BỘ 7 ĐỀ THI TIẾNG ANH THPT QUỐC GIA CÓ ĐÁP ÁN

ĐỀ SỐ 1
* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. hair
B. rain
C. laid
D. wait
Question 2: A. rhythm

B. psychology

C. physical

D. mythology

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3:

A. physical

B. summary

C. romantic

D. following

Question 4:

A. compliment

B. counterpart

C.kindergarten

D. biologist

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: St Nicholas' Church has been granted more than £130,000 by English Heritage to repair the
.................. building.
A. Weather-beaten

B. Contemporary

C. Under the weather D. Chic

Question 6: I can’t imagine how anyone .................. clever as he is could make a terrible mistake.
A. even-rather

B. so-as

C. quite-just

D. as-such

Question 7: What I can’t understand is why he is now pursuing our daughter and why he has not told
her that he was once acquainted .................. us.
A. to

B. with

C. for

D. of

Question 8: The belief that a man in his early twenties ought to have a firm occupational choice reflects
.................. that development is complete by the end of adolescence.
A. the prevailing view

B. the prevailed view

C. the view prevailed

D. this view is prevailing

Question 9: I know that someone who has great natural shape but is .................. won't beat someone
with a lesser shape who is in condition.
A. out of reach

B. out of the question

C. out of the ordinary

D. out of the condition

Question 10: I couldn’t believe my eyes. She .................. in that pink kimono.
A. looked so perfectly

B. looked so beautiful

C. was looking beautifully D. look such nice

Question 11: Even though Nestlé is a globally recognized .................. name, Nestlé products only
account for a little more than 2% of packaged food and beverages sold around the world.
A. notorious

B. household

C. double-barreled

D. strange-sounding

Question 12: I’m sure you can recognize her; she .................. a purple raincoat.
A. will have worn

B. will be wearing

C. is going to wear

D. will have been wearing

Question 13: Unlike most modernist poets, .................. based on ordinary speech.
A. Robert Frost’s poems were

B. the works of Robert Frost were

C. Robert Frost wrote poems that were

D. the poetry written by Robert Frost

Question 14: According to reports, choosing a winner from the final three .................. was a hard task.
A. participants

B. contestants

C. applicants

D. partakers

Question 15: Peter: “I can’t decide what color I want for my bedroom. What do you think?” Jane: “You
should choose .................. color you want. You’re the one who will have to live with it.”
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A. whichever that

B. whatever

C. however

D. that what

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Question 16: .................. playing professional basketball, she also enjoys tennis.
A. Besides

B. Moreover

C. Apart

D. Together

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 17: “Maybe you can take a vacation next month.”
A. Nothing special.

B. You’re welcome.

C. It’s very expensive.

D. I don’t think so. I’m teaching all summer.

Question 18: “ .................. ” “Yes. Do you have any shirts?”
A. Could you do me a favour?

B. Oh, dear. What a nice shirt!

C. May I help you?

D. White, please.

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: We’re not taking on any new staff at the moment so that we can cut down the cost.
A. employing

B. hiring

C. offering

D. laying off

Question 20: The story was that of a little girl who was bom in a well-to-do family and was a top
performer in her studies.
A. rolling in money

B. made of money

C. well-heeled

D. destitute

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 21: The fox was unsuccessful in reaching the grapes.
A. The fox tried in vain to reach the grapes.

B. There’s no point reaching the grapes.

C. It was not worth reaching the grapes.

D. It was no good to reach the grapes.

Question 22: He seemed very reluctant to take my advice.
A. He seemed quite willing to take my advice.
B. It seemed he was not ready to give me advice.
C. It seemed he was not willing to take my advice.

D. He seemed very anxious to take my advice.
Question 23: I don’t agree with prohibiting smoking in bars.
A. I am not in favor to prohibiting smoking in bars.
B. I am not in favor of prohibiting smoking in bars.
C. I am not in favor with prohibiting smoking in bars.
D. I am not on favor of prohibiting smoking in bars.
* Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 24 to 30.
REALITY TELEVISION
Reality television is genre of television programming which, (it is claimed), presents unscripted
dramatic or humorous situation, documents actual events, and features ordinary rather than professional
actors. It could be described as a form of artificial or “heightened” documentary. Although the genre has
existed in some form or another since the early years of television, the current explosion of popularity
dates from around 2000.

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Reality television covers a wide range of television programming formats, from game or quiz shows
which resemble the frantic, often demeaning programmes produced in Japan in the 1980s and 1990s (a
modem example is Gaki no Tsukai), to surveillance- or voyeurism- focused productions such as Big
Brother.
Critics say that the term “reality television” is somewhat of a misnomer and that such shows frequently
portray a modifies and highly influenced form of reality, with participants put in exotic location or
abnormal situations, sometimes coached to act in certain ways by off-screen handlers, and with events on
screen manipulated through editing and other post-production techniques.
Part of reality television’s appeal is due to its ability to place ordinary people in extraordinary situations.
For example, on the ABC show, The Bachelor, an eligible male dates a dozen women simultaneously,
traveling on extraordinary dates to scenic locales. Reality television also has the potential to turn its
participants into national celebrities, outwardly in talent and performance programs such as Pop Idol,

though frequently Survivor and Big Brother participants also reach some degree of celebrity.
Some commentators have said that the name “reality television” is an inaccurate description for several
styles of program included in the genre. In competition- based programs such as Big Brother and
Survivor, and other special-living-environment shows like The Real World, the producers design the
format of the show and control the day-to-day activities and the environment, creating a completely
fabricated world in which the competition plays out. Producers specifically select the participants, and
use carefully designed scenarios, challenges, events, and settings to encourage particular behaviours and
conflicts. Mark Burnett, creator of Survivor and other reality shows, has agreed with this assessment, and
avoids the word “reality” to describe his shows; he has said, “I tell good stories. It really is not reality TV.
It really is unscripted drama.”
Question 24. The word “demeaning” is closest in meaning to ..................
A. despising

B. diminishing

C. valueless

D. humiliating

Question 25. According to the passage, Reality TV appeals to some because ...................
A. it uses exotic locations
B. it shows eligible men dating women
C. it can um ordinary people into celebrities
D. it shows average people in exceptional circumstances
Question 26. According to the passage, the program “Pop Idol” ...................
A. turns all participants into celebrities
B. is more likely to turn its participants into celebrities that Big Brother
C. is less likely to turn participants into celebrities than Big Brother
D. is a dating show
Question 27. Producers choose the participants ..................

A. to make an imaginary world
B. on the ground of talent
C. to create conflict among other things
D. only for special-living-environment shows
Question 28. The term “reality television” is inaccurate ..................
A. for talent and performance programs
B. for special-living-environment program
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C. for all programs
D. for Big Brother and Survivor
Question 29. The word “fabricated” is closest in meaning to ...................
A. imaginary

B. real

C. imaginative

D. isolated

Question 30. Which of the following in NOT true according to the passage?
A. Shows like Survivor have good narratives.
B. Mark Burnett thinks the term “reality television” is inaccurate.
C. Japan has produced demeaning TV shows copied elsewhere.
D. Reality television has been popular since well before 2000.
* Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Alligators have always been the most dangerous predators of the Florida Everglades, (31) ..................
their long-held position is now being challenged by a growing population of Burmese pythons.

The Burmese python, a giant snake measuring up to 20 feet long and weighing up to 200 pounds, is
very popular among exotic pet owners. However, as the (32) .................. snakes grow, they become more
difficult to cafe and handle. To avoid dealing with the snakes, the owners irresponsibly release them into
the wild. (33) .................. the Everglades is quite similar to the python’s native environment of Southeast
Asia, they survive and prosper without difficulty.
The issue with the Burmese pythons is their choice of meals. They eat alligators and endangered birds,
which creates a strain on an already (34) .................. ecosystem. Recently a 13-foot long Burmese python
was found with a 5-foot alligator bursting from its stomach. They python died trying to eat the alligator
but a larger one would have easily won the struggle. With over 30,000 Burmese pythons now living in the
Everglades, a solution to stop this invasive species is necessary. If the pythons are (35)..................
unchecked, there is a strong possibility they will wipe out a variety of species necessary for the
functioning of the Everglades ecosystem.
(Source: * Master TOEFL Junior*, Hahn (2015)
Question 31: A. but

B. so

C. because

D. since

Question 32: A. dead

B. died

C. death

D. deadly

Question 33: A. Although B. On account of

C. Since

D. When

Question 34: A. solid

B. fragile

C. balance

D. substantial

Question 35: A. left

B. leaving

C. leave

D. to leave

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 36: I’m not surprised that Tom is ill. He’s been burning the candle at both ends for a long
time. It was bound to affect his health sooner or later.
A. overworking
B. extra work
C. over loading
D. playing with fire
Question 37: The word crisis is too often used to exaggerate the predicament of a club

experiencing hard times.
A. situation

B. dilemma

C. shame

D. embarrassment

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.


Question 38: Julie had a training course in alternative medicine. She was able to help the man out of
danger.
A. Much as Julie had a training course in alternative medicine, she was able to help the man out of
danger.
B. Having trained in alternative medicine, Julie was able to help the man out of danger.
C. But for a training course in alternative medicine, Julie could have helped the man out of danger.
D. Despite training in alternative medicine, Julie was able to help the man out of danger.
Question 39: The guest on our show who has won the Opera. He is the youngest professional golfer that
has won this award so far.
A. The guest on our show is the youngest professional golfer to win the Opera so far.
B.The professional golfer who has won the Opera so far is the youngest guest on our show.
C. The youngest professional golfer won the Opera so far is the guest on our show.
D. The youngest guest on our show is the professional golfer winning the Opera so far.
* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions
Question 40: If the goal of education is to enhance both individual achievement and social progress, then
the “shopping mall colleges” should been replaced with colleges that are true learning

communities.
A. to enhance

B. both

C. been

D. that are

Question 41: If the man had transported to the hospital sooner than he was, he could have survived the
electrocution.
A. had transported

B. sooner

C. could

D. survived

Question 42: Some researchers believe that an unfair attitude toward the poor will contributed to
the problem of poverty.
A. Some researchers

B. an unfair

C. poor

D. contributed

*Read the following passage and mark the letter A, H, C, or 1) on your answer sheet to

indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Theresa May, the second female Britain’s prime minister following Margaret Thatcher, revealed in
2013 that she had been given a diagnosis of Type 1 diabetes, a condition that requires daily insulin
injections. Asked later how she felt about the diagnosis, she said her approach to it was the same as
toward everything in her life: “Just get on and deal with it.” That kind of steeliness brought her to center
stage in the aftermath of Britain’s vote to leave the European Union and the feuding that erupted in the
Conservative Party over who would succeed David Cameron.
Ms” May, 59 years old, is the country’s longest-serving home secretary in half a century, with a
reputation for seriousness, hard work and above all, determination. She is one of a growing number of
women in traditionally male-dominated British politics rising to the upper position of leadership.
Bom in 1956, Ms. May grew up mainly in Oxford shire, an only child who was first drawn to the
Conservative Party at age 12. As a conscientious student, she never rebelled against her religious
upbringing and remains a regular churchgoer. Tellingly, her sports hero was Geoffrey Boycott, a solid,
stubborn cricketer who specialized in playing the long game.
Like many other Britain’s prime minister including Tony Blair, Sir Robert Peel and Margaret Thatcher,
she won a place at Oxford. But while almost every other political leader got there by way of Eton College
and joined Oxford’s hedonistic Bullingdon Club, she attended a state secondary school and had a more


sedate university career. After unsuccessful attempts to be elected to the House of Commons in 1992 and
1994, she finally became an MP in 1997 general election.
May is known for a love of fashion and in particular distinctive shoes. She even wore leopardprint shoes to her final Cabinet meeting as Home Secretary in early 2016. However, she has been quite
critical of the media focusing on her fashion instead of her achievement as a politician. May also
describes cooking and walking as primary hobbies, and if someone is raising questions about why
walking can be classified as a hobby, she elaborates in a column for Balance magazine, in which she
wrote of her battle with diabetes.
Question 43. According to the passage, who is the prime minister coming before Theresa May?
A. Tony Blair

B. Margaret Thatcher

C. Sir Robert Peel

D. David Cameron

Question 44. The most prominent characteristic of Theresa May is ...................
A. stubbornness

B. seriousness

C. determination

D. hard work

Question 45. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. British political life is conventionally controlled mainly by men.
B. The number of women in politics is increasing.
C. Conservative Party didn’t have to discuss about who would be the next prime minister.
D. Theresa May’s toughness was one of the reasons for the Party to choose her for the prime
minister position.
Question 46. Which of the following facts is TRUE about Theresa May?
A. She graduated from Eon College.
B. As a child, she was quite rebellious.
C. She didn’t work part time as a university student.
D. She used not to be a home secretary.
Question 47. She first became a member of parliament in ..................
A. 1992

B. 1994

C. 1997

D. 2013

Question 48. Her reason to consider walking as one of her main hobbies is ..................
A. she is quite critical

B. it helps her fight diabete

C. someone asks about it

D. it is written on Balance magazine

Question 49. The word “approach” is closest in meaning to ..................
A. means

B. advance

C. technique

D. trick

Question 50. The word “hedonistic” is closest in meaning to ..................
A. ordinary

B. luxurious

C. economical

D. simple

ĐỀ SỐ 02
* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
front the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. nervous

B. birthday

C. third

D. worry

Question 2: A. piracy

B. privilege

C. primate

D. privacy

*Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in
the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. musician

B. mutual

Question 4: A. contestant B. satellite

C. museum

D. mosaic

C. similar

D. interview


* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: “What are you doing here now? You

be here for another three hours.”

“I know. We got an early start, and it took less time than we expected. I hope you don’t mind." A.
A.couldn’t
B. had better not
C. might not
D. aren’t supposed to
Question 6: How much he tries to convince you, please don’t
.
A. give up

B.give in

C. lay out

Question 7: So much effort and talent will go to_
A. waste
Question 8:

B. bargage

D. bring to

if we are forced to drop the film.
C. loss

D. failure

this book by the time it is due back to the library?

A. Will you read

B. Will you have read

C. Will you be reading

D. Have you read

Question 9: The government must take
A. important

action against environmental pollution.

B. unstable

C. decisive

D. soft

Question 10: She made a promise to be committed to her husband no matter what
A. It can be better or worse

B. Better than worse

C. Either better or worse
Question 11: One member of the project group

D.For better or for worse
the boss and was fired immediately.

A. came up against

B. came up with

C. talked back to

D. put up with

Question 12: Not until we
difficulties.

the school for children with disabilities

how they overcome

A. had visited/ did we know

B. visited/ had we known

C. visited/ did we know

D. have visited/ did we know

Question 13: We need to take
A. prospering

.

B. cautious

measure to solve the drug problem in our city.
C. Valuable

Question 14: Congress has decreed that the gasoline tax

D. Effective
.

A. abolish
B. abolished
C. be abolished
D. been abolished
Question 15:
I ask him for the money he owes me, he says he will bring it in a few days, but
I don’t think he has got it all.
A. Whatever

B. However

C. Whenever

D. Wherever


Question 16: “Some body forgot this hat. I wonder
A. whose is this hat

B. whose hat is

.”
C. whose hat this is

D. is this whose hat

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or O on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 17: Lan: Can we meet this Sunday to discuss our plan for the wildlife protection project?
Nam:
A. Yes, we did that.

B. Sunday is the weekend.

C. Sunday suits me fine.

D. Sunday is a great day.

Question 18: “Huy hasn’t finished his assignment, has he?” - “

”

A. Yes, he has. He hasn’t finished it yet.
B. Yes, he hasn’t. He’s too lazy.
C. No, he has in spite of being a good student.
D. No, he hasn’t because of his illness.
* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 19: Now our parents are still alive. We should be grateful to them and thank them for what they
have done for us.
A. Now our parents are still alive to be grateful to and to be thanked for what they have done for us.
B. If our parents are not alive, we will not need to be grateful to them and thank them for what they
have done for us.
C. We should be grateful to our parents when they are still alive and thank them for what they have
done for us.
D. Our parents will live longer if we are grateful to them and thank them for what they have done for
us.
Question 20: You need to study your vocabulary words. You can do well on the quiz.
A. You need to study your vocabulary words, so that you can do well on the quiz.
B. You need to study your vocabulary words, because you can do well on the quiz.
C. You can do well on the quiz before you need to study your vocabulary words.
D. Doing well on the quiz, you have a good chance to study your vocabulary words.
* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 21: Our grandmother might have phoned while we were out.
A. Our grandmother ought to have phoned while we were out.
B. Possibly our grandmother phoned while we were out.
C. Unfortunately we were out when our grandmother phoned.
D. We were sure our grandmother had phoned while we were out.
Question 22: No one expect the graduate assistant understood the results of the experiments.
A. All the graduate assistant understood the experiments.

B. The experiments were not understood by any of them.
C. Only the graduate assistant understood the experiments.
D. All but one of the graduate assistant understood the experiments.


Question 23: It’s just not possible for the cat to have opened the fridge.
A. The cat must not possible have opened the fridge.
B. The cat was supposed to possibly have opened the fridge.
C. The cat cannot possibly have opened the fridge.
D. The cat need not possibly have opened the fridge.
* Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 24 to 30.
MEGACITY: A NEW KIND OF CITY
A term 'megalopolis' (or megacity) was first used by French geographer Jean Gottman to describe the
north-eastern United States in 1961. The term is used more widely now and is defined as an urban area of
more than 10 million inhabitants dominated by a low-density housing. In 1995 there were 14 megacities.
By 2020 there could be 30.
Megacities are the result of the process of urbanization. After cities grew into crowded urban centres,
people who could afford to move into suburbs at the edge of the city. When the suburbs in turn became
crowded, people moved into villages and dormitory towns outside the city, but within commuting
distance. In this way, for the first time since industrialisation, the countryside began to gain population,
whereas cities lost their inhabitants. In the 1980s St Louis and Detroit in the America lost between 35 and
47 per cent of their populations and London lost 15 per cent in the 20 years to 1971.
However, this movement away from cities does not mean that the city is dying. In fact it is spreading.
From the old city develops a metropolitan area with many low-level urban developments. When these
metropolitan areas merge together, they form megacities which contain over 10 million people. The
largest of these is in America, called Boswash - a region over 300 miles long from Boston in the north to
Washington, DC in the south with more than 44 million people. There are emerging megalopolises in
Britain centred around London and the south-east, in Germany in the industrial region of the Ruhr and
Japan in the Tokyo-Osaka-Kyoto region.

(adaptedfrom Archive IELTS (2013), Louis Harrison et al., Cengage Learning)
Question 24: A megacity is characterised by
.
A. number of centres

B. high-rise apartment buildings

C. those who move from villages

D. low-level urban developments

Question 25: Movement away from cities creates_
A. urbanization
B. dormitory towns
Question 26: Areas merging together form

.
C. metropolitan areas
.

A. city spread

B. megacity

C. suburb movement

D. village movement

Question 27: Which is the best title for paragraph 3?
A. Megacities around the world

B. What is a megacity?

C. The formation of megacities

D. Cities lose their people

Question 28: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. London is an example of emerging megalopolis.
B. People moving out of the cities live in the area within travelling distance.
C. The loss of city population can reach nearly 50%.
D. Megacities must have overall 10 million inhabitant.

D. industrialisation


Question 29. The word "spreading" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. lessening

B. shrinking

C. decreasing

D. expanding

Question 30. The highlighted word "these" in the passage refers to
A. megacities

B. people

.
.

C. regions

D. developments

*Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Bacteria are the smallest known living things with a cellular structure. These colorless, one-celled
micro-organisms exist (31)
organic matter is found: in soil, in water and in the air. Since most of
them have no chlorophyll, they cannot use light energy to synthesize their food, (32)
green
plants do.They must get their food in other ways. In this, bacteria resemble animals. However, since they
are enclosed in a cell wall, they can only (33)_
dissolved food like plants do. Although most
bacteria do not contain chlorophyll, some of them can make their own organic food from simple inorganic
(34)
. They do not, however, use light energy for this purpose. Others get ready-made food from
dead plants and animals. Still others are parasites. Parasites are (35)_
to enter other living
organisms and take food from them. In doing so, they often cause diseases or the death of their hosts.
(http://www. englishdaily626.com)
Question 31. A. however

B. whatever

C. wherever

D. whenever

Question 32. A. since

B. so

C. if

D. as

Question 33. A. absorb

B. consume

C. attract

D. eat

Question 34. A. materials B. foodstuffs

C. supplies

D. resources

Question 35. A. competent B. effective

C. able

D. skilled

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following question.
Question 36: This is the third successive time the firm receives this award.
A. continuous

B. successful

C. enventual

D. high

Question 37: More complex animals gradually evolved from these very simple creatures.
A. resolved

B. involved

C. revolted

D. developed

*Mark the letter A, B, C, or I) on your answer sheet to indicate the wordfs) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 38: Feel free to bring along your significant other to the party.
A. dear

B. foe

C. mate

D. spouse

Question 39: I’d go mad if I had to do a dead-end job like working on a supermarket checkout.
A. boring

B. monotonous

C. fascinating

D. demanding

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 40: President Andrew Jackson had an official cabinet, but him preferred the advice of his
informal advisors, the Kitchen Cabinet.
A. an official

B. him

C. preferred

D. his

Question 41: Before the newspaper became widespread, a town crier has walked throughout a village or
town singing out the news.
A. widespread

B. crier

C. has

D. singing out

Question 42: The Dean demanded thorough research, complete investigate, and well-written report.


A. thorough

B. investigate

C. and

D. well-written report

* Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Political and economic reforms launched in 1986 have transformed the country from one of the poorest
in the world, with per capita income around US $100, to lower middle income status within a quarter of a
century with per capita income of around US $2,100 by the end of 2015.
Vietnam’s per capita GDP growth since 1990 has been among the fastest in the world, averaging 5.5
percent a year since 1990, and 6.4 percent per year in the 2000s. Vietnam’s economy continued to
strengthen in 2015, with estimated GDP growth rate of 6.7 percent for the whole year.
The Vietnamese population is also better educated and has a higher life expectancy than most countries
with a similar per capita income. The maternal mortality ratio has dropped below the upper-middleincome country average, while under-five mortality rate has fallen by half, to a rate slightly above that
average. Access to basic infrastructure has also improved substantially. Electricity is now available to
almost all households, up from less than half in 1993. Access to clean water and modem sanitation has
risen from less than 50 percent of all households to more than 75 percent.
Vietnam’s Socio-Economic Development Strategy (SEDS) 2011-2020 gives attention to structural
reforms, environmental sustainability, social equity, and emerging issues of macroeconomic stability. It
defines three "breakthrough areas": promoting human resources/skills development (particularly skills for
modem industry and innovation), improving market institutions, and infrastructure development.

In addition, the five-year Socio-Economic Development Plan 2011-2015 focused on three critical
restructuring areas - the banking sector, state-owned enterprises and public investment - that are needed to
achieve these objectives. The recent draft of the SEDP 2016-2020 acknowledges the slow progress of the
reform priorities of the SEDP 2011-2015.
With agriculture still accounting for almost half the labour force, and with significantly lower labour
productivity than in the industry and services sectors, future gains from structural transformation could be
substantial. The transformation from state to private ownership of the economy is even less advanced.
The state also wields too much influence in allocating land and capital, giving rise to heavy economy
wide inefficiencies. So, adjusting the role of the state to support a competitive private sector-led market
economy remains a major opportunity. This will be important for enhancing productivity growth which
has been stagnating for a long time.
(Adapted from http://ida. world bank, org/results/country/vietnam)
Question 43. It took Vietnam about
A. 20

years to move from the poorest to the middle income status?

B. 15

C.10

D. 25

Question 44. What was Vietnam’s per capita GDP growth rate in 2015?
A. 6.7%

B. 6.4%

C. 5.5%

D. 7.5%

Question 45. Which of the followings is NOT mentioned as an example of development in Vietnam?
A. The small number of people dead after birth
B. The larger number of people educated abroad
C. The improved access to cleanliness
D. The wide availability of electricity
Question 46. According to the passage, nearly
in 2015.
A. three-fourths

B. two-thirds

of the households did NOT get access to clean water
C. one-fourth

D. a half


Question 47. According to the passage, what is NOT an example of “breakthrough areas”?
A. Toad markets

B. Transport

C. Power supplies

D. Job training

Question 48. What is NOT a focus of the Socio-Economic Development Plan 2011-2015?
A. Spending money on education and health

B. Reforming the government’s companies
C. Changing the sum charged for use of money
D. Investing in profitable private businesses
Question 49. What does the word “stagnating” in the last paragraph mean?
A. Stopping developing

B. Making progress

C. Missing opportunities

D. Strengthening competitiveness

Question 50. What is likely to be over-controlled by the government?
A. Agriculture

B. Private companies

C. Services sectors

D. Heavy industries
ĐỀ SỐ 03
* Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1:A. talks
B. learns
C. stops
D. cuts
Question 2:A. suspicious B. summer

C. swim

D. sugar

* Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose differs from the other
three in stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. household

B. secure

Question 4: A. acquaintance B. Enthusiasm

C. pressure

D. active

C. loyalty

D. incapable

* Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5: During a curfew it is not possible walking on the streets after a specified hour.
A

B

C

D

Question 6: It is recommended that people took regular exercise.
A

B

C

D

Question 7: Everybody in my house have to do their share of household chores.
A

B

C

D

* Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 8: He has been very interested in doing research on .................. since he was at high school.
A. biology

B. biological

C. biologist

D. biologically

Question 9: She is a rising star as a standup comedian, always able to bring down the .................. during

each performance.
A. house

B. rain

C. roof

D. kennel

Question 10: We enjoy .................. time together in the evening when the family members gather in the
living room after a day of working hard.
A. spending

B. caring

C. taking

D. doing

Question 11: She found it difficult to get .................. with new friends.
A. aquaint

B. acquaintance

C. acquainted

D. acquaints

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Question 12: By this time next summer, you .................. your studies.
A. completes
B. will complete
C. are completing
D. will have completed
Question 13: Like everyone else, Sue has her .................. of course but on the whole, she's quite satisfied
with life.
A. ups and downs

B. ins and outs

C. safe and sound

D. odds and ends

Question 14: With greatly increased workloads, everyone is .................. pressure now.
A. under

B. above

C. upon

D. out of

Question 15: The parents realized that the young teacher was .................. great efforts to help
their poor kids.
A. doing

B. making

C. having

D. getting

Question 16: As I have just had a tooth .................., I am not allowed to eat or drink anything for
three hours.

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A. taken out

B. crossed out

C. broken off

D. tried on

Question 17: It’s a big country with a .................. population.
A. rare

B. sparse

C. scarce

D. few

Question 18: Best friends are the people in your life that make you laugh .................., smile brighter and
live better.

A. loud

B. louder

C. loudly

D. more loudly

Question 19: Most doctors and nurses have to work on a .................. once or twice a week at the hospital.
A. solution

B. night shift

C. household chores

D. special dishes

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: - “What do you usually do on your day off?” - “ .................. ”
A. I usually drive to work
B. I will sleep all day
C. I usually do not much
D. Nothing much. I always sleep until noon.
Question 21: - Hoa: “What a lovely hat you have!”
- Mai: “Thanks. ...................................”
A. I’m glad you like it

B. I don’t care

C. That’s OK

D. Certainly

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSET in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Hue is the ideal place to enjoy life; it’s a beautiful and hospitable city with its famous
cultural heritage.
A. friendly

B. natural

C. affectionate

D. noticeable

Question 23: Billy, come and give me a hand with cooking.
A. attempt

B. prepared

C. be busy

D. help

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: She got up late and rushed to the bus stop.
A. went quickly

B. went leisurely

C. went slowly

D. dropped by

Question 25: Although my brother is sometimes mischievous, he is well-behaved on the
whole. A. close-knit

B. obedient

C. shocked

D.

disobedient
* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 26: They are not allowed to go out in the evening by their parents.
A. Their parents do not want them to go out in the evening.
B. Going out in the evening is permitted by their parents.
C. Their parents never let them go out in the evening.
D. Although their parents do not allow, they still go out in the evening.
Question 27: In spite of his poverty, he led a devoted life to the revolutionary cause.
A. He could not devote his life to the revolutionary cause because of his poverty.
B. If he had not been so poor, he could have devoted his life to the revolutionary cause.


C. Poor as he was, he led a devoted life to the revolutionary cause.
D. He led a devoted life to the revolutionary cause, but he was so poor.

Question 28: I thought I should not have stayed at home yesterday.
A. I regretted staying at home yesterday.
B. I regretted for staying at home yesterday.
C. I regret for staying at home yesterday.
D. I regret to stay at home yesterday.
* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the follow ing questions.
Question 29: People should not throw rubbish in the park. People should not cut down the trees in
the park.
A. People should either throw rubbish in the park or cut down the trees in the park.
B. People should neither throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park.
C. People should either throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park.
D. People should neither throw rubbish or cut down the trees in the park.
Question 30: It's her duty to shop for groceries at the supermarket every day.
A. She has only one duty to shop for groceries at the supermarket every day.
B. She takes responsibility for shopping for groceries at the supermarket every day.
C. To shop for groceries at the supermarket every day, she has a duty.
D. Her duty is shopping at the supermarket every day.
* Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Years ago, in their private family role, women quite often dominate the male members of the
household. Women were quite (31) .................. to their families. However, the public role of women has
changed (32) .................. since the beginning of World War II. During the war, men were away from
home to the battle. As a (33).................. , women were in complete control of the home. They found
themselves doing double and sometimes triple duty. They began to take over the work of their absent
husbands and to work outside. They accounted for 73% of the industrial labor force. Women were forced
by economic realities to work in the factories. The
women who worked there were (34) .................. low wages, lived in crowded and small dormitories. (35)
.................. they found themselves a place as active members of society.
Question 31: A. fascinated

B. worried

C. dedicated

D. interested

Question 32: A. unfortunately

B. Approximately

C. nearly

D. dramatically

Question 33: A. change

B. result

C. success

D. opportunity

Question 34: A. paid

B. made

C. created

D. delivered

Question 35: A. Because

B. Therefore

C. However

D. So

* Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
If parents bring up a child with the sole aim of turning the child into a genius, they will cause a disaster.
According to several leading educational psychologists, this is one of the biggest mistakes which


ambitious parents make. Generally, the child will be only too aware of what his parents expect, and will
fail. Unrealistic parental expectations can cause great damage to children.
However, if parents are not too unrealistic about what they expect their children to do, but are ambitious
in a sensible way, the child may succeed in doing very well - especially if the parents are very supportive
of their child.
Michael Collins is very lucky. He is crazy about music, and his parents help him a lot by taking him
to concerts and arranging private piano and violin lessons for him. They even drive him 50 kilometers
twice a week for violin lessons. Michael’s mother knows very little about music, but his father
plays the trumpet in a large orchestra. However, he never makes Michael enter music
competitions if he is unwilling.
Winston Smith, Michael’s friend, however, is not so lucky. Both his parents are successful musicians,
and they set too high a standard for Winston. They want their son to be as successful as they are and so
they enter him for every piano competition held. They are very unhappy when he does not win. Winston
is always afraid that he will disappoint his parents and now he always seems quiet and unhappy.
Question 36: One of the serious mistakes parents can make is to ...................

A. push their child into trying too much

B. make their child become a musician

C. neglect their child’s education

D. help their child to become a genius

Question 37: Parents’ ambition for their children is not wrong if they ...................
A. force their children into achieving success
B. themselves have been very successful
C. arrange private lessons for their children
D. understand and help their children sensibly
Question 38: Who have criticized the methods of some ambitious parents?
A. Educational psychologists.

B. Unrealistic parents.

C. Their children

D. Successful musicians.

Question 39: The phrase “crazy about” in the passage mostly means ...................
A. “surprised at”

B. “completely unaware of”

C. “confused about”

D. “extremely interested in”

Question 40: Winston’s parents push their son so much and he ...................
A. cannot learn much music from them

B. is afraid to disappoint them

C. has won a lot of piano competitions

D. has become a good musician

Question 41: The word “unwilling” in the passage mostly means ..................
A. “getting ready to do something”

B. “not objecting to doing anything”

C. “not wanting to do something”

D. “eager to do something”

Question 42: The two examples given in the passage illustrate the principle that ..................
A. parents should let the child develop in the way he wants
B. successful parents always have intelligent children
C. successful parents often have unsuccessful children
D. parents should spend more money on the child's education
* Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.


In the United States, friendship can be close, constant, intense, generous and real, yet fade away in a
short time if circumstances change. Neither side feels hurt by this. Both may exchange Christmas

greetings for a year or two, perhaps a few letters for a while - then no more. If the same two people meet
again by chance, even years later, they pick up the friendship where they left off and are delighted.
In the United States, you can feel free to visit people's homes, share their holidays, or enjoy their lives
without fear that they are taking on a lasting obligation. Do not hesitate to accept hospitality because you
can’t give it in turn. No one will expect you to do so for they know you are far from home.
Americans will enjoy welcoming you and be pleased if you accept their hospitality easily.
Once you arrived there, the welcome will be fun, warm, and real. Most visitors find themselves readily
invited into many homes there. In some countries it is considered inhospitable to entertain at home,
offering what is felt as only home cooked food, not doing something for your guests." It is felt that
restaurant entertaining shows more respect and welcome. Or for other different reasons, such as
crowded space, language difficulties, or family customs, outsiders are not invited into homes.
In the United States, both methods are used, but it is often considered friendlier to invite a person to
one's home than to go to a public place, except in purely business relationship. So, if your host or hostess
brings you home, do not feel that you are being shown inferior treatment.
Don't feel neglected if you do not find flowers awaiting you in your hotel room, either. Flowers are very
expensive there; hotel delivery is uncertain; arrival times are delayed, changed or cancelled - so flowers
are not customarily sent as a welcoming touch. Please do not feel unwanted! Outward signs vary in
different lands; the inward welcome is what matters, and this will be real.
Question 43: In the United States, friendship will .................. if circumstances change.
A. change suddenly

B. be destroyed

C. disappear gradually

D. be broken

Question 44: Americans .................. their foreign friends to make a return for their hospitality.
A. hope

B. hesitate

C. never allow

D. don’t expect

Question 45: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ..................
A. hospitality

B. obligation

C. holiday

D. money

Question 46: According to the passage, in some countries people prefer ..................
A. inviting outsiders into homes

B. crowded space

C. inviting guests to restaurants

D. family customs

Question 47: In the United States, inviting guests to a family dinner is .................. than inviting
them to a public place, except some situations.
A. less inferior

B. less hospitable

C. more natural

D. more popular

Question 48: The word “respect” in the passage is closest in meaning to ..................
A. enthusiasm

B. admiration

C. inspiration

Question 49: According to the passage, which of the following NOT true?
A. Flowers are not customarily sent to guests.
B. Flowers are available at all time.
C. Flowers are signs of outward welcome.
D. Flowers are expensive.
Question 50: Which of the following is the best title for this passage?

D. suggestion


A. American Hospitality

B. American Friendship

C. American Invitation

D. American Welcome
ĐỀ SỐ 04
* Mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs

from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
B. Helped
C. naked
D. practiced
Question 1: A. photographed
Question 2:

A. change

B. hungry

C. stronger

D. single

* Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose differs from the other
three in stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. believe

B. marriage

Question 4: A. appreciate B. embarrassing

C. maintain

D. response

C. situation

D. experience

* Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5: I find that necessary to do something about traffic problem in our city.
A. find that

B. to do

C. about

D. in

Question 6: There are few areas of human experience that have not been writing about.
A. there are

B. of human

C. have not been

D. writing

Question 7: In the past, polite men had stood up when women entered the room.
A. the

B. polite

C. had stood up

D. entered

* Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 8: Peter is working in an office. He’s a white- .................. worker.
A. collar

B. sleeve

C. shirt

D. button

Question 9: Just keep .................. on the baby while I cook the supper, will you?
A. a look

B. a glance

C. an eye

D. a care

Question 10: He clearly had no .................. of doing any work, although it was only a week till the exam.
A. desire

B. ambition

C. willingness

D. intention

Question 11: Not a word .................. since the exam started.

A. she wrote

B. she had written

C. has she written

D. she has written

Question 12: She showed her .................. by asking lots of trivial questions.
A. experience

B. experienced

C. inexperienced

D. inexperience

Question 13: An only child often creates an .................. friend to play with.
A. imagery

B. imaginable

C. imaginary

D. imaginative

Question 14: He has a very outgoing .................. and makes friends very easily.
A. person

B. personality

C. personal

D. personage

Question 15: Your .................. to life decides whether you are happy or not.
A. thinking

B. opinion

C. attitude

D. dream

Question 16: People are advised to .................. smoking because of its harm to their health.
A. cut down

B. cut off

C. cut in

D. cut down on

Question 17: They decided to divorce and Mary is .................. to get the right to raise the child.
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A. equal

B. determined

C. obliged

D. active

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Question 18: Some researchers have just .................. a survey of young people’s points of view on
contractual marriage.
A. sent

B. directed

C. managed

D. conducted

Question 19: It is not easy to .................. our beauty when we get older and older.
A. maintain

B. develop

C. gain

D. collect

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: - Harry: "I'm going on holiday tomorrow."

- An: “....................................................................... ”
A. Sorry to hear that

B. Congratulations!

C. Watch out

D. Have a nice time

Question 21: - Hoa: "Write to me when you get home."
- Phong: “.......................................................................”
A. I must

B. I should

C. I will

D. I can

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSET in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Professor Berg was very interested in the diversity of cultures all over the world.
A. variety

B. changes

C. conservation

D. number

Question 23: I don't like that man. There is a sneaky look on his face.
A. humorous

B. dishonest

C. guilty

D. furious

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: She decided to remain celibate and devote her life to helping the homeless and orphans.
A. married

B. divorced

C. separated

D. single

Question 25: Maria will take charee of the advertising for the play.
. spend time

B. spend

C. account for

D. be irresponsible for

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning

to each of the following questions.
Question 26: “If I were you, I'd tell him the truth, ” she said to me.
A. She said to me that if I were you, I’d tell him the truth.
B. She suggested to tell him the truth if she were me.
C. She will tell him the truth if she is me.
D. She advised me to tell him the truth.
Question 27: David seems really ill at case in front of all those people.
A. David feels uncomfortable in front of all those people.
B. David is easy to be ill because of all those people.
C. David is ill because he stands in front of all those people.
D. David fells comfortable in front of all those people.
Question 28: Those students should be punished for what they have done.
A. Those students should have done what they were punished for.


B. What those students have done will give them some punishment.
C. Those students can't get away with what they have done.
D. The things those students have done are kinds of punishment.
* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: I have to support my family. I want to find a job.
A. I want to find a job in order support my family.
B. I have to support my family from seeking a job.
C. I want to find a job so that I can support my family.
D. I want to find a job because my family supports me.
Question 30: The workers finished their work. They left for home.
A. Before the workers finished their work, they left for home.
B. Having finished their work, the workers left for home.
C. By the time the workers finished their work, they had left for home.
D. The workers left home since they finished their work.

* Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that bestfits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
The relationship between students and teachers is less formal in the USA than in many other countries.
American students do not stand up (1) .................. their teachers enter the room. Students are encouraged
to ask questions during class, to stop in the teacher’s office for extra help, and to phone if they are absent.
Most teachers (2) .................. students to enter class late or leave early if necessary. (3) .................. the
lack of formality, students are still expected to be polite to their teachers and fellow classmates.
When students want to ask questions, they usually (4) .................. a hand and wait to be called on.
When a test is being given, talking to a classmate is not only rude but also risky. Most American teachers
consider that students who are talking to each other (5) .................. a test are cheating.
Question 31: A. when

B. that

C. where

D. whether

Question 32: A. let

B. allow

C. make

D. encourage

Question 33: A. Though

B. In spite

C. Despite

D. Because of

Question 34: A. rise

B. arise

C. raise

D. put

Question 35: A. in

B. when

C. while

D. during

* Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
The increase in international business and in foreign investment has created a need for executives with
knowledge of foreign languages and skills in cross-culture communication. Americans, however, have not
been well trained in either area and, consequently, have not enjoyed the same level of success in
negotiation in an international arena as have their foreign counterpart.
Negotiating is the process of communicating back and forth for the purpose of reaching an agreement. It
involves persuasion and compromise, but in order to participate in either one, the negotiators must
understand the ways in which people are persuaded and how compromise is reached within the culture of
the negotiation.

In many international business negotiations abroad, Americans are perceived as wealthy and
impersonal. It often appears to the foreign negotiator that the American represents a large multimilliondollar corporation that can afford to pay the price without bargaining further. The American negotiator’s
role becomes that of an impersonal purveyor of information and cash, an image that succeeds only in
undermining the negotiation.
In studies of American negotiators abroad, several traits have been indentified that may serve to confirm
this stereotypical perception, while subverting the negotiator's position. Two traits in particular that cause
cross-culture misunderstanding are directness and impatience on the part of American negotiator.
Furthermore, American negotiators often insist on realizing short-term goals. Foreign negotiators, on the
other hand, may value the relationship established between negotiators and may be willing to invest time
in it for long-term benefits. In order to solidify the relationship, they may opt for indirect interactions
without regard for the time involved in getting to know the other negotiator.
Clearly, perceptions and differences in values affect the outcomes of negotiations and the success of
negotiators. For Americans to play a more effective role in international business negotiations, they must
put forth more effort to improve cross-cultural understanding.
Question 36: What is the author’s main point?
A. Negotiation is the process of reaching an agreement.
B. Foreign languages are important for international business.
C. Foreign perceptions of American negotiators are based on stereotypes.
D. American negotiators need to learn more about other cultures.
Question 37: According to the author, what is the purpose of negotiation?
A. To undermine the other negotiator’s position.
B. To communicate back and forth.
C. To reach an agreement.
D. To understand the culture of the negotiators.
Question 38: The word undermining in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ....................
A. making known

B. making clear

C. making brief

D. making weak

Question 39: Which of the following is mentioned as a criterion necessary for negotiation?
A. compromise

B. participation

C. communication

D. investment

Question 40: It can be referred from paragraph 1 that ..................
A. training is not available for Americans who must interact in international negotiations.
B. foreign businesspersons negotiate less effectively than Americans because of their training.
C. because their training is not as good, Americans are less successful as negotiators than
their international counterparts.
D. foreign businesspersons do not like to negotiate with Americans, who are not well trained.
Question 41: According to the passage, how can American businesspersons improve their
negotiation skills?
A. By living in a foreign culture

B. By getting to know the negotiators

C. By compromising more often

D. By explaining the goals more clearly

Question 42: The American negotiator is described as all of the following EXCEPT ....................
A. perceived by foreign negotiators as wealthy

B. willing to invest time in relationships


C. known for direct interaction

D. interested in short-term goals

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
In most discussions of cultural diversity, attention has focused on visible, explicit aspects of culture,
such as language, dress, food, religion, music, and social rituals. Although they are important, these
visible expressions of culture, which are taught deliberately and learned consciously, are only the tip
of the iceberg of culture. Much of culture is taught and learned implicitly, or outside awareness.
Thus, neither cultural insiders nor cultural outsiders are aware that certain “invisible” aspects of their
culture exist.
Invisible elements of culture are important to us. For example, how long we can be late before being
impolite, what topics we should avoid in a conversation, how we show interest or attention through
listening behavior, what we consider beautiful or ugly- these are all aspects of culture that we learn and
use without being aware of it. When we meet other people whose invisible cultural assumptions differ
from those we have learned implicitly, we usually do not recognize their behavior as cultural in origin.
Differences in invisible culture can cause problems in cross-cultural relations. Conflicts may arise when
we are unable to recognize others’ behavioral differences as cultural rather than personal. We tend to
misinterpret other people’s behavior, blame them, or judge their intentions or competence without
realizing that we are experiencing cultural rather than individual differences.
Formal organizations and institutions, such as schools, hospitals, workplaces, governments, and the
legal system are collection sites for invisible cultural differences. If the differences were more visible, we
might have less misunderstanding. For example, if we met a man in a courthouse who was wearing exotic

clothes, speaking a language other than ours, and carrying food that looked strange, we would not assume
that we understood his thoughts and feelings or that he understood ours. Yet when such a man is dressed
similarly to us, speaks our language, and does not differ from us in other obvious ways, we may fail to
recognize the invisible cultural differences between us. As a result, mutual misunderstanding may arise.
Question 43: What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To describe cultural diversity.
B. To point out that much of culture is learned consciously.
C. To explain why cross-cultural conflict occurs.
D. To explain the importance of invisible aspects of culture.
Question 44: The word “rituals” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ..................
A. cultures

B. formalities

C. assumptions

D. aspects

Question 45: The phrase “the tip of the iceberg” in paragraph 1 means that ..................
A. visible aspects of culture are learned in formal institutions
B. most aspects of culture cannot be seen
C. other cultures seem cold to us
D. we usually focus on the highest forms of culture
Question 46: Which of the following was NOT mentioned as an example of invisible culture?
A. What topics to avoid in conversation.


B. How late is considered impolite.
C. What food to eat in a courthouse
D. How people express interest in what others are saying

Question 47: The word “those” in paragraph 2 refers to ..................
A. people who speak a different language
B. people from a different culture
C. topics that should be avoided in conversation
D. invisible cultural assumptions
Question 48: It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that conflict results when ..................
A. people think cultural differences are personal
B. people compete with those from other cultures
C. one culture is more invisible than another culture.
D. some people recognize more cultural differences than others.
Question 49: The author implies that institutions such as schools and workplaces ..................
A. are aware of cultural differences
B. teach their employees about cultural differences
C. share a common culture.
D. reinforce invisible cultural differences
Question 50: Which of the following would most likely result in misunderstanding?
A. Unusual food being cooked by foreign visitors.
B. Strange behaviour from someone speaking a foreign language.
C. Strange behaviour from someone speaking our language.
D. Learning about our own culture in school.
ĐỀ SỐ 05
* Mark the letter A, BC or D on answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each following question.
Question 1: A. wave
B. stay
C. hate
D. party
Question 2: A. attracted B. blessed
C. hoped
D. handed

* Mark the letter A, B C or D on answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position ofprimary stress in each of the following question.
Question 3: A. signal
B. suppose
C. approach
D. respond
Question 4: A. situation B. appropriate
C. informality
D. entertainment
* Mark the letter A, B C or D on answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) each following question.
Question 5: Later a wine reception will be followed by a concert before guests tuck into a banquet.
A. an enormous breakfast

B. a formal conference

C. an informal party

D. a formal party

Question 6: In many cultures, people signify their agreement by nodding their head.
A. turning

B. shaking

C. pointing

D. waving

* Mark the letter A, B C or D on answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the

underlined word(s) each following question.
Question 7: You shouldn't point at people when you are talking to them. It is very impolite.

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