10 Đề thi THPT Tiếng Anh kèm đáp án bộ mới

Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien,

: 0986621363

TRƯỜNG THPT MỸ ĐỨC A
------------------------ĐỀ SỐ 01

Friday, April 24, 2020

ĐỀ THI THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; (50 câu trắc nghiệm)

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
the primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 1: A. interviewer
B. variety
C. simplicity
D. triangular
Question 2: A. material
B. survival
C. pyramid
D. official
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 3: A. iron
B. restaurant
C. parents
D. celebrate
Question 4: A. compose
B. wholesale

C. opponent
D. colony
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions
Question 5: Going from air condition room to a natural environment can cause respiratory illness.
A
B C
D
Question 6: Many people are afraid that in the future there will be no space leaving for human beings and
A
B
C
they express the idea of robots replacing human beings.
D
Question 7: The book offers a fascinated sight of the lives of the rich and famous.
A
B
C
D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions, from 8 to 15
Fossils are the remains and traces (such as footprints or other marks) of ancient plant and animal life that
are more than 10,000 years old. They range in size from microscopic structures to dinosaur skeletons and
complete bodies of enormous animals. Skeletons of extinct species of human are also considered fossils. An
environment favorable to the growth and later preservation of organisms is required for the occurrence of
fossils. Two conditions are almost always present: The possession of hard parts, either internal or external,
such as bones, teeth, scales, shells, and wood; these parts remain after the rest of the organism has decayed.
Organisms that lack hard parts, such as worms and jelly fish, have left a meager geologic record. Quick
burial of the dead organism, so that protection is afforded against weathering, bacterial action, and
scavengers.

Nature provides many situations in which the remains of animals and plants are protected against
destruction. Of these, marine sediment is by far the most important environment for the preservation of
fossils, owing to the incredible richness of marine life. The beds of former lakes are also prolific sources of
fossils. The rapidly accumulating sediments in the channels, floodplains, and deltas of streams bury freshwater organisms, along with land plants and animals that fall into the water.
The beautifully preserved fossil fish from the Green River soil shale of Wyoming in the western United
States lived in a vast shallow lake. The frigid ground in the far north acts as a remarkable preservative for
animal fossils. The woolly mammoth, along-haired rhinoceros, and other mammals have been periodically
exposed in the tundra of Siberia, the hair and red flesh still frozen in cold storage.
Volcanoes often provide environments favorable to fossil preservation. Extensive falls of volcanic ash
and coarser particles overwhelm and bury all forms of life, from
flying insects to great trees.
Caves have preserved the bones of many animals that died in them and were subsequently buried under a
blanket of clay or a cover of dripstone. Predatory animals and early humans alike sought shelter in caves and
brought food to them to the eater, leaving bones that paleontologists have discovered.
Question 8: The passage primarily discusses which of the following?
A. Types of fossils found in different climates B. What is learned from studying fossils
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C. How fossils are discovered
D. Conditions favorable to the preservation of fossils
Question 9: The word "traces" in line 1 is closest in meaning to ______________.

A. skeletons
B. structures
C. imprints
D. importance
Question 10: All of the following facts about fossils are refereed to by the author (paragraph 1) EXCEPT
the fact that they can be
A. complete animal bodies
B. microscopically small
C. fragile
D. skeletons of human ancestors
Question 11: The fossil fish from the Green River (paragraph 3) were probably preserved because they
were ________________.
A. covered by sediment B. buried slowly
C. protected by oil
D. in a deep lake
Question 12: The word "exposed" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____________.
A. located
B. photographed
C. uncovered
D. preserved
Question 13: Which of the following is LEAST likely to be found as a fossil, assuming that all are buried
rapidly?
A. a worm
B. a dinosaur
C. a human ancestor
D. a woolly mammoth
Question 14: It can be inferred that a condition that favors fossilization when volcanic ash falls to Earth is
____________.
A. high temperature
B. cold storage

C. quick burial
D. lack of water
Question 15: Which of the following is true of the environments in which fossil are found?
A. There are few environments in which fossils are protected.
B. Very different environments can favor fossilization.
C. Environments that favor fossilization have similar climates.
D. Environments that favor fossilization support large populations of animals.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions, from 16 to 20
American Indians played a central role in the war known as the American Revolution. To them, however,
the dispute between the colonists and England was peripheral. For American Indians the conflict was a war
for American Indian independence, and whichever side they chose they lost it. Mary Brant was a powerful
influence among the Iroquois. She was a Mohawk, the leader of the society of all Iroquois matrons, and the
widow of Sir William Johnson, Superintendent of Indian Affairs. Her brother, Joseph Brant, is the bestknown American Indian warrior of the Revolution, yet she may have exerted even more influenced in the
Confederacy than he did. She used her influence to keep the western tribes of Iroquois loyal to the English
king, George III. When the colonists won the war, she and her tribe had to abandon their lands and retreat to
Canada. On the other side, Nancy Ward held position of authority in the Cherokee ration. She had fought as
a warrior in the war against the Creeks and as a reward for her heroism was made "Beloved Woman" of the
tribe. This office made her chief of the women's council and a member of the council of chiefs. She was
friendly with the White settlers and supported the Patriots during the Revolution. Yet the Cherokees too lost
their land.
Question 16: What is the main point the author makes in the passage?
A. Siding with the English in the Revolution helped American Indians regain their land.
B. Regardless of whom they supported in the Revolution, American Indians lost their land.
C. The outcome of the Revolution was largely determined by American Indian women.
D. At the time of the Revolution, the Superintendent of Indian Affairs had little power.
Question 17: According to the passage, Mary Brant's husband had been a ______________.
A. Mohawk chief
B. government official C. Cherokee council member D. revolutionary hero
Question 18: To which tribe did Nancy Ward belong?

A. Mohawk
B. Iroquois
C. Creek
D. Cherokee
Question 19: How did Nancy Ward gain her position of authority?
A. By being born into a powerful family
B. By joining the Confederacy
C. By bravery in battle
D. By marriage to a chief
Question 20: According to the. passage, what did Mary Brant and Nancy Ward have in, common?
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A. Each influenced her tribe’s role in the American Revolution
B. Each went to England after the American Revolution.
C. Each lost a brother in the American Revolution.
D. Each was called "Beloved Woman" by her tribe.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 21: Scientists know him well. However, very few ordinary people have heard of him.
A. He is the only scientist that is not known to the general public.
B. Many ordinary people know him better than most scientists do.

C. Although he is well known to scientists, he is little known to the general public.
D. Not only scientists but also the general public know him as a big name.
Question 22: Martin missed his flight because he had not been informed of the change in flight schedule.
A. Not having been informed of the change in flight schedule, Martin missed his flight.
B. Not having missed his flight, Martin was informed of the change in flight schedule.
C. Martin had been informed of his flight delay, which was due to the change in flight schedule.
D. Martin missed his flight, though he had been informed of the change in flight schedule.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each of the numbered blanks, from 23 to 27
Millions of people of all ages enjoy a hobby which is both interesting (23)_________ fun. And every
year, more and more people start a stamp collection on their own and discover an interest which can last a
(24)_________. Starting your collection is easy because stamps can be found everywhere. Holiday postcards
from friends, birthday cards from relatives and letters from pen pals can all (25)_________ you with stamps
from all over the world. But once you have started collecting (26)_________, you will probably want to join
the Stamp Collectors’ Club (27)_________ exists to provide collectors with new British stamps.
Question 23: A. and
B. also
C. but
D. or
Question 24: A. life buoy
B. lifetime
C. life insurance
D. lifelong
Question 25: A. consider
B. give
C. provide
D. take
Question 26: A. attractively
B. seriously
C. competitively

D. greatly
Question 27: A. what
B. when
C. which
D. where
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges
Question 28: Customer: Can I have a look at that pullover, please? - Salesgirl: _____________
A. Can I help you?
B. Which one? This one?
C. It’s much cheaper. D. Sorry, it’s out of stock.
Question 29: - Mike: Good morning. Could I speak to Mr. Brown, please? - Carter: ______________
A. Propably by Monday next week.
B. I’ll have to ask the person you want to ring first.
C. Certainly. Would two o’clock be OK?
D. He’s in a meeting. Can I take a message?
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions
Question 30: In order to enjoy fine wine, one should drink it slowly, a little at a time.
A. spill it
B. stir it
C. smell it
D. sip it
Question 31: John boasting again. I’ve heard him telling everyone he’s the best tennis player in the County.
A. speaking too much
B. pulling my leg
C. holding his tongue
D. blowing his own trumpet
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions
Question 32: He usually stays in peace in stressful situations but this time he really lost his head.

A. lost touch
B. excited
C. took leave of his sense
D. kept calm
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Friday, April 24, 2020

Question 33: Perhaps the customer has overlooked his monthly statement and not paid the bill.
A. perused
B. confused
C. received
D. neglected
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions
Question 34: bought that second-hand car and he then recognized that he shouldn’t have done that.
A. Jack wished he did not buy that second-hand car.
B. Jack wished he had not bought that second-hand car.
C. Jack regretted to buy that second-hand car.
D. Jack regretted not buying that second-hand car.
Question 35: “John shouldn’t have behaved so badly,” said Janet.
A. Janet objected to John’s bad behavior.
B. Janet was angry with John.

C. Janet dislikes John.
D. Janet doesn’t like John’s behavior.
Question 36: My goal was to train myself to learn as much as possible to prepare for the future.
A. Self-training to learn as much as possible to prepare for the future is my desire.
B. I aimed at training myself to learn as much as possible to prepare for the future.
C. I train myself as much as possible with the aim of preparing for the future.
D. I try to attain the goal of learning as much as possible to prepare for the future.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
Question 37: The discovery of penicillin was a significant medical _____________.
A. innovation
B. revolution
C. breakthrough
D. novelty
Question 38: Little _____________ about mathematics that the lecture was completely beyond me.
A. do I know
B. I knew
C. I have known
D. did I know
Question 39: Please don't _____________ it amiss if I make a few suggestions for improvement.
A. judge
B. take
C. assume
D. think
Question 40: I must confess I was ______________ myself with rage.
A. outside
B. beside
C. beyond
D. above
Question 41: Different cultures _____________ dreams in different ways.
A. express

B. interpret
C. associate
D. interfere
Question 42: Can I _____________ your brain for a moment? I can’t do this crossword by myself.
A. have
B. use
C. pick
D. mind
Question 43: Our family is a _____________ from which we can go into the world with confidence.
A. basis
B. basal
C. basic
D. base
Question 44: Natural gas often occurs ______________ petroleum in the minute pores of rocks such as
sandstone and limestone.
A. both together with
B. both together
C. both with
D. with
Question 45: It is the greatest happiness on earth ______________.
A. to love and to be loved B. love and be loved C. loving and to be loved
D. to love and being loved
Question 46: The authorities recommend that the meeting ______________ next Wednesday.
A. be held
B. is held
C. will be held
D. held
Question 47: An eccentric is by definition someone whose behavior is _____________, someone who
refuses to conform to the accepted norms of his society.
A. abnormalities

B. abnormally
C. abnormal
D. abnormality
Question 48: _____________, his television would not be so loud.
A. Had Rafael being studied
B. Were Rafael studying
C. If Rafael studies
D. Unless Rafael was studying
Question 49: If you need any support, you can rely on me to _____________.
A. set you down
B. back you up
C. face up to you
D. put you through
Question 50: Life is a diary _____________ each line contains a story of experience.
A. who
B. that
C. in which
D. which
School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12

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: 0986621363

TRƯỜNG THPT MỸ ĐỨC A
------------------------ĐỀ SỐ 02

Friday, April 24, 2020

ĐỀ THI THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; (50 câu trắc nghiệm)

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 1: A. behave
B. academic
C. examination
D. grade
Question 2: A. introduces
B. practices
C. wishes
D. leaves
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 3: A. technology
B. achievement
C. economics
D. dependent
Question 4: A. humidity
B. incredible
C. necessary
D. endangered
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions
Question 5: Neither of the two candidates who had applied for admission to the Industrial Engineering
A

B
C
Department were eligible for admission.
D
Question 6: Prevented the soil from erosion, the trees planted by the farmer many years before were what
A
B
C
stopped the flood from reaching his house.
D
Question 7: The medical problems of parents and their children tend to be very similar to because of the
A
B
C
D
hereditary nature of many diseases.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions
Question 8: Face-to-face socializing is not as preferred as virtual socializing among the youth.
A. direct
B. facial
C. available
D. instant
Question 9: With so many daily design resources, how do you stay up-date with technology without spending
too much time on it?
A. connect to the Internet all day
B. update new status
C. use social network daily
D. get latest information
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in

each of the following questions
Question 10: This boy is poorly-educated and doesn’t know how to behave properly.
A. knowledgeable
B. ignorant
C. rude
D. uneducated
Question 11: Urbanization is the shift of people moving from rural to urban areas and the result is the growth of cities.
A. transposition
B. maintenance
C. movement
D. variation
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each of the numbered blanks, from 12 to 16
Working as a novelist is not really a career like being a doctor or a scientist. Although a few well-known ones,
like Harry Potter author J. K. Rowling, have become very (12)________, most writers find it difficult even to
make a living from their book sales. Novels take a long time to write and authors can get into financial
(13)________ if they don’t have money coming in regularly from another job. But for those (14)________ to
write novels, it is without doubt one of the most enjoyable kinds of work to do. The writer has to be creative,
thinking up completely new stories, and (15)________, meaning they put all their time and effort into their work.
They also need to be able to cope in a crisis, as nobody else can write their book for them. For this, a good sense
of humor often helps. Or the thought that may be their novel might one day be turned into a film and become a
Hollywood (16)________!
Question 12: A. worth
B. plenty
C. wealthy
D. valuable
Question 13: A. problem
B. trouble
C. worry
D. upset

Question 14: A. fixed
B. convinced
C. agreed
D. determined
Question 15: A. dedicated
B. delivered
C. deliberate
D. decided
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Question 16: A. best-seller

Friday, April 24, 2020

B. attraction

C. blockbuster

D. victory

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions, from 17 to 24
Did you know that humans aren't the only species that use language? Bees communicate by dancing. Whales

talk to each other by singing. And some apes talk to humans by using American Sign Language.
Meet Koko, a female gorilla born at the San Francisco Zoo on July 4 th, 1971. Koko learned sign language
from her trainer, Dr. Penny Patterson. Patterson began teaching sign language to Koko in 1972, when Koko was
one year old. Koko must have been a good student, because two years later she moved onto the Stanford
University campus with Dr. Patterson. Koko continued to learn on the campus until 1976. That's when she began
living full-time with Patterson's group, the Gorilla Foundation. Patterson and Koko's relationship has blossomed
ever since.
Dr. Patterson says that Koko has mastered sign language. She says that Koko knows over 1,000 words, and
that Koko makes up new words. For example, Koko didn't know the sign for ring, so she signed the words finger
and bracelet. Dr. Patterson thinks that this shows meaningful and constructive use of language.
Not everyone agrees with Dr. Patterson. Some argue that apes like Koko do not understand the meaning of
what they are doing. Skeptics say that these apes are just performing complex tricks. For example, if Koko points
to an apple and signs red or apple, Dr. Patterson will give her an apple. They argue that Koko does not really
know what the sign apple means. She only knows that that if she makes the right motion, one which Dr. Patterson
has shown her, then she gets an apple. The debate is unresolved, but one thing is for certain: Koko is an
extraordinary ape.
Sign language isn't the only unusual thing about Koko. She's also been a pet-owner. In 1983, at the age of 12,
researchers said that Koko asked for a cat for Christmas. They gave Koko a stuffed cat. Koko was not happy. She
did not play with it, and she continued to sign sad. So for her birthday in 1984, they let her pick a cat out of an
abandoned liter. Koko picked a gray cat and named him "All Ball." Dr. Patterson said that Koko loved and
nurtured All Ball as though he were a baby gorilla. Sadly, All Ball got out of Koko's cage and was hit by a car.
Patterson reported that Koko signed "Bad, sad, bad" and "Frown, cry, frown, sad" when she broke the news to
her.
It seems like Patterson and Koko have a good relationship, but not everyone agrees with it. Some critics
believe that Patterson is humanizing the ape. They believe that apes should be left in the most natural state
possible. Even Dr. Patterson struggles with these feelings. When asked if her findings could be duplicated by
another group of scientists, she said, "We don't think that it would be ethical to do again." She went on to argue
that animals should not be kept in such unnatural circumstances. Nonetheless, Koko lives in her foundation
today.
As for the future, Dr. Patterson and the Gorilla Foundation would love to get Koko to an ape preserve in Maui,

but they are having trouble securing the land. So unless you have a few million dollars to spare, Koko's going to
be spending her time in Woodland, California with Dr. Patterson. Koko probably doesn't mind that. If she moved
to Hawaii, she'd have to give up her Facebook page and Twitter feed, and she's got like 50 thousand likes. Some
may deny that she knows sign language, but nobody says that she doesn't know social networking.
Question 17: Which best expresses the main idea of this article?
A. It is natural for gorillas and house cats to live together.
B. If you want a lot of "likes" on Facebook, get a talking gorilla.
C. Koko uses sign language but some people think it's just a trick.
D. Bees, whales, and apes like Koko all use language to communicate.
Question 18: Which best expresses the author's purpose in writing the second paragraph?
A. The author is persuading readers that Koko should be freed.
B. The author is telling readers about Koko and Dr. Patterson's background.
C. The author is informing readers how Dr. Patterson developed her skills.
D. The author is describing the environment in which Koko lives.
Question 19: Which happened LAST?
A. Dr. Patterson began teaching Koko to sign.
B. Koko began living with the Gorilla Foundation.
C. Koko got a stuffed cat for Christmas.
D. Koko lost All Ball.
Question 20: Which statement would the author most likely AGREE with?
A. Koko doesn't really know sign language.
B. Some people are troubled by how Koko was raised.
C. Everybody likes how Dr. Patterson has raised Koko. D. Koko has mastered sign language without a doubt.
Question 21: Which best defines the word "duplicated" as it is used in the sixth paragraph?
A. To copy or recreate something
B. To dispute a fact or disagree with someone
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C. To be disproven through debate
D. To lie to someone or to fool them
Question 22: Which event happened FIRST?
A. Koko began living with the Gorilla Foundation. B. Koko moved onto the Stanford University campus.
C. Koko picked All Ball out for her birthday.
D. Koko got a stuffed cat for Christmas.
Question 23: Which best describes the main idea of the SIXTH paragraph?
A. Dr. Patterson has treated Koko very cruelly.
B. Some people are working very hard to prove that Dr. Patterson is wrong.
C. Dr. Patterson and Koko have a beautiful, pure, and unconflicted relationship.
D. Some people think that Koko should not have been treated like a human.
Question 24: Which statement would the author most likely DISAGREE with?
A. Some people think that Koko only signs to get food.
B. Dr. Patterson has no regrets about working with Koko.
C. The Gorilla Foundation would like to move Koko to an ape preserve.
D. Dr. Patterson has worked hard to teach Koko sign language.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions, from 25 to 29
The first English attempts to colonize North America were controlled by individuals rather than companies.
Sir Humphrey Gilbert was the first Englishman to send colonists to the New World. His initial expedition, which
sailed in 1578 with a patent granted by Queen Elizabeth was defeated by the Spanish. A second attempt ended in
disaster in 1583, when Gilbert and his ship were lost in a storm. In the following year, Gilbert's half brother, Sir
Water Raleigh, having obtained a renewal of the patent, sponsored an expedition that explored the coast of the

region that he named "Virginia." Under Raleigh's direction efforts were then made to establish a colony on
Roanoke island in 1585 and 1587. The survivors of the first settlement on Roanoke returned to England in 1586,
but the second group of colonists disappeared without leaving a trace. The failure of the Gilbert and Raleigh
ventures made it clear that the tasks they had undertaken were too big for any one colonizer. Within a short time
the trading company had supplanted the individual promoter of colonization.
Question 25: Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the passage?
A. British - Spanish Rivalry in the New World
B. Early Attempts at Colonizing North America
C. The Regulation of Trading Companies
D. Royal Patents Issued in the 16th Century
Question 26: The passage states which of the following about the first English people to be involved in
establishing colonies in North America?
A. They were acting on their own.
B. They were members of large trading companies.
C. They were immediately successful.
D. They were requested to do so by Queen Elizabeth.
Question 27: According to the passage, which of the following statements about Sir Humphrey Gilbert is true?
A. He fought the Spanish twice.
B. His trading company was given a patent by the queen.
C. He died in 1587.
D. He never settled in North America.
Question 28: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about members of the first Roanoke settlement?
A. Most were not experienced sailors.
B. They named the area "Virginia".
C. Some did not survive.
D. They explored the entire coastal region.
Question 29: According to the passage, which of; the following statements about the second settlement on
Roanoke Island is true?
A. It was conquered by the Spanish.
B. Its settlers all gave up and returned to England.

C. The fate of its inhabitants is unknown.
D. It lasted for several years.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
Question 30: We are aware that, _____________, the situation will get worse.
A. if dealt not carefully with
B. if not carefully dealing with
C. unless dealing with carefully
D. if not carefully dealt with
Question 31: - "Can you read that sign?" - "Just a minute. Let me ____________ my glasses."
A. put away
B. put off
C. put on
D. put with
Question 32: Because the waiter didn’t ____________ what I ordered, he brought me a mutton steak instead of
the chicken wings that I’d wanted.
A. stay up
B. call on
C. check in
D. take down
Question 33: It is thought that traditional marriage ____________ are important basis of limiting divorce rates.
A. records
B. responses
C. appearances
D. values
Question 34: She agreed that all the present paperwork ____________ for everyone to have more time to socialize.
A. to stop
B. stopping
C. be stopped
D. stopped
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Question 35: A large number of inventions and discoveries have been made ___________ accident.
A. by
B. at
C. in
D. on
Question 36: The world famous physicist and ___________ Stephen Hawking published an important paper
before he died at the age of 76
A. cosmonaut
B. cosmology
C. cosmologist
D. cosmologic
Question 37: ___________ did not surprise us.
A. That Peter failed his exam
B. Peter failed his exam that
C. Peter failed his exam, that
D. Peter failed his exam
Question 38: Why don't you have the documents _____________?
A. to photocopy
B. photocopied
C. photocopying

D. photocopy
Question 39: In a formal interview, it is essential to maintain good eye ____________ with the interviewers.
A. touch
B. connection
C. contact
D. link
Question 40: Italian TV has ____________ a young composer to write an opera for the TV’s thirtieth anniversary.
A. ordered
B. consulted
C. commissioned
D. appointed
Question 41: Of all the factors affecting agricultural yields, weather is the one ____________ the most.
A. that influences
B. why farmers influence it C. it influences farmers
D. farmers that is influences
Question 42: It is not easy to _____________ our beauty when we get older and older.
A. maintain
B. develop
C. gain
D. collect
Question 43: The government was finally ____________ by a minor scandal.
A. pulled down
B. taken down
C. put back
D. brought down
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges
Question 44: - Ann: Do you need any help? - Kate: _____________________________.
A. No, thanks. I can manage
B. That’s fine by me
C. I haven’t got a clue

D. That’s all for now
Question 45: - "What’s the matter? You don’t look very well." - "_____________________________."
A. I feel a little under the weather
B. I feel a little under the impression
C. I feel a little out of the blue
D. I feel a little out of order
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions
Question 46: Despite her inexperience in the field, Lynn applied for the job.
A. Lynn applied for the job even though she had no experience in the field.
B. Lynn was unable to do the job because she was inexperienced.
C. Lynn applied for the job because she had experience in the field.
D. Lynn did not apply for the job because of her inexperience in the field.
Question 47: Without his help, I wouldn’t have been able to complete my essay.
A. Had he helped me, I wouldn’t have been able to complete my essay.
B. If he hadn’t helped me, I wouldn’t have been able to complete my essay.
C. He didn’t help me, so I hadn’t been able to complete my essay.
D. He hadn’t helped me, but I could complete my essay.
Question 48: "Believe me. It's no use buying that machine," Jimmy told his friend.
A. Jimmy suggested to his friend that buying the machine was useful.
B. Jimmy tried to convince his friend that the machine was not worth buying.
C. Jimmy opposed his friend's idea that buying the machine was not useful.
D. Jimmy managed to persuade his friend that buying the machine was worthwhile.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions
Question 49: Sheila worked on a project together with Keith. She got married to him afterwards.
A. Sheila worked on a project with Keith, whom she had married earlier.
B. Sheila got married to Keith before they worked on a project together.
C. Sheila and Keith were married, so they began to work on the project together.
D. Sheila got married to Keith, with whom she had worked on a project together.
Question 50: What the teacher told me has given me food for thought.

A. The teacher told me about the food that was good for me.
B. The teacher told me something that was too difficult for me to do.
C. I didn't care much about what the teacher told me.
D. I must think seriously of what the teachers told me.
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TRƯỜNG THPT MỸ ĐỨC A
------------------------ĐỀ SỐ 03

Friday, April 24, 2020

ĐỀ THI THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; (50 câu trắc nghiệm)

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 1: A. decoration
B. opportunity
C. expectation
D. temperature
Question 2: A. digest
B. describe

C. swallow
D. advice
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 3: A. necessity
B. economy
C. society
D. facility
Question 4: A. schedule
B. picture
C. match
D. children
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions
Question 5: He asked the salesman for his refund for the laptop he had bought.
A. pay back
B. charge
C. repay
D. return
Question 6: Despite all my anxiety, I got hired for the job I wanted.
A. was offered
B. was offering
C. was dismissed from D. took
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions
Question 7: Our new house is modern but there is not enough room to swing a cat.
A. there's no space for children
B. there's no playground for cats
C. it's very small
D. there's no room to keep cats

Question 8: We played my brother's school at football and beat them hollow.
A. had a draw
B. lost the game
C. defeated easily
D. broke a nil score
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges
Question 9: - Trang: "I live in Vietnam." - Thomas: "_________________________”
A. About where?
B. Whereabouts?
C. What is it about? D. How about in Hanoi?
Question 10: - Tom: Sorry, I’m late, Peter. My car has broken down on the way here. - Peter: _____________
A. Well, it’s worth a try.
B. No, I wouldn’t mind at all.
C. That’s all right.
D. Not on my account.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
Question 11: Lake Superior, _________________, borders on the United States and Canada.
A. in the world is the largest lake
B. is largest lake in the world
C. it is the largest lake in the world
D. which is the largest lake in the world
Question 12: I must confess that I was ______________ myself with rage.
A. outside
B. beside
C. above
D. beyond
Question 13: ______________ I can't make the presentation myself, I've asked my assistant to be prepared to do it for me.
A. For
B. In the event that
C. Only if

D. On the other hand
Question 14: - "What was the groom wearing?" - "He was dressed in a ____________."
A. light summer suit
B. suit summer light
C. summer suit light
D. light suit summer
Question 15: Just put your coat in __________________.
A. the hall's closet
B. hall closet
C. the hall closet
D. the closet of the hall
Question 16: Please go to ______________ to pick up your ID card.
A. window third
B. the third window
C. the window three
D. third window
Question 17: The ______________ dressed woman in the advertisement has a posed smile on her face.
A. stylistic
B. stylistically
C. stylish
D. stylishly
Question 18: The thief managed to ______________ the police barricade.
A. break on
B. break down
C. break in
D. break through
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Question 19: _____________ excellent art museums, Moscow has a world-famous ballet company.
A. Because of
B. In spite of
C. In case of
D. In addition to
Question 20: The teacher is going to _______________ the children according to height.
A. group
B. collect
C. flock
D. gather
Question 21: Lightning currents ______________ to the interior of an airplane.
A. penetrate in rarity
B. penetrate seldom
C. seldom penetrate
D. rare penetrate
Question 22: You ________________ your seats today if you want to go to the game.
A. had better to reserve B. had better reserve
C. had to better reserve D. had to reserve better
Question 23: Gabriel Garcia Marquez, a Colombian writer whose book One Hundred Years of Solitude is among
his most famous, ________________ the Nobel prize in 1982.
A. who won
B. having won
C. which won

D. won
Question 24: When he went to Egypt, he knew _____________ no Arabic, but within 6 months he had become
extremely fluent.
A. scarcely
B. virtually
C. entirely
D. barely
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions
Question 25: The bones of the elderly are more prone to fractures than of young people.
A
B
C
D
Question 26: Folklore consists of the beliefs, customs, traditions, and telling stories that people pass from
A
B
C
generation to generation.
D
Question 27: Laura expected to give her mother a hand in housework at the weekend, but she did nothing.
A
B
C
D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each of the numbered blanks, from 28 to 32
The final stage before adulthood is adolescence. This is a period of transition for teenagers and there are many
crucial milestones. Socially and emotionally, teens worry that they may not be developing at the same rate
(28)_________ their peers. They become extremely self-conscious and may be sensitive about their appearance.

Teens may rebel (29)_________ their parents but are also more able to accept the consequences of their actions.
This is also a period of enormous physical changes and adolescents experience changes in their physical
development at a rate unparalleled since infancy. These changes include significant gains in height and weight.
Within a year, boys and girls can gain an (30)_________ of 4.1 inches and 3.5 inches repectively. This growth
spurt typically 2 years earlier for girls than for boys and can tend to make both sexes go through a clumsy phase.
(31)_________ their cognitive development, adolescents have greater reasoning skills and have developed the
ability to think logically and hypothetically. They are also able to discuss more abstract concepts. They should
also have (32)_________ strategies to help them study.
Question 28: A. like
B. just
C. along
D. as
Question 29: A. against
B. to
C. for
D. with
Question 30: A. amount
B. addition
C. average
D. increase
Question 31: A. In terms of
B. In addition to
C. In spite of
D. Regardless of
Question 32: A. developed
B. grown
C. achieved
D. advanced
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions, from 33 to 37

As viewed from space, the Earth's distinguishing characteristics are its blue waters and white clouds.
Enveloped by an ocean of air consisting of 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen, the planet is the only one in our solar
system known to harbor life. Circling the Sun at an average distance of 149 million km (93 million miles). The
Earth is the third planet from the Sun and the fifth largest planet in the solar system.
Its rapid spin and molten nickel-iron core give rise to an extensive magnetic field which, coupled with the
atmosphere, shields us from nearly all of the harmful radiation coming from the Sun and other stars. Most
meteors burn up in the Earth's atmosphere before they can strike the surface. The planet's active geological
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processes have left no evidence of the ancient pelting it almost certainly received soon after it was formed. The
Earth has a single natural satellite - the Moon.
Question 33: Approximately how much of the Earth's atmosphere isnitrogen?
A. Over three-fourths
B. Over one-half
C. Over one-fourth
D. All of it
Question 34: Which of the following helps to create Earth's magnetic fields?
A. Its nitrogen atmosphere B. Its blue waters
C. The Moon
D. Its molten metal core
Question 35: What two factors help protect the Earth from radiation?

A. Magnetic field and atmosphere
B. Blue waters and white clouds
C. Rapid spin and molten iron-nickel core
D. The Sun and the Moon
Question 36: The main idea of this passage is that _____________.
A. Earth has no common characteristics with other planets B. Earth is predominantly watered
C. Earth is the only planet with a moon
D. there are life-supporting characteristics on Earth
Question 37: This selection leads one to believe that ____________.
A. Earth may be bombarded by meteors in the near future B. Earth always gets hit by meteors
C. Earth never gets hit by meteors
D. Earth was hit by meteors in some past time period
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions
Question 38: The way to get the best out of me is to make me work very hard.
A. My work is under consideration, so I do my best.
B. If you make me work hard, I can't get the best.
C. I work best when I am under pressure. D. Don't make me work hard or I can't make the best out of me.
Question 39: I found myself at a loss to understand my closest friend’s words.
A. I found my closest friend's words quite incomprehensible.
B. I understood my closest friend's words completely.
C. I found my closest friend's words easy to understand.
D. I lost heart and didn't understand my closest friend's words.
Question 40: Peter had very little money but managed to make both ends meet.
A. Peter found it hard to live on very little money. B. Peter could hardly live on little money.
C. Peter got by on very little money.
D. Having little money, Peter couldn’t make ends meet.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions
Question 41: It was raining cats and dogs outside. I wanted to climb the mountain this morning but I couldn’t.

A. I couldn’t carry out my mountain climbing because there were many cats and dogs falling out the sky.
B. I found it rather hard to climb the mountain despite a heavy downpour outside.
C. The heavy rain made it posssible for me to continue going climbing this morning.
D. It was the heavy rain that prevented me from climbing the mountain today.
Question 42: The most successful candidates are not always the best educated. They are the best trained in the
technique.
A. The most successful candidates are not only the best educated but also the best trained in the technique.
B. The most successful candidates are not always the best educated, but the best trained in the technique.
C. The most successful candidates are the best at training in the technique, if not they will need education.
D. The most successful candidates are people who are trained well in the technique, although well educated.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions, from 43 to 50
Imagine that you're a fly. You're just zipping around the sky, looking for a place to rest, when you see nice
pink leaf. That looks like a nice place to land. You think to yourself in your fly head. As you rest your feet on the
leaf, you notice something strange. This leaf is hairy. You begin to make your move, but you trigger the plant's
reflex. Snap! In one-tenth of a second, you are caught in the Venus flytrap. You will be digested in five to twelve
days. Welcome to the world of carnivorous plants!
There are over a quarter of a million plant species. Only 600 or so are carnivorous. We call them this because
they attract, trap, and eat bugs. Like other plants, they get energy from the sun. But unlike other plants, they get
their nutrients from their prey. Carnivorous plants live in bogs and places where the soil lacks nutrients. Most
plants get nutrients from the soil. Carnivorous plants have turned to other sources.
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The snap of the Venus flytrap is not the only way that plants eat bugs. Pitcher plants trick their prey into
landing on them. They offer nectar bribes to the foolish insects that would take them. True to their name, pitcher
plants have deep chambers. Their landing surface is slippery. They have inward pointing hairs, making it hard to
escape. The fly lands on the pitcher plant to eat, but slips into a pit filled with digestive fluids and is eaten.
Then there're sundews. We call them sundews because they sparkle in the sun as if covered in morning dew.
Of course, that sparkle is from something much more treacherous. It is a sweet goo called mucilage that bugs
can't resist. Sundews create mucilage to attract bugs. As they fly in to eat, bugs become trapped in the very object
of their desire. They soon exhaust themselves by trying to escape the mucilage. Or the sundew's tentacles, which
respond to prey by curling around them, smother them. Bugs usually die in about 15 minutes. Then the plant
dissolves its prey in enzymes and absorbs the nutrients.
Have you ever walked into trouble and found that you couldn't get out? So has every insect that has ever
wandered into a corkscrew plant. Bugs love to investigate plants for nectar and food.
Corkscrew plants have inviting stems. Curved hairs line the inside of these stems. These hairs allow insects to
go up the stems, but not back. Going forward leads a chamber filled with digestive fluid, the plant's stomach.
Bugs who wander into the corkscrew plant find that they are unable to escape. They must march to their own
demise.
And then there are the bladderworts. They're about as nice as they sound. They live in water and float near the
surface. Their traps are like small bladders hidden beneath the water. Only their flowers are visible from the
surface. When bugs swim into the trigger hairs, the plant reacts. A trapdoor in the bladder opens up. The bladder
sucks up the prey and the water surrounding it. A tenth of a second later, the bladder shuts again. The plant has
trapped the prey. It releases digestive fluids. The prey will be digested within hours.
Carnivorous plants might sound tough, but they are difficult to keep at home. They are built to survive in
places that other plants cannot. This specialization comes at a cost. They have a hard time adapting to other
environments. Their strengths become weaknesses in rich soil. They depend on the harsh yet delicate
environments in which they thrive. They are not so hardy after all. Still, there's something to be said about the
power of life when one finds a plant that can survive in barren soil.
Question 43: Which statement would the author most likely AGREE with?
A. Only a small number of plants are carnivorous.

B. There are too few plant species in the world.
C. There are too many species of carnivorous plants.
D. A majority of plants are carnivorous.
Question 44: Which plant traps bugs in its stem and forces them to walk forward?
A. Bladderworts
B. Corkscrew plants
C. Sundews
D. Pitcher plants
Question 45: Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. Carnivorous plants get their energy from eating bugs.
B. Carnivorous plants get their nutrients from eating bugs.
C. Carnivorous plants do not get nutrients from the soil.
D. Carnivorous plants get their energy from the sun.
Question 46: Which event happens LAST when a sundew eats a meal?
A. The bug is attracted to the mucilage.
B. The sundew's tentacles curl in response to the prey.
C. The sundew releases enzymes.
D. The sundew creates mucilage.
Question 47: Which best expresses the main idea of the THIRD paragraph?
A. There are more types of carnivorous plants than the Venus fly trap.
B. The pitcher plant tricks bugs into falling into its stomach.
C. The Venus flytrap kills its prey in various ways.
D. Some plants attract bugs by offering them nectar.
Question 48: Which best describes the overall text structure of the second paragraph?
A. Sequential order
B. Chronological order C. Compare and contrast
D. Spatial
Question 49: Which statement would the author most likely DISAGREE with?
A. Carnivorous plants are tough and can live in any environment.
B. Bladderworts react quickly when their trigger hairs are bumped.

C. Carnivorous plants cannot thrive in rich soil.
D. Bladderworts hide their traps just below the surface of the water.
Question 50: Which title best expresses the author's main purpose in writing this text?
A. Watch Out! How To Avoid Being Eaten by Carnivorous Plants
B. At Risk: How You Can Help to Preserve Carnivorous Plants
C. Venus Flytrap: Nature's Most Beautiful and Dangerous Plant
D. Fatal Flowers: Plants That Kill Insects.
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TRƯỜNG THPT MỸ ĐỨC A
------------------------ĐỀ SỐ 04

Friday, April 24, 2020

ĐỀ THI THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; (50 câu trắc nghiệm)

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 1: A. handcraft
B. handbag
C. handbook

D. handkerchief
Question 2: A. procession
B. depression
C. erosion
D. tension
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 3: A. accompany
B. optimistic
C. minority
D. eradicate
Question 4: A. renovation
B. stability
C. eliminate
D. accelerate
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges
Question 5: - Peter: Well, cats are very good at catching mice around the house. - Linda: _______________.
A. Nothing more to say
B. You can say that again
C. Yes, I hope so
D. No, dogs are good, too
Question 6: - Lan: How do you find Hanoi? - Justin: ________________
A. Are you living here?
B. Hanoi is the capital of Vietnam.
C. It’s a beautiful city.
D. I got a map from the tourist office.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions
Question 7: He hid the gun in his pocket.
A. concealed

B. put
C. hit
D. covered
Question 8: "She always expresses her deep sympathy towards homeless children.”
A. broad
B. inside
C. profound
D. kind
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions
Question 9: The economy has shuddered to a halt because of the civil war.
A. been flying high
B. lingered to success
C. gone to the moon
D. stopped suddenly
Question 10: He firmly believes that she is innocent of the crime.
A. aware
B. ignorant
C. informative
D. guilty
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
Question 11: In some nations coffee in the favourite beverage, while _____________.
A. I like tea
B. in has caffeine
C. in others it is tea
D. tea has caffeine too
Question 12: Could you please tell me the ____________ for Biology 457 and Chemistry 610?
A. room's number
B. rooms numbers
C. rooms number

D. room numbers
Question 13: Friends can help you to _____________ a difficult time in your life.
A. get around
B. get by
C. get through
D. get over
Question 14: There is a ____________ vase on the table.
A. small-nice-China-blue B. nice-blue-small-China C. China-small-blue-nice D. nice-small-blue-China
Question 15: They stayed for hours, ____________ my mother was very annoyed about.
A. this
B. whom
C. which
D. that
Question 16: The ballon festival is ____________ event that we all desire to attend it.
A. a too wonderful
B. a very wonderful
C. such wonderful an
D. so wonderful an
Question 17: Many countries can attract many tourists in summer because their weather is ___________ warm, often hot.
A. independently
B. dependence
C. dependably
D. dependently
Question 18: I like that photo very much. Could you make an ____________ for me?
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A. enlargement
B. expansion
C. increase
D. extension
Question 19: After the interview, don’t neglect the thank-you note or ____________ letter.
A. follow-up
B. break-up
C. turn-up
D. start-up
Question 20: ______________ unprepared for the exam, I felt sure I would get a low score.
A. Upon
B. Having
C. Being
D. Because
Question 21: Although born in Germany, ____________ a citizen of the United States in 1940.
A. that Albert Einstein became
B. but Albert Einstein became
C. Albert Einstein became
D. since became Albert Einstein
Question 22: Bell's doctor insists ____________ for a few days
A. him to rest
B. his resting
C. that he is resting
D. that he rest
Question 23: Sending ___________, "special delivery", costs about fifteen times as much as sending it "regular delivery".

A. pieces of a mail
B. a mail
C. mails
D. a piece of mail
Question 24: _____________, meat takes on the flavor of the wood it was smoked in.
A. When smoking
B. When is it smoked
C. When smoked
D. It's when it's smoked
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions
Question 25: You could not have made a very good impression on them.
A. Something appears to have made them think you are unsuitable.
B. It’s impossible that the effect you made on them was particularly positive.
C. You seem to have impressed them very unfavourably.
D. You should have tried harder to make them think well of you.
Question 26: Many people lack enough water due to population growth and climate change.
A. Many people lack enough water; therefore, the population grows, and climate changes.
B. Owing to many people’s lack of water, the population grows, and climate changes.
C. Because many people lack enough water, the population grows, and climate changes.
D. Many people lack enough water not only due to population growth, but also because of climate change.
Question 27: My boy was just not strong enough to have caused so much damage.
A. Someone else, not my boy, caused the damage.
B. My boy wasn’t strong, but he caused great damage.
C. My boy, though quite strong, caused little damage himself.
D. Not much damage was caused because my boy was very weak.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions, from 28 to 35
SOICHIRO HONDA
Soichiro Honda was born in 1906 in a small village in Japan. It was so small that it didn’t even have

electricity. His family was poor. Soichiro had eight brothers and sisters. Sadly, five of them died when they were
young because they did not have good medical care. When Soichiro was eight years old, he saw his first
automobile. He was amazed by it. For the next 50 years, he loved machines on wheels. When he was 15 years
old, Soichiro left his village to work at an auto repair shop in Tokyo. It was then that Honda discovered
motorcycles. He spent all of his free time fixing and riding motorcycles. He returned to his village six years later
to open his own garage. Soon he owned several shops and had over 50 employees.
At the same time, he began to build and race motorcycles and cars. Honda loved to race, and he became one of
Japan’s most competitive drivers. In 1936, his race car crashed while he was driving 100 miles per hour. Half of
Honda’s face was crushed, and he had other serious injuries. It took him a year and a half to recover. After this,
his family begged him to give up racing. He looked for a less dangerous job and finally decided to become a
manufacturer.
At first, he manufactured engine parts. The Japanese navy used a lot of his engine parts in World War II. In
1948, after the war, he started the Honda Motor Company. He started the company with only $3,300. He made
his first machines from engine parts that the military did not need after the war. These machines were not real
motorcycles; they were bicycles with motors. People bought them because they needed a reliable form of
transportation. As Honda’s business grew, he began to make different types of motorcycles. By 1950, his
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motorcycles were selling all over Japan. But there were 50 other motorcycle makers in Japan at the time. In 1958,
Honda designed a lightweight motorcycle called the Super Cub. It was a huge success and Honda made a lot of
money. Two years later, Honda built the world’s biggest motorcycle factory in Japan.

By the 1960s, the Super Cub was popular all over Asia. But Honda wanted the motorcycle to be popular all
over the world. In Europe, he put his motorcycles in difficult races to show how good they were. In the United
States, he tried a different method. He used a magazine ad with the words “You Meet the Nicest People on a
Honda.” It showed ordinary Americans such as students, businessmen, and older people all riding happily on the
Honda Super Cub. The ad appeared in many popular magazines.
Readers who had never ridden a motorcycle saw the ad. The ad showed that motorcycles were not just for
crazy young people who wore black leather jackets.They were good for other people too. The company sold
thousands of motorcycles to new riders. Honda then started to put the ads on television. This was also very
successful. For example, he put an ad for his motorcycle on during the Academy Awards program. Millions of
people watched that program, and on the next day, sales of the motorcycle went up tremendously. By 1968,
Honda had sold 1 million motorcycles in the United States.
In 1963, his company started to make cars. In 1972, it produced the Civic; the next year, the Accord; and then
in 1978, the Prelude. Soon, the company was one of the world’s biggest automobile makers. Honda was also
famous for his business style. He believed that workers and bosses should have a close relationship. He also
thought it was important to encourage workers to do their best.
In 1973, Soichiro Honda retired as president of his company. He died in 1991. Honda was very important to
Japan’s recent history. He and many other business leaders helped make Japan into a leading industrial nation.
Question 28: Where did Honda go when he left his village?
A. He went to open repair shop.
B. He went to work at an auto repair shop in Tokyo.
C. He went to work as a motor racer.
D. He went to fix and ride motorcycles.
Question 29: Honda was very successful because he _____________.
A. wasn’t afraid to take chances
B. had a good education
C. owned the only motorcycle maker
D. put his motorcycles in difficult races
Question 30: Soichiro Honda _____________.
A. wasted his time working at an auto repair shop B. was poor when hestarted out, but later became a success
C. manufactured cars and motorcycles all his life D. a mechanic coming from a poor family

Question 31: What was different about the new motorcycle that Honda designed?
A. It was the biggest one B. It was a cheaper one
C. It was a lightweight one
D. It was a bicycle with motor.
Question 32: What happened to Honda’s race car in 1936?
A. It collapsed.
B. It was crushed.
C. It was injured.
D. It crashed.
Question 33: Honda started the Honda Motor Company in ____________.
A. 1984
B. 1948
C. 1960
D. 1950
Question 34: The word "tremmendously" in paragraph 5 can be best replaced by ______________.
A. terribly
B. awfully
C. slowly
D. enormously
Question 35: Honda’s business was ______________.
A. small in the beginning only and then expanded B. selling motorcycles to young people
C. a huge success from the beginning
D. a huge success in the United States
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each of the numbered blanks, from 36 to 40
LIFE OF EARTH IN 2110
The worst prediction for the next century (36)________ the weather. Many people think that global warming
will cause important environmental changes. There is scientific evidence that suggests cities on the coast may
disappear if the sea level (37)________. There is better news regarding health. Medical advances mean that
people will live longer. Doctors will be more successfully diagnosing an illness (38)________ of new

technology. Infective diseases will disappear in many areas of the world and new drugs will be how to treat
muscular aches and pains. Futuristic organ transplants will be easier. Finally, scientists think they are near to
solving the mystery (39)________ to make people invisible. Technological progress will give experts the chance
to manufacture invisibility cloaks, which may be (40)________ the market before the end of the century.
Question 36: A. involves
B. concerns
C. relates
D. contacts
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Question 37: A. lifts
Question 38: A. because
Question 39: A. necessary
Question 40: A. at

Friday, April 24, 2020

B. rises
B. approving
B. accessible
B. on

C. roars

C. in spite
C. available
C. in

D. raises
D. regardless
D. essential
D. to

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions
Question 41: My mother is on a business trip. However, we have a cooked dinner every evening.
A. We have a cooked dinner every evening, so my mother is on a business trip.
B. Although my mother is on a business trip, we have a cooked dinner every evening.
C. When we have a cooked dinner every evening, my mother is on a business trip.
D. Because my mother is on a business trip, we have a cooked dinner every evening.
Question 42: Collectimg decayed teeth is an unusual hobby. I know a lot of people who do this.
A. However collectimg decayed teeth is an unusual hobby, I know a lot of people who do this.
B. Because collectimg decayed teeth is an unusual hobby, I know a lot of people who do this.
C. Collectimg decayed teeth is an unusual hobby; therfore, I know a lot of people who do this.
D. Despite collectimg decayed teeth being an unusual hobby, I know a lot of people who do this.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions
Question 43: Can you get everybody altogether for the meeting in ten minutes?
A
B
C
D
Question 44: David was surprised by the amount of time necessary to fix the store house.
A

B
C
D
Question 45: They arrived to Paris sometime early in the summer.
A
B
C
D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions, from 46 to 50
Today, I’d like to begin a discussion on the problem of the heating up of the earth. First, we’ll touch on the
relationship between fluorocarbons and the ozone layer. You probably remember that the ozone layer is the
protective shield around the earth. It is important to all life, because it filters out harmful ultraviolet light from the
sun. Ozone itself, a form of oxygen, is regularly made by the action of the sun in the upper atmosphere. It is also
regularly destroyed by natural chemical processes.
The problem now is that too much of the ozone layer is being destroyed. Scientists suspect that certain
chemicals, such as fluoro-carbons, are contributing to the depletion of the ozone layer. And how do we use
fluoro-carbons? The most common uses are in spray cans and cooling systems. The chemical pollution from
these fluoro-carbons can account for some of the ozone losses that have been reported. There are, however, new
studies linking the sun itself to the depletion of the ozone layer. We’ll go into that new study more next time.
Question 46: Who is the most likely speaker?
A. A mechanic
B. A professor
C. A chemist
D. A doctor
Question 47: What is the most important purpose of the ozone layer?
A. Protecting the earth
B. Shielding the sun
C. Destroying chemicals
D. Providing fluorocarbons

Question 48: What is the ozone layer made of?
A. Oxygen
B. Fluorocarbons
C. Ultraviolet light
D. Shields
Question 49: The speaker’s main topic is _____________.
A. fluoro-carbons and the ozone layer
B. the use of spray cans
C. ultraviolet light
D. air-conditioning systems
Question 50: What will the speaker probably discuss next?
A. How to make air conditioners with fluorocarbons B. Harmful effects of ultraviolet light
C. The sun as a cause of ozone layer depletion
D. The make-up of the ozone layer

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TRƯỜNG THPT MỸ ĐỨC A
------------------------ĐỀ SỐ 05

Friday, April 24, 2020

ĐỀ THI THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; (50 câu trắc nghiệm)

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges, from 1 to 2
Question 1: - Laura: "What a lovely hat you have!" - Maria: "_________"
A. Thank you. It’s a present from my father.
B. No problem. It’s a present from my father.
C. Of course not, it's not costly.
D. I think so. It’s costly.
Question 2: - Kate: __________! - Jackie: Thanks, I will write to you when I come to London.
A. Have a nice trip
B. Better luck next time C. Let’s go ahead
D. Have a go
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
the primary stress in each of the following questions, from 3 to 4
Question 3: A. mathematics
B. engineering
C. scientific
D. laboratory
Question 4: A. university
B. technology
C. entertainment
D. application
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions, from 5 to 6
Question 5: A. average
B. indicate
C. application
D. grade
Question 6: A. each

B. achieve
C. chemistry
D. choice
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions, from 7 to 20
Question 7: He ___________ to be offered the job.
A. was such inexperienced or was too inexperienced
B. was too inexperienced
C. was such inexperienced
D. not experienced
Question 8: ___________ colleges and ___________ universities are the main institutions that provide
tertiary education.
A. Ø / the
B. The / Ø
C. Ø / Ø
D. The / the
Question 9: In most _______ developed countries, up to 50% of _______ population enters higher
education at some time in their lives.
A. Ø / the
B. the / a
C. Ø / Ø
D. the / Ø
Question 10: How much money do you manage to ________?
A. go in for
B. deal with
C. come into
D. live on
Question 11: We’ve got a very ________ teacher, who doesn’t mind if we are a bit late.
A. open-minded
B. tolerated
C. easy-going

D. broad-minded
Question 12: Why exactly did war between the two countries ________?
A. break out
B. go off
C. set in
D. call off
Question 13: He graduated with doctorates of _______ and surgery from Florence, gaining the highest
honors that year.
A. medicine
B. medication
C. medical
D. medicate
Question 14: You shouldn't _______ to your teacher like that. It was very rude.
A. talked
B. talk
C. have talked
D. have be talked
Question 15: A university is an institution of higher education and research, which grants _______ degrees
at all levels in a variety of subjects.
A. secondary
B. optional
C. academic
D. vocational
Question 16: They didn’t find ________ in a foreign country.
A. it to live easy
B. easy to live
C. it easy to live
D. it easy live
Question 17: Many scientists have shown ________ can be used for an ever-increasing number of tasks.
A. that lasers how

B. that what lasers
C. lasers how
D. how lasers
Question 18: We don’t sell foreign newspapers because there is no ________ for them.
A. request
B. claim
C. demand
D. requirement
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Friday, April 24, 2020

Question 19: It is important that _________.
A. an exact record to be kept
B. to keep an exact record
C. keeping an exact record
D. an exact record should be kept
Question 20: Hardly anyone knows about the incident, ________?
A. don’t they
B. doesn’t he
C. does he
D. do they
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following

questions, from 21 to 23
Question 21: Peter said if he were me, he would stop smoking.
A. I wanted Peter to stop smoking and he promised to do.
B. Peter promised to stop smoking.
C. Peter said he would stop smoking as I wanted him to.
D. Peter advised me to stop smoking.
Question 22: John speaks Chinese fluently because he used to live in China for ten years.
A. Unless John had lived in China for ten years, he could not have spoken Chinese fluently.
B. John could not speak Chinese fluently if he had not lived in China for ten years.
C. Suppose John has lived in China for ten years, he can speak Chinese fluently.
D. Provided that John lived in China for ten years, he could speak Chinese fluently.
Question 23: If only I had studied hard enough to pass the final exam.
A. I had studied hard enough and I passed the final exam.
B. I regret not studying hard enough to pass the final exam.
C. I studied hard otherwise I would fail the final exam.
D. I studied too hard to pass the final exam.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions, from 24 to 28
America's foods began to affect the rest of the world. American emphasis on convenient and rapid
consumption is best represented in fast foods such as hamburgers, French fries and soft drinks. By the 1960s
and 1970s, fast foods became one of America's strongest exports as franchises for Mc Donalds and Burger
King spread through Europe and other parts of the world, including Russia and China. Traditional meals
cooked at home and consumed at a leisurely pace gave way to quick lunches and dinners eaten on the run as
other countries imitated American cultural patterns.
By the late 20th century, Americans had become more conscious of their diets, eating more poultry, fish
and vegetables, and fewer eggs and less beef. Cooks began to rediscover many world cuisines in forms
closer to their original. In California, chefs combined fresh fruits and vegetables available with ingredients
and spices borrowed from immigrant kitchens to create an innovative cooking style that was lighter than
traditional French, but more interesting and varied than typical American cuisine. Along with the states
wines, California cuisine took its place among the acknowledged forms of fine dining.

Question 24: Fast foods such as hamburgers, French fries, and soft drinks ________.
A. became more popular than meals cooked at home in China
B. are traditional meals of the US people
C. became popular with other European and Asian countries
D. are popular because of their nutritious values
Question 25: Which of the following is similar in meaning to the word "cuisine"?
A. cook
B. cooking
C. cookery
D. style of cooking
Question 26: What is the main idea of the first paragraph?
A. Fast foods became one of America's strongest exports.
B. Traditional meals cooked at home and consumed at a leisurely pace are not common in the US.
C. Mc Donalds and Burger King are American food suppliers successful in Europe.
D. America's cuisine used to have an influence on many countries.
Question 27: Which of the following statements is true?
A. Americans used to eat more poultry, fish, and fresh fruits and vegetables than they do now.
B. Cooking styles of other countries began to affect Americans by the late 20th century.
C. Fewer eggs and less beef in Americans' diet made them fitter.
D. By the late 20th century, fast foods had lost their popularity in the USA
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Friday, April 24, 2020

Question 28: An innovative style of cooking was created in California _______.
A. and made the states wines well-known
B. by borrowing recipes from immigrant kitchens
C. to attract more immigrants to the state
D. by combining the local specialities with immigrants spices
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions, from 29 to 36
At the beginning of the nineteenth century, the American educational system was desperately in need of
reform. Private schools existed, but only for the very rich. There were very few public schools because of the
strong sentiment that children who would grow up to be laborers should not "waste" their time on education
but should instead prepare themselves for their life’s work. It was in the face of this public sentiment that
educational reformers set about their task. Horace Mann, probably the most famous of the reformers, felt
that there was no excuse in a republic for any citizen to be uneducated. As Superintendent of Education in
the state of Massachusetts from 1837 to 1848, he initiated various changes, which were soon matched in
other school districts around the country. He extended the school year from five to six months and improved
the quality of teachers by instituting teacher education and raising teacher salaries. Although these changes
did not bring about a sudden improvement in the educational system, they at least increased public
awareness as to the need for a further strengthening of the system.
Question 29: The best title for the passage could be _________.
A. Nineteenth - the Century of Reform
B. American education in the beginning of the 19 th century
C. a flight for change
D. The beginnings of reform in American education
Question 30: The passage implied that to go to a private school, a student needed _________.
A. good grades
B. a strong educational background
C. a high level of intelligence.
D. a lot of money
Question 31: The word "desperately" in the passage mostly means "_________".

A. partly
B. urgently
C. obviously
D. completely
Question 32: According to the passage, Horace Mann wanted a better educational system for Americans
because ________.
A. all citizens should be educated in republic
B. Massachusetts residents needed something to do with their spare time
C. people had nothing else to do except go to school
D. education at the time was so cheap
Question 33: The word "reformers" in the passage mostly means ________.
A. people who really enjoy teaching
B. people who work for the government
C. people who try to change things for the better D. people who believe that education is wasted
Question 34: The word "citizen" in the passage mostly means _________.
A. a person who works ,especially one who does a particular kind of work
B. a person who works in a particular country
C. a person who lives in a particular city
D. a person who has the legal right to belong to a particular country
Question 35: From 1837 to 1848, Horace Mann _________.
A. worked as a headmaster in a school in the state of Massachusetts
B. funded many projects to improve the educational system for Americans
C. managed education in the state of Massachusetts
D. raised money for their educational development in Massachusetts
Question 36: According to the passage, which of the following is a change that Horace Mann instituted?
A. The matching of the other districts’ policies
B. Increased pay for students
C. The five-month school year
D. Better teacher training

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12

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Friday, April 24, 2020

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions, from 37 to 38
Question 37: Every opponent must take a drug test before the race.
A. friend
B. ally
C. partner
D. competitor
Question 38: The movie was so funny that we couldn’t help laughing.
A. chuckling
B. crying
C. weeping
D. moaning
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions, from 39 to 40
Question 39: The lawn needs mowing again.
A. bending
B. cutting
C. repairing
D. making

Question 40: My father is willing to contribute to household chores.
A. agreeable
B. reluctant
C. ready
D. responsive
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions, from 41 to 43
Question 41: Sleep is controlled by the brain and associated by characteristic breathing rhythms.
A
B
C
D
Question 42: As many as 50 percent of the income from motion pictures produced in the United States
A
B
comes from marketing the films abroad.
C
D
Question 43: Not until I was on my way to the airport that I realized I had left my passport at home.
A
B
C
D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions, from 44 to 45
Question 44: She worked hard. She wanted to become a good teacher of English.
A. She worked so hard that she could become a good teacher of English.
B. She worked hard so as become a good teacher of English.
C. She worked so hard as to become a good teacher of English.
D. She worked hard so that she could become a good teacher of English.

Question 45: They asked him about the countries. He visited them last month.
A. They asked him about the countries which he visited last month.
B. They asked him about the countries where he visited them last month.
C. They asked him about the countries which he visited them last month.
D. They asked him about the countries where he visited last month.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each of the numbered blanks, from 46 to 50
It was Pasteur who (46)________ the process of immunization. When he was experimenting with causes
of chicken cholera, he began to inoculate healthy chickens with weak cholera bacteria after inoculation, the
chickens became only slightly ill. And later, when he inoculated the chickens with normal cholera bacteria,
the chickens did not get the (47)________. Thus Pasteur discovered that the body builds (48)________
substances called antibodies in the blood. These antibodies, which attack harmful bacteria, can be formed by
injections of small amounts of the (49)________ themselves. For thousands of years, men had known that
certain diseases (50)________ people only once. Now Pasteur had shown what this process of immunization
was and how it could be used to control diseases.
Question 46: A. thought
B. discovered
C. controlled
D. invented
Question 47: A. disease
B. illness
C. ease
D. sickness
Question 48: A. preservative
B. productive
C. protective
D. active
Question 49: A. drugs
B. medicine
C. bacteria

D. water
Question 50: A. attach
B. attain
C. attack
D. attend
School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12

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TRƯỜNG THPT MỸ ĐỨC A
------------------------ĐỀ SỐ 06

Friday, April 24, 2020

ĐỀ THI THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; (50 câu trắc nghiệm)

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 1: A. fifteenth
B. mouth
C. southern
D. author
Question 2: A. misses

B. goes
C. potatoes
D. leaves
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 3: A. occupation
B. miraculous
C. determine
D. diversity
Question 4: A. contact
B. constant
C. concern
D. concert
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
Question 5: The play lasted two hours with a(n) ________ of 15 minutes between part one and part two.
A. interval
B. pause
C. stop
D. interruption
Question 6: The public are concerned ________ the increasing crime rates in the city.
A. with
B. for
C. about
D. at
Question 7: Unless you ________ all of my questions, I can’t do anything to help you.
A. answered
B. don’t answer
C. are answering
D. answer
Question 8: I was enjoying my book, but I stopped _________ a programme on TV.

A. reading to watch
B. to read to watch
C. to read for watching D. reading for to watch
Question 9: Standing on top of the hill, _________.
A. we can see a castle in the distance
B. lies a castle in the middle of the island
C. people have seen a castle far away
D. a castle can be seen from the distance
Question 10: When he went to Egypt, he knew ________ no Arabic, but within 6 months he had become extremely fluent.
A. scarcely
B. virtually
C. entirely
D. barely
Question 11: Make sure you ________ us a visit when you are in town again.
A. give
B. have
C. do
D. pay
Question 12: The ________ dressed woman in the advertisement has a posed smile on her face.
A. stylish
B. stylishly
C. stylistic
D. stylistically
Question 13: Students can _________ a lot of information just by attending class and taking good notes of the lectures.
A. absorb
B. provide
C. transmit
D. read
Question 14: ________ are that stock price will go up in the coming months.
A. Conditions

B. Opportunities
C. Possibilities
D. Chances
Question 15: My uncle’s company made a very good profit in _________.
A. 1990’s
B. the 1990
C. the 1990s
D. 1990s
Question 16: ________ one of the most beautiful forms of performance art, ballet is a combination of dance and
mime performed to music.
A. To consider
B. Considering
C. Considered
D. Being considering
Question 17: We all felt cold, wet and hungry; ________, we were lost.
A. so that
B. although
C. moreover
D. however
Question 18: He ________ a terrible accident while he ________ along Ben Luc Bridge.
A. have seen / were walking
B. see / am walking
C. saw / was walking
D. was seeing / walked
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions
Question 19: How on earth could they do away with a lovely old building like that and put a car park there instead?
A. keep
B. destroy
C. decrease

D. upgrade
Question 20: To absorb a younger workforce, many companies offered retirement plans as incentives for older
workers to retire and make way for the young ones who earned lower salary.
A. opportunities
B. rewards
C. motives
D. encouragements
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Friday, April 24, 2020

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions
Question 21: I don’t know what they are going to ask in the job interview. I’ll just play it by ear.
A. plan well in advance
B. be careful about it
C. listen to others saying
D. do not plan beforehand
Question 22: Most universities have trained counselors who can reassure and console students who have
academic or personal problems.
A. sympathize
B. please
C. satisfy

D. discourage
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges
Question 23: Two friends, Peter and Linda, are talking about pets.
- Peter: Well, cats are very good at catching mice around the house. - Linda: _______________.
A. Nothing more to say B. You can say that again C. Yes, I hope so
D. No, dogs are good, too
Question 24: Tom is apologizing to Peter for being late.
- Tom: Sorry, I’m late, Peter. My car has broken down on the way here. - Peter: _______________
A. Well, it’s worth a try.
B. No, I wouldn’t mind at all.
C. Not on my account.
D. That’s all right.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each of the numbered blanks, from 25 to 29
The invention of the mobile phone has undoubtedly revolutionized the way people communicate and
influenced every aspect of our lives. The issue is whether this technological innovation has (25)_______ more
harm than good. In order to answer the question, we must first turn to the types of consumers. Presumably,
most parents (26)_______ are always worrying about their children’s safety buy mobile phones for them to
track their whereabouts. We can also assume that most teenagers want mobile phones to avoid missing out on
social contact. In this context, the advantages are clear. (27)________, we cannot deny the fact that text
messages have been used by bullies to intimidate fellow students. There is also (28) ________ evidence that
texting has affected literacy skills.
The widespread use of mobile phone has, out of question, affected adult consumers too. What employee, on
the way home from work, would be reluctant to answer a call from their boss? Apparently, only 18% of us,
according to a survey, are willing to switch off our mobile phones once we've left the office.
Admittedly, mobile phones can be intrusive but there are obvious benefits to possessing one. Personally
speaking, they are invaluable when it comes to making social or business arrangements at short (29) ________.
They also provide their owners with a sense of security in emergency situations.
Question 25: A. done
B. made

C. played
D. brought
Question 26: A. what
B. which
C. whom
D. who
Question 27: A. Therefore
B. However
C. Moreover
D. So that
Question 28: A. doubtless
B. unhesitating
C. indisputable
D. arguable
Question 29: A. warning
B. term
C. time
D. notice
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions, from 30 to 34
In Africa, people celebrate with joy the birth of a new baby. The Pygmies would sing a birth-song to the child.
In Kenya, the mother takes the baby strapped to her back into the thorn enclosure where the cattle are kept.
There, her husband and the village elders wait to give the child his or her name.
In West Africa, after the baby is eight days old, the mother takes the baby for its first walk in the big, wide
world, and friends and family are invited to meet the new baby. In various African nations, they hold initiation
ceremonies for groups of children instead of birthdays. When children reach a certain designated age, they learn
the laws, beliefs, customs, songs and dances of their tribes. Some African tribes consider that children from nine
to twelve are ready to be initiated into the grown up world. They may have to carry out several tests.
Maasai boys around thirteen years old to seventeen undergo a two-stage initiation. The first stage lasts about
three months. The boys leave their parents' homes, paint their bodies white, and are taught how to become young

warriors. At the end of this stage, they have their heads shaved and they are also circumcised. At the second
stage, the young warriors grow their hair long and live in a camp called a “manyatta” where they practice hunting
the wild animals that might attack the Maasai herds. This stage may last a few years. When they are ready, they
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will marry and become owners of large cattle herds like their fathers. The girls are initiated when they are
fourteen or fifteen. They are taught by the older women about the duties of marriage and how to care for babies.
Soon after that they are married and lead a life similar to that of their mothers.
Question 30: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Activities in a birth celebration.
B. Traditions of Maasai people when having a new baby.
C. Celebrations in Africa.
D. Birthday ceremonies for children in Africa.
Question 31: Where do people in Kenya give the name to the child?
A. near the thorn fence B. on the cattle farm
C. at their house
D. at the village church
Question 32: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2?
A. An eight-day-old child will be taken for the first walk by his or her mother.
B. Children are initiated for a mature life in the presence of their friends and family.
C. Children have to overcome a few trials to enter the grown-up world.

D. Children have to learn their tribes' cultures and traditions when they are old enough.
Question 33: The word "undergo" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. experience
B. participate in
C. explore
D. commence
Question 34: What does the word "they" in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. the cattle owners
B. the Maasai herds
C. the young warriors
D. the wild animals
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions, from 35 to 42
What picture do you have of the future? Will life in the future be better, worse or the same as now? What do
you hope about the future?
Futurologists predict that life will probably be very different in 2050 in all the fields, from entertainment to
technology. First of all, it seems that TV channels will have disappeared. Instead, people will choose a program
from a "menu" and a computer will send the program directly to the television. Today, we can use the World
Wide Web to read newspaper stories and see pictures on a computer thousands of kilometers away. By 2050,
music, films, programs, newspapers and books will come to us by computer.
In what concerns the environment, water will have become one of our most serious problems. In many places,
agriculture is changing and farmers are growing fruit and vegetables to export. This uses a lot of water. Demand
for water will increase ten times between now and 2050 and there could be serious shortages. Some futurologists
predict that water could be the cause of war if we don't act now.
In transport, cars running on new, clean fuels will have computers to control the speed and there won't be any
accidents. Today, many cars have computers that tell drivers exactly where they are. By 2050, the computer will
control the car and drive it to your destination. On the other hand, space planes will take people halfway around
the world in two hours. Nowadays, the United States Shuttle can go into space and land on Earth again. By 2050,
space planes will fly all over the world and people will fly from Los Angeles to Tokyo in just two hours.
In the domain of technology, robots will have replaced people in factories. Many factories already use robots.

Big companies prefer robots - they do not ask for pay rises or go on strike, and they work 24 hours a day. By
2050, we will see robots everywhere - in factories, schools, offices, hospitals, shops and homes.
Last but not least, medicine technology will have conquered many diseases. Today, there are electronic
devices that connect directly to the brain to help people hear. By 2050, we will be able to help blind and deaf
people see and hear again. Scientists have discovered how to control genes. They have already produced clones
of animals. By 2050, scientists will be able to produce clones of people and decide how they look, how they
behave and how much intelligence they have.
Question 35: The passage mainly discusses _________.
A. The effect of telecommunication on our future life.
B. The changes in our future life compared with our life today.
C. The importance of cloning in the future.
D. The effect of the futurologists' prediction on our lives.
Question 36: What can be inferred about the life in 2050 according to the passage?
A. People will not suffer from the shortage of water due to the polar melting.
B. TV will be an indispensable means of communication and business.
C. The deaf will not have to depend any longer on the electronic hearing devices.
D. Life in 2050 will be much better than that of today.
Question 37: We can conclude from the passage that in 2050 _________.
A. Fewer cars will be used to keep the environment green and clean.
B. People will be able to travel around the world in two hours.
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Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien,

: 0986621363

Friday, April 24, 2020

C. No one will be injured or die because of accidents.
D. Space planes will take the place of cars as a means of transport.
Question 38: The word "This" in paragraph 3 refers to _________.
A. the cash crop planting B. the serious shortage C. the possible war
D. the demand for water
Question 39: What is the author's attitude in paragraph 3?
A. concerned
B. outraged
C. explanatory
D. emotional
Question 40: Why does the author use "prefer robots" in paragraph 5?
A. To show the importance of robots in production.
B. To compare the robots with the workers.
C. To emphasize the scientist's role in inventing robots.
D. To encourage the workers to resign from work.
Question 41: The word "conquered" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. diagnosed
B. controlled
C. transmitted
D. caused
Question 42: What may NOT be true about life in 2050?
A. Blind and deaf people will be helped by scientists to see and hear again.
B. Our sources of water for agriculture will increase ten times.
C. Scientists will be able to produce clones of people and decide how intelligent they are.
D. Many forms of entertainment will come to us thanks to computer.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions
Question 43: Laura expected to give her mother a hand in housework at the weekend, but she did nothing.
A

B
C
D
Question 44: It’s less expensive to buy a computer part by part; you can save a few hundred dollars all together.
A
B
C
D
Question 45: My brother is enough young to get a scholarship from the government.
A
B
C
D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions
Question 46: The living room isn’t as big as the kitchen
A. The living room is bigger than the kitchen.
B. The kitchen is not bigger than the living room.
C. The kitchen is smaller than the living room.
D. The kitchen is bigger than the living room.
Question 47: “Why don’t you complain to the company, John?” said Peter.
A. Peter asked John why he doesn’t complain to the company.
B. Peter suggested that John should complain to the company.
C. Peter advised John complaining to the company.
D. Peter suggested John to complain to the company.
Question 48: I’m sure it wasn’t Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.
A. It mustn’t have been Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.
B. It couldn’t be Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.
C. It can’t have been Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.
D. It mightn’t be Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of

sentences in the following questions
Question 49: Susan didn’t apply for the summer job in the café. She now regrets it.
A. Susan wishes that she had applied for the summer job in the café.
B. If only Susan didn’t apply for the summer job in the café.
C. Susan wishes that she applied for the summer job in the café.
D. Susan feels regret because she didn’t apply for the summer job in the café.
Question 50: The Prime Minister failed to explain the cause of the economic crisis, he did not offer any solutions.
A. Although the Prime Minister explained the cause of the economic crisis, he failed to offer any solutions.
B. Not only did the Prime Minister explain the cause of the economic crisis, but he also offered solutions.
C. The Prime Minister offered some solutions based on the explanation of the cause of the economic crisis.
D. The Prime Minister didn’t explain the cause of the economic crisis, nor did he offer any solutions.

School year 2019 - 2020, Grade 12

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Prepared by Nguyen Sy Chien,

: 0986621363

TRƯỜNG THPT MỸ ĐỨC A
------------------------ĐỀ SỐ 07

Friday, April 24, 2020

ĐỀ THI THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; (50 câu trắc nghiệm)

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 1: A. facilities
B. particular
C. inhabitant
D. governmental
Question 2: A. measurement
B. information
C. engineer
D. economic
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 3: A. thereupon
B. thrill
C. through
D. throne
Question 4: A. advanced
B. orphaned
C. weighed
D. surprised
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each of the numbered blanks, from 5 to 9
Very often, newborn babies are not beautiful. They are wrinkled or bald, or they have an angry expression on
their faces that seems to say, "Go away! I hate everybody". But (5)________ a parent, that bald, wrinkled, meanfaced baby is the most beautiful and perfect child in the world. When that proud father or mother asks you, "Well,
what do you think isn't she beautiful?" What are you going to say? Is this the time for the truth? Of course not!
"You look that proud father in his eyes and say," Yes, she is! She's a (6)________ beauty. She's one in a
million. She's going to be a movie star! I can tell! She's as pretty as a fairy.
This is what we call in English a white lie. White lies don't hurt people; they aren't cruel or angry words.
People use them to make a difficult situation (7)________ easier. When people (8)________ dates, forget their
homework, or taste something new that they don't particularly.

Like while eating at a friend's house, they tell a white lie. They are trying to be kind. They don't want to hurt
someone's feelings. It is important to be honest. But many people feel that being kind and (9)________ is
sometimes more important.
Question 5: A. with
B. to
C. as for
D. for
Question 6: A. true
B. genuine
C. real
D. exact
Question 7: A. a little
B. little
C. far
D. more
Question 8: A. disregard
B. reject
C. refuse
D. deny
Question 9: A. considering
B. considerate
C. considered
D. considerable
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions, from 10 to 17
What's fiercer than a lion but smaller than a beagle? The honey badger, one of the toughest mammals in Africa
and western Asia. Honey badgers stand less than a foot high. They are only a couple feet long. They weigh just
over 20 pounds. Yet they have a reputation for toughness that is far greater than their size. Some honey badgers
will chase away lions and take their kills. I guess that goes to show you that size isn't the only thing that matters
in a fight.

So what makes the honey badger so tough? They have speed, stamina, and agility, but so do many animals.
They aren't stronger than lions, so how do they stop them? The thing that sets the honey badger apart is their skin.
Their skin is thick and tough. Arrows, spears, and bites from other animals can rarely pierce it. Small bullets can't
even penetrate it. Not only is their skin thick and tough, it is also loose. This allows them to twist and turn to
attack while another animal is gripping them. The only safe grip one can get on a honey badger is on the back of
their necks.
Honey badgers have long, sharp claws. These claws are good for attacking and even better for digging. Honey
badgers are some of nature's most skilled diggers. They can dig a nine-foot tunnel into hard ground in about 10
minutes. They love to catch a meal by digging up the burrows of frogs, rodents, and cobras. They also use their
digging skills to create their homes. They live in small chambers in the ground and defend them fiercely. They
will attack horses, cows, and even water buffalo if they are foolish enough to poke around a honey badger's den.
You don't get a reputation like the honey badger by running from danger. The honey badger is fearless and a
tireless fighter. They will attack any creature that threatens them, man included. Because of the honey badger's
reputation, most predators avoid them. Some animals use the honey badger's rep to their advantage. Adult
cheetahs have spotted coats, but their kittens have silver manes and look like honey badgers. Some scientists
believe that their coloring tricks predators into avoiding them. Wouldn't you walk the other way if you saw a
honey badger?
You might be wondering: "If honey badgers are so tough, how did they get a name that makes them sound like
a piece of candy?" The answer makes sense. Since honey badgers have such thick skin, bee stings rarely harm
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