ĐỀ THI vào lớp 10 CHUYÊN TIẾNG ANH trường quốc học huế từ nam 2010- 2018

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
THỪA THIÊN HUẾ
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
(Đề thi có 07 trang)

Điểm

KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN QUỐC HỌC
NĂM HỌC 2017-2018
Khóa ngày 02 tháng 6 năm 2017
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (CHUYÊN)
Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Họ tên và chữ ký giám khảo 1:

Mã phách

(Bằng số và bằng chữ)

Họ tên và chữ ký giám khảo 2:

*Ghi chú: - Học sinh làm bài trên đề thi và không ghi gì vào phần trên;
- Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu. Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------I. LISTENING (20 points)
The listening test has TWO parts. You will hear each part TWICE. At the beginning of
each part, you will have time to read the questions and at the end of each part, you
will have time to complete your answers.
Part 1: (10 points)
Questions 1 - 4
Listen to the recording of three students talking to their tutor about the presentation

they are planning. Circle the best letter among A, B, or C.
1. The topic of the presentation is
A. how mobile phones are designed.
B. the risks caused by mobile phones.
C. how mobile phones are used.
2. The introduction explains the
A. dangers of mobile phones.
B. importance of mobile phones.
C. importance of understanding the dangers of mobile phones.
3. On the second slide, the students are planning to
A. point out some different kinds of risks.
B. explain why mobile phones are dangerous.
C. mention ways to avoid the risks.
4. The tutor suggests
A. not discussing the dangers of mobile phones.
B. discussing the benefits of mobile phones.
C. having an argument.
Questions 5 - 7


Listen to the next part of the recording and complete the information for each slide.
Write ONE WORD ONLY.

Slide 1
Introduction
(5) _________________ of
using mobile phones

Slide 2
- Health

- (6) _________________
- Security

Slide 3
(7) _________________ for
avoiding dangers

Questions 8 - 10
Listen to the last part of the recording and complete the sentences. Write NO MORE
THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER.
8. The actual talk will last for ______________________.
9. Each student will speak for _____________________.
10. The slides must all have the ___________________.
Part 2: (10 points)
You will hear a woman called Yvonne on a TV programme giving her opinion about
children being punished at school. For questions 1 – 10, complete the sentences
with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.
The strap was a long piece of leather made especially for (1) ___________________
children’s palms.
Today, children who misbehave at school seldom even get a (2) ____________________.
In the fifties, Yvonne was strapped for coming to school in (3) ______________________.
Yvonne thought the way she was disciplined at school was (4) _____________ and unfair.
The members of the organization P.O.P.P.I. all had (5) ___________________________.
In 1979, because of P.O.P.P.I., (6) __________________________ made the strap illegal.
Yvonne describes her children as (7) ___________________________ and irresponsible.
Yvonne does not think her children understand (8) _______________________ they are.
She is now sorry that the government (9) ___________________.
She believes that there would be less (10) ___________________ if the strap was still
used.
II. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (10 points)

For each of the following questions, circle the best answer (A, B, C or D) to fill the
blank.
1. The noise got __________ as the car disappeared into the distance.
A. smaller
B. slighter
C. weaker
D. fainter
2. She __________ her neighbor’s children for the broken window.
A. accused
B. blamed
C. denied
D. complained
3. To a large extent, slavery was __________ during the past century.


A. prevented
B. abolished
C. uprooted
D. removed
4. Despite the storm, the plane__________ down at Heathrow Airport as planned.
A. landed
B. took
C. touched
D. flew
5. Could you __________ this parcel to my parents when you come to Rome?
A. bring
B. take
C. fetch
D. carry
6. He looked __________ with such a big scar on his face.

A. frightening
B. frightened
C. frightenedly
D. frighteningly
7. Before you start cooking, you should gather together all the necessary __________.
A. ingredients
B. factors
C. substances
D. elements
8. The actor got his moustache shaved so as to avoid __________.
A. being recognized
B. to be recognized
C. recognizing
D. be recognized
9. My classmate, __________ father has been in hospital for a month, looked depressed
this morning.
A. which
B. who
C. of whom
D. whose
10. We all have to follow the rules, and none of us is __________ the law.
A. beyond
B. over
C. above
D. onto
11. This is __________ the most difficult job I’ve ever had to do.
A. by heart
B. by chance
C. by far
D. by myself

12. They asked me a lot of questions, __________ I couldn’t answer.
A. neither of them B. most of them
C. neither of which D. most of which
13. Be patient; __________ you won’t succeed.
A. otherwise
B. or
C. because
D. unless
14. Peter is a good teacher who taught me__________ Maths and __________ Physics at
secondary school.
A. the/the
B. a/the
C. the/a
D. Ø/Ø 
15. Let your younger brother talk first, __________?
A. will you
B. would you
C. shall we
D. do you
16. It is essential that she __________ her English for the course she is going to do at
Queensland University of Technology.
A. improves
B. improve
C. improving
D. improved
17. Why don’t we emigrate? If we __________ in Australia, at least the weather
__________ better.
A. lived/would be B. didn’t live/is
C. live/would be
D. live/will be

18. “It is said that these herbs are good for you.” has the same meaning as __________.
A. “These herbs are said to do very good.”
B. “These herbs is said to do you good.”
C. “These herbs are said are good for you.”
D. “These herbs are said to do you good.”
19. After graduating from university in Vietnam, she went on __________ for a Ph.D.
course at an Australian University.
A. applying
B. apply
C. applied
D. to apply
20. Jeff is calling Alice.
- Jeff: “Hello? Alice? This is Jeff. How are you?”
- Alice: “Jeff? What a coincidence! I __________ about you when the phone rang.
A. have just been thinking
B. just thought
C. was just thinking
D. was just thought
III. READING (25 points)


Part 1: Read the following passage, choose and circle the best answer (A, B, C or D)
to fill in each of the blanks. (10 points)
PROOF THAT SILENCE IS GOLDEN FOR STUDYING
The combination of music and study has long been a source of disagreement between
adults and children. Parents and teachers alike maintain that silence is important when
learning, (1) _______ youngsters insist that their favorite sounds help them concentrate.
Now a study shows that the grown-ups have been (2) _______ all along. Psychologists
in Florida tested how fast students wrote essay with and without music in the (3) _______.
They found that the sounds slowed progress down by about sixty words per hour. “This

demonstrates clearly that it is difficult to (4) _______ with listening and writing at the same
time”, said Dr. Sarah Randall. She also (5) _______ to the conclusion that it is a myth that
instrumental music is less distracting than vocals. “All types of music (6) _______ the
same effect”, she said in her report. “One’s ability to pay attention and write fluently is likely
to be (7) _______ by both vocal and instrumental music”, she added.
Dr. Randall claimed the research (8) _______ that the idea that music could improve
performance was wrong. “Writing an essay is a complex (9) _______. You are recalling
information and putting it in (10) _______. An additional stimulus in the form of music is
bound to distract. But music is not the only distractor. What is particularly worrying is that
more and more teenagers are studying in front of the television”.
1. A. whereas
2. A. precise
3. A. setting
4. A. manage
5. A. reached
6. A. made
7. A. disturbed
8. A. pointed
9. A. project
10. A. order

B. unlike
B. right
B. background
B. support
B. drew
B. had
B. interfered
B. displayed
B. concern

B. arrangement

C. besides
C. valid
C. surrounding
C. cope
C. arrived
C. brought
C. bothered
C. demonstrated
C. scheme
C. line

D. despite
D. true
D. circumstances
D. stand
D. came
D. kept
D. shocked
D. presented
D. task
D. pattern

Part 2: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use
only ONE word in each space. (10 points)

KEEPING FIT
Bodies are made to move! They are not designed for sitting around in front of the
television or reading magazines. Keeping fit doesn’t (1) _______ you have to be a superathlete, and even a (2) _______ exercise can give a lot of fun. When you are fit and healthy,

you will find you look better and feel better. You’ll have more energy and self-confidence.
Every time you move you are exercising. The human body is designed to blend,
stretch, run, jump and climb. The (3) _______ it does, the stronger and fitter it will become.
Best of (4) _______, exercise is fun. It’s (5) _______ your body likes doing most – keeping
on the move.
Physical exercise is not only good for your body. People who take regular exercise are
usually happier, more relaxed and more alert (6) _______ people who sit around all day.
Try an experiment – next time you’re (7) _______ a bad mood, go for a walk or play a ball
game in the park. See how (8) _______ better you feel after an hour.
A sense of achievement is yet (9) _______ benefit of exercise. People feel good about
themselves when they know they have improved their fitness. People who exercise
regularly will (10) _______ you that they find they have more energy to enjoy life. So have
a go; you’ll soon see and feel the benefits!


Part 3: You are going to read a newspaper article about the problems caused by acid
rain. Six sentences have been removed from the article. Choose from the
sentences A–G the one which fits each gap (0–5). Number (0) has been done for
you. There is one extra sentence which you do not need to use. (5 points)

RUINING THE RUINS
Acid rain is now a familiar problem in the industrialized countries in Europe. Gases like
sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxide are produced by power stations and cars. (0) ___E___.
Acid rain is also capable of dissolving some rocks, and buildings made of soft rock, such
as limestone, are particularly badly affected. The acid rain attacks the rocks, and so
carvings and statues are eroded more quickly.
(1) ___________. According to a report in the New Scientist, acid rain is being blamed for
the rapid decay of ancient ruins in Mexico. The old limestone buildings in places like
Chichen Itza and Palenque are wearing away very quickly indeed. These sites are the
remains of the buildings built by the Mayas between 250 BC and AD 900, and the

spectacular ruins of Mayan civilization are visited by thousands of tourists every year. But
those ruins are in danger of being seriously damaged by pollution. At many sites the stone
has been covered with a layer of black substance like tar. (2) ___________.
Scientists estimate that about one millimeter of stone is worn away every twelve years. (3)
___________. The acid rain is said to be caused by pollution from oil wells in the Gulf of
Mexico. Car exhaust gases are also a problem. Local volcanic eruptions make the problem
even worse. Nevertheless, with enough money and effort, researchers say that many of
the problems could be solved and the rate of erosion reduced. (4) ____________.
Mexico’s current lack of funds is also partly due to oil. The country has rich oil fields and a
few years ago, when oil was expensive, Mexico was selling large quantities of oil to the
USA and earning a lot of money. (5) ___________. However, the price of oil then dropped,
and Mexico has been left owing enormous sums of money and with not enough income
from oil sales to pay back the loans. So unless the price of oil rises, it is unlikely that
Mexico will be able to afford to clean up the pollution and save its Mayan ruins from
destruction.
A. At others the painted surfaces inside temples are lifting and flaking off and the stone is
being eaten away.
B. That is enough to have caused some of the ancient carvings to become seriously
damaged already.
C. These measures would reduce the pollution, but would not stop it completely.
D. The government was therefore able to borrow huge sums of money from banks around
the world, thinking they would have no problem repaying their debts.
E. They dissolve in rainwater and this makes acid rain, which damages trees, river and
streams.
F. The problem, however, is not just a European one.
G. However, the Mexican government does not have enough money to do the work, and
needs to spend what money it has on the Mexican people.
IV. WRITING (25 points)

Part 1: For each question, complete the second sentence in such a way that it is as
similar in meaning as possible to the one printed before it. (5 points)
1. The number of road accidents has soared in recent months.
There ................................................................................................................................... .
2. People no longer smoke so many cigarettes as they used to.
The smoking ....................................................................................................................... .
3. I don't intend to apologize to either of them.
I have................................................................................................................................... .
4. Nobody expected her to lose, but she did.
Against................................................................................................................................. .
5. I'm more interested in the people than the job.
It's not the ............................................................................................................................ .
Part 2: For each question, complete the second sentence in such a way that it has the
closest meaning to the original one, using the WORD given. DO NOT change
this word. You must use between THREE AND FIVE WORDS, including the
word given. (5 points)
1. I found it difficult to follow the instructions.

TROUBLE

 I ............................................................................................................... the instructions.
2. The neighbors’ all-night parties were too much for me, so I moved.

PUT

 I moved because I .......................................................... the neighbors’ all-night parties.
3. Nigel should leave soon if he’s catching the 8.30 train.

HAD

 Nigel ................................................................................... if he’s catching the 8.30 train.
4. Things are much more expensive here than we thought they would be. EXPECTED
 We had ....................................................................................................... cheaper here.
5. The news was such a shock to them that they all sat there without saying a word.
SILENCE
 They all sat there ....................................................................... so shocked by the news.
Part 3: Within from 200 to 250 words, write a short composition on the following
topic. (15 points)
Should teenagers spend more time on such cultural activities as enjoying music or
theatre, etc and less time on sports? Why or why not?
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------------ THE END ------------


SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN QUỐC HỌC

THỪA THIÊN HUẾ

NĂM HỌC 2017-2018
Khóa ngày 02 tháng 6 năm 2017
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (CHUYÊN)

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM – ĐÁP ÁN – THANG ĐIỂM
(Nội dung có 03 trang)

I. LISTENING (20 points)

The listening test has TWO parts. You will hear each part TWICE. At the beginning of
each part, you will have time to read the questions and at the end of each part, you
will have time to complete your answers.
Part 1: (10 points)

Questions 1 - 4
Listen to the recording of three students talking to their tutor about the presentation
they are planning. Circle the best letter among A, B, or C.
1. B

2. C

3. A

4. B

Questions 5 - 7

Listen to the next part of the recording and complete the information for each slide.
Write ONE WORD ONLY.
5. Advantages

6. Accidents

7. Suggestions

Questions 8 - 10
Listen to the last part of the recording and complete the sentences. Write NO MORE
THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER.
8. seven / 7 minutes

9. two / 2 minutes 10. same style

Part 2: (10 points)
You will hear a woman called Yvonne on a TV programme giving her opinion about children
being punished at school. For questions 1 – 10, complete the sentences with NO MORE
THAN THREE WORDS.


1. hitting
6. the government

2. telling off
7. lazy

3. (the) wrong shoes
8. how lucky

4. (very) cruel
9. changed the law

5. (young) children
10. teenage crime

II. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (10 points)
For each of the following questions, circle the best answer (A, B, C or D) to fill the blank.
1. D
11. C

2. B
12. D

3. B
13. A

4. C
14. D

5. B
15. A

6. A
16. B

7. A
17. A

8. A

18. D

9. D
19. D

10. C
20. C

III. READING (25 points)
Part 1: Read the following passage, choose and circle the best answer (A, B, C or D) to fill in
each of the blanks. (10 points)

1. A

2. B

3. B

4. C

5. D

6. B

7. A

8. C

9. D

10. A

Part 2: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE
word in each space. (10 points)

1. mean
6. than

2. little
7. in

3. more
8. much

4. all
9. another

5. what
10. tell

Part 3: You are going to read a newspaper article about the problems caused by acid rain. Six
sentences have been removed from the article. Choose from the sentences A–G the
one which fits each gap (0–5). Number (0) has been done for you. There is one extra
sentence which you do not need to use. (5 points)

1. F

2. A

3. B

4. G

5. D

IV. WRITING (25 points)

Part 1: For each question, complete the second sentence in such a way that it is as similar
in meaning as possible to the one printed before it. (5 points)
1. There has been a(n) [huge/dramatic/big/enormous/considerable] increase in the number of road
accidents in recent months.
2. The smoking of cigarettes is no longer as [popular/ widespread] as it used to be/ The smoking of
cigarettes used to be more popular/widespread.
3. I have no intention of apologizing to either of them.
4. Against [all/everybody's/everyone's] expectations, she lost.
5. It's not the job I'm interested in; it's the people.


Part 2: For each question, complete the second sentence in such a way that it has the closest
meaning to the original one, using the WORD given. DO NOT change this word. You
must use between three and five words, including the word given. (5 points)
1. had trouble (in) following
2. couldn’t put up with
3. had better leave soon
4. expected things would be much
5. in silence because/as/since they were

Part 3: Within from 200 to 250 words, write a short composition on the following topic. (15
points)
Should teenagers spend more time on such cultural activities as enjoying music or theatre,

etc and less time on sports? Why or why not?
1. Content (7 points)
- The essay shows students’ persuasive ideas on the topic.
- Communicative goals are achieved.
2. Organization (4 points)
Clear organization of ideas, with suitable paragraphing and linking
3. Grammar and vocabulary (4 points)
Using good grammar in standard English with a large variety of vocabulary.

TT

Tiêu chí chấm kỹ năng nói

1

Pronunciation and Intonation – 4 điểm

2

Grammatical Range and Accuracy – 4 điểm

3

Lexical Resource – 4 điểm

4

Fluency and Coherence – 4 điểm

5

Content – 4 điểm
Tổng cộng

Điểm

/20 điểm

------- Hết -------

Ghi chú


SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
THỪA THIÊN HUẾ
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
(Đề thi có 08 trang)

Điểm
(bằng số và bằng chữ)

KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN QUỐC HỌC
NĂM HỌC 2016-2017
Khóa ngày 09 tháng 6 năm 2016
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (CHUYÊN)
Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Họ tên và chữ ký giám khảo 1:

Mã phách

Họ tên và chữ ký giám khảo 2:

Ghi chú: Học sinh làm bài trên đề thi và không ghi gì vào phần trên.
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu. Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------I. LISTENING (20 points)
The listening test has three parts. You will hear each part TWICE. At the beginning
of each part, you will have time to read the questions and at the end of each part,
you will have time to complete your answers.
Part 1 (4 points):
You will hear a part of a radio programme about classical music. For questions 1 - 5,
put a tick () in the correct box. You will have 45 seconds to look at the questions.
Number one has been done for you.
1. This week’s prize is

A

a music cassette.

B

two concert tickets.

C
2. The person who wrote the music lived in

3. What else shares the title of the music?



a classical CD.

A

Spain.

B

Italy.

C

France.

A

a garden.

B

a park.

C

a play.

4. What did people do when they first heard the music?

5.This piece of music has been

A

Only a few clapped.

B

Some left before the end.

C

Some asked for their money back.

A

used in advertising.


B

played in the cinema.

C

used for a TV play.

Part 2 (7 points):
You will hear people talking in eight different situations. For questions 1 - 8, choose
and circle the best answer (A, B or C). Number one has been done for you.
1. You overhear some people talking at a party in a hotel. Where did the people first meet

each other?
A. at school.
B. at work.
C. at a wedding.
2. You overhear a conversation in a restaurant. Why haven’t they seen each other lately?
A. He has been too busy. B. He has been ill.
C. He has been away.
3. You overhear someone talking about a concert. How did she feel at the time?
A. angry.
B. frightened.
C. disappointed.
4. You hear a writer of children’s stories talking about books and compact discs. What
advantage does he think books have over compact discs?
A. They may last for a longer time.
B. They are easier to look after.
C. They contain better quality material.
5. You hear a husband and wife talking about their summer holidays. What problem do
they have?
A. They really hate flying anywhere.
B. They can never think of anywhere to go.
C. They never agree about what to do.
6. You hear a researcher being asked about her work. What is she doing when she
speaks?
A. denying an accusation.
B. disproving a theory.
C. accepting a criticism.
7. You overhear a woman talking to a friend on a train. What does the woman think of the
course she has attended?
A. It has made her feel more confident.
B. It has made her feel less confident.

C. It hasn’t made much difference to how she feels.
8. You overhear a woman speaking on the radio. What is she doing?
A. complaining about something.
B. apologizing for something.
C. explaining something.
Part 3 (9 points):
You will hear a radio report about dolphins. For questions 1 - 10, complete the
sentences. Number one has been done for you.
DOLPHINS
Dolphins have been known to protect swimmers from sharks by getting into a (1)__circle
(around them)___.
Dolphins and humans have (2) __________________ of the same size.
Swimming with dolphins can help common problems like (3) ________________.
Some people think dolphins are able to recognize human (4) _______________.
Dolphins have been used to teach children to (5) ________________.
Swimming with dolphins is used as a (6) _______________ in projects with children.
In one jaw, dolphins have as many as (7) _______________.


Dolphins can maintain a fast pace in the water for (8) ________________ without
stopping. Dolphins make use of (9) _________________ to find fish.
Dolphins can be caught in (10) ________________ or damaged by pollution.
II. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (10 points)
For each of the following questions, choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to fill the
blank. Circle your choice.
1. She gave me the same advice __________ you did.
A. like
B. than
C. as
D. who

2. All food products should carry a list of __________ on the packet.
A. elements
B. foods
C. ingredients
D. materials
3. __________ in which there is a relaxing and accepting atmosphere.
A. Some student learn better in situations
B. Some students learn better in situations
C. Some students better learn in situations
D. Some students learns better in situations
4. The concert __________ was good.
A. which to we listened last night
B. to which we listened last night
C. which we listened last night to
D. to which we listened last night to
5. I’m glad that my mother made me take piano lessons when I was a child __________ I
hated it at the time. Now, I play the piano every day.
A. even though
B. because
C. unless
D. if
6. - Ann: “Shall I answer the phone for you?” - Kate: “__________”
A. Yes, you will.
B. No, thanks. I can manage it.
C. I shall buy a new phone.
D. My phone is answered by myself.
7. __________ the regular written work, you will be required to submit a long essay.
A. Apart from
B. Beside
C. In addition

D. Beyond
8. I'm sorry I can't go to the cinema with you tonight. I'm having something important
__________ at home.
A. do
B. to do
C. for doing
D. doing
9. Noise in the room may be reduced by carpeting, draperies, and upholstered furniture
__________ absorb sound.
A. all of which
B. of them all
C. which they all
D. of all which
10. Phone me before ten; __________ I'll be too busy to talk to you.
A. otherwise
B. whether
C. unless
D. if
11. She just had time to put up her umbrella before __________.
A. the rain come down in torrents
B. the rain comes down in torrents
C. the rain came down in torrents
D. the rain coming down in torrents
12. At __________ time did I ever promise you a pay rise.
A. any
B. no
C. all
D. some
13. At school I __________ the maths teacher because he __________ on me.
A. disliked/ always picked

B. disliked/ was always picking
C. had disliked/was always picking
D. disliked/ had always picked
14. The fact that space exploration has increased dramatically in the past thirty years
__________.


A. is an evidence of us wanting to know more of our solar system
B. indicates that we are very eager to learn all we can about our solar system
C. how we want to learn more about the solar system
D. is pointing to evidence of our intention to know a lot more about what is called our
solar system
15. Your brother has never used a computer before, __________?
A. has he
B. hasn’t he
C. does he
D. doesn’t he
16. He's got plenty of __________ experience as he's worked in that field already.
A. second-hand
B. first-hand
C. primary
D. tertiary
17. Mai: “Has the committee made its decision yet?”
Daisy: “Not yet. They are still __________ the proposal.”
A. considering
B. been considered
C. being considered
D. considered
18. For the past few days I __________ in Jack’s office, as my own office __________.
A. am working/has been redecorated

B. have been working/is redecorated
C. work/is being redecorated
D. have been working/is being redecorated
19. - David: "How beautiful your house is!" - Thomas: "__________"
A. It is very beautiful.
B. I think you are also beautiful.
C. Glad to know you like it. French architecture was my first choice when building it.
D. Not at all.
20. - Mary: “Give me a hand, please!”
- Lan: “__________”
A. Yes, of course. Here you are.
B. My hand is here.
C. Just a minute. I’ll come to help you right away.
D. Do you have any problem with your hands?
III. READING (25 points)
Part 1: Read the following passage, choose and circle the best answer ( A, B, C or D)
to fill each of the blanks. (10 points)
Reference books are not designed to be read from the first page to the last but rather
to be (1) __________ to answer questions and provide both general and specific pieces of
information.
One of the most widely-used reference books is a dictionary, which provides
information about words. It lists meanings and spellings, (2) ____________ you how a
word is pronounced, gives examples of how it is used, may reveal its origins and also lists
synonyms and antonyms. To help you to find the words faster, there are guide words at the
top of each page showing the first and last words on that page and of course it helps to
know the alphabet!
There may be numerous special sections at the back with (3) ____________ about
famous people and places, lists of dates and scientific names, etc. There is usually a
section at the front (4) ___________ how to use the dictionary, which includes the special
abbreviations or signs.

An encyclopedia comes as either a set of books or a single large (5) ____________
and is nearly always arranged alphabetically. As information changes so fast,
encyclopedias have to be brought up to date regularly - this is, of course, easier if the
information is (6) ___________ CD-ROM rather than on paper. The other great (7)
___________ of electronic encyclopedias is space!
An atlas is also a reference book and (8) ___________ charts, tables and
geographical facts, as well as maps. Political maps locate countries and cities, physical
maps show the formation of the land with its mountains and valleys, and economic maps
show industries and agriculture. To find a specific place, you need to look in the (9)
___________ at the back of the atlas and find a reference number which will indicate the
correct page and the exact position on the map. There are numerous map (10)
__________ that you need to know in order to be able to read a map and these are
explained at the front of the atlas.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.

A. searched
A. gives
A. facts
A. suggesting

A. source
A. with
A. advantage
A. includes
A. foreword
A. signs

B. looked
B. tells
B. events
B. presenting
B. reference
B. at
B. strength
B. composes
B. preface
B. marks

C. read
C. says
C. materials
C. explaining
C. book
C. on
C. mark
C. contains
C. index
C. signals

D. consulted

D. speaks
D. stories
D. interpreting
D. volume
D. in
D. asset
D. consists
D. complement
D. symbols

Part 2: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use
only ONE word in each space. (10 points)
EFFECTS OF TELEVISION ON CHILDHOOD LITERACY
Television occupies a large portion of children’s time. Starting in preschool, children
spend more time watching television (1) __________ participating in any other activity (2)
__________ sleeping. Children also have extensive experience of television before (3)
__________ exposed to many socializing agents, such as schools and peers. Because
television has this important role, it is important to understand its potential positive and
negative effects (4) __________ most children.
The results of recent research suggest that there is considerable overlap between the
comprehension processes activated (5) __________ a period of television viewing. If (6)
__________, it may very well (7) __________ the case that children who learn
comprehension skills from television viewing before they are ready to read are equipped
with some very important tools when they later learn to read.
Clearly, television viewing is not the sole context providing important foundations for
literacy. (8) __________ that most parents are positive about the value of stories, many
children may be read (9) __________ at bedtime. Television, however, is an ideal medium
in which to cultivate some of the skills and knowledge needed for later reading. Television
is also a visual medium, and thus presents information more concretely than written and
spoken text. This content difference across media seems to account (10) __________ the

fact that preschool children are frequently better at recalling televised stories they have


watched compared to those they have simply heard.
Part 3: You are going to read a newspaper article about an elephant. Six sentences
have been removed from the article. Choose from the sentences A - G the
one which fits each gap (1 - 6). There is one extra sentence which you do not
need to use. Number one has been done for you. (5 points)

Saving an elephant
Douglas Turner tells the story of a baby elephant who was taken
on a 1,500 km journey in order to save her life.

The first time I saw Wiwin, she looked like a wizened old woman with wrinkly skin, but
she was in fact a baby elephant. She had been left behind when her family group was
chased back into the forest after being caught raiding a rice field in Southern Sumatra,
Indonesia. She had been rescued by the local people, who quickly realized that they
lacked the means to care for her. So she was brought to the local office of the Wildlife
Conservation Society. Wiwin was desperate for affection. (1) ____D_____ Because her
growing teeth were sore, she had also taken to chewing on anything and everything.
Everyone at the Conservation office was impressed by her spirit; she was clearly a
survivor, but having her there presented a number of problems. (2) _______ So the staff
desperately contacted anyone who could give advice and began constructing feeding
equipment from a length of tubing attached to a plastic bottle. Once they discovered the
formula of a blend of cow's milk, coconut water and milk powder, Wiwin started to take in
liquids.
There could be no question of releasing her back into the wild. The only option was for
her to go to an elephant training center (ETC), which cared for orphaned elephants. The
nearest ETC was 1,500 km away, but transporting Wiwin over that distance would be
extremely difficult, especially as she was so weak. (3) _______ We set off in convoy. Wiwin

was in a jeep on a cushion of coconut palms, with the wildlife center staff; followed with a
photographer.
The first twenty-four hours went well. Wiwin determined our schedule: if she was tired,
we stopped, and if she was hungry, we opened a coconut and fed her. Mostly, we travelled
in the cool of the night, driving through sleeping villages and setting up camp at daybreak,
putting up a tent to give Wiwin shade.
We continued on our way in the late afternoon and drove straight into a torrential
rainstorm. Trees were blown down, even blocking the road in places. (4) _______ We
stopped for breakfast at a roadside cafe, where one local peered in and touched her
nervously as if expecting an electric shock.
After three days we arrived at the Sebanga ETC, to be met by the resident vet, Joanne
Hammett. She agreed that we should try to see if the elephant with the newborn calf might
let Wiwin into their group to feed. (5) ______ However, she did soon settle into life at
Sebanga, interacting well with the other elephants.
So, after a week we left Wiwin at the center. Regular updates from Joanne kept us
informed of Wiwin's improving condition. It could be questioned whether we were justified
in putting all this effort into keeping just one animal alive - in order for it to live a limited life
in captivity. (6) ______ She was a symbol of hope for a group of weary conservationists
who are very aware that it takes an enormous amount of time and stamina to make a
difference.
A Despite all this, Wiwin managed to sleep contentedly.
B However, as we were told they had an elephant with a newborn calf, which might
provide a suitable foster mother for Wiwin, it seemed too good an opportunity to miss.


C But Wiwin was more than just an orphan elephant.
D Even when she was sleepy, she would wrap her trunk around the nearest person,
pleading for company.
E After weighing her, our fears were confirmed.
F Introductions were made the next day, but Wiwin could not be separated from her

bottle, so unfortunately we had to give up the fostering idea.
G The most immediate of these was her unwillingness to drink anything in the sweltering
heat.
IV. WRITING (25 points)
Part 1: For each question, complete the second sentence in such a way that it is as
similar in meaning as possible to the one printed before it. (5 points)
1. People say that nuclear energy has caused lots of problems.
- Nuclear energy is supposed…………………………………………………….. .
2. They constantly encouraged her, which made her job easier.
- Their ………………………………………………………..…………………. .
3. He only felt entirely relaxed with close friends and family.
- Only with……………………………………………………………………….. .
4. We were prevented from having a camping because of the awful weather.
- The awful weather made ………………………………………………………. .
5. Success depends on hard work.
- The harder ………………………………………………………………………………. .
Part 2: For each question, complete the second sentence so that it has the closest
meaning to the first one, using the word in capitals at the end of the
sentence. DO NOT CHANGE THIS WORD. (5 points)
1. The film star wore dark glasses so that no one would recognize him.

AVOIDED

- The film star ...............................................................................................................
2. Please reply immediately on receipt of this notification.

SOON

- Please reply …….......................................................................................................
3. Yesterday, I met one of my friends by chance in the supermarket.

RAN

- Yesterday, I ….............................................................................................................
4. If public opinion doesn’t change suddenly, he’ll win the next election.

SUDDEN

- Unless ………..............................................................................................................
5. Her behavior tends to be bad when she is under pressure.

TENDENCY

- She has .......................................................................................................................
Part 3: Within from 150 to 200 words, write a short composition on the following
topic. (15 points)
What roles does fresh water play in our life?
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………


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------------ THE END -----------SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN QUỐC HỌC

THỪA THIÊN HUẾ

NĂM HỌC 2016-2017
Khóa ngày 09 tháng 6 năm 2016

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (CHUYÊN)


------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
ĐÁP ÁN – THANG ĐIỂM
(gồm có 03 trang)
I. LISTENING (20 points)
The listening test has three parts. You will hear each part TWICE. At the beginning
of each part, you will have time to read the questions and at the end of each part,
you will have time to complete your answers.

Part 1 (4 points):
You will hear a part of a radio programme about classical music. For questions 1 - 5, put a
tick () in the correct box. You will have 45 seconds to look at the questions. Number one
has been done for you.

1. C

2. A

3. C

4. B

5. A

Part 2 (7 points):

You will hear people talking in eight different situations. For questions 1 - 8, choose
and circle the best answer (A, B or C). Number one has been done for you.
1. A

2. A

3. B

4. A

5. C

6. A

7. C

8. C

Part 3 (9 points):
You will hear a radio report about dolphins. For questions 1 - 10, complete the
sentences. Number nine has been done for you.
.
1. circle (around
them)

6. reward

2. (a) brain(s)

7. 52 teeth

3. stress

4. feelings

5. read

8. two days

9. sound
wave(s)
/sound(s)
/high-pitched
noises

10. (fishing) nets


II. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (10 points)
For each of the following questions, choose the best answer among A, B, C or D to fill in the
blank. Circle your choice.
1.

C

2. C

3. B

4. B

5. A

6.

B

7. A

8. B

9. A

10. A

11. C

12. B

13. B

14. B

15. A

16. B

17. A

18. D

19. C

20. C

III. READING (25 points)
Part 1: Read the following passage, choose and circle the best answer ( A, B, C or D) to fill
each of the blanks. (10 points)
1.

D

2. B

3. A

4. C

5. D

6.

C

7. A

8. C

9. C

10. D

Part 2: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE
word in each space. (10 points)

1. than

2. except

3. being

4. on

5. by/during

6. so

7. be

8. Given

9. to

10. for

Part 3: Read the following passage and choose the best answer among A, B, C or D to each
question. Circle your choice. (5 points)
1. D

2. G

3. B

4. A

5. F

6. C

IV. WRITING (25 points)
Part 1: For each question, complete the second sentence in such a way that it is as similar
in meaning as possible to the one printed before it. (5 points)
1. … to have caused lots (a lot) of problems.
2. ... constant encouragement made her job easier.
3. … close friends and family did he entirely feel relaxed.
4. … it impossible for us to have a camping.


5. … you work, the more successful you are / will be [the more success you (will) get/have/achieve]
.
Part 2: For each question, complete the second sentence so that it has the closest meaning
to the first one, using the word in capitals at the end of the sentence. DO NOT
CHANGE THIS WORD. (5 points)
1. The film star avoided being recognized by wearing dark glasses.
2. Please reply as soon as you receive this notification.
3. Yesterday I ran [into/ across] [a friend of mine/ one of my friends] in the supermarket
4. Unless there is a sudden change in public opinion, he’ll win the next election.
5. She has a tendency to behave badly when she is under pressure.

Part 3: Within from 150 to 200 words, write a short composition on the following topic. (15

points)
What roles does fresh water play in our life?
1. Content (4 marks)
The essay should express students’ ideas related to the topic.
2. Organization (4 marks)
Clear organization of ideas, with suitable paragraphing and linking
3. Grammar and vocabulary (4 marks)
Using good grammar in standard English, with a large variety of vocabulary.
4. Communicative achievement (3 marks)
Communicative goals are achieved.

------------ THE END ------------


SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
THỪA THIÊN HUẾ
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
(Đề thi có 08 trang)

Điểm
(bằng số và bằng chữ)

KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN QUỐC HỌC
NĂM HỌC 2015-2016
Khóa ngày 09 tháng 6 năm 2015
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (CHUYÊN)
Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Họ tên và chữ ký giám khảo 1:

Mã phách

Họ tên và chữ ký giám khảo 2:

Ghi chú: Học sinh làm bài trên đề thi và không ghi gì vào phần trên.
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu. Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------I. LISTENING (20 points)
The listening test has two sections. You will hear each section ONCE ONLY. At the
beginning of each section, you will have time to read the questions and at the end
of each section, you will have time to complete your answers.
SECTION I (10 points)
You will hear a conversation between an operator and a caller talking about a stolen
phone. First, you will have 20 seconds to look at questions 1 - 5.
Questions 1 - 5
Complete the details in the form below.
Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.
z-Mobile Services
Incident Report Sheet
Example
Postcode

Answer
CN21EB

Mobile phone number

07890 (1) _______________ 570

Name

(2) ____________________ Green

Crime reference number

CZ - (3) _____________________- 5

(4) __________________Mobile Equipment

Not known

Identity (IMEI) number
Time, date of theft

1-2 p.m., 16 (5) ________________

Questions 6 - 10
Choose the correct letter A, B or C. Circle your choice.
6. The caller's phone was stolen ______.
A. when he went to the toilet

B. from the table

7. The caller will have to pay a charge ______.

C. from his pocket


A. if his phone is stolen again

B. for a new phone

C. in 12 months' time

B. 34 Solent House

C. 34 Solent Gardens

8. The delivery address is ______.
A. 34 Solent Grove
9. The caller's IMEI number ______.
A. is made up of 15 digits
B. can be found on the side of the phone battery
C. cannot be found
10. The operator ______.
A. transfers the caller to a colleague
B. will ring the caller back the next day
C. asks the caller to ring back
SECTION II (10 points)
Questions 1 - 4
You will hear the first part of a talk on nutrition. Complete the notes. Write NO MORE
THAN FOUR WORDS for each answer.
Topic: Healthy eating
* definition
* reason why people don't (1) ___________________________
* ideas for (2) ________________________________________
Healthy eating is:
* balanced diet
* eating the (3) ________________________________________
Note: balanced diet incl. meat, veg, fruit, cereals & (4) ____________________________

Questions 5 - 7
Listen to the next part of the talk. Give three reasons why the speaker thinks so
many people have an unhealthy diet. Choose THREE among the following
sentences (a-h). Write the letters you choose (in any order) in the numbered blanks
below.
a. It is cheaper to buy packet food.
b. People do not know how to eat healthily.
c. It is cheaper to buy fast food.
d. They prefer fast food.
e. They do not like packet food.
f. It is quicker to buy fast food.
g. They have to plan their meals.
h. Schools teach children about a balanced diet.
5. ____________
Questions 8 - 10

6. ____________

7. _____________


Listen to the last part of the talk and complete the table. Write NO MORE THAN ONE
WORD for each answer.
Group responsible:
(8)
_____________________

(9)
______________________

(10)
_____________________

Limit advertising for
unhealthy food

Stop selling unhealthy
snacks and drinks

Make sure children eat a
balanced diet

Educate the public about a
healthy diet

Provide children with fresh
and healthy options

II. PRONUNCIATION (4 points)
Part 1: For each of the following questions, choose the word that has the underlined part
pronounced differently from that of the others. Circle your choice. (2 points)
1. A. moon
B. school
C. tool
D. good
2. A. bright
B. laugh
C. neighbor
D. fought
Part 2: For each of the following questions, choose the word that has the main stress

placed differently from that of the others. Circle your choice. (2 points)
1. A. preference
2. A. relax

B. colorful
B. blanket

C. continue
C. handbag

D. favorite
D. picnic

III. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (21 points)
For each of the following questions, choose the best answer among A, B, C or D to
fill in the blank. Circle your choice.
1. Knowing several__________ helpful if you work for an international corporation.
A. languages are
B. language is
C. language are
D. languages is
2. Groups of tissues, each with its own function, __________ in the human body.
A. make up the organs
B. it makes up the organs
C. they make up the organs
D. makes up the organs
3. What is your attitude to the __________ of performance-enhancing drugs for athletes?
A. legality
B. legalising
C. permission

D. allowance
4. In Mr. Brown’s class we often discuss __________ interesting topics, you know –
politics, religion, the environment!
A. about many
B. of many
C. many
D. to many
5. A few natural elements exist in __________ that they are rarely seen in their natural
environments.
A. such small quantities
B. so small quantities
C. small quantity
D. very small quantities
6. __________ all the applicants, the woman who is wearing the white dress has the most
experience.
A. From
B. By
C. Of
D. To
7. Let’s do our best to help, __________ we?
A. will
B. should
C. shall
D. ought
8. __________ to move to California was something that surprised all of us.
A. After her decision
B. Having decided
C. Her deciding
D. She decided
9. I was told you're going to leave for Japan tomorrow. Could you please __________ this

present to my friend who lives in Osaka?
A. fetch
B. bear
C. bring
D. take


10. It is recommended that he __________ this course.
A. took
B. takes
C. take
D. taking
11. There is a severe__________ in Somalia and thousands of people are dying from
hunger.
A. epidemic
B. famine
C. lacking
D. disease
12. The house was __________ building.
A. a stone nice old B. a nice old stone C. a nice stone old D.an old nice stone
13.They always try __________ __________ the bridge as they promised before.
A. to postpone/ to build
B. postpone/ build
C. to postpone/ building
D. postponing/ built
14. The harder you try, __________.
A. the most success you achieve
B. you achieve the more success
C. the more success you achieve
D. the better you achieve success

15. Be patient! Don't__________ to learn a foreign language in a week.
A. believe
B. consider
C. think
D. expect
16. You’d better get someone__________ your living room.
A. redecorate
B. redecorated
C. to redecorate
D. redecorating
17. -Tom: "Oh, no! I left my book at home. Can I share yours?"
- Peter: " _________."
A. Yes, sure
B. No, thanks
C. No, not at all
D. Yes, I do too
18. Teacher: Can you keep quiet for a moment? You __________ noise in class!
A. have always made B. are always made C. always make
D. are always making
19. - Peter: "What a lovely house you have!" - Mike: "__________."
A. Of course not, it is not costly
B. I think so
C. Thank you. Hope you will drop in
D. No problem
20. - Peter: “Have a nice weekend!”
- Hoa: “__________”
A. Do you have any plans?
B. I’m going to take it easy.
C. Thanks. You too!
D. Are you going anywhere?

21. - Ann: “Do you need any help?”
- Kate: “__________”
A. That’s fine by me.
B. No,thanks. I can manage.
C. I haven’t got a clue.
D. That’s all for now.
IV. READING (20 points)
Part 1: Read the following passage and choose the best answer among A, B, C or D
to each question. Circle your choice. (4 points)
THE TERROR OF THE SEA
Some 16,000 icebergs are born in the Arctic Ocean each year. Most of them are
calved by the age-old glaciers that cover the coast of Greenland.
Fortunately, in an average year only about 400 of them make it past the Grand
Banks of Newfoundland. Once past that point, they are in some of the world's busiest
shipping lanes. There, they are as dangerous as torpedoes. In the year 1912, when the
Titanic went down with 1,503 lives, about 1,000 icebergs made it past the Grand Banks.
A newborn iceberg, unlike most newborn things, is bigger to begin with and slowly
grows smaller. When it first breaks free from the mother glacier an Arctic baby may weigh
up to 3 million tons and as big as a block in New York City. But it takes two or three years
of travel before it reaches the Banks. By that time most icebergs are less than 100 feet in
height. Sometimes, however, a grant one, towering 400 feet above the sea is spotted.
The sight of these "blocks" is frightening enough, but the real danger lies in the fact
that 85 percent of the bulk lies hidden under the water, ready to cut the hull of any ship
that comes too close.
Icebergs usually die after they pass the Grand Banks and meet the warm waters of
the Gulf Stream. Yet, a melted-down iceberg was seen about 200 miles south of Bermuda.
It was only 15 by 30 feet in size. But remember almost nine times that size was hiding