office.
D. are ignorant of telecommuting.
41. It can be inferred from the passage that the author is____.
A. a telecommuter
B. the manager
C. a statistician
D. a reporter
42. When Business Week published “ The Portable Executive “, it implied that
A. systems for managing telecommuters were not effective.
B. there was resistance on the part of many managers about telecommuting.
C. the trend for telecommuting was optimistic. D. most telecommuters were satisfied with their work.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.


Choosing a career may be one of the hardest jobs you ever have, and it must be done with care. View a career
as an opportunity to do something you love, not simply as a way to earn a living. Investing the time and effort to
thoroughly explore your options can mean the difference between finding a stimulating and rewarding career and
move from job to unsatisfying job in an attempt to find the right one. Work influences virtually every aspect of your

life, from your choice of friends to where you live. Here are just a few of the factors to consider.
Deciding what matters most to you is essential to making the right decision. You may want to begin by
assessing your likes, dislikes, strengths, and weaknesses. Think about the classes, hobbies, and surroundings
that you find most appealing. Ask yourself questions, such as “Would you like to travel? Do you want to work with
children? Are you more suited to solitary or cooperative work?” There are no right or wrong answers; only you
know what is important to you. Determine which job features you require, which ones you would prefer, and which
ones you cannot accept. Then rank themin order of importance to you.
The setting of the job is one factor to take into account. You may not want to sit at a desk all day. If not,
there are diversity occupation – building inspector, supervisor, real estate agent – that involve a great deal of time
away from the office. Geographical location may be a concern, and employment in some fields in concentrated in
certain regions. Advertising job can generally be found only in large cities. On the other hand, many industries
such as hospitality, law education, and retail sales are found in all regions of the country.
If a high salary is important to you, do not judge a career by its starting wages. Many jobs, such as
insurance sales, offers relatively low starting salaries; however, pay substantially increases along with your
experience, additional training, promotions and commission.
Don‟t rule out any occupation without learning more about it. Some industries evoke positive or negative
associations. The traveling life of a flight attendant appears glamorous, while that of a plumber does not.
Remember that many jobs are not what they appear to be at first, and may have merits or demerits that are less
obvious. Flight attendants must work long, grueling hours without sleeps, whereas plumbers can be as highly
paid as some doctors. Another point to consider is that as you mature, you will likely develop new interests and
skills that may point the way to new opportunities. The choice you make today need not be your final one.
43. The author states that “There are no right or wrong answers” in order to ____.
A. emphasize that each person‟s answers will be different.
B. show that answering the questions is a long and difficult process.
C. indicate that the answers are not really important.
D.indicate that each person’s answers may change over time.
44. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to____.
A. questions
B. answers
C. features

D.jobs
45. The word “assessing” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by____.
A. discovering
B.considering
C. measuring
D. disposing
46. According to paragraph 3, which of the following fields is NOT suitable for a person who does not want to live
in a big city?
A. plumbing
B. law
C. retail sales
D. advertising
47. It can be inferred from the paragraph 3 that____.
A. jobs in insurance sales are generally not well-paid.
B.insurance sales people can earn high salary later in their career.
C. people should constantly work toward the next promotion.
D. a starting salary should be an important consideration in choosing a career.
48. In paragraph 5, the author suggests that____.
A.you may want to change careers at some time in the future.
B. as you get older, your career will probably less fulfilling.
C. you will be at your job for a lifetime, so choose carefully.
D. you will probably jobless at some time in the future.
49. Why does the author mention “long, grueling hours without sleeps” in paragraph 4?
A. To emphasize the difficulty of working as a plumber.
B.To contrast the reality of a flight attendant’s job with most people’s perception.
C. To show that people must work hard for the career they have chosen.
D. To discourage readers from choosing a career as a flight attendant.
50. According to the passage, which of the following is true?
A. To make a lot of money, you should not take a job with a low starting salary.
B. To make lots of money, you should rule out all factory jobs.

C. If you want an easy and glamorous lifestyle, you should consider becoming flight attendant
D.Your initial view of certain careers may not be accurate


ÐỀ SỐ 7
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1:

A. allowed

B. passed

C. argued

D. raised

Question 2:

A. machine

B. watching

C. kitchen

D. matches

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3:

Question 4:

A. confidence
A. verbal

B. suitable
B. polite

C. responsible
C. common

D.
secondary
D. social

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
Question 5: A large number of Indian men agrees that it is unwise to confide in their wives.
A
B
C
D
Question 6: Chemistry has become one of the most important factor in the textile industry.
A
B
C
D
Question 7: Unless you don‟t study hard, you won‟t pass the GCSE examination.
A
B

C
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 8: In the last hundred years, traveling _______ much easier and more comfortable.
A. becomes
B. has become
C. became
D. will become
Question 9: Species become extinct or endangered for _______ number of reasons, but _____ primary
cause is the destruction of habitat by human activities.
A. a / the
B. Ø / a
C. the / a
D. Ø / Ø
Question 10: This factory produced______ motorbikes in 2008 as in the year 2006.
A. as twice as many
B. twice as many as
C. twice as many
D. as twice many
Question 11: Jason asked me _______ me the book the day before.
A. if who gave
B. if who has given
C. that who had given
D. who had given
Question 12: The prisoner is thought _____ by climbing over the wall.
A. to escape
B. to escape
C. had escaped
D. to have escaped

Question 13: Many modern medicines are derived _______ plants and animals.
A. on
B. from
C. for
D. in
Question 14: The success of the 22nd SEA Games had a great contribution of many
_______ volunteers.
A. support
B. supporter
C. supportive
D. supportively
Question 15: Someone who is _______ is hopeful about the future or the success of something in particular.
A. powerful
B. optimistic
C. stagnant
D. pessimistic
Question 16: According to a recent survey, most people are on good ________ with their neighbors.
A. relations
B. acquaintance
C. relationships
D. terms
Question 17: Most of the computers in the laboratory are ________ now.
A. out of order
B. out of work
C. out of working
D. out of function
Question 18: Leila ________ the information she wanted in her reference books.
A. took up
B. looked after
C. took out

D. looked up
Question 19: I decided that I couldn‟t put ____ their thoughtless behavior any longer.
A. up with
B. up
C. off
D. through to

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the
following exchanges.
Question 20: - “What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary!”
- “________________.”
A. You are telling a lie
B. I don‟t like your sayings
C. Thank you for your compliment
D. Thank you very much. I am afraid
Question 21: “Oh, I‟m really sorry!” - “______________”
A. Thanks
B. It was a pleasure
C. That‟s all right
D. Yes, why?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: School uniform is compulsory in most of Vietnamese schools.


A. depended
B. required
C. divided
D. paid
Question 23: That matter is so confidential that it must not be discussed outside the office.

A. secret
B. important
C. interesting
D. alarming
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: If you are at a loose end this weekend, I will show you round the city.
A. free
B. confident
C. occupied
D. reluctant.
Question 25: I didn't think his comments were very appropriate at the time.
A. exact
B. right
C. correct
D. unsuitable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 26: When the unemployment rate is high, the crime rate is usually also high.
A. The higher the unemployment rate is, the higher the crime rate is.
B. The unemployment rate is as high as the crime rate.
C. The unemployment rate and the crime rate are both higher.
D. The high rate of unemployment depends on the high rate of crime.
Question 27: "It can't be Mike who leaked the document, it might be Tom." said our manager.
A. Our manager blamed Tom for having leaked the document instead of Mike.
B. Our manager showed his uncertainty about who leaked the document: Mike or Tom.
C. Our manager suspected Tom of having leaked the document, not Mike.
D. Our manager made it clear that Tom was the one who leaked the document, not Mike.
Question 28: Mr. Smith is very interested in our plan. I spoke to him on the phone last night.
A. Mr. Smith is very interested in our plan to whom I spoke on the phone last night.

B. Mr. Smith, who is very interested in our plan, I spoke to on the phone last night.
C. Mr. Smith, who I spoke on the phone last night, is very interested in our plan.
D. Mr. Smith, to whom I spoke on the phone last night, is very interested in our plan.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: The student next to me kept chewing gum. That bothered me a lot.
A. The student next to me kept chewing gum, which bothered me a lot.
B. The student next to me kept chewing gum, that bothered me a lot.
C. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothering me a lot.
D. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothered me a lot.
Question 30: You‟d better take the keys. It‟s possible I‟ll come home late.
A. You‟d better take the keys as I possibly come home late.
B. I‟ll probably come home late so that you‟d better take the keys.
C. If I come home late, you‟d better take the keys.
D. You‟d better take the keys in case I come home late
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
In Italy, people and personal relationships are more important than time and schedules, which are
flexible. People may be late for an appointment, although they are more (31) ____ in the north of the country than
in the south. To north Europeans their way of working may seem disorganized and (32) ____. In meetings they
don't feel they have to follow the agenda or speak only in turn. They interrupt (33) ____ a lot and often talk at the
same time. They are excellent communicators and are very expressive in their use of body language.
Appearance and good manners are important, so you should dress well and (34)____ polite, but you don't have
to be formal. Food is a very important part of life, and is very good, so remember to compliment them (35)____
their cuisine.
Question 31: A. on time

B. punctually

C. punctual

D. in time

Question 32: A. inefficient

B. efficiency

C. efficiently

D. inefficiently

Question 33: A. another one

B. each other

C. yourselves

D. themselves

Question 34: A. do

B. speak

C. be

D. talk

Question 35: A. on

B. at

C. for

D. with

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 36 to 42.


A massage is relaxing, and makes you feel great, but did you know that it's also good for you? That's
what doctors are now saying. Massage relieves pain and anxiety, eases depression and speeds up recovery from
medical problems.
Research has shown that people of all ages benefit from touch. Premature infants who are held develop
faster than those left alone, and healthy babies who get a lot of physical contact cry less and sleep better.
Researchers are not sure why this occurs but they have also found out that touch can slow heart rate, lower
blood pressure and increase levels of serotonin, the brain chemical that is linked to well-being. It also decreases
levels of the stress hormone cortisol, and this in turn increases your resistance to illness.
Massage also speeds up healing. Bone-marrow transplant patients who were given massages had better
neurological function than those who weren't. Furthermore, massage reduced pain by 37% in patients with
chronic muscle aches.
Giving someone a massage may be as good as getting one. A study conducted by the University of
Miami found that mothers suffering from depression felt better after massaging their infants. In that same study,
elderly volunteers who massaged infants reported feeling less anxious and depressed.
It even works when you do it yourself; 43% of headache sufferers reported getting relief after massaging
their temples and neck and smokers who were taught self-massage while trying to quit felt less anxiety and
smoked less.
Question 36: What has recently been said about getting a massage?
A. It relaxes you.
B. It makes you feel good.
C. It improves your physical condition.

D. It requires a special technique.
Question 37: Babies born before their time .....
A. cry less and sleep better if they are massaged.
B. grow faster if they are held.
C. develop faster than healthy babies if they get a lot of physical contact.
D. don't survive if they are not held.
Question 38: The author suggests that touch ....
A. increases levels of the stress hormone cortisol.
B. makes your heart beat faster.
C. increases the feeling of well-being.
D. helps you deal with your feelings.
Question 39: Patients who get massages ....
A. don't experience muscle pain.
B. avoid having surgery.
C. make a quicker recovery.
D. are not better off than those who do not.
Question 40: According to the article....
A. massage has no effect on smokers.
B. massage relieves headaches by 43%.
C. smokers who gave others massages felt less anxious and smoked less.
D. massaging yourself is as effective as being massaged.
Question 41: What did the study conducted in Miami show?
A. Elderly volunteers who got massages felt less anxious.
B. Mothers were depressed after massaging their babies.
C. Babies who got massages felt better.
D. Giving a massage is as beneficial as getting one.
Question 42: What is NOT true according to the article?
A. Mothers will suffer from depression if they don't massage their babies.
B. People can learn to massage themselves.
C. Massage is good for you regardless of whether you're giving or getting one.

D. It helps smokers quit smoking.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
If we took a look at how people in Europe communicated just one hundred years ago, we would be very
surprised to find out that English was hardly used outside the United Kingdom. The language most commonly
used between people of different nationalities, and particularly the aristocracy, was French. In fact, French was
the language of diplomacy, culture and education. However, that is not the case nowadays. English has replaced
French as the international language of communication. Today there are more people who speak English as a
second language than people who speak it as a first language.
There are many reasons why English has become the language of international communication. Britain's
colonization of many parts of the world had something to do with it, but it is mainly due to America's rise to the
position of major world power. This helped spread popular American culture throughout the world bringing the
language with it.
But is it good that English has spread to all parts of the world so quickly? Language specialists seem to be
divided over this issue. There are those who claim that it is important to have a language that the people in our
increasingly globalized world have in common. According to others, English is associated with a particular culture


and therefore promotes that culture at the expense of others. Linguists have suggested "Esperanto", an artificially
put-together language, as a solution to international communication problems but without success. So, English
will continue being the world language until some other language, maybe Chinese, which is the most widelyspoken native language in the world, takes over as the world's international language instead of English.
Question 43: According to the passage, a century ago....
A. educated people throughout Europe spoke English.
B. foreign travelers to England spoke only French.
C. French was much more popular than English.
D. only the French aristocracy could speak English.
Question 44: What is chiefly responsible for the growth in popularity of English?
A. Britain's becoming an international power.
B. The French losing many colonies.
C. America's becoming powerful.

D. The development of American culture.
Question 45: What is meant by "the language of diplomacy" (lines 4)?
A. The language used by ordinary people.
B. The language used by the English and the French.
C. The language used by the aristocracy.
D. The language used by governments.
Question 46: What is true according to the passage?
A. The experts don't like Esperanto.
B. Esperanto is difficult to learn.
C. Esperanto is not a natural language
D. Esperanto is becoming more and more popular.
Question 47: The experts' opinion on the spread of English is .....
A. split
B. positive
C. negative
D. undecided
Question 48: The author believes that.....
A. English is easier to learn than Chinese.
B. English will probably be replaced as an international language.
C. Chinese is going to be the next language of international communication.
D. Chinese is growing in popularity among non-native speakers.
Question 49: These days......
A. French is the language of diplomacy.
B. more non-natives speak English than natives.
C. more people speak French than English.
D. French is a dying language.
Question 50: What would be a good title for this passage?
A. English; Past, Present and Future
B. English as an international Language
C. English language means English culture

D. English: a difficult language to learn
________THE END_________