ĐỀ mẫu VSTEP ÔN THI B1 CHÂU ÂU MỚI NHẤT

ĐỀ MẪU VSTEP

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LISTENING PAPER 1
Number of questions: 35
PART 1
There are eight questions in this part. For each question there are four options and a short recording. For each question,
choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. You now have 48 seconds to look through the questions and the options in each
question.
1. What is John going to do tonight?
A. swimming
B. cycling
C. playing football
D. running
2. Which bag does the woman buy?
A. square bag
B. small and round bag C. a big bag
D. an oval bag
3. How much did the woman pay for the apples?
A. 30 pence
B. 35 pence
C. 40 pence
D. 34 pence
4. When must the boys get on the coach?
A. 12:50
B. 01:30
C. 02:30
D. 03:20
5. What fruit do they take?

A. oranges
B. bananas
C. grapes
D. apples
6. Which present has the man bought?
A. book
B. bag
C. gloves
D. flowers
7. Where are the photographs?
A. on the bookshelf
B. on the TV
C. on the table with the coffee cups
8. What did Ben break?
A. vase
B. glass
C. cup
D. dinner plates

D. in the café shop

PART 2:
Directions: You will hear three different conversations. In each conversation there are four questions. For each question, choose the
correct answer A, B, C or D. You will hear the conversations only once.
Questions 9 to 12: You will hear a conversation between a boy, Jim, and his mother.
9. What does Jim say needs to be mended?
(A.) his bicycle B. his laptop
C. his smart phone
D. his watch
10. What does Jim want to buy?

A. a TV
(B.) a mountain bike
C. house
D. a car
11. What does his mother encourage him to do?
A. buy a new bicycle
B. sell his present bicycle
(C.) save his money
D. walk to school
12. What does his mother give him in the end?
A. a book
B. a bill
C. a new bicycle
(D.) money
Question 13 to 16: Listen to an interview with someone who trains whales for public performances.
13. How many whale trainers are there in the world?
(A.) two hundred
B. three hundred
C. four hundred
D. five hundred
14. How did Laura feel when she first swam with a whale?
A. excited
B. Scared
(C.) shocked
D. happy
15. Laura says that being in water with whales is a “miracle” because
(A.) each whale has different personalities. B. whales behave in the same way as other animals.
C. all whales are very friendly.
D. some whales are hard to be trained.
16. What does Laura say about training whales?

A. It is a job that is entertaining and interesting.
B. It is a job that is dangerous.
C. It is a job that helps her earn much money.
(D.) It is a job she spends her life with.
Question 17 to 20: Listen to a conversation between two friends who are making plans.
17. What is the woman planning to do on Saturday?
A. attend a football game alone
(B.) go to a sporting event
C. eat in the cafeteria and study
D. see a play
18. Why does the man want to go to the football game?
A. It’s the final game of the season.
B. It’s better than the drama department’s play.
(C.) It’s a very important game.
D. It’s close to the cafeteria.
19. What is at the same time as the music department’s concert?

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(A.) a play
B. a game
C. a study group meeting D. dinner in the cafeteria
20. When does the man plan to study?
A. Saturday night
B. after dinner in the cafeteria
C. Sunday afternoon
(D.) maybe next weekend
PART 3:
You will hear three different talks or lectures. In each talk or lecture there are five questions. For each question, choose the

correct answer A, B, C or D. You will hear the talks or lectures only once.
Question 21 to 25: You will hear an introduction about features of undergraduate study in the UK.
21. You do not have to provide… .
A. a letter of recommendation.
B. school records.
C. exam results. (D.) health certificate.
22. Your required English level depends on… .
A. your age.
(B.) your chosen course. C. your grades. D. your nationality.
23. Some science courses require you to… .
A. take an exam.
(B.) complete a foundation year.
C. do extra personal study.
D. have a higher level of English.
24. Application for undergraduate courses is… .
(A.) always via UCAS.
B. direct with universities.
C. either via UCAS or direct with universities.
D. via a placement agency.
25. British universities… .
A. are the best in the world.
B. rank among the top universities in the world.
C. are all well respected.
(D.) are generally well respected.
Question 26 to 30: Listen to a talk given on a tour of a factory where clothing materials are made.
26. What is the main topic of this talk?
A. The twenty types of manmade fibers.
(B.) Rayon.
C. How nylon is made.
D. Clothing care.

27. For how long have manmade fibers been used for clothing?
A. since 1939.
(B.) for a little over a century.
C. for approximately twenty years.
D. since nylon was first invented.
28. According to the speaker, why does this factory continue to produce rayon?
A. It is inexpensive to produce.
B. It is more durable than other manmade fibers.
(C.) It remains a very popular clothing fiber. D. It is easy to produce in great quantities.
29. According to the speaker, what is the biggest problem with rayon?
A. It does not wash well.
B. It is manmade.
(C.) It loses its color in sunlight.
D. It is not very comfortable to wear.
30. What is the speaker probably going to do next?
A. Talk about the production of nylon.
B. Leave the factory.
C. Take a break.
(D.) Go into the rayon production room.
Question 31 to 15: Listen to a talk by a librarian.
31. Who is Ms.Martin talking to?
A. Other librarians.
B. Undergraduate students.
C. Students who are not in the business department.
(D.) Graduate business students.
32. What are the library’s hours during final exam week?
A. It opens at 7:00 a.m.
B. It closes at 7:00 p.m.
C. It closes at midnight.
(D.) It is always open.

33. What two areas will the tour concentrate on?
(A.) Computer area and business materials.
B. Magazines and newspapers.
C. Business department and library staff offices.
D. First and second floor of the library.
34. Where are the reference materials related to business available?
A. on the first floor.
B. on the second floor.
(C.) on the floor above the computer area. D. on the first and second floor.
35. What are the students probably going to do next?
A. Go home.
B. Return to class.
C. Work on the computers
(D.) Tour the library.

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READING PAPER 1
Time permitted: 60 minutes
Number of questions: 40
_________________________________________________________________________
Directions: In this section you will read FOUR different passages. Each one is followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40,
you are to choose the best answer A, B, C or D, to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill
in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of
what is stated or implied in that passage.
You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.
PASSAGE 1 – Questions 1-10
A tour under Paris
The great avenues are quiet, the shops are closed. There’s the smell of fresh bread from a bakery somewhere. It would be hard to say

which time of the day in Paris I prefer but this is probably it. Soon the streets will be full of people and traffic. As with most other
cities, you see the real Paris when the city wakes up.
There is, however, another part of Paris which is silent and free from people 24 hours a day. Under the city are hundreds of kilometres
of tunnels. There are sewers and old subways but there are also spaces of all kinds: canals and catacombs, wine cellars which have
been made into nightclubs and galleries. During the 19th century, the Parisians needed more stone for buildings above the ground so
they dug tunnels beneath the city. After that, many farmers grew mushrooms in them. During World War II, the French Resistance
fighters also used them. Since the 1970s, many groups of young people spend days and nights below the city in these tunnels. It’s a
place for parties, theatre performances, art galleries – anything goes here!
Everywhere you go under Paris, there is history and legend. Historians and novelists often refer to them in their books. For example,
Victor Hugo mentions the tunnels in his famous novel Les Miserables and in the story and musical The Phantom of the Opera there is
a pond beneath the old opera house. Most people think this is myth but in fact there is an underground pond here with fish. A ‘normal’
tourist can visit parts of Paris beneath the ground. For example, there are the catacombs beneath the Montparnasse district. Here you
can see the bones and skeletons of about six millions Parisians. The bodies came from cemeteries above the ground two centuries ago
when the city needed more space.
However, it’s illegal to enter other parts of the tunnels and police often search the area. It’s also very dangerous because some of the
tunnels might collapse. Nevertheless, there are people who will take you to visit them. I have found two ‘unofficial’ tour guides –
Dominique and Yopie (not their real names). They take me through many tunnels and after a couple of hours we arrive at a room
which isn’t on any map. Yopie and some of his friends built it. The room is comfortable and clean with a table and chairs and a bed.
Yopie tells me there are many other places like this. ‘Many people come down here to party, some people to paint … We do what we
want here.’

1. In paragraph 1, what time of the day does the author describe?
A. Early in the morning

B. Mid-day

C. In the evening

D. Late at night

2. According to the passage, what are under Paris?
A. Tunnels
C. Canals, catacombs, and wine cellars

B. Sewers and old subways
D. Night clubs and galleries

3. What does the word “Parisians” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. People living in Paris
C. Rich people in Paris

B. Builders working in Paris
D. French people

4. Why were the tunnels built during the 19th century?
A. Because they wanted to make clubs and galleries B. Because farmers wanted to grow mushrooms
C. Because they needed stones
D. Because they used them in war

5. According to the passage, when did young people start to use the tunnels?
A. Since the 19th century
C. Since the French Resistance

B. Since the World War II
D. Since the 1970s

6. Why does the author mention Victor Hugo?
A. To prove that the tunnels often appear in books
B. To give examples of best French novels
C. To prove that he wrote about the tunnels

D. To prove that the tunnels are under Paris

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7. The word “myth” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to….
A. truth.

B. legend

C. fact.

D. example.

8. Are tourist allowed to go underground?
A. Yes, they can go everywhere.
C. No, never.

B. Yes, they can visit part of the tunnels.
D. Yes, but it is illegal.

9. Why does the writer say it’s dangerous in the tunnels?
A. There are criminals down there. B. The tunnels might fall down on you.
C. You might get lost.
D. The police may arrest you.

10. Why is Dominique and Yopie’s room difficult to find?
A. It is not on the map.
C. They never show people where it is

B. It takes two hours to walk there.
D. There are many other places like it.

PASSAGE 2 – Questions 11-20
Sustainable development?
Kai Kensavaong will never again walk along the muddy lanes of Sop On, the village in southern Laos where she was born. Her old
home now lies at the bottom of a reservoir of brown water created to feed a hydroelectric power plant, the first to be funded by the
World Bank for over twenty years. ‘I’ll never forget that place,’ says the 41-year-old villager. ‘It was my home. I picked my first
bamboo stalks there.’
The World Bank stopped financing hydroelectric dam projects in developing countries twenty years ago because of criticism that such
projects were harming local communities and the environment. But Nam Theun 2 – a 39-metre high dam on the Mekong River that
generates over 1,000 megawatts of electricity – is the showpiece for the bank’s new policy of supporting sustainable hydropower
projects. For Laos it is part of a longer-term strategy to revitalise the economy and become the battery of South-East Asia.
In 2010 the dam brought $5.6 million in sales of electricity and it is estimated that during the next 25 years Nam Theun 2 will generate
around $2 billion in revenue to Laos, one of Asia’s poorest countries, since most of the electricity will be exported to its power-hungry
neighbour, Thailand. The government has promised that this money will be spent on reducing poverty and both renewing and
improving the country’s infrastructure.
Seventeen villages in the flooded area have now been rebuilt and the 6,200 people – mostly farmers – who lived in them have been
retrained to make a living from the reservoir. The power company has promised to double their living standards within five years.
According to the World Bank, 87 per cent of those resettled believe life is much better than before as they now have electricity,
sanitation, clean water, new roads and greater access to schools and health care.
But the old criticisms have not gone away. Environmental and human rights groups warn that the dam will have a negative impact on
water quality and fish and that the local people who were relocated after the area was flooded may not be able to support themselves
economically in future.
As well as the 6,200 villagers already re-housed, activists also point out that there are over 110,000 people in riverside villages
downstream from the dam whose lives will have to change because of the new river ecosystem. They claim that these people will have
to deal with issues like flooding, decline of the fish population and poor water quality. How quickly they will pick up new skills is
uncertain.
But the World Bank says it is responsive to these problems. A 4,100-square kilometre protected area has been established around the
dam to safeguard flora and fauna. It admits though that rebuilding the lives of the villagers is not a short-term process and everyone is

trying to learn and readjust as they go along.

11. What happened to Sop On?
A. It was turned into a reservoir.
C. It was abandoned by the villagers.

B. It was destroyed by a flood.
D. It was bought by the World Bank.

12. Who helped to finance the project?
A. The Laos government
B. The World Bank
C. Villagers of Sop On
D. A hydroelectric company
13. How much electricity will it generate?
A. Over 39,000 megawatt
B. Over 1,000 megawatt
C. Over 20,000 megawatt
D. Over 10,000 megawatt

14. According to the passage, who will use most of the electricity?
A. South East Asia countries

B. Asia

C. Thailand

D. Laos

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15. According to paragraph 4, how many people were affected?
A. 2 billion people

B. 6,200 people C. 87% of Laos’ population

D. 5.6 million people

16. According to the World Bank, how will people’s life change after the dam?
A. It will be better.
C. They can work for the power company.

B. They will farm in the flooded area.
D. They will have new roads.

17. According to environmental and human rights group, what may happen to local people?
A. They may have better access to school.
C. They may not fish in the reservoir.

B. They may not make a living.
D. They may not want to leave their village.

18. What is the attitude of environmental and human rights group towards the project?
A. They strongly support the project.
C. They disagree with part of the project.

B. They criticize the project.
D. They are happy with the project.

19. What does the phrase “these problems” in the last paragraph refer to?
A. Flooding, decrease of fish, and poor water quality
C. Pollution caused by the dam

B. Poverty of villagers
D. Lack of new houses for villagers

20. What is the reading passage mainly about?
A. A hydroelectric project and its effects on people’s lives
C. Benefits of the World Bank

B. Villagers of Sop On
D. The development of Lao’s economy

PASSAGE 3 – Questions 21-30
Contrary to popular belief, one does not have to be a trained programmer to work online. Of course, there are plenty of jobs available
for people with high-tech computer skills, but the growth of new media has opened up a wide range of Internet opportunities requiring
only a minimal level of technical expertise. Probably one of the most well-known online jobs is the job of webmaster. However, it is
hard to define one basic job description for this position. The qualifications and responsibilities depend on what tasks a particular
organization needs a webmaster to perform.
To specify the job description of a webmaster, one needs to identify the hardware and software that the website webmaster will
manage is running on. Different types of hardware and software require different skill sets to manage them. Another key factor is
whether the website will be running internally (at a firm itself) or externally (renting shared space on the company servers). Finally,
the responsibilities of a webmaster also depend on whether he or she will be working independently, or whether the firm will provide
people to help. All of these factors need to be considered before one can create an accurate webmaster job description.
Webmaster is one type of internet career inquiring in-depth knowledge of the latest computer applications. However, there are also
online jobs available for which traditional skills remain in high demand. Content jobs require excellent writing skills and a good sense
of web as a “new media.”
The term “new media” is difficult to define because it encompasses a constantly growing set of new technologies and skills.
Specifically, it includes websites, emails, internet telephone, CD-ROM, DVD, streaming audio and video, interactive multimedia

presentations, e-books, digital music, computer illustration, video games, virtual reality, and computer artistry.
Additionally, many of today’s Internet careers are becoming pair-by-the-job professions. With many companies having to decrease
their number of employees in tough economic times, the outsourcing and contracting of freelance workers online has become common
business practice. The Internet provides an infinite pool of buyers from around the world with whom freelancers can contract their
services. An added benefit to such online jobs is that freelancers are able to work on projects with companies outside their own
country or residence.
How much can a person make in these kinds of careers? As with many questions related to today’s evolving technology, there is no
simple answer. There are many companies willing to pay people with technical Internet skills salaries well above $70,000 a year.
Generally, webmasters start at about $30,000 a year, but salaries can vary greatly. Freelance writers working online have been known
to make between $40,000 and $70,000 per year.

21. Which of the following means most nearly the same as “contrary” in the first paragraph?
A. Opposite

B. Agreeing

C. Equal

D. Embarrassing

22. The word “identify” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to….
A. name.

B. estimate.

C. discount.

D. encounter.

23. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refer to……….

A. companies.

B. new job opportunities. C. hardware and software.

D. webmasters.

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24. According to the reading passage, which of the following is true about webmasters?
A. They never work independently.
B. They require a minimal level of expertise.
C. The duties they perform depend on the organization they work for.
D. They do not support software products.

25. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in the passage?
A. The term “new media” is hard to state because it covers so much skill and technology.
B. The ever-expanding set of new technology and the knowledge based on that technology make the exact meaning of “new
media” difficult to specify.
C. Because it is constantly growing, the skills for “new media” difficult to specify.
D. Because new technology and the skills for that technology are always encompassing more fields, the expression “new
media” is impossible to specify.

26. What does “it” in paragraph 4 refer to?
A. Modern technology
C. A webmaster’s career

B. New media
D. The Internet

27. It can be inferred from the passage that…………
A. online workers can work full-time online.
B. only skilled workers make good money.
C. it is easy to become a webmaster.
D. workers with limited computer skills cannot work online.

28. What is the purpose of this passage?
A. To inform people about the tasks and role of a webmaster
B. To inform people about the computer industry
C. To inform people about employment related to the internet
D. To explain why webmasters make a lot of money

29. According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT…….
A. there are online jobs available for workers with minimal computer skills.
B. webmasters must have knowledge of the latest computer applications.
C. online workers cannot free themselves from the office.
D. “new media” is not easy to define.

30. The word “vary” in paragraph 6 could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. Change

B. Decrease

C. Increase

D. Differ

PASSAGE 4 – Questions 31-40
The Greenhouse Effect and Global Warming
Carbon dioxide and other naturally occurring gases in the earth’s atmosphere create a natural greenhouse effect by trapping and

absorbing solar radiation. These gases act as a blanket and keep the planet warm enough for life to survive and flourish. The warming
of the earth is balanced by some of the heat escaping from the atmosphere back into space. Without this compensating flow of heat out
of the system, the temperature of the earth’s surface and its atmosphere rise steadily.
Scientists are increasingly concerned about a human – driven greenhouse effect resulting from a rise in atmospheric levels of carbon
dioxide and other heat – trapping greenhouse gases. The man-made greenhouse effect is the exhalation of industrial civilization. A
major contributing factor is the burning of large amount of fossil fuels – coal, petroleum, and natural gas. Another is the destruction of
the world’s forests, which reduces the amount of carbon dioxide converted to oxygen by plants. Emission of carbon dioxide,
chlorofluorocarbons, nitrous oxide, and methane from human activities will enhance the greenhouse effect, causing the earth’s surface
to become warmer. The main greenhouse gas, water vapor, will increase in response to global warming and further enhance it.
There is agreement within the scientific community that the buildup of greenhouse gases is already causing the earth’s average surface
temperature to rise. This is changing global climate at an unusually fast rate. According to the World Meteorological Organization, the
earth’s temperature climbed about 1 degree F in the past century, and nine of the ten warmest years on record have occurred since
1990. A United Nations panel has predicted that average global temperatures could rise as much as 10.5 degrees F during the next
century as heat-trapping gases from human industry accumulate in the atmosphere.

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What are the potential impacts of an enhanced greenhouse effect? According to estimates by an international committee, North
American climatic zones could shift northward by as much as 550 kilometers [340 miles]. Such a change in climate would likely
affect all sectors of society. In some areas, heat and moisture stress would cut crop yields, and traditional farming practices would
have to change. For example, in the North American grain belt, higher temperature and more frequent drought during the growing
season might require farmers to switch from corn to wheat and to use more water for irrigation.
[A] Global warming may also cause a rise in sea level by melting polar ice caps. A rise in sea level would accelerate coastal erosion
and inundate islands and low–lying coastal plains, some of which are densely populated. [B] Millions of acres of coastal farmlands
would be covered by water. [C] Furthermore, the warming of seawater will cause the water to expand, thus adding to the potential
danger. [D]
Global warming has already left its fingerprint on the natural world. Two research teams recently reviewed hundreds of published
papers that tracked changes in the range and behavior of plant and animal species, and they found ample evidence of plants blooming
and birds nesting earlier in the spring. Both teams concluded that rising global temperatures are shifting the ranges of hundreds of

species – thus climatic zones – northward. These studies are hard evidence that the natural world is already responding dramatically to
climate change, even though the change has just begun.
31. According to the passage, how do carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases affect the earth-atmosphere system?
A. They collect solar radiation that warms the earth’s surface.
B. They create the conditions for new forms of life to emerge.
C. They cause heat to flow from the atmosphere into space.
D. They decrease the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere.
32. Which sentence below best expresses the essential information in the bold sentence in paragraph 2? Incorrect choices change the
meaning in important ways or leave out the essential information.
The man-made greenhouse effect is the exhalation of industrial civilization.
A. The greenhouse effect causes breathing problems in industrial workers.
B. The growth of industry was made possible by the greenhouse effect.
C. Scientists are seeking better ways to manufacture greenhouse gases.
D. Industrial activities result in emissions that cause the greenhouse effect.
33. All of the following are contributing factors to global warming EXCEPT ….
A. the burning of coal and petroleum.
B. the loss of forest lands.
C. the conversion of carbon dioxide to oxygen.
D. the buildup of water vapor in the atmosphere.
34. What can be inferred from paragraph 3 about global climate change?
A. Climate change will have both positive and negative effects on human society
B. It is difficult to predict the effects of climate change over the next century.
C. International organizations have been studying climate change only since 1990
D. Climate change is likely to continue as long as heat-trapping gases accumulate.
35. According to paragraph 4, what is one effect that climate change could have on agriculture in North America?
A. Return to more traditional methods of farming
B. Movement of farms to the northernmost regions
C. Changes in the crops that farmers can grow
D. Less water available for irrigating crops
36. The word “inundate” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to………..

A. cover
B. reduce.
C. move.
D. create.
37. Why does the author mention fingerprint in paragraph 6?
A. To show that hundreds of fingerprints were examined
C. To describe a method used by two research teams
38. The word “they” in paragraph 6 refers to ………
A. teams.
B. papers.
C. species.

B. To introduce conclusive evidence of global warming
D. To suggest that people do not cause global warming

D. birds.

39. What evidence does the author give that climatic zones have shifted northward?
A. Solar radiation escapes from the atmosphere back into space.
B. The water in the ocean expands as it gets warmer.
C. Plants bloom and birds build nests earlier in the spring.
D. Birds no longer pollinate plants or control insect populations.
40. Look at [A], [B], [C], and [D] that indicate where the following sentence could be added to the passage.

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The combination of melting ice caps with the expansion of water could raise the sea level several centimeters by the year
2100.
Where would the sentence best fit? Choose the letter that shows where the sentence should be added.

A. [A]
B. [B]
C. [C]
D. [D]

PHẦN 3: VIẾT – VSTEP (60 phút)
TASK 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
You received an email from your English friend, Jane. She asked you for some information about one of your friends. Read
part of her email below.

I’ve just got an email from your friend, An. She said she’s going to take a course in London this summer. She asked if
she could stay with my family until she could find an apartment. Can you tell me a bit about her (things like her
personality, hobbies and interests, and her current work or study if possible)? I want to see if she will fit in with my
family.
Write an email responding to Jane.
You should write at least 120 words. You do not need to include your name or addresses. Your response will be evaluated in terms of
Task Fulfillment, Organization, Vocabulary and Grammar.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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TASK 2
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task
Read the following text from a book about tourism.
Tourism has become one of the fastest growing industries in the world. Millions of people today are
travelling farther and farther throughout the year. Some people argue that the development of tourism
has had negative effects on local communities; others think that its influences are positive.
Write an essay to an educated reader to discuss the effects of tourism on local communities. Include reasons and

any relevant examples to support your answer.
You should write at least 250 words. Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task Fulfillment, Organization,
Vocabulary and Grammar.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ĐỀ 2
Time allowed: 60 minutes
No. of items: 2
TASK 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
You received an email from your English pen friend, Paul. He asked you about your TV in your country. Read part of his email below.
One of my hobbies is watching TV. There are many fantastic programs for me to watch. Sometimes I
can spend my whole day watching TV. Could you tell me about TV in your country? Are the programs
interesting to you? What is your best favourite TV program? What is that program about? How much
TV do you watch every day? Do people in your country watch too much TV these days?
I’m looking forward to hearing from you soon.
Write an email responding to Paul. You should write at least 120 words. You do not need to include your name or addresses.
TASK 2

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Read the following text from an article about smoking.
Medical studies have shown that smoking not only leads to health problems for the smoker, but also for
people close by. For this reason, smoking should not be allowed in public places. Opponents argue that
the forbiddance of smoking would possibly affect the freedom of choice or lead to the closure of many
bars and pubs. However, supporters of this ban place people’s health problems at the top of the scale.
Now, write an essay to an educated reader to discuss your opinions about whether public smoking should be banned or not. Include
reasons and any relevant examples to support your answer. You should write at least 250 words.

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