Đề thi thử môn Anh 2019 THPT Gia Lộc – Hải Dương lần 2

Bạn đang xem bản rút gọn của tài liệu. Xem và tải ngay bản đầy đủ của tài liệu tại đây (327.33 KB, 13 trang )

(1)<div class='page_container' data-page=1>

SỞ GD-ĐT HẢI DƯƠNG
TRƯỜNG THPT GIA LỘC 
_________________________________________________

(Đề thi có 6 trang; 50 câu)

ĐỀ THI THỬ LẦN 2 KÌ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 
2019

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề) 
 Họ, tên thí sinh: ... Mã đề thi 001 
 Số báo danh: ...

Read the following passage and choose the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the

numbered blanks.

U23 Thailand’s 0-4 defeat against U23 Vietnam has raised many comments that Thai team did
not work very hard. (1) _______ , Thai media has a completely different view of this failure. 
Specifically, Thairath newspaper(2) _____ that Thai football should accept the truth of being beaten

by Vietnam. It wrote: "In AFC U23 Championship 2020 Qualifiers, U23 Thailand U23 accepted 0-4

defeat against U23 Vietnam, which is a very embarrassing thing, because Thailand’s (3) --- is

Vietnam. If you watched the game, you could see the outstanding players on the pitch were definitely

not Thai.It was Nguyen Quang Hai, U23 Vietnam’s number 1 star. He once again (4) --- his

potential talent not only in Southeast Asia but also in all Asia.

This failure was also a sign of many things. First, Thai football is lacking in development,
whereas Vietnam has made great (5) --- In addition, Thailand is also inferior to Vietnam on the 
FIFA table. Thailand has not achieved the same achievements as Vietnam did at AFF Suzuki Cup or
Asian Cup.

Question 1. A. Moreover B. However C. Although D. Therefore

Question 2. A. informed B. told C. stated D. spoke

Question 3. A. opponent B. defender C. friend D. partner

Question 4. A. concealed B. distort C. demonstrated D. opposed

Question 5. A. halt B. hindrance C. interference D. progress

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the 
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 6. A. biology B. historical C. ecosystem D. security

Question 7. A. appreciate B. experience C. embarrassing D. situation

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part

differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 8. A. sliced B. relooked C. photographed D. filled

Question 9. A. divisible B. design C. disease D.decision

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the

following questions.

Question 10. I‟m sure that the answer to my letter _______ by next Friday morning.

A. will have come B. has come C. is coming D. was coming

Question 11. - She was ______ out of 115 applicants for the position of Managing Director.

A. short – changed B. short - listed C. short – sighted D. short - handed

</div>
(2)<div class='page_container' data-page=2>

A. imaginary B. imaginable C. imaginative D. imagining

Question 13. He got an excellent grade in his examination _____ the fact that he had not worked

particularly hard .

A. on account of B. because of C. in spite of D. thanks to

Question 14. The last person __________ will have to turn off the lights.

A. have left B. left C. leaving D. to leave

Question 15. Unless you return the money immediately, you will be _____ with theft and getting into

serious trouble.

A. accused B. charged C. blamed D. pointed

Question 16. Returning to my room, _______.

A. my watch was missing B. I found my watch disappeared

C. I found my watch missing D. the watch was missed

Question 17. I would rather you _______ the office phone for personal purpose.

A. shouldn’t have used B. shouldn’t use C. not to use D. didn’t use

Question 18. The police detective had been in _____ of the suspect for two days.

A. employment B. pursuit C. expedition D. chase

Question 19. In _______ most social situations, _______ informality is appreciated.

A. Ø / Ø B. the / an C. a / the D. the / a

Question 20. Our hotel, _____ is converted from a 17th century manor house, is very comfortable.

A. which B. that C. where D. when

Question 21. In the past, most women just stayed home to look after their husbands and children.

Therefore, they had to financially ……….their husbands.

A. Live by B. save up C. keep on D. depend on

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to

complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 22: Maria: “Can I borrow your umbrella for a day?” Ann: “___________”

A. With pleasure B. Ready C. Welcome D. Yes, I can

Question 23: : "My mother is ill in hospital." "..."

A. I don't think so B. Oh, she is unlucky

C. No problem D. I'm sorry to hear that

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that

needscorrection in each of the following questions.

Question 24. Rudolph Nureyev has become one of the greatest dancer the ballet world has ever

known.

A B C D

Question 25. To be successful in an interview, you should control the feeling of pressure and making

A B

C

good impression on the interviewer.

</div>
(3)<div class='page_container' data-page=3>

Question 26. No matter how young are you, you should take responsibility to do some housework

A B C

to help your parents.
D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in

meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 27. . If we continue to deplete the Earth's natural resources, we will cause serious damage to

the environment.

A. explode B. conserve C. exhaust D. dig into

Question 28 Julia finally made a clean breast of it and admitted that she had stolen the money.

A. made up B. deceived C. told the truth of D. denied

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in

meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 29. She stays incredibly focused and is never distracted by others.

A. disturbed B. confused C. bewildered D. concentrated

Question 30. I think it’s time we did away with the obsolete policies.

A. kept B. got away with C. wiped out D. overlooked

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate

the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 37.

Herman Melville, an American author best known today for his novel Moby Dick, was actually more

popular during his lifetime for some of his other works. He traveled extensively and used the

knowledge gamed during his travels as the basis for his early novels. In 1837, at the age of eighteen,
Melville slimed as a cabin boy on a merchant ship that was to sail from his Massachusetts home to
Liverpool, England. His experiences on this trip served as a basis for the novel Redburn (1849). In
1841 Melville set out on a whaling ship headed for the South Seas. After jumping ship in Tahiti, he
wandered around the islands of Tahiti and Moorea. This South Sea island sojourn was a backdrop to

the novel Omoo (1847). After three years away from home, Melville joined up with a U.S. naval

frigate that was returning to the eastern United States around Cape Horn. The novel White-Jacket
(1850) describes this lengthy voyage as a navy seaman. With the publication of these early adventure
novels, Melville developed a strong and loyal following among readers eager for his tales of exotic
places and situations. However, in 1851, with the publication of Moby Dick, Melville's popularity
started to diminish. Moby Dick, on one level the saga of the hunt for the great white whale, was also a
heavily symbolic allegory of the heroic struggle of humanity against the universe. The public was not
ready for Melville's literary metamorphosis from romantic adventure to philosophical symbolism. It

is ironic that the novel that served to diminish Melville's popularity during his lifetime is the one for
which he is best known today.

Question 31. The main subject of the passage is ___________ .

A. Melville's travels B. Melville's personal background

C. the popularity of Melville's novels D. Moby Dick

Question 32. According to the passage, Melville's early novels were ____________ .

A. published while he was traveling B. completely fictional

C. all about his work on whaling ship D. based on his travel experience

</div>
(4)<div class='page_container' data-page=4>

A. he had unofficially left his ship.

B. he was on leave while his ship was in port. 
C. he had finished his term of duty.

D. he had received permission to take a vacation in Tahiti.

Question 34. How did the publication of Moby Dick affect Melville's popularity?

A. His popularity increased immediately. B. It had no effect on his popularity

C. It caused his popularity to decrease. D. His popularity remained as strong as ever.

Question 35. According to the passage, Moby Dick is _________

A. a romantic adventure 
B. a single-faceted work 
C. a short story about a whale

D. symbolic of humanity fighting the environment

Question 36: The word "metamorphosis" is closest in meaning to _________

A. change B. circle C. mysticism D. descent

Question 37: The passage would most likely he assigned reading in a course on _________ .

A. nineteenth-century novels B. American history

C. oceanography D. modern American literature

Read the following passage and mark the letter A ,B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate

the correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 45. 
SMART ENERGY

1. The next few decades will see great changes in the way energy is supplied and used. In some
major oil producing nations, 'peak oil' has already been reached, and there are increasing fears of
global warming. Consequently, many countries are focusing on the switch to a low carbon economy.
This transition will lead to major changes in the supply and use of electricity. Firstly, there will be an
increase in overall demand, as consumers switch from oil and gas to electricity to power their homes
and vehicles. Secondly, there will be an increase in power generation, not only in terms of how much
is generated, but also how it is generated, as there is growing electricity generation from renewable
sources. To meet these challenges, countries are investing in Smart Grid technology. This system aims
to provide the electricity industry with a better understanding of power generation and demand, and to

use this information to create a more efficient power network.

2. Smart Grid technology basically involves the application of a computer system to the electricity

network. The computer system can be used to collect information about supply and demand and

improve engineer's ability to manage the system. With better information about electricity demand,
the network will be able to increase the amount of electricity delivered per unit generated, leading to
potential reductions in fuel needs and carbon emissions. Moreover, the computer system will assist in
reducing operational and maintenance costs.

</div>
(5)<div class='page_container' data-page=5>

4. With these changes comes a range of challenges. The first involves managing the supply and
demand. Sources of renewable energy, such as wind, wave and solar, are notoriously unpredictable,
and nuclear power, which is also set to increase as nations switch to alternative energy sources, is
inflexible. With oil and gas, it is relatively simple to increase the supply of energy to match the
increasing demand during peak times of the day or year. With the sources of renewable energy, this is
far more difficult, and may lead to blackouts or system collapse. Potential solutions include
investigating new and efficient ways to store energy and encouraging consumers to use electricity at
off-peak times.

5. A second problem is the fact that many renewable power generation sources are located in

remote areas, such as windy uplands and coastal regions, where there is currently a lack of electrical

infrastructure. New infrastructures therefore must be built. Thankfully, with improved smart
technology, this can be done more efficiently by reducing the reinforcement or construction costs.

how the smart technology could practically work, and trials are in place to test the new electrical
infrastructure. It is likely that technology will be added in 'layers', starting with 'quick win' methods
which will provide initial carbon savings, to be followed by more advanced systems at a later date.
Cities are prime candidates for investment into smart energy, due to the high population density and
high energy use. It is here where Smart Technology is likely to be promoted first, utilising a range of
sustainable power sources, transport solutions and an infrastructure for charging electrically powered
vehicles. The infrastructure is already changing fast. By the year 2050, changes in the energy supply
will have transformed our homes, our roads and our behaviour.

Question 38. According to paragraph 1, what has happened in some oil producing countries?

A. They are unwilling to sell their oil any more. 
B. They are not producing as much oil as they used to. 
C. The supply of oil is unpredictable.

D. Global warming is more severe here than in other countries.

Question 39. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of Smart Grid technology to consumers?

A. It can reduce their electricity bills.

B. It can tell them how much energy each appliance is using.

C. It can allow them to turn appliances on and off when they are not at home. 
D. It can reduce the amount of energy needed to power appliances.

Question 40. According to paragraph 4, what is the problem with using renewable sources of power?

A. They do not provide much energy.

B. They may cause blackouts or system collapse. 
C. They lead to pollution and global warming. 
D. They can't be used at off-peak times.

Question 41. In paragraph 6, what can be inferred about cities in the future?

</div>
(6)<div class='page_container' data-page=6>

D. Smart Grid technology will only be available in cities.

Question 42. The word 'remote' in paragraph 5 could be best replace by:

A. isolated B. crowded C. attractive D. alone

Question 43. What is the main idea of the final paragraph? (paragraph 6)

A. To describe who will benefit from Smart Grid technology first. 
B. To outline the advantages of Smart Grid technology.

C. To summarize the main ideas in the previous paragraphs.

D. To describe how, where and when Smart Technology will be introduced.

Question 44. In paragraph 6, what can be inferred about the introduction of Smart Grid Technology?

A. The technologies which produce most benefits will be introduced first. 
B. The cheapest technologies will be introduced first.

C. The technologies which are most difficult to put into place will be introduced first. 
D. Technologically advanced systems will be introduced first.

Question 45. Which of the aspects below is NOT answered in the passage?

A. The ways Smart Grid technology will affect the way consumers use energy.

B. The problems which will have to be overcome in switching to Smart Grid Technology.

C. The amount of money has been spent researching Smart Grid technology.

D. The reasons why Smart Grid technology will be needed in the future.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in

meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. It was my grandfather’s donation that helped the church’s central tower to be restored.

A. Because my grand father’s donation, the church’s central tower was restored. 
B. Inspite of my grand father’s donation, the church’s central tower was not restored. 
C. Thanks to my grand father’s donation, the church’s central tower was restored.

D. Although my grand father donated a lot of money to the church, its central tower was not restored.

Question 47: “Why I haven’t thought of this before,” Dung said to himself

A. Dung suggested himself not thinking of that before. 
B. Dung advised himself not to have thought of that before. 
C. Dung wondered why he hadn’t thought of that before. 
D. Dung said that why he hadn’t thought that before.

Question 48. The only thing that makes this job worthwhile is money.

A.This job makes money worthwhile.

B. If there is no money, this job is not worthwhile.

C. Were it not for money, the job wouldn't be worthwhile.
D. If only this job were worthwhile for money.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines

each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: I tried to call you a few minutes ago and got a busy signal. How lucky! You called me

A. I was not lucky enough to call you a few minutes ago because I was busy.

</div>
(7)<div class='page_container' data-page=7>

C. You luckily called me, so I didn’t have to call you for a few minutes because the signal was busy. 
D. Luckily, you called me in time, because I failed to call you a few minutes ago.

Question 50: The unemployment rate is high. The crime rate is usually also high.

A. The unemployment rate and the crime rate are both higher.
B. The higher the unemployment rate is, the higher the crime rate is.
C. The unemployment rate is as high as the crime rate.

D. The high rate of unemployment depends on the high rate of crime.

______ THE END _____

KEYS

Read the following passage and choose the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the

numbered blanks.

by Vietnam. It wrote: "In AFC U23 Championship 2020 Qualifiers, U23 Thailand U23 accepted 0-4

defeat against U23 Vietnam, which is a very embarrassing thing, because Thailand’s (3) --- is

Vietnam. If you watched the game, you could see the outstanding players on the pitch were definitely

not Thai.It was Nguyen Quang Hai, U23 Vietnam’s number 1 star. He once again (4) --- his

potential talent not only in Southeast Asia but also in all Asia.

Question 1. A. Moreover B. However C. Although D. Therefore

Question 2. A. informed B. told C. stated D. spoke

Question 3. A. opponent B. defender C. friend D. partner

Question 4. A. concealed B. distort C. demonstrated D. opposed

Question 5. A. halt B. hindrance C. interference D. progress

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the 
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 6. A. biology B. historical C. ecosystem D. security

</div>
(8)<div class='page_container' data-page=8>

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part 
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 8. A. sliced B. relooked C. photographed D. filled

Question 9. A. divisible B. design C. disease D.decision

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the

following questions.

Question 10. I‟m sure that the answer to my letter _______ by next Friday morning.

A. will have come B. has come C. is coming D. was coming

Question 11. - She was ______ out of 115 applicants for the position of Managing Director.

A. short – changed B. short - listed C. short – sighted D. short - handed

Question 12. If she can make up such stories, she is certainly a very girl.

A. imaginary B. imaginable C. imaginative D. imagining

Question 13. He got an excellent grade in his examination _____ the fact that he had not worked

particularly hard .

A. on account of B. because of C. in spite of D. thanks to

Question 14. The last person __________ will have to turn off the lights.

A. have left B. left C. leaving D. to leave

Question 15. Unless you return the money immediately, you will be _____ with theft and getting into

serious trouble.

A. accused B. charged C. blamed D. pointed

Question 16. Returning to my room, _______.

A. my watch was missing B. I found my watch disappeared

C. I found my watch missing D. the watch was missed

Question 17. I would rather you _______ the office phone for personal purpose.

A. shouldn’t have used B. shouldn’t use C. not to use D. didn’t use

Question 18. The police detective had been in _____ of the suspect for two days.

A. employment B. pursuit C. expedition D. chase

Question 19. In _______ most social situations, _______ informality is appreciated.

A. Ø / Ø B. the / an C. a / the D. the / a

Question 20. Our hotel, _____ is converted from a 17th century manor house, is very comfortable.

A. which B. that C. where D. when

Question 21. In the past, most women just stayed home to look after their husbands and children.

Therefore, they had to financially ……….their husbands.

A. Live by B. save up C. keep on D. depend on

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to

complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 22: Maria: “Can I borrow your umbrella for a day?” Ann: “___________”

A. With pleasure B. Ready C. Welcome D. Yes, I can

Question 23: : "My mother is ill in hospital." "..."

</div>
(9)<div class='page_container' data-page=9>

C. No problem D. I'm sorry to hear that

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that

needscorrection in each of the following questions.

Question 24. Rudolph Nureyev has become one of the greatest dancer the ballet world has ever

known.

A B C D

Question 25. To be successful in an interview, you should control the feeling of pressure and making

A B

C

good impression on the interviewer.

D

Question 26. No matter how young are you, you should take responsibility to do some housework

A B C

to help your parents.
D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in

meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 27. . If we continue to deplete the Earth's natural resources, we will cause serious damage to

the environment.

A. explode B. conserve C. exhaust D. dig into

Question 28 Julia finally made a clean breast of it and admitted that she had stolen the money.

A. made up B. deceived C. told the truth of D. denied

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in

meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 29. She stays incredibly focused and is never distracted by others.

A. disturbed B. confused C. bewildered D. concentrated

Question 30. I think it’s time we did away with the obsolete policies.

A. kept B. got away with C. wiped out D. overlooked

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate

the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 37.

Herman Melville, an American author best known today for his novel Moby Dick, was actually more

popular during his lifetime for some of his other works. He traveled extensively and used the

the novel Omoo (1847). After three years away from home, Melville joined up with a U.S. naval

</div>
(10)<div class='page_container' data-page=10>

places and situations. However, in 1851, with the publication of Moby Dick, Melville's popularity
started to diminish. Moby Dick, on one level the saga of the hunt for the great white whale, was also a
heavily symbolic allegory of the heroic struggle of humanity against the universe. The public was not
ready for Melville's literary metamorphosis from romantic adventure to philosophical symbolism. It
is ironic that the novel that served to diminish Melville's popularity during his lifetime is the one for
which he is best known today.

Question 31. The main subject of the passage is ___________ .

A. Melville's travels B. Melville's personal background

C. the popularity of Melville's novels D. Moby Dick

Question 32. According to the passage, Melville's early novels were ____________ .

A. published while he was traveling B. completely fictional

C. all about his work on whaling ship D. based on his travel experience

Question 33: The passage implies that Melville stayed in Tahiti because ________ .

A. he had unofficially left his ship.

B. he was on leave while his ship was in port. 
C. he had finished his term of duty.

D. he had received permission to take a vacation in Tahiti.

Question 34. How did the publication of Moby Dick affect Melville's popularity?

A. His popularity increased immediately. B. It had no effect on his popularity

C. It caused his popularity to decrease. D. His popularity remained as strong as ever.

Question 35. According to the passage, Moby Dick is _________

A. a romantic adventure 
B. a single-faceted work 
C. a short story about a whale

D. symbolic of humanity fighting the environment

Question 36: The word "metamorphosis" is closest in meaning to _________

A. change B. circle C. mysticism D. descent

Question 37: The passage would most likely he assigned reading in a course on _________ .

A. nineteenth-century novels B. American history

C. oceanography D. modern American literature

Read the following passage and mark the letter A ,B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate

the correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 45. 
SMART ENERGY

</div>
(11)<div class='page_container' data-page=11>

2. Smart Grid technology basically involves the application of a computer system to the electricity

network. The computer system can be used to collect information about supply and demand and

3. Smart Grid technology offers benefits to the consumer too. They will be able to collect
real-time information on their energy use for each appliance. Varying tariffs throughout the day will
give customers the incentive to use appliances at times when supply greatly exceeds demand, leading
to great reductions in bills. For example, they may use their washing machines at night. Smart meters
can also be connected to the internet or telephone system, allowing customers to switch appliances on
or off remotely. Furthermore, if houses are fitted with the apparatus to generate their own power,
appliances can be set to run directly from the on-site power source, and any excess can be sold to the
grid.

off-peak times.

5. A second problem is the fact that many renewable power generation sources are located in

remote areas, such as windy uplands and coastal regions, where there is currently a lack of electrical

infrastructure. New infrastructures therefore must be built. Thankfully, with improved smart
technology, this can be done more efficiently by reducing the reinforcement or construction costs.

6. Although Smart Technology is still in its infancy, pilot schemes to promote and test it have
already started. Consumers are currently testing the new smart meters which can be used in their
homes to manage electricity use. There are also a number of demonstrations being planned to show
how the smart technology could practically work, and trials are in place to test the new electrical
infrastructure. It is likely that technology will be added in 'layers', starting with 'quick win' methods
which will provide initial carbon savings, to be followed by more advanced systems at a later date.
Cities are prime candidates for investment into smart energy, due to the high population density and
high energy use. It is here where Smart Technology is likely to be promoted first, utilising a range of
sustainable power sources, transport solutions and an infrastructure for charging electrically powered
vehicles. The infrastructure is already changing fast. By the year 2050, changes in the energy supply
will have transformed our homes, our roads and our behaviour.

Question 38. According to paragraph 1, what has happened in some oil producing countries?

A. They are unwilling to sell their oil any more.

B. They are not producing as much oil as they used to.

C. The supply of oil is unpredictable.

D. Global warming is more severe here than in other countries.

</div>
(12)<div class='page_container' data-page=12>

A. It can reduce their electricity bills.

B. It can tell them how much energy each appliance is using.

C. It can allow them to turn appliances on and off when they are not at home.

D. It can reduce the amount of energy needed to power appliances.

Question 40. According to paragraph 4, what is the problem with using renewable sources of power?

A. They do not provide much energy.

B. They may cause blackouts or system collapse.

C. They lead to pollution and global warming. 
D. They can't be used at off-peak times.

Question 41. In paragraph 6, what can be inferred about cities in the future?

A. Fewer people will be living in cities in the future than nowadays.

B. People in cities will be using vehicles powered by electricity.

C. All buildings will generate their own electricity. 
D. Smart Grid technology will only be available in cities.

Question 42. The word 'remote' in paragraph 5 could be best replace by:

A. isolated B. crowded C. attractive D. alone

Question 43. What is the main idea of the final paragraph? (paragraph 6)

A. To describe who will benefit from Smart Grid technology first. 
B. To outline the advantages of Smart Grid technology.

C. To summarize the main ideas in the previous paragraphs.

D. To describe how, where and when Smart Technology will be introduced.

Question 44. In paragraph 6, what can be inferred about the introduction of Smart Grid Technology?

A. The technologies which produce most benefits will be introduced first.

B. The cheapest technologies will be introduced first.

C. The technologies which are most difficult to put into place will be introduced first. 
D. Technologically advanced systems will be introduced first.

Question 45. Which of the aspects below is NOT answered in the passage?

A. The ways Smart Grid technology will affect the way consumers use energy.

B. The problems which will have to be overcome in switching to Smart Grid Technology.

C. The amount of money has been spent researching Smart Grid technology.

D. The reasons why Smart Grid technology will be needed in the future.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in

meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. It was my grandfather’s donation that helped the church’s central tower to be restored.

C. Thanks to my grand father’s donation, the church’s central tower was restored.

D. Although my grand father donated a lot of money to the church, its central tower was not restored.

</div>
(13)<div class='page_container' data-page=13>

A. Dung suggested himself not thinking of that before. 
B. Dung advised himself not to have thought of that before.

C. Dung wondered why he hadn’t thought of that before.

D. Dung said that why he hadn’t thought that before.

Question 48. The only thing that makes this job worthwhile is money.

A.This job makes money worthwhile.

B. If there is no money, this job is not worthwhile.

C. Were it not for money, the job wouldn't be worthwhile.

D. If only this job were worthwhile for money.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines

each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: I tried to call you a few minutes ago and got a busy signal. How lucky! You called me

A. I was not lucky enough to call you a few minutes ago because I was busy.

B. The busy signal prevented me from calling you a few minutes ago, so please call me back.

C. You luckily called me, so I didn’t have to call you for a few minutes because the signal was busy.

D. Luckily, you called me in time, because I failed to call you a few minutes ago.

Question 50: The unemployment rate is high. The crime rate is usually also high.

A. The unemployment rate and the crime rate are both higher.

B. The higher the unemployment rate is, the higher the crime rate is.

C. The unemployment rate is as high as the crime rate.

D. The high rate of unemployment depends on the high rate of crime.

</div>

Đề thi thử môn Anh 2019 THPT Gia Lộc – Hải Dương lần 2

<b>Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH </b>

Tài liệu liên quan

Tài liệu bạn tìm kiếm đã sẵn sàng tải về