Tuyển tập các đề thi thử kỳ thi THPT quốc gia môn tiếng Anh | Đề thi đại học, Tiếng Anh - Ôn Luyện

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LIÊN TRƯỜNG HẢI PHÒNG - 1

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. laughs B. problems C. nights D. markets

Question 2: A. toll B. roll C. doll D. hole

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. injure B. building C. letter D. hotel
Question 4: A. committee B. envelope C. develop D. procedure

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.

Question 5: Bodies of ______ dead in the tragic accident yesterday were taken away.

A. the B. a C. an D. Ø 

Question 6: If you ______ English in everyday conversations, you’ll speak it fluently.

A. use B. will use C. would use D. used

Question 7: John could not talk to you when you phoned him yesterday as he ______ a bath.

A. took B. had taken C. was taking D. would take

Question 8: Her eyes are red and puffy ______ she has been crying a lot.

A. although B. since C. because of D. despite

Question 9: Jonas worked really hard throughout the term, so it was not merely ______ chance that he got
straight A’s.

A. off B. from C. by D. in

Question 10: _______ toward shore, its shape is changed by its collision with the shallow sea bottom.
A. During a wave rolls B. As a wave rolls

C. A wave rolls D. A wave’s rolling

Question 11: _______ with the size of the whole earth, the highest mountain does not seem high at all. 
A. When compared B. On comparing C. Having compared D. To compare

Question 12: Most teachers tend to detest ______ during classes.

A. interrupting B. being interrupted C. to interrupt D. to be interrupted
Question 13: Although Ariel arrived ______, we made her welcome just the same as everyone else.

A. expect B. unexpectedly C. unexpected D. expectation
Question 14: Please ______ the milk carefully; I don’t want it to boil over.

A. look at B. notice C. watch D. examine

Question 15: These days, housework has been made much easier by electrical ______.
A. machinery B. appliances C. instruments D. equipment

Question 16: The island where these rare birds nest has been declared a(n) ______ where poaching is

prohibited.

A. observation B. reservation C. preservation D. conservation
Question 17: The play is quite suitable for children to see as there is nothing ______ in it.

A. exceptional B. excessive C. exceptionable D. offended
Question 18: ______ drugs are highly addictive and can have unpredictable side effects.

A. Designer B. Maker C. Composer D. Mixer

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19: Cows with newly born calves often show a strong urge to protect their helpless young.

A. desire B. reaction C. thought D. decision

Question 20: All visitors are told to watch out for pickpockets in public places. 
A. take care of B. look for C. pay attention to D. beware of

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 21: Various programs have been designed in order to facilitate the storage and analysis of research
data.

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Question 22: It seems that the deal was made behind closed doors as no one had any clue about it.

A. secretly B. daily C. transparently D. frankly

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges.

Question 23: Mike and Laura are talking about their plan for the weekend.
- Mike: “I promise to go shopping with you if you help me with the housework.”
- Laura: “______ You are the last person to keep a promise.”

A. Come off it! B. That’s great! C. How come? D. I hate to differ.
Question 24: Laura and Mitchell are talking about their class monitor, Susie.

- Laura: "You know, Susie’s father is very rich."

- Mitchell: "______ She wouldn’t accept his help even if it were offered."

A. What for? B. No wonder. C. So what? D. No doubt.

Read the following passage and mark the letter Ay B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct 
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.

Why do some people take revenge on others? Why aren’t we able to sort out our problems without
seeking to get (25)______ with those who have hurt us? Apparently, we are (26)______ experiencing a deeply
rooted part of human nature. Our desire for revenge comes from the brain’s limbic system, the most primitive
part of the brain and one that we share with all animals. (27)______, when someone confronts us, we often
prefer attacking verbally or physically rather than try to work out a solution together.

However, unlike animals, we also possess a highly evolved cerebral cortex which allows us to plan and
analyse – and this can make revenge more than just a(n) (28) ______ reaction. A person who feels they have
been wronged may even enjoy planning a creative and appropriate act of revenge. Some people suggest that
taking revenge can be seen as a positive move, allowing you to work through your negative emotions. However,
it can also be dangerous, and you may risk finding yourself in a situation (29)______ rapidly gets out of hand.

Question 25: A. equal B. even C. similar D. fair

Question 26: A. simply B. simple C. simplicity D. simplify
Question 27: A. However B. Thus C. Additionally D. Subsequently
Question 28: A. distinctive B. instinctive C. extrinsic D. inborn

Question 29: A. who B. where C. when D. which

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.

A leading question among anthropologists is: what exactly led to the development of human cities?
Basically, modern humans have existed on earth for over 100,000 years. Yet it is only in the last 8,000 years
that they have begun to gather in significant numbers and form cities. Prior to that period, humans existed in
small family or tribal groups, generally consisting of fewer than 100 individuals. What, then, led humans to
make the dramatic shift from living in small groups to living in large, organized cities? It seems that the
development of cities required a particular set of circumstances.

First, it required a minimum population density. For much of their early history, humans existed only in
small numbers. This is due to the fact that early humans relied on hunting and gathering wild foods for their
survival. Even the most fertile land would only support a relatively small number of predators, so it was not
until humans began to practice agriculture that they were able to gather in large enough numbers to form cities.

Furthermore, the development of a city could only be possible if a large number of people shared a
common language, culture and religion. Without such unifying factors, a cooperative, peaceful existence among
large numbers of people would have been impossible.

Finally, it seems that early humans needed to be faced with a large problem, which one small group of
individuals could not solve on its own. Only when large-scale cooperation was needed to overcome a problem

would humans come together to form cities.

Question 30: What is the passage mainly about?

A. Factors bringing about the development of human cities

B. How population density affects the development of human cities
C. Why a shared language makes a peaceful human city

D. Problems solved by cooperation of a large group

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Question 32: The word "they" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.

A. predators B. humans C. cities D. foods

Question 33: Which of the following enabled people to live together in peace?
A. A large area of fertile land B. A shared belief and value

C. A large and complicated problem D. A group with a minimal number of members 
Question 34: Which of the following is NOT needed for the development of a city?

A. a shared culture B. people’s gathering 
C. peaceful existence D. large-scale collaboration

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

Nature has always provided a stimulus for inventive minds. Early flying machines clearly were an attempt
to emulate the freedom of birds. Architects and engineers have often consciously modeled buildings on forms
found in nature. A more recent example of the inspiration given by nature is the invention of Velcro®. The

inventor of this now common fastening device noticed that small burrs attached to his dog's coat grasped the
hairs by means of tiny hooks. This led him to invent a synthetic fabric whose surfaces mimic the clasping
properties of this natural seedpod.

Animals and plants have evolved solutions to the kinds of problems that often interest engineers and
designers. Much current research in material science is concerned with actively examining the natural world,
especially at the molecular level, for inspiration to develop materials with novel properties. This relatively new
field of study is sometimes known as biomimetics, since it consciously attempts to mimic nature.

Researchers have investigated several interesting areas. For example, they have studied how the molecular
structure of antler bone contributes to its amazing toughness, how the skin structure of a worm contributes to its
ability to crawl, how the sea cucumber softens its skeleton and changes shape so that it can squeeze through tiny
gaps in rocks, or what gives wood its high resistance to impact. These investigations have led to several
breakthroughs in the development of composite materials with remarkable properties.

Predictions for future inventions that may be developed from these lines of research include so-called
smart structures that design and repair themselves in a similar way to a variety of processes in the natural world.
For example, engineers have envisaged bridges that would detect areas heavily stressed by vehicle movement or
wind. The bridge structure would then automatically add or move material to the weak areas until the stress is
reduced. The same principle might be used to repair damaged buildings. Other new materials that have been
imagined are substances that would copy photosynthesis in green plants in order to create new energy sources.
The potential impact of biomimetic research is so great that the twenty-first century may come to be known as
the "Age of Materials."

Question 35: The passage is primarily concerned with ______.
A. future research into the uses of Velcro®

B. the effect of the Age of Materials on nature
C. the development of products based on nature
D. problems that preoccupy designers and engineers

Question 36: The word “emulate” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. stimulate B. captivate C. imitate D. activate

Question 37: Which of the following is true about Velcro®?
A. It was first used to remove dog hair from the owner’s coat.
B. It exemplifies how a natural structure inspired a useful invention.
C. The inventor of Velcro® was very famous before his invention.
D. It has set a trend for tiny hooklike structures in synthetic fabric.

Question 38: The word “novel” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. unique B. familiar C. fictitious D. legendary

Question 39: Which of the following does the word “it” in paragraph 3 refer to?

A. sea cucumber B. skeleton C. shape D. worm

Question 40: According to the passage, what do investigations in biomimetics suggest?
A. Biomimetics is not promising.

B. Biomimetics may lead to the development of new creatures.
C. Biomimetics may lead to useful inventions.

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Question 41: According to the passage, which of the following would NOT be a useful biomimetic product?
A. Tomatoes mimicking the structures that give sea cucumbers the ability to squeeze through cracks
B. Bulletproof jackets mimicking the structures that give wood its resistance to impact

C. Glass in windshields mimicking the structures that give antler bone its toughness

D. Cables mimicking the structures that give spiderwebs their flexibility and tensile strength

Question 42: As inferred from the passage, what would be the advantage of a product that mimics
photosynthesis?

A. It could be used to create green plants. B. It could help to meet future energy needs.

C. It could be an aid in repairing green areas. D. It could form the basis of twenty-first century materials.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.

Question 43: Playing video games may distract often students from schoolwork.

A B C D

Question 44: A scientific principle has a life expectancy of approximately a decade before it

A B

drastically revised or replaced by newer information.

C D

Question 45: At first John was quite bewildered when taking over the factory but he soon ensured himself

A B C

that things would go well soon.
D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.

Question 46: Janet speaks English better than Daisy. 
A. Janet does not speak English as well as Daisy. 
B. Daisy speaks English better than Janet

C. Janet is a better speaker of English than Daisy.
D. Daisy and Janet are not so good at speaking English.

Question 47: "I would be grateful if you did the work." he said to me.

A. He politely asked me to do the work. B. He praised me because I did the work.

C. He thanked me for doing the work. D. He felt thankful to me because I did the work.
Question 48: It wasn't obligatory to submit my assignment today.

A. I must have submitted my assignment today. B. I needn't have submitted my assignment today.
C. I could have submitted my assignmenttoday. D. I shouldn’t have submitted my assignment today.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: The boss scolded Laura for that minor mistake. He now feels really bad about it. 
A. The boss wishes he did not scold Laurafor that minor mistake.

B. The boss wishes Laura had not made that minor mistake.
C. If only the boss had not scolded Laura for that minor mistake.
D. The boss regretted to scold Laurafor that minor mistake.

Question 50: Olga was about to say something about the end of the movie. He was stopped by his friends right
then.

A. Hardly had Olga intended to say something about the end of the movie before he was stopped by his
friends.

B. Only after Olgahad said something about the end of the movie was he stopped by his friends.

C. Were it not for Olga’s intension of saying something about the end of the movie, he would not be stopped
by his friends.

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LIÊN TRƯỜNG HẢI PHÒNG - 2

Question 1: A. daunted B. installed C. committed D. confided

Question 2: A. core B. more C. pause D. pot

Question 3: A. commerce B. reserve C. burden D. southern

Question 4: A. industry B. museum C. pesticide D. dynamite

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.

Question 5: Most of my friends admire Milan as she can play _____ piano so beautifully.

A. a B. an C. the D. Ø 

Question 6: If Nick doesn't change his way of working,he ______ in big trouble.

A. is B. would be C. will be D. would have been

Question 7: The last time Jimmy ______ a training course was when he was an undergraduate. 
A. had attended B. has attended C. attended D. was attending

Question 8: ______ Allan’s inexperience as a midfielder, he played well and scored a decisive goal in the final
match.

A. Since B. Although C. Despite D. Because of

Question 9: Judy was not in town when the murder took place, so she was ______ suspicion.

A. above B. over C. under D. below

Question 10: ______, others use them in medicine.

A. While some scientists use lasers for military purposes
B. Used for military purposes by some scientists

C. Lasers are used for military purposes by some scientists
D. Some scientists’ using lasers for military purposes

Question 11: After ______, the new manager has faced one crisis after another.
A. selecting B. having selected C. being selected D. selected

Question 12: The doctor wants to know the symptoms of a wasp sting, so he tries _____ by one.
A. to be stung B. to sting C. being stung D. stinging

Question 13: With very high price of oil, people have to ______ on petrol.

A. economy B. economize C. economic D. economically

Question 14: The workers hope there will be a peaceful ______ to the new system.

A. transmission B. transition C. transaction D. transformation
Question 15: It used to be a small town, where people ______ fishing for a living.

A. made B. did C. earned D. led

Question 16: Betty knows she needs exercise, but finds going to the gym a ______.

A. job B. task C. work D. chore

Question 17: We should ______ with the difficulties we were confronted with rather than sitting still and
complaining.

A. acquaint B. contend C. comply D. accord

Question 18:Martin was behind all the brilliant marketing schemes – he is really the ______ of the company.

A. brains B. head C. heart D. backbones

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19: It is really difficult to translate Vietnamese terms having no direct counterparts in English.

A. equivalent phrases B. clear meanings

C. concrete references D. confusable words

Question 20: As they were standing quite far away, Jeremy couldn’t make out what his friends were saying.

A. create B. hear C. imagine D. assume

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Question 21: The accident illuminated existing problems in the country’s dairy industry and food safety
system.

A. clarified B. revealed C. concealed D. damaged

Question 22: None of her novels lends itself to being made into a film; they just simply lack a coherent
storyline.

A. inapplicable B. untamable C. unsuitable D. inconceivable

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges.

Question 23: Jack is having trouble getting some change for the automatic vending machine, so he asks a
passerby.

- Jack: "Excuse me, could I trouble you for some change?"
- The passerby: "______. Will pennies do?”

A. I know B. Never mind C. I am sure D. Let me see

Question 24: Two close friends Tom and Kyle are talking about Kyle’s upcoming birthday. 
- Tom: “Can I bring a friend to your birthday party?”

- Kyle: “______ The more the merrier.”

A. How come? B. Beat me! C. Why not? D. You bet!

Read the following passage and mark the letter Ay B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.

In many countries of Northern Europe, including Scandinavia, Finland, Northern Russia, and the Baltic
states, ice swimming is closely connected with the tradition of sauna, (25)______ has led to the creation of a
new activity where stays in the sauna are (26)______ with quick 'pauses' in ice water. In Russia, ice swimmers
are called what can be literally translated as 'walruses '. The north of Europe, (27)______, is not the only place
where winter swimming is practised regularly. A large ice swimming movement exists in the UK, based in a
famous location: the Serpentine Lake in Hyde Park in London. In Harbin, Northern China, about 200,000
people ice-swim in the Songhua River every winter. The oldest ice swimming club in the United States, the
Coney Island Polar Bear Club of New York, organises an annual (28)______ on New Year's Day. In Canada,
'Polar Bear Swims; 'Plunges' or 'Dips' are a New Year's Day tradition in (29)______ communities as well, the
biggest one taking place in Vancouver since 1920.

Question 25: A. who B. that C. where D. which

Question 26: A. interdependent B. intermingled C. interactive D. interrelated
Question 27: A. moreover B. therefore C. however D. otherwise
Question 28: A. plunge B. drainage C. withdrawal D. bathing
Question 29: A. numbering B. numerate C. numerable D. numerous

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.

Genetic modification of foods is not a new practice. It has been practiced for thousands of years under the
name of "selective breeding". Animals and plants were chosen because they had traits that humans found useful.
Some animals were larger and stronger than others, or they yielded more food, or they had some other trait that
humans valued. Therefore, they were bred because of those traits. Individuals with those traits were brought
together and allowed to breed in the hope that their offspring would have the same traits in greater measure.

Much the same thing was done with plants. To produce bigger or sweeter fruit, or grow more grain per
unit of land, strains of plants were combined and recombined to produce hybrids, or crossbreeds that had the
desired traits in the right combinations. All the while, however, biologists wondered: is there a more direct and
versatile way to change the traits of plants and animals? Could we rewrite, so to speak, the heredity of
organisms to make them serve our needs better?

In the 20th century, genetic modification made such changes possible at last. Now, it was possible to alter
the genetic code without using the slow and uncertain process of selective breeding. It even became possible to
blend plants and animals genetically: to insert animal genes into plants, for example, in order to give the plants
a certain trait they ordinarily would lack, such as resistance to freezing. The result was a tremendous potential to
change the very nature of biology.

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C. The reasons behind selective breeding of plants
D. The development of genetic modification

Question 31: The word "them" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.

A. organisms B. traits C. animals D. plants

Question 32: The word "blend" in paragraph 3 mostly means ______.

A. combine B. collect C. gather D. carry

Question 33: According to the passage, selective breeding ______.
A. is slower and uncertain than genetic modification

B. works much better on plants than on animals
C. helps change the traits of plants rather than animals
D. has a huge potential to change the nature of biology

Question 34: Which of the following IS NOT achieved by genetic modification?
A. Giving plants necessary traits taken from animals’ genes

B. Producing hybrids or crossbreeds from many animals and plants
C. Encouraging people to give up selective breeding completely
D. Making big changes to the very nature of biology

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

Public holidays in the United Kingdom, commonly referred to as bank holidays, are days where most
businesses and non – essential services are closed although an increasing number of retail businesses (especially
the larger ones) do open on some of the public holidays. There are restrictions on trading on Sundays and
Christmas Day. Four public holidays are common to all countries of the United Kingdom. These are: New
Year's Day, the first Monday in May, Christmas Day, and Boxing Day. Some banks open on some bank
holidays. In Scotland, while New Year's Day and Christmas Day are national holidays, other bank holidays are
not necessarily public holidays, since the Scots instead observe traditional local customs and practice for their
public holidays. In Northern Ireland, once again, bank holidays other than New Year's Day and Christmas Day
are not necessarily public holidays. Good Friday and Christmas Day are common law holidays, except in
Scotland, where they are bank holidays. In Scotland the holiday on 1 January (or 2 January if 1 January is
Sunday) is statutory, and 25 December is also a statutory holiday (or 26 December if Christmas Day falls on a

Sunday). Boxing Day is a holiday traditionally celebrated the day following Christmas Day, when servants and
tradesmen would receive gifts, known as a "Christmas box", from their bosses or employers. Today, Boxing
Day is the bank holiday that generally takes place on 26 December. And 28 December only is given if Boxing
Day is Saturday.

Like Denmark, the United Kingdom has no national day holiday marked or celebrated for its formal
founding date. Increasingly, there are calls for public holidays on the patron saints' days in England, Scotland
and Wales. An online petition sent to the Prime Minister received 11,000 signatures for a public holiday in
Wales on St. David's Day; the Scottish Parliament has passed a bill creating a public holiday on St. Andrew's
Day although it must be taken in place of another public holiday; campaigners in England are calling for a bank
holiday on St. George's Day; and in Cornwall, there are calls for a public holiday on St. Piran's Day.

Question 35: What is the passage mainly about?

A. Boxing Holiday in the U.K. B. Public holidays in the U.K. 
C. Weekend holiday D. Similar holidays in Europe

Question 36: Bank holidays besides New Year's Day and Christmas Day are not public holidays in Scotland
because _______.

A. the Scots observe traditional local customs B. Scotland does not belong to the U.K. 
C. they are common law holidays D. the Scots celebrate Good Friday
Question 37: The word “their” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.

A. traditions’ B. the Scots’ C. holidays’ D. the UK’s
Question 38: What does the word “statutory” in paragraph 1 mean?

A. unnecessary B. frequent C. inflexible D. compulsory 
Question 39: Which of the following statements is wrong about the U.K.?

A. All businesses close on public holidays. B. There are 4 common public holidays. 
C. Xmas Day is a bank holiday in Scotland. D. 26th December is Boxing Day.

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A. requests B. yells C. protests D. approvals 
Question 41: Which place has made a patron saint’s day a holiday?

A. Wales B. England C. Cornwall D. Scotland

Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. If a holiday falls at the weekend, a substitute day is given in place.
B. The British people will get 28 December off if Xmas Day is Sunday
C. The U.K. was founded on the same day with Denmark.

D. Online petitions for more holidays are more effective than traditional campaigns.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.

Question 43: In many countries, the domestic automobile industries are so strongly protected that foreign

A B C

cars are seen rarely there.
 D

Question 44: Psychological experiment is indicated that people remember more math problems that they

A B

can’t solve than those they are able to solve.

C D

Question 45: Thanks to sheer hard work, the young entrepreneur has successfully managed to launch a

A B C

magazine of his own.
D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.

Question 46: The South of England is drier than the North.
A. The South of England is not as dry as the North.
B. It is drier in the North than in the South of England.
C. It is not so dry in the North as in the South of England.
D. It is less dry in the South than in the North of England.
Question 47: "You did not tell the truth, Lucy!" said Nick.

A. Nick warned Lucy not to tell the truth. B. Nick criticized Lucy for not telling the truth.

C. Nick accused Lucy of telling the truth. D. Nick decided that Lucy was to blame for telling the truth. 
Question 48: The thief almost certainly came through the open windows.

A. The thief might have come through the open windows. 
B. The thief should have come through the open windows.
C. The thief must have come through the open windows. 
D. The thief could have come through the open windows.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: I didn’t get admitted to Harvard University. It would have been fantastic otherwise.
A. That I got admitted to Harvard University was fantastic.

B. If only I gained admission to Harvard University. 
C. I regretted having been admitted to Harvard University.
D. I wish I had gained admission to Harvard University.

Question 50: John got a terminal illness. He couldn’t get out of the bed on his own. 
A. Such was John’s illness that he could never get out of the bed on his own.
B. John’s illness is too terminal for him to get out of the bed on his own.

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ĐỀ 10 – LIÊN TRƯỜNG HẢI PHÒNG - 3

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.

Question 1. Jenifer missed her chance to be promoted. What a shame!
A. Jenifer regretted having wasted her chance to be promoted.

B. Despite feeling ashamed, Jenifer lost her chance of promotion.
C. If only Jenifer has seized her chance of promotion.

D. That Jenifer missed her chance to be promoted is shameful.

Question 2. They left the concert hall. The fire alarm went off right afterwards.
They left the concert hall just as the fire alarm went off.

The fire alarm had gone off before they left the concert hall.
They were leaving the concert hall when the fire alarm went off.
No sooner had they left the concert hall than the fire alarm went off.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each the following questions.

Question 3.A. success B. balance C. problem D. culture
Question 4.A. commercial B. decisive C. powerful D. electric

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each the following questions.

Question 5. Many consumers are prejudiced against commercial goods made in that country. They
reject them without even before trying first.

A. fair B. biased C. unreasonable D. distinguishable

Question 6. I’ll spend the weekends hitting the books as I have final exams next week.
A. reviewing the books B. studying in a relaxing way

C. damaging the books D. studying in a serious way

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions 7–11

A Working Vacation

Have you ever wondered what it would be like to get your dream job? It can take years to get the
education and develop the skills you need for the perfect job. However, there is a way to experience your dream

job without having to get the required training or degree. Since 2004, Brian Kurth’s company, Vocation
Vacations, has been connecting people with mentors who have the jobs of their dreams.

Kurth had been working for a phone company before starting his own company. He didn’t like his job,
and he had a long time to think about it on his drive to and from work. He also thought about his dream job
while driving. He was interested in becoming a dog trainer, but he didn’t want to take any chances and switch to
a field he didn’t have experience in. He really wanted to know what the job was like and if it was realistic for
him to work towards his goal. So, he found a mentor – a dog trainer that could tell him about the job and
everything it involved. After that, he helped his friends find mentors to explore jobs they were interested in.
They thought it was helpful to talk to people who had their dream jobs before spending lots of time and money
getting the training they needed for those jobs.

Kurth saw how much this helped his friends, so he decided to turn it into his business. He started
Vocation Vacations in 2004, and by 2005, the company was offering experience with over 200 dream jobs.
Today, about 300 mentors work with the company to share their knowledge about their jobs. Customers pay to
experience the job of their dreams and work with these mentors to see what a job is really like. A “job
vacation” costs between $350 and $3,000 and can be for one to three days. Many people use Vocation
Vacations to see if their dream job is a career path they want to continue. Others do it just to experience the job
of their dreams one time.

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photographers and fashion designers. According to Kurth, some other popular dream jobs are working as
bakers, hotel managers and wedding planners.

Source: Summit 2 by Pearson Education, 2017

Question 7. What is the passage mainly about?

A. A company where people can experience their dream jobs
B. A company where people get the training for their dream jobs
C. Brian Kurth’s dream job as a dog trainer

D. Brian Kurth’s company as a dream job provider

Question 8. The word their in paragraph 3 refers to .

A. jobs B. mentors C. customers D. experiences

Question 9. What do mentors at Vocation Vacations do?

A. explore jobs that people are interested in B. train people for their dream jobs
C. give people advice on how to choose a job D. show people what their jobs are like
Question 10. The word glamorous in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to .

A. uncommon B. attractive C. unskilled D. ordinary

Question 11. All of the following are true about Vocation Vacations EXCEPT .
A. it belongs to Brian Kurth B. the company was started in 2004

C. the company hires about 300 mentors D. it provides jobs in many different fields

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions 12–19

Scientists have identified two ways in which species disappear. The first is through ordinary or
“background” extinctions, where species that fail to adapt are slowly replaced by more adaptable life forms. The
second is when large numbers of species go to the wall in relatively short periods of biological time. There have
been five such extinctions, each provoked by cataclysmic evolutionary events caused by some geological
eruption, climate shift, or space junk slamming into the Earth. Scientists now believe that another mass
extinction of species is currently under way – and this time human fingerprints are on the trigger.

How are we are doing it? Simply by demanding more and more space for ourselves. In our assault on
the ecosystems around us we have used a number of tools, from spear and gun to bulldozer and chainsaw.
Certain especially rich ecosystems have proved the most vulnerable. In Hawaii more than half of the native
birds are now gone – some 50 species. Such carnage has taken place all across the island communities of the
Pacific and Indian oceans. While many species were hunted to extinction, others simply succumbed to the
introduced predators’ that humans brought with them: the cat, the dog, the pig, and the rat.

Today the tempo of extinction is picking up speed. Hunting is no longer the major culprit, although rare
birds and animals continue to be butchered for their skin, feathers, tusks, and internal organs, or taken as
savage pets. Today the main threat comes from the destruction of the habitat of wild plants, animals, and insects
need to survive. The draining and damming of wetland and river courses threatens the aquatic food chain and
our own seafood industry. Overfishing and the destruction of fragile coral reefs destroy ocean biodiversity.
Deforestation is taking a staggering toll, particularly in the tropics where the most global biodiversity is at risk.
The shinking rainforest cover of the Congo and Amazon river basins and such place as Borneo and Madagascar
have a wealth of species per hectare existing nowhere else. As those precious hectares are drowned or turned
into arid pasture and cropland, such species disappear forever.

Source: Final Countdown Practice Tests by D.F Piniaris, Heinle Cengage Learning, 2010

Question 12. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Human activity and its impact on a mass extinction of species
B. The two ways in which species disappear

C. The tempo of extinction of species today

D. Deforestation as a major cause of mass extinctions of species

Question 13. The word assault in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .
A. development B. attack C. effort D. influence

Question 14. All of the following are mentioned as a form of habitat destruction EXCEPT ______.
A. destroying coral reefs B. cutting down forests

C. damming wetlands and rivers D. hunting rare birds and animals

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A. tools used by human beings B. human assault on ecosystems
C. vulnerable rich ecosystems D. hunters and introduced predators
Question 16. The word them in paragraph 2 refers to .

A. species B. oceans C. predators D. humans

Question 17. Which is no longer considered a major cause of the mass extinction under way currently?
A. the building of dams across rivers B. the destruction of habitats of species

C. the shrinking of rainforests in the tropics D. the killing of animals for their body parts
Question 18. The word butchered in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to .

A. raised B. traded C. cooked D. killed

Question 19. It can be inferred from the passage that .

A. the current mass extinction is different from the other five in that it is caused by humans
B. hunting is the major contributing factor that speeds up the extinction of species

C. habitat destruction makes a minor contribution to the current mass extinction of species
D. it’s impossible for scientists to identify the causes of mass extinctions of species

Mark the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions

Question 20. During rush hours, travelling by car is slower than travelling by motorbike.
A. During rush hours, travelling by car is faster than travelling by motorbike.

B. During rush hours, travelling by motorbike is faster than travelling by car.
C. During rush hours, travelling by car is as slow as travelling by motorbike.
D. During rush hours, travelling by motorbike is slower than travelling by car.
Question 21. “What did you do last night?” the policeman asked the woman.
A. The policeman asked the woman what did she do the night before.

B. The policeman asked the woman what she had done the night before.
C. The policeman asked the woman what had she done the night before.
D. The policeman asked the woman what she did the night before.
Question 22. Harry sat there waiting for Lucy, which was not necessary

A. Harry might not have sat there waiting for Lucy B. Harry needn’t have sat there waiting for Lucy.
C. Harry couldn’t have sat there waiting for Lucy. D. Harry may not have sat there waiting for Lucy.
Mark the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions

Question 23. Just as the performance ended, all the concertgoers raised to their feet and applauded.

A. Just as B. ended C. raised D. their feet

Question 24. Bowling, one of the most popular indoor sports, are popular all over the United States
and in other countries.

A. of the B. indoor C. are D. other

Question 25. A large number of entries has updated in the latest edition of the encyclopedia recently.

A. large B. has updated C. of D. recently

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Question 26. John is feeling because he hasn’t had enough sleep recently.
A. irritate B. irritation C. irritably D. irritable

Question 27. I would never forget to be the judge in such a well–known competition.
A. being invited B. having invited C. to have invited D. to be invited

Question 28. Once as the World Natural Heritage by UNESCO, Phong Nha – Ke
Bang National Park attracts a great number of visitors worldwide.

A. having recognized B. recognized C. recognizing D. is recognized

Question 29. his physical disability, he managed to finish the course with good results.

A. Although B. Since C. Because of D. Despite

Question 30. Sue would suffer obesity if she couldn’t control her overeating.
A. compulsive B. disastrous C. exhaustive D. unbearable

Question 31. Both husband and wife should be responsible doing the household chores.

A. with B. to C. for D. of

Question 32. It’s considered to interrupt others while they are talking.

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Question 33. It’s me who is at , so I’ll pay for the damage.

A. guilt B. responsibility C. error D. fault

Question 34. During our holiday, we were so lucky to stay in a room with a good ____ of the sea.

A. view B. look C. sight D. vision

Question 35. , the film is still attractive to many people, young and old.
A. Producing many years ago B. Having produced many years ago
C. Although produced many years ago D. It produced many years ago

Question 36. If the weather is fine this weekend, we to see our grandparents.

A. were going B. will go C. would do D. went

Question 37. My brother has been playing piano since he was a small child.

A. the B. a C. no article D. an

Question 38. Sue and Mira are talking about the use of mobile phone in class.
Sue: “Students should not be allowed to use mobile phone in class.”

Mira: “ . This will distract them from studying.”

A. Not really B. No way! It’s useful

C. I’m of the opposite opinion D. I quite agree

Question 39. The children _____ happily in the park when their parents asked them to go home.
A. played B. had played C. were playing D. would play

Question 40. Tony’s parents check his Facebook account every day, he hates being under _____ all the time.

A. scrutiny B. attack C. pressure D. control

Question 41. Luke is offering help to Mary.

Luke: “Shall I help you with your suitcase?” - Mary: “Yes, .”

A. not a chance B. well done C. I don’t need you D. that’s very kind of you

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each the following questions.

Question 42. Mike pretended to be sick, but I saw through his deception at once.
A. was used to B. got angry with C. got bored with D. was aware of

Question 43. Some newspapers are often guilty of distorting the truth just to impress readers with
sensational news stories.

A. gathering personal information B. making changes to facts
C. providing reliable data D. examining factual data

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks 44–48.

It is true that keeping fit will benefit a person’s health in many ways. It has become clear in recent years,
that a large number of people are doing less and less exercise and this is now causing many serious illnesses,
putting a strain on doctors and hospitals. However, some experts believe that too much exercise can do just as
much (44) ______ .

Although it is true that moderate exercise such as walking can be very beneficial to a person’s health, it

is not the only one factor (45) keeps us healthy. Diet is also extremely important and I would argue that
it is probably even more important than exercise, although the ideal is for both of these factors to work together.
It seems to me that many people are unwilling to put in the effort required to become fitter.

(46) , too much exercise can also cause problems. So people are urged to take moderate exercise and
eat moderately healthily rather than embarking on extreme diets and training. In too many instances, ultra–fit
people have had heart attacks or dropped down dead.

In all, governments need to find ways of (47) people to take responsibility for their own health.
People need to realize that eating healthy food does not have to cost a (48) , nor is it difficult to prepare
healthy meals themselves. People need to be better educated about their health.

Question 44: A. ruin B. destruction C. damage D. hurt

Question 45: A. who B. when C. which D. what

Question 46: A. For example B. However C. Therefore D. In fact
Question 47: A. motivating B. motivational C. motivate D. motivation

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each the following questions.

Question 49: A. looked B. laughed C. stepped D. moved

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THPT CHUYÊN SƯ PHẠM HÀ NỘI – 3

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. breath B. threaten C. great D. healthy

Question 2. A. adopted B. appealed C. dedicated D. wounded

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. depression B. informal C. interview D. attention

Question 4.A. polite B. agree C. attempt D. entrance

Mark the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. It is estimated that about 640 women remain illiterate in _______ world, mostly in developing
countries.

A. a B. an C. the D. X

Question 6. If you didn't wear shabby clothes, you _______ more good-looking.
A. will be B. would be C. would have been D. can be
Question 7. Henry _______ into the restaurant when some his friends were having dinner.

A. went B. was going C. has gone D. did go

Question 8. Nowadays, the divorce rate is higher than it used to be________ young people are allowed to
decide on their marriage.

A. despite B. but C. even though D. in spite of

Question 9. Toxic chemicals in the air and land have also driven many species ______the verge of extinction.

A. on B. about C. at D. to

Question 10. __________, he received great support from his fans.

A. Having been announced B. On his announcement

C. He has announced D. Despite his announcement

Question 11. _____ to be performed on a stage bare of scenery, Thornton Wilder's play Our Town depicts life
in a small New England community.

A. Written B. Writing C. The writing D. On the writing

Question 12. Many reliable methods of storing information tended _______ when computers arrived. 
A. to forget B. to be forgotten C. forgetting D. being forgotten

Question 13. Many teenagers show signs of anxiety and ________ when being asked about their future.
A. depression B. depress C. depressed D. depressing

Question 14. _____ with the development of jazz in New Orleans in the 1920’s was one of the greatest periods
in blues music.

A. Deciding B. Gathering C. Taking D. Coinciding

Question 15. Having understood all things happened, he didn’t want to _____ a fuss, he acted silently as much
as possible.

A. take B. do C. make D. change

Question 16. The sudden resignation of the financial director put the company in a very position.
A. weak B. unsteady C. collapsed D. vulnerable

Question 17. The traffic problem has improved _____, out of the blue, really.

A. gradually B. factually C. unexpectedly D. respectably

Question 18. Mr. Brown refused to answer the questions on the _____ that the matter was confidential. 
A. reasons B. excuses C. grounds D. foundation

Mark the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19. He had never experienced such discourtesy towards the president as it occurred at the 
annual meeting in May.

A. politeness B. rudeness C. encouragement D. measurement

Question 20. The members of the orchestra have arrived an hour prior to the performance for a short
rehearsal.

A. after B. while C. when D. before

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Question 21. It can be detrimental to your health to eat decayed food or food which has been contaminated.
A. bad B. cheap C. expensive D. beneficial

Question 22. Tom’s told amusing stories before, but this one really takes the biscuit.

A. is the most amusing B. sounds ridiculous C lets people down D. make people surprised
Mark the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 23. A man is talking to Alex when he is on holiday in Paris.
The man: “You haven’t lived here long, have you?”

Alex: “__________”.

A. Yes, just a few days B. No, I live here for a long time
C. No, only three months D. Yes, I have just moved here

Question 24. Michael is going to have a birthday party and he would like to invite Mary to his party.

Michael: “I'm having some friends over for my birthday party this Saturday evening. Would you like to join

us?” Mary: “__________ ”

A. Can I take a rain check? B. Come on. It's your turn.
C. Thanks, but I mustn’t. D. As a matter of fact, I do.

Read the following passage and mark the correct answer that best fits each of the numbered blanks
Are organically grown foods the best food choices? The advantages claimed for such foods over (25)
_____ grown and marketed food products are now being debated. Advocates of organic foods – a term (26)
_____ meaning varies greatly – frequently proclaim that such products are safer and more nutritious than others.
The growing interest of consumers in the safety and more nutritional quality of the typical North
American diet is a welcome development. (27) _____, much of this interest has been sparked by sweeping
claims that the food supply is unsafe or in adequate in meeting nutritional needs. Although most of these claims
are not supported by scientific evidence, the preponderance of written material advancing such claims makes it
difficult for the general public to separate fact from fiction. As a result, claims that eating a diet (28) _____
entirely of organically grown foods prevents or cures disease or provides other benefits to health have become
widely publicized and form the basis for folklore.

Almost daily the public is besieged by claims for "no-aging" diets, new vitamins, and other wonder foods.
There are numerous unsubstantiated reports that natural vitamins are superior to synthetic ones, that (29) ___ eggs
are nutritionally superior to unfertilized eggs, that untreated grains are better than fumigated grains and the like.
Question 25. A. conventionally B. intentionally C. additionally D. occasionally

Question 26. A. which B. whose C. whom D. when

Question 27. A. Therefore B. However C. As a result D. Thus
Question 28. A. making B. concluding C. consisting D. providing
Question 29. A. fertilizer B. fertile C. fertilizing D. fertilized
Read the following passage and mark the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.

Mass transportation revised the social and economic fabric of the American city in three fundamental
ways. It catalyzed physical expansion, it sorted out people and land uses, and it accelerated the inherent
instability of urban life. By opening vast areas of unoccupied land for residential expansion, the omnibuses,
horse railways, commuter trains, and electric trolleys pulled settled regions two to four times more distant from
city centers than they were in the pre- modern era. In 1850, for example, the borders of Boston lay scarcely two
miles from the old business district; by the turn of the century the radius extended ten miles. Now those who
could afford it could live far removed from the old city center and still commute there for work, shopping, and
entertainment. The new accessibility of land around the periphery of almost every major city sparked an
explosion of real estate development and fueled what we now know as urban sprawl. Between 1890 and 1920,
for example, some 250,000 new residential lots were recorded within the borders of Chicago, most of them
located in outlying areas. Over the same period, another 550,000 were plotted outside the city limits but within
the metropolitan area. Anxious to take advantage of the possibilities of commuting, real estate developers added
800,000 potential building sites to the Chicago region in just thirty years – lots that could have housed five to
six million people.

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inhabitants were anticipated, did so to create demand as much as to respond to it. Chicago is a prime example of
this process. Real estate subdivision there proceeded much faster than population growth.

Question 30. With which of the following subjects is the passage mainly concerned?
A. Types of mass transportation.

B. Instability of urban life.

C. How supply and demand determine land use.

D. The effects of mass transportation on urban expansion.

Question 31. The author mentions all of the following as effects of mass transportation on cities EXCEPT ___
A. growth in city area B. separation of commercial and residential districts.

C. Changes in life in the inner city. D. Increasing standards of living.
Question 32. The word "vast" in line 3 is closest in meaning to_____

A. large B. basic C. new D. urban

Question 33. The author mentions Chicago in the second paragraph as an example of a city_____. 
A. that is large

B. that is used as a model for land development

C. where land development exceeded population growth
D. with an excellent mass transportation system.

Question 34. The word "sparked" in line 8 is closest in meaning to_____
A. brought about B. surrounded C. sent out D. followed

Read the following passage and mark the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

The preservation of embryos and juveniles is rare occurrence in the fossil record. The tiny, delicate
skeletons are usually scattered by scavengers or destroyed by weathering before they can be fossilized.
Ichthyosaurs had a higher chance of being preserved than did terrestrial creatures because, as marine animals,
they tended to live in environments less subject to erosion. Still, their fossilization required a suite of factors: a

slow rate of decay of soft tissues, little scavenging by other animals, a lack if swift currents and waves to jumble
and carry away small bones, and fairly rapid burial. Given these factors, some areas have become a treasury of
well-preserved ichthyosaur fossils.

The deposits at Holzmaden, Germany, present an interesting case for analysis. The ichthyosaur remains are
found in black, bituminous marine shales deposited about 190 million years ago. Over the years, thousands of
specimens of marine reptiles, fish, and invertebrates have been recovered from these rocks. The quality of
preservation is outstanding, but what is even more impressive is the number of ichthyosaur fossils containing
preserved embryos. Ichthyosaurs with embryos have been reported from 6 different levels of the shale in a small
area around Holzmaden, suggesting that a specific site was used by large numbers of ichthyosaurs repeatedly over
time. The embryos are quite advanced in their physical development; their paddles, for example, are already well
formed. One specimen is even preserved in the birth canal. In addition, the shale contains the remains of many
newborns that are between 20 and 30 inches long.

Why are there so many pregnant females and young at Holzmaden when they are so rare elsewhere? The
quality of preservation is almost unmatched, and quarry operations factors do not account for the interesting
question of how there came to be such a concentration of pregnant ichthyosaurs in a particular place very close
to their time of giving birth.

Question 35. Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Some species of ichthyosaurs decayed more rapidly than other species.
B. Ichthyosaur newborns are smaller than other newborn marine reptiles.
C. Ichthyosaurs were more advanced than terrestrial creatures.

D. Ichthyosaurs may have gathered at Holzmaden to give birth.

Question 36. Which of the following best expresses the relationship between the first and second paragraphs? 
A. The first paragraph describes a place while the second paragraph describes a field of study.

B. The first paragraph defines the terms that are used in the second paragraph.

C. The second paragraph describes a specific instance of the general topic discussed in the first paragraph.
D. The second paragraph presents information that contrasts with the information given in the first paragraph.
Question 37. The word "outstanding" in line 9 is closest in meaning to _____

A. extensive B. surprising C. vertical D. excellent
Question 38. The word "site" in line 11 is closest in meaning to

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Question 39. Which of the following is true of the fossil deposits discussed in the passage? 
A. They include examples of newly discovered species.

B. They contain large numbers of well-preserved specimens
C. They are older than fossils found in other places

D. They have been analyzed more carefully than other fossils.

Question 40. The phrase "account for" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to

A. record B. describe C. equal D. explain

Question 41. All of the following are mentioned as factors that encourage fossilization EXCEPT the _____
A. speed of burial B. conditions of the water

C. rate at which soft tissues decay D. cause of death of the animal.

Question 42. Why does the author mention the specimen preserved in the birth canal? 
A. To illustrate that the embryo fossils are quite advanced in their development

B. To explain why the fossils are well preserved
C. To indicate how the ichthyosaurs died

D. To prove that ichthyosaurs are marine animals.

Mark the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. The midnight sun is a phenomenon in which the Sun visible remains in the sky for twenty-four
A B C

hours or longer.
D

Question 44. Although there are more than 2,000 different varieties of candy, many of them made from a basic

A B C D

boiled mixture of sugar, water, and corn syrup.

45. Nuclear energy, despite its early promise as a source of electrical power, is still insignificant in compared

A B C D

with older and safer energy sources.

Mark the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46. My interview lasted longer than yours.

A. Your interview wasn’t as short as mine. B. Your interview was shorter than mine.
C. Your interview was as long as mine. D. Your interview was longer than mine.
Question 47. Mary said : “ What will you do this evening, John ?”

A. Mary asked John what would he do that evening.
B. Mary asked John what John did that evening.

C. Mary wanted to know what she and John would do that evening.
D. Mary wanted to know what John would do that evening.

Question 48. I think he didn’t take a bus yesterday because there aren’t any buses on Sundays.
A. He couldn’t have taken a bus yesterday because there aren’t any buses on Sundays.
B. He mustn’t have taken a bus yesterday because there aren’t any buses on Sundays.
C. He needn’t have taken a bus yesterday because there aren’t any buses on Sundays.
D. He mightn’t have taken a bus yesterday because there aren’t any buses on Sundays.
Mark the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
 Question 49. I regret going to his party last night.

A. I didn’t go to his party last night. B. I refused to go to his party last night.
C. I wish I didn’t go to his party last night. D. I wish I hadn’t gone to his party last night.
 Question 50. He started computer programming as soon as he left school.

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THPT CHUYÊN KHTN – ĐH QG HÀ NỘI 2019

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. gloves B. says C. months D. sings

Question 2: A. summit B. voluntary C. compulsory D. upgrade

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. engineer B. understand C. referee D. mechanic 
Question 4: A. oceanic B. environment C. reality D. psychologist

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.

Question 5: More and more investors are pouring _______ money into food and beverage start-ups.

A. the B. a C. an D. Ø

Question 6: Do you think there _______ less conflict in the world if all people spoke the same language?

A. were B. will be C. would be D. are

Question 7: Linda rarely goes to school by bike, but today she _______ a bike.

A. rides B. is riding C. is going to ride D. will ride 
Question 8: John has worked very late at night these day, _______ he is physically exhausted.

A. yet B. hence C. because D. so

Question 9: I agree _______ one point with Chris: it will be hard for us to walk 80km.

A. in B. of C. on D. for

Question 10: _______, the ancient place is still popular with modern tourists.

A. Building thousands of years ago B. It was built thousands of years ago 
C. To have built thousands of years ago D. Built thousands of years ago

Question 11: Once _______ in the UK, the book will definitely win a number of awards in regional book fairs. 
A. is published B. having published C. published D. publishing

Question 12: Your hair needs _______. You’d better have it done tomorrow.

A. cut B. to cut C. being cut D. cutting

Question 13: He was pleased that things were going on _______.

A. satisfied B. satisfactorily C. satisfying D. satisfactory

Question 14: Although our opinions on many things _______, we still maintain a good relationship with each
other.

A. differ B. receive C. maintain D. separate

Question 15: Daniel _______ a better understanding of Algebra than we do.

A. makes B. has C. takes D. gives

Question 16: The pointless war between the two countries left thousands of people dead and seriously _______.

A. injured B. wounded C. spoilt D. damaged

Question 17: Eager to be able to discuss my work _______ in French, I hired a tutor to help polish my language
skills.

A. expressively B. articulately C. ambiguously D. understandably 
Question 18: The sight of his face brought _______ to me how ill he really was.

A. place B. house C. life D. home

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19: In a study, more Asian students than American students hold a belief that a husband is obliged to
tell his wife his whereabouts if he comes home late.

A. urged B. free C. required D. suggested

Question 20: Though I persuaded my boss to solve a very serious problem in the new management system, he
just made light of it.

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Question 21: Students from that university have conducted a survey to find out the most effective study habit.

A. organized B. delayed C. encouraged D. proposed

Question 22: Some operations many have to be halted unless more blood donors come forward to help.

A. offer B. claim C. attempt D. refuse

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of
the following exchanges.

Question 23: Bill is talking to his colleague. 
Bill: “_______, Jack?”

Jack: “Fine! I have just got a promotion.”

A. What happened B. What are you doing C. How are you doing D. How come

Question 24: Two students are taking in a new class.

Student 1: “Excuse me, is anybody sitting here?” 
Student 2: “_______”

A. No, thanks. B. Yes, I am so glad.

C. Sorry, the seat is taken. D. Yes, yes. You can seat here.

Reading the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

An earthquake is the result of a sudden release of energy in the Earth's crust that creates seismic waves. At
the Earth's surface, earthquakes are recognized (25) _______ vibration, shaking and sometimes displacement of
the ground. The vibrations may vary in (26) _______. They are caused mostly by slippage within geological
faults, but also by other events such as volcanic activity, landslides, mine blasts, and nuclear tests. The
underground point of (27) _____ of the earthquake is called the focus. The point directly above the focus on the
surface is called the epicenter. Earthquakes by themselves rarely kill people or wildlife. It is usually the
secondary events (28) _______ they trigger, such as building collapse, fires, tsunamis (seismic sea waves) and
volcanoes, that are actually the human disaster. Many of these could possibly be avoided by better construction,
safety systems, early warning and (29) _______ planning.

(Encarta, DVD, 2009)

Question 25: A. in B. with C. as D. from

Question 26: A. magnitude B. value C. amount D. quantity

Question 27: A. source B. origin C. center D. epicenter

Question 28: A. who B. what C. that D. those

Question 29: A. evacuator B. evacuate C. evacuating D. evacuation

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.

Each year, the Academy Awards, better known as the “Oscars”, celebrate the best films and
documentaries with categories ranging from acting, directing and screenwriting, to costumes and special effects.
This year, 9-year-old Quvenzhané Wallis joins the list of kids who have taken the movie business by storm,
as she competes for the best actress award for her role as ‘Hushpuppy’ in the film “Beasts of the Southern
Wild”.

The Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Sciences is made up of filmmakers in all fields. The group ranks
their favorites in each category. Oftentimes Oscar recognition can take many years, but for some lucky and
talented individuals that honor comes early in life.

Newcomer Quvenzhané Wallis (pronounced Kwe-VEN-zhah-nay) portrayed ‘Hushpuppy,’ a young girl
fighting to survive in a poor Mississippi Delta community prone to devastating flooding. In the film, Wallis
learns to find food in the wilderness, escapes a homeless shelter and deals with the death of her father. She will
be the youngest ever nominee in the best actress category at nine years old.

Born in Houma, LA., Quvenzhané was just five years old when she auditioned for Beasts of the Southern
Wild. Since auditions for the role of Hushpuppy were only open to 6-9 year olds, Quvenzhané’s mother lied on
the initial paperwork to allow her daughter to audition. When director Benh Zeitlin saw her audition however,
he immediately recognized her as the best pick for this strong and independent young character.

()

Question 30: Which of the following is the best title for this passage?

A. Young Actors Achieve Big for the Oscars

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C. Youngest Ever Nominee for the Oscars 
 D. A Young Actress makes it to the Oscars

Question 31: Which of the following is NOT celebrated by the Academy Awards?

A. films B. documentaries C. news D. cartoons

Question 32: The phrase “that honor” in paragraph 2 refers to _______. 
A. lucky and talented individuals B. Oscars recognition

C. favorites D. award

Question 33: Which of the following best describe Quvenzhané Wallis according to the passage? 
A. She is a young girl fighting to survive in a poor Mississippi Delta community.

B. She has won the best actress Oscars award for her role in “Hushpuppy”. 
C. She escapes a homeless shelter and deals with the death of her father. 
D. She is the youngest ever nominee in the best actress category for the Oscars.

Question 34: Which of the following best paraphrases the clause “who have taken the movie business by
storm” in the reading?

A. who have earned their living in the movie business 
B. who have made huge profits in the movie business

C. who have been particularly successful in the movie business 
D. who have recovered from a difficult period in the movie business

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.

No sooner had the first intrepid male aviators safely returned to Earth than it seemed that women, too, had
been smitten by an urge to fly. From mere spectators, they became willing passengers and finally pilots in their
own right, plotting their skills and daring line against the hazards of the air and the skepticism of their male
counterparts. In doing so they enlarged the traditional bounds of a women's world, won for their sex a new
sense of competence and achievement, and contributed handsomely to the progress of aviation.

But recognition of their abilities did not come easily. "Men do not believe us capable." the famed aviator
Amelia Earhart once remarked to a friend. "Because we are women, seldom are we trusted to do an efficient
job." Indeed, old attitudes died hard: when Charles Lindbergh visited the Soviet Union in 1938 with his wife,
Anne-herself a pilot and gifted proponent of aviation - he was astonished to discover both men and women
flying in the Soviet Air Force.

Such conventional wisdom made it difficult for women to raise money for the up - to - date equipment
they needed to compete on an equal basis with men. Yet they did compete, and often they triumphed finally
despite the odds.

Ruth Law, whose 590 - mile flight from Chicago to Hornell, New York, set a new nonstop distance record
in 1916, exemplified the resourcefulness and grit demanded of any woman who wanted to fly. And when she
addressed the Aero Club of America after completing her historic journey, her plainspoken words testified to a
universal human motivation that was unaffected by gender: "My flight was done with no expectation of
reward," she declared, "just purely for the love of accomplishment."

(TOEFL Readings)

Question 35: Which of the following is the best title for this passage? 
A. A Long Flight

B. Women in Aviation History 
C. Dangers Faced by Pilots 
 D. Women Spectators

Question 36: According to the passage, women pilots were successful in all of the following EXCEPT _____. 
A. challenging the conventional role of women

B. contributing to the science of aviation 
C. winning universal recognition from men 
 D. building the confidence of women

Question 37: What can be inferred from the passage about the United States Air Force in 1938? 
A. It had no women pilots.

B. It gave pilots handsome salaries.

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Question 38: In their efforts to compete with men, early women pilots had difficulty in _______. 
A. addressing clubs B. flying nonstop C. setting records D. raising money 
Question 39: According to the passage, who said that flying was done with no expectation of reward?

A. Amelia Earhart B. Charles Lindbergh

C. Anne Lindbergh D. Ruth Law

Question 40: The word “skepticism” is closest in meaning to _______.

A. hatred B. doubt C. support D. surprise

Question 41: The word “addressed” can be best replaced by _______.

A. mailed B. came back to C. spoke to D. consulted

Question 42: The word “counterparts” refers to _______.

A. passengers B. pilots C. skills D. hazards

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.

Question 43: Some people say often that using cars is not so convenient as using motorbikes.

A. say often B. using cars C. so D. as using motorbikes

Question 44: They are having their house being painted by a construction company.

A. having B. their C. being painted D. construction

Question 45: Transgender people are denied the ability to join the armed forces due to discriminating policies
implemented by the government.

A. Transgender B. are denied C. armed forces D. discriminating

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.

Question 46: “If I hadn’t had so much work to do, I would have gone to the movies.” said the boy. 
A. As the boy did not have much work to do, he went to the movies.

B. They boy said that if he hadn’t had so much work to do, he would have gone to the movies. 
C. The boy explained the reason why he had so much work to do that he couldn’t go to the movies.

D. The boy didn’t want to go to the movies because he did have so much to do.

Question 47: If only you told me the truth about the theft. 
A. You should have told me the truth about the theft. 
B. I do wish you would tell me the truth about the theft. 
C. You must have told me the truth about the theft.

D. It is necessary that you tell me the truth about the theft.

Question 48: The demand was so great that they had to reprint the book immediately. 
A. They had to print the book immediately to satisfy the increasing demand.

B. To meet the greater and greater demand, they had to print the book immediately. 
C. There was such a great demand that the book was printed immediately.

D. So great was the demand that they had to print the book immediately.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: Julian dropped out of college after his first year. Now he regrets it. 
A. Julian regretted having dropped out of college after his first year.

B. Julian wishes he didn’t drop out of college after his first year. 
C. Julian regrets having dropped out of college after his first year.
D. Only if Julian had dropped out of college after his first year.

Question 50: Seth informed us of his retirement from the company. He did it when arriving at the meeting. 
A. Only after his retiring from the company did Seth tell us about his arrival at the meeting.

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THPT CHUYÊN TRẦN PHÚ – HẢI PHÒNG

Mark the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the
following questions.

Question 1: A. handicappedB. advantaged C. organized D. compromised

Question 2: A. leisure B. pleasure C. failure D. measure

Mark the word that differs from the other three in theposition of primary stress

Question 3: A. broaden B. persuade C. reduce D. explain

Question 4: A. rectangular B. confidential C. conservative D. political
Mark the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: Richard Byrd was first person in history to fly over North Pole.

A. the - a B. the - Ø C. the - the D. Ø - Ø

Question 6: The President a speech, but in the end he his mind.
A. delivered - had changed B. was delivering - changed
C. would deliver - had changed D. was going to deliver - changed
Question 7: you happen to visit him, give him my best wishes.

A. Could B. Would C. Might D. Should

Question 8: The new supermarket is so much cheaper than the one in John Street ____, they do free
home deliveries.

A. Moreover B. Consequently C. Nevertheless D. Instead

Question 9: Jimmy, dressed in jeans and a black leather jacket, arrived at the party ______ his motorbike.

A. by B. on C. in D. through

Question 10: We decided not to travel, the terrible weather forecast.

A. having heard B. to have heard C. having been heard D. to have been heard
Question 11: , she managed to hide her feelings.

A. However jealous she felt B. if she would feel jealous
C. Despite of her being jealous D. In case she felt jealous

Question 12: The manager regrets that a lot of people will be made redundant by the company next
year.

A. announcing B. having announced C. to announced D. to have announced
Question 13: During the presentation, each can possible three questions to the guest speaker.

A. attendance B. attentive C. attendee D. attend

Question 14: Today, some students tend to the importance of soft skills as they solely focus on
academic subjects at school.

A. overlook B. urge C. emphasize D. implement

Question 15: In some countries, many old-aged parents like to live in a nursing home. They want to ___
independent lives.

A. give B. take C. keep D. lead

Question 16: The widened will help keep traffic flowing during rush hours.

A. entryway B. runway C. freeway D. pathway

Question 17: As John ___ enjoyed doing research, he never could imagine himself pursuing other careers.

A. thoroughly B. totally C. extremely D. utterly

Question 18: Everyone will tell you that becoming a parent is challenging, but you never really know what
that means until you learn about it the way.

A. long B. direct C. full D. hard

Mark the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of thefollowing questions.
Question 19: Tim is thinking of leaving his present job because his manager is always getting at him.

A. hitting B. disturbing C. defending D. criticizing

Question 20: You can use a microwave or cook this kind of food in a conventional oven.

A. unique B. modern C. traditional D. extraordinary

Mark the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: Contrary to their expectations, there was widespread apathy among voters on that issue.

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Question 22: Doctors and nurses of this hospital have worked round the clock to help those injured in the
recent earthquake.

A. permanently B. interruptedly C. continuously D. accurately
Mark the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 23: Anne is seeing Mary off at the airport.

Anne: “Don’t fail to look after yourself, Mary! Marry: “ ”

A. Of course, you are an adult. B. Oh, I knew about that. C. The same to you. D. Thanks, I will.
Question 24: Frank is inviting William to go to the waterpark.

Frank: “What about going to the waterpark?” William: “ ”

A. That’s good idea. B. That’s right. C. Of course! D. Right! Go ahead.
Read the following passage and mark the correct answer that best fits each of the numbered blanks

WOMEN TAKING THE HUSBAND’S NAME

Many women in Western society, aware of the power of names to influence identity, are aware that
choosing how to identify themselves after marriage can be a significant decision. They may follow the
tradition of taking their husband's last name, hyphenate their (25) ____ name and their husband's, or keep
their birth name. One fascinating survey reveals that a woman's choice is (26) ____to reveal a great deal
about herself and her relationship with her husband. Women who take their husband's name place the most
importance (27) ___ relationships. On the other hand, women who keep their birth names put their
personal concerns ahead of relationships and social expectations. Female forms of address influence others'
perceptions as well. Research (28) ____ in the late 1980s showed that women who choose the title Ms.
give the impression of being more achievement oriented, socially self-confident, and dynamic but less
interpersonally warm than counterparts (29) ____ prefer the more traditional forms Miss or Mrs.

Question 25: A. own B. private C. personal D. individual

Question 26: A. like B. alike C. likely D. unlikely

Question 27: A. by B. on C. in D. with

Question 28: A. conduct B. conducts C. conducting D. conducted

Question 29: A. who B. what C. which D. whom

Read the following passage and mark the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.

A tropical cyclone is a violent low pressure storm that usually occurs over warm oceans of over 80°F
or 27°C. It winds counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere
as it is described for the term, cyclone itself. This powerful storm is fueled by the heat energy that is
released when water vapor condenses at high altitudes, the heat ultimately derived from the Sun.

The center of a tropical cyclone, called the eye, is relatively calm and warm. This eye, which is
roughly 20 to 30 miles wide, is clear, mainly because of subsiding air within it. The ring of clouds around the
eye is the eyewall, where clouds reach highest and precipitation is heaviest. The strong wind, gusting up to
360 kilometers per hour, occurs when a tropical cyclone’s eyewall passes over land.

There are various names for a tropical cyclone depending on its location and strength. In Asia, a
tropical cyclone is named according to its strength. The strongest is a typhoon; its winds move at more than
117 kilometers per hour. In India, it is called a cyclone. Over the North Atlantic and in the South Pacific,
they call it a hurricane.

On average, there are about 100 tropical cyclones worldwide each year. A tropical cyclone peaks in
late summer when the difference between temperature in the air and sea surface is the greatest. However, it
has its own seasonal patterns. May is the least active month, while September is the most active.

The destruction associated with a tropical cyclone results not only from the force of the wind, but also

from the storm surge and the waves it generates. It is born and sustained over large bodies of warm water,
and loses its strength over inland regions that are comparatively safe from receiving strong winds. Although
the tract of a tropical cyclone is very erratic, the Weather Service can still issue timely warnings to the
public if a tropical cyclone is approaching densely populated areas. If people ever experience a cyclone,
they would know how strong it could be.

Question 30: What is the main idea of the passage?

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Question 31: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is true about the eyewall?

A. The eyewall is formed in cold weather. B. When the eyewall passes overhead, the wind weakens.
C. The temperature is highest around the eye. D. The eyewall is a cloud band that surrounds the eye.
Question 32: What can be inferred about typhoons, cyclones and hurricanes?

A. Typhoons, cyclones and hurricanes form together above the oceans.
B. A typhoon is stronger than both the cyclone and the hurricane.

C. Typhoons, cyclones and hurricanes are all most powerful over a humid ocean.
D.Although tropical cyclones have different names, they are basically the same.
Question 33: The word “it” in paragraph 5 refers to .

A. a tropical cyclone B. the wind C. torrential rain D. the storm surge
Question 34: The word “erratic” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to .

A. complicated B. unpredictable C. disastrous D. explosive

Read the following passage and mark the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

As the twentieth century began, the importance of formal education in the United States increased. The frontier
had mostly disappeared and by 1910 most Americans lived in towns and cities. Industrialization and the

bureaucratization of economic life combined with a new emphasis upon credentials and expertise to make
schooling increasingly important for economic and social mobility. Increasingly, too, schools were viewed
as the most important means of integrating immigrants into American society.

The arrival of a great wave of southern and eastern European immigrants at the turn of the century
coincided with and contributed to an enormous expansion of formal schooling. By 1920 schooling to age
fourteen or beyond was compulsory in most states, and the school year was greatly lengthened.
Kindergartens, vacation schools, extracurricular activities, and vocational education and counseling extended
the influence of public schools over the lives of students, many of whom in the larger industrial cities were the
children of immigrants. Classes for adult immigrants were sponsored by public schools, corporations,
unions, churches, settlement houses, and other agencies.

Reformers early in the twentieth century suggested that education programs should suit the needs of
specific populations. Immigrant women were once such population. Schools tried to educate young women so
they could occupy productive places in the urban industrial economy, and one place many educators
considered appropriate for women was the home.

Although looking after the house and family was familiar to immigrant women, American education gave
homemaking a new definition. In preindustrial economies, homemaking had meant the production as well as
the consumption of goods, and it commonly included income-producing activities both inside and outside the
home, in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States, however, overproduction rather
than scarcity was becoming a problem. Thus, the ideal American homemaker was viewed as a consumer rather
than a producer. Schools trained women to be consumer homemakers cooking, shopping, decorating, and
caring for children "efficiently" in their own homes, or if economic necessity demanded, as employees in the
homes of others. Subsequent reforms have made these notions seem quite out-of-date.

Question 35: It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that one important factor in the increasing importance of 
education in the United States was .

A. the growing number of schools in frontier communities

B. an increase in the number of trained teachers

C. the expanding economic problems of schools
D.the increased urbanization of the entire country

Question 36: The word “means” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to .

A. advantages B. probability C. method D. qualifications

Question 37: The phrase "coincided with " in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .
A. was influenced by B. happened at the same time as
C. began to grow rapidly D. ensured the success of

Question 38: According to the passage, one important change in United States education by the 1920's was 
that ______.

A.most places required children to attend school

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Question 39: Vacation schools and extracurricular activities are mentioned in paragraph 2 to illustrate ___.
A. alternatives to formal education provided by public schools

B. the importance of educational changes

C. activities that competed to attract new immigrants to their programs
D.the increased impact of public schools on students

Question 40: According to the passage, early-twentieth century education reformers believed that .
A.different groups needed different kinds of education

B. special programs should be set up in frontier communities to modernize them

C. corporations and other organizations damaged educational progress

D. more women should be involved in education and industry
Question 41: The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to .

A. consumption B. production C. homemaking D. education

Question 42: All of the following statements are true EXCEPT .

A. immigrants played a part in changing American education system in the 20th century
B. many foreign people found it easier to settle down in American thanks to schools

C.prior to the 20th century, public education had never had any influence on students’ lives
D. among the changes in American education system last century, one centred on women.
Mark the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43: Ninety-seven percent of the world’s water are salt water found in the oceans.

A. percent B. world’s C. are D. found

Question 44: Fred Astaire is said to have been the most popular dancer of his time , but he was also a
talented actor, a singer , and choreographer.

A. is said B. to have been C. of his time D. a singer

Question 45: Jane’s friends insist that she will stay at their house when she visits Toronto next weekend .

A. will stay B. at C. visits D. next weekend

Mark the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46: “What a novel idea for thefarewell party you’ve got,” said Nam to the monitor.
A. Nam thought over the novel idea for the farewell party.

B. Nam came up with the novel idea for the farewell party.

C. Nam said that it was a novel idea of his classmates for the farewell party.

D.Nam exclaimed with admiration at the novel idea for the farewell party of the monitor.
Question 47: It is believed that the thief broke into the house through the bedroom window.

A. The thief is believed that he broke into the house through the bedroom.

B.The thief is believed to have broken into the house through the bedroom window.
C. The thief was believed to break into the house through the bedroom window.
D. The thief was believed to have broken into the house through the bedroom window.
Question 48: To let Harold join our new project was silly as he knows little about our company.

A. Harold couldn’t have joined our new project with such poor knowledge about our company.
B. Harold must have known so little about our company that he wasn’t let to join our new project.
C. We shouldn’t have allowed Harold to join our new project as he doesn’t know much about our
company.

D. We would have joined the new project with Harold provided that he knew much about our company.
Mark the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in thefollowing questions.

Question 49: The taxi driver ignored the stop sign. Then, he crashed his vehicle.
A. If the taxi driver ignored the stop sign, he crashed his vehicle.

B. Unless the taxi driver paid attention to the stop sign, he would have crashed his vehicle.

C.The taxi driver would not have crashed his vehicle if he had taken notice of the stop sign.
D. The taxi driver didn’t ignore the stop sign, or he would not have crashed his vehicle.
Question 50: She is so attractive. Many boys run after her.

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THPT CHUYÊN BẮC NINH - 1

Mark the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress
Question 1: A. establish B. renovate C. encourage D. remember
Question 2: A. measure B. context C. postcard D. resource

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the indicate the sentence that best completes
each of the following exchanges.

Question 3: Two students are talking to each other in the class.
- “Do you mind if I take a seat?” – “ .”

A. No I mind B. No, do as you please C. Yes, do as you please D. Yes, I don’t mind
Question 4: Jenny and Mark are talking to the living standard

Jenny : “I think higher living standard is one of the reason that many people want to be a city dweller.”
Mark: “ ”

A. Why not? B. I couldn’t agree more.

C. It’s nice of you to say so. D. That’s quite all right.

Mark the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions.

Question 5: Embracing new technologies will help the country to develop more quickly.
A. rejecting B. obscuring C. disobeying D. contradicting

Question 6: The hotel was incredible with breathtaking view and excellent cuisine.

A. unimpressive B. unspoilt C. unadorned D. untouched

Read the following passage and mark the correct answer to each of the questions from 7 to 13

Buying a house is the single largest financial investment an individual makes. Yet, in India this act is
fraught with risk and individuals depend on weak laws for justice. Occasionally, deviant promoters are called
to account as was the case in the detention of Unitech’s promoters. This incident shows up the fallout of an
absence of proper regulation to cover contracts between buyers and real estate promoters. A real estate bill,
which is presently pending in Rajya Sabha, seeks to fill this gap. It has been debated for over two years and
should be passed by Parliament in the budget session.

India is in the midst of rapid urbanization and urban population is expected to more than double to about
900 million over the next three decades. Unfortunately, even the current population does not have adequate
housing. A government estimate in 2012 put the shortage at nearly 19 million units. If this shortage is to be
alleviated quickly, India’s messy real estate sector needs reforms.

The real estate bill seeks to set standards for contracts between buyers and sellers. Transparency, a
rare commodity in real estate, is enforced as promoters have to upload project details on the regulators’
website. Importantly, standard definitions of terms mean that buyers will not feel cheated after taking
possession of a house. In order to protect buyers who pay upfront, a part of the money collected for a real
estate project is ring-fenced in a separate bank account. Also, given the uncertainty which exists in India on
land titles, the real estate bill provides title insurance. This bill has been scrutinized by two parliamentary
committees and its passage now brooks no delay.

This bill is an important step in cleaning up the real estate market, but the journey should not end with it.
State governments play a significant role in real estate and they are often the source of problems. Some
estimates suggest that real estate developers have to seek approvals of as many as 40 central and state
departments, which lead to delays and an escalation in the cost of houses. Sensibly, NDA government’s

project to provide universal urban housing forces states to institute reforms to access central funding. Without
real estate reforms at the level of states, it will not be possible to meet the ambition of making housing
accessible for all urban dwellers.

Question 7: What is the passage mainly about?

A.The obstacles and resolutions to India’s real estate market
B.The urban dwellers’ inaccessibility to housing

C.The need for urgent reform in housing distribution
D.The lack of housing in India

Question 8: According to the passage, which of the following is the pending in Raiya Sabha?

A. Real estate bill B. Universal rural housing programme

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Question 9: Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A.India’s real estate sector needs reforms.

B.Real state bill has been scrutinized by two parliamentary committees.
C.Current population does not have adequate housing in India.

D.Urban population is expected to more than double to about 850 million over the next three decades
Question 10: The word “fraught” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to

A. coping B. contentious C. overflowing D. tolerable

Question 11: According to the passage, state governments

A. encourage the real estate market B. obstruct reforms to access universal urban housing

C. hinder the housing purchase process D. reject to mount the housing fee

Question 12: The word “they” in the last paragraph refers to

A. developers B. governments C. estimates D. problems

Question 13: The word “escalation” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to

A. growth B. degradation C. revolution D. decrease

Mark the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences of the following questions

Question 14: His academic record at high school was poor. He failed to apply to that prestigious university 
A.His academic record at high school was poor as a result of his failure to apply to that prestigious

university.

B.Failing to apply to that prestigious university, his academic record at high school was poor.

C.His academic record at high school was poor; as a result, he failed to apply to that prestigious university.
D.His academic record at high school was poor because he didn’t apply to that prestigious university.

Question 15: My new neighbour is a famous author. My new neighbour is also an influential political
commentator.

A.My new neighbour is a famous author, and she is an influential political commentator.
B.My new neighbour likes writing famous books and commenting on politics.

C.My new neighbour is not only a famous author but also an influential political commentator.
D.My new neighbour writes famous books, but she does not know much about politics.

Read the following passage and mark the correct answer to each of the questions from 16 to 23

Let children learn to judge their own work. A child learning to talk does not learn by being corrected all the
time. If corrected too much, he will stop talking. He notices a thousand times a day the difference between
the language he uses and the language those around him use. Bit by bit, he makes the necessary changes to
make his language like other people’s. In the same way, children learn all the other things they learn to do
without being taught – to talk, run, climb, whistle, ride a bicycle – compare their own performances with those 
of more skilled people, and slowly make the needed changes. But in school we never give a child a chance to
find out his mistakes for himself, let alone correct them. We do it all for him. We act as if we thought that he
would never notice a mistake unless it was pointed out to him, or correct it unless he was made to. Soon he
becomes dependent on the teacher. Let him do it himself. Let him work out, with the help of other children if
he wants it, what this word says, what the answer is to that problem, whether this is a good way of saying or
doing this or not.

If it is a matter of right answers, as it may be in mathematics or science, give him the answer book. Let him
correct his own papers. Why should we, teachers, waste time on such routine work? Our job should be to help
the child when he tells us that he can’t find the way to get the right answer. Let’s end all this nonsense of
grades, exams, and marks. Let us throw them all out, and let the children learn what all educated persons must
someday learn, how to measure their own understanding, how to know what they know or do not know.

Let them get on with this job in the way that seems most sensible to them, with our help as school teachers if
they ask for it. The idea that there is a body of knowledge to be learnt at school and used for the rest of
one’s life is nonsense in a world as complicated and rapidly changing as ours. Anxious parents and teachers
say, “But suppose they fail to learn something essential, something they will need to get on in the world?”
Don’t worry! If it is essential, they will go out into the world and learn it.

Question 16: What does the author think is the best way for children to learn things?

A. By listening to explanations from skilled people B. By copying what other people do

C. By asking a great many questions D. By making mistakes and having them corrected
Question 17: The passage suggests that learning to speak and learning to ride a bicycle are

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C. not really important skills D. more important than other skills
Question 18: What does the author think teachers do which they should not do?

A. They give children correct answers. B. They allow children to mark their own work.
 C. They encourage children to copy from one another. D. They point out children’s mistakes to them
Question 19: The word “those” in paragraph 1 refers to

A. skills B. performances C. changes D. things

Question 20: According to paragraph 1, what basic skills do children learn to do without being taught?
A. reading, talking, and hearing B. talking, climbing, and whistling

C. running, walking, and playing D. talking, running, and skiing

Question 21: Exams, grades and marks should be abolished because children’s progress should only be
estimated by

A.parents B. educated persons C. the children themselves D. teachers
Question 22: The word “essential” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. wonderful B. important C. complicated D. difficult

Question 23: The author fears that children will grow up into adults who are .
A. too critical of themselves B. unable to use basic skills
C. too independent of others D. unable to think for themselves
Mark the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation

Question 24: A. impressed B. abolished C. influenced D. heightened 
Question 25: A. savo ur B. devour C. favour D. flavo ur

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions

Question 26: The babysitter has told Billy’s parents about his ______ behavior and how he starts acting act as
soon as they leave home.

A. focus-seeking B. meditation- seeking C. attention-seeking D. 
concentration-seeking

Question 27: ________ as a masterpiece, a work of art must transcend the ideals of the period in which it was
created.

A. In order to be ranking B. Ranking C. Being ranked D. To be ranked
Question 28: Every ______ piece of equipment was sent to the fire.

A. disposable B. consumable C. spendable D. available

Question 29: Smith had a lucky escape. He ______ killed.

A. should have been B. would have been C. must have been D. could have been
Question 30: Neither of the boys came to school yesterday, ________?

A. didn’t he B. does he C. did he D. doesn’t he

Question 31: A good leader in globalization is not to impose but ______ change.

A. facilitate B. show C. cause D. oppose

Question 32: The old man warned the young boys _________ in the deep river.

A. not to swimming B. don’t swim C. to swim D. against swimming

Question 33: His father used to be a ___________ professor at the university. Many students worshipped him.

A. distinguishing B. distinct C. distinctive D. distinguished

Question 34: If Tim ____________ so fast, his car wouldn’t have crashed into a tree.

A. haven’t driven B. didn’t drive C. drives D. hadn’t driven

Question 35: Most of the ____________ in this workshop do not work very seriously or productively.
A. rank and file B. tooth and nail C. eager beavers D. old hand

Question 36: Not only ___________ in the field of psychology but animal behavior is examined as well.
A. is human behavior studied B. is studied human behavior

C. human behavior D. human behavior is studied

Question 37: Luckily, the rain _____________ so we were able to play the match.

A. watered down B. gave out C. got away D. held off

Mark the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions

Question 38: He may be shy now, but he’ll soon come out of his shell when he meets the right girl.

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Question 39: The only cure for alcoholism is complete abstinence from alcohol.

A. sickness B. pretension C. avoidance D. absence

Mark the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 40: He (A) bought a lot of books, (B) none of (C) them he (D) has ever read.

Question 41: There is (A) few evidence that the children (B) in language classrooms learn foreign languages
(C) any better than adults in similar (d) classroom. situation

Question 42: The theory (A) isn’t sounding persuasive (B) anymore because it (C) had been opposed by many
(D) scholars.

Read the following passage and mark the word(s) that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 43 to 47
Around 200 million people are employed in tourisim worldwide, making it the largest industry in the modern
global economy. It is estimated that three-quarters of a billion people go on holiday each year, and industry
planners expect this figure to double (43) ______ 2020. Some of the biggest beneficiaries are less developed
countries, where it is often their main source of income.

(44) ________, along with the economic benefits, this mass movement of people has resulted in threats to the
environment. People often forget the damage caused by carbon emissions from aircraft, (45) _________
contribute directly to global warming. Deforestation has cleared land in order to build hotels, airports and roads,
and this has destroyed wildlife. In some areas, water shortages are now common because of the need to fill
swimming pools and water golf courses for tourists. By pushing up prices for goods and services, tourism can
also be harmful to people living in tourist destinations.

In response to these (46) ________, some travel operators now offer environment-friendly holidays. Many of
these aim to reduce the negative effects of tourism by (47) _______ only hotels that have invested equipment to
recycle waste and use energy and water efficiently. Increasingly, tourists are also being reminded to show

respect for customs of the people whose countries they are going to visit, and to support local businesses, such
as restaurants and shops which depend on tourism for their main income.

Question 43: A. before B. until C. by D. in

Question 44: A. However B. Therefore C. Yet D. In addition

Question 45: A. what B. which C. whatever D. that

Question 46: A. concerns B. priorities C. scenarios D. issues
Question 47: A. voting B. promoting C. empowering D. permitting

Mark the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 48: It was not until after I got home that I realized I had not set the burglar alarm in the office.
A. Fortunately, I realized that I hadn't set the burglar alarm just before I left for home; otherwise, I would have
had to travel all the way back to the office.

B. On the way home, I suddenly realized that I had forgotten to turn on the burglar alarm in the office.

C. I didn't turn the burglar alarm on before I left the office, but I only became aware of this after I'd arrived
home.

D. I wish I had realized before I arrived home that I hadn't turned on the burglar alarm in the office, then it
would have been easier to go and set it.

Question 49: Phil wanted to be separated from his family on the business trip for less time than he was on the
last.

A. As he had enjoyed being away from his family for such a long time on his last business trip, Phil

hoped that this trip would be even longer.

B. Phil knew that the business trip he was soon to take would keep him away from his family for less
time than the previous one

C. On this business trip, Phil hoped that he would not be away from his family for as long a time as he
had been on the previous one.

D. No longer wanting to take lengthy business trips because they separated him from his family, Phil
preferred not to go on any at all.

Question 50: When there is so much traffic on the roads, it is sometimes quicker to walk than to go by car.
A. The traffic is always so heavy that you'd better walk to work; it's quicker.

B. There is so much traffic these days that it is more pleasant to walk than to drive.

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THPT CHUYÊN HÙNG VƯƠNG PHÚ THỌ

Question 1: A. hole B. home C. come D. hold

Question 2: A. watched B. cleaned C. stopped D. picked

Question 3: A. admit B. suggest C. remind D. manage

Question 4: A. approval B. applicant C. energy D. influence

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.

Question 5: More and more investors are pouring ________ money into food and beverage start–ups.

A. the B. a C. an D. Ø

Question 6: Do you think there _____ less conflict in the world if all people spoke the same language?

A. were B. will be C. would be D. are

Question 7: Linda rarely goes to school by bike, but today she ______ a bike.

A. rides B. is riding C. is going to ride D. will ride 
Question 8: John has worked very late at night these days, ______ he is physically exhausted.

A. yet B. hence C. because D. so

Question 9: I agree ______ one point with Chris: it will be hard for us to walk 80km.

A. in B. of C. on D. for

Question 10: ____________________, the ancient place is still popular with modern tourists. 
A. Building thousands of years ago B. It was built thousands of years ago 
C. To have built thousands of years ago D. Built thousands of years ago

Question 11: Once ___________ in the UK, the book will definitely win a number of awards in regional book
fairs.

A. is published B. having published C. published D. publishing 
Question 12: Your hair needs _______. You’d better have it done tomorrow.

A. cut B. to cut C. being cut D. cutting

Question 13: He was pleased that things were going on _______.

A. satisfied B. satisfactorily C. satisfying D. satisfaction

Question 14: Although our opinions on many things ______, we still maintain a good relationship with each
other.

A. differ B. receive C. maintain D. separate

Question 15: Daniel ______ a better understanding of Algebra than we do.

A. makes B. has C. takes D. gives

Question 16: The pointless war between the two countries left thousands of people dead and seriously _______.

A. injured B. wounded C. spoilt D. damaged

Question 17: Eager to be able to discuss my work _____ in French, I hired a tutor to help polish my language
skills.

A. expressively B. articulately C. ambiguously D. understandably 
Question 18: The sight of his pale face brought ________ to me how ill he really was.

A. place B. house C. life D. home

Mark the Letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19: In a study, more Asian students than American students hold a belief that a husband is obliged to
tell his wife his whereabouts if he comes home late.

A. urged B. free C. required D. suggested

Question 20: Though I persuaded my boss to solve a very serious problem in the new management system, he
just made light of it.

A. completely ignored B. treated as important

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Mark the Letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 21: Students from that university have conducted a survey to find out the most effective study habit.

A. organized B. delayed C. encouraged D. proposed

Question 22: Some operations may have to be halted unless more blood donors come forward to help.

A. offer B. claim C. attempt D. refuse

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of
the following exchanges.

Question 23: Bill is talking to his colleague.

Bill: “_________, Jack?” – Jack: “Fine! I have just got a promotion.”

A. What happened B. What are you doing

C. How are you doing D. How come

Question 24: Two students are talking in a new class.

Student 1: “Excuse me, is anybody sitting here?” – Student 2: “____________”

A. No, thanks. B. Yes, I am so glad.

C. Sorry, the seat is taken. D. Yes, yes. You can sit here.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Amy Tan was born on February 19, 1952 in Oakland, California. Tan grew up in Northern California, (25)
_______ when her father and older brother both died from brain tumors in 1966, she moved with her mother
and younger brother to Europe, where she attended high school in Montreux, Switzerland. She returned to the
United States for college. After college, Tan worked as a language development consultant and as a corporate
freelance writer. In 1985, she wrote the story "Rules of the Game" for a writing workshop, which laid the early
(26) _______ for her first novel The Joy Luck Club. Published in 1989, the book explored the (27) _______
between Chinese women and their Chinese–American daughters, and became the longest–running New York
Times bestseller for that year. The Joy Luck Club received numerous awards, including the Los Angeles Times
Book Award. It has been translated into 25 languages, including Chinese, and was made into a major motion
picture for (28) _______ Tan co–wrote the screenplay. Tan's other works have also been (29) ______ into
several different forms of media.

Question 25: A. however B. moreover C. so D. but

Question 26: A. preparation B. base C. source D. foundation 
Question 27: A. relate B. relative C. relationship D. relatively

Question 28: A. whom B. that C. what D. which

Question 29: A. adjoined B. adapted C. adjusted D. adopted

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.

Newspapers and television news programs always seem to report about the bad things happening in
society. However, there is a place where readers can find some good news. That place is the website called

HappyNews. The man behind HappyNews is Byron Reese. Reese set up HappyNews because he thought other

news sources were giving people an unbalanced view of the world. Reese said about HappyNews, “The news
media gives you a distorted view of the world by exaggerating bad news, misery, and despair. We’re trying to
balance out the scale.”

Not everyone agrees with Reese’s view, though. Many people think that news sources have a
responsibility to provide news that is helpful to people. People need to know about issues or problems in today’s
society. Then they are better able to make informed decisions about things that affect their daily lives. Reese
said that HappyNews is not trying to stop people from learning about issues or problems. HappyNews is just
trying to provide a balanced picture of today’s world.

By the end of its first month online, HappyNews had more than 70,000 unique readers. About 60 percent
of those readers were women. Something else unique makes HappyNews different from any of the other news or
information websites that are on the Internet. Unlike many other websites, HappyNews gets fan mail from its
readers on a daily basis.

Question 30: Which of the following is the best title for this passage? 
A. “Byron Reese Tells People How to Be Happy”

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C. “Newspapers vs. Online News” 
 D. “Why Women Like HappyNews”

Question 31: How is HappyNews different than other news sources? 
A. All of the stories are written by Reese.

B. HappyNews does not exaggerate its stories. 
C. Its stories are not about bad things. 
 D. The website only has stories about women.

Question 32: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.

A. sources B. problems C. people D. issues

Question 33: Why might some people NOT like HappyNews? 
A. It doesn’t tell them about important issues or problems. 
B. Reese’s stories are about misery and despair.

C. Some sources give a balanced view. 
D. The stories are from around the world.

Question 34: What does “exaggerating” mean in this reading?

A. improving B. explaining C. editing D. worsening

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct

answer to each of the questions.

No sooner had the first intrepid male aviators safely returned to Earth than it seemed that women, too, had
been smitten by an urge to fly. From mere spectators, they became willing passengers and finally pilots in their
own right, plotting their skills and daring line against the hazards of the air and the skepticism of their male
counterparts. In doing so they enlarged the traditional bounds of a women' s world, won for their sex a new
sense of competence and achievement, and contributed handsomely to the progress of aviation.

But recognition of their abilities did not come easily. "Men do not believe us capable." The famed aviator
Amelia Earhart once remarked to a friend. "Because we are women, seldom are we trusted to do an efficient
job." Indeed old attitudes died hard: when Charles Lindbergh visited the Soviet Union in 1938 with his wife,
Anne–herself a pilot and gifted proponent of aviation – he was astonished to discover both men and women
flying in the Soviet Air Force.

Such conventional wisdom made it difficult for women to raise money for the up – to – date equipment
they needed to compete on an equal basis with men. Yet they did compete, and often they triumphed finally
despite the odds.

Ruth Law, whose 590 – mile flight from Chicago to Hornell, New York, set a new nonstop distance
record in 1916, exemplified the resourcefulness and grit demanded of any woman who wanted to fly. And when
she addressed the Aero Club of America after completing her historic journey, her plainspoken wordstestified
to a universal human motivation that was unaffected by gender: "My flight was done with no expectation of
reward," she declared, "just purely for the love of accomplishment." It was this sincere love of flying that
enabled Law so effectively to promote aviation and to inspire others to fly. She once stated, "There is an
indescribable feeling which one experiences in flying; it comes with no other form of sport or navigation. It
takes courage and daring; and one must be self-possessed, for there are moments when one's wits are tested to
the full. Yet there is an exhilaration that compensates for all one's efforts. Law's daring, courage, and skill
should be remembered because she was a remarkable pioneer who challenged stereotypes, established new
aviation records, and encouraged others to share her passion for flying and her vision for the future of aviation.
Question 35: Which of the following is the best title for this passage?

A. A Long Flight B. Women in Aviation History

C. Dangers Faced by Pilots D. Women Spectators

Question 36: According to the passage, women pilots were successful in all of the following EXCEPT___. 
A. challenging the conventional role of women

B. contributing to the science of aviation 
C. winning universal recognition from men 
 D. building the confidence of women

Question 37: What can be inferred from the passage about the United States Air Force in 1938? 
A. It had no women pilots.

B. It gave pilots handsome salaries.

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D. It could not be trusted to do an efficient job.

Question 38: In their efforts to compete with men, early women pilots had difficulty in ______. 
A. addressing clubs B. flying nonstop C. setting records D. raising money 
Question 39: According to the passage, who said that flying was done with no expectation of reward?

A. Amelia Earhart B. Charles Lindbergh C. Anne Lindbergh D. Ruth Law 
Question 40: The word ‘skepticism’ is closest in meaning to _______.

A. hatred B. doubt C. support D. surprise

Question 41: The word ‘addressed’ can be best replaced by ________.

A. mailed B. came back to C. spoke to D. consulted

Question 42: The word ‘counterparts’ refers to ________.

A. passengers B. pilots C. skills D. hazards

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.

Question 43: Some people say often that using cars is not so convenient as using motorbikes.

A. say often B. using cars C. so D. as using motorbikes
Question 44: They are having their house being painted by a construction company.

A. having B. their C. being painted D. construction

Question 45: Transgender people are denied the ability to join the armed forces due to discriminating policies
implemented by the government.

A. Transgender B. are denied C. armed forces D. discriminating

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.

Question 46: “I agree that I am narrow–minded,” said the manager.
A. The manager denied being narrow–minded.

B. The manager admitted being narrow–minded. 
C. The manager refused to be narrow–minded. 
D. The manager promised to be narrow–minded.

Question 47: A supermarket is more convenient than a shopping centre. 
A. A shopping centre is not as convenient as a supermarket.

B. A shopping centre is more convenient than a supermarket. 
C. A supermarket is not as convenient as a shopping centre. 
D. A supermarket is as inconvenient as a shopping centre. 
Question 48: It was a mistake for Tony to buy that house.

A. Tony couldn’t have bought that house. 
B. Tony can’t have bought that house. 
C. Tony needn’t have bought that house. 
D. Tony shouldn’t have bought that house.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: Julian dropped out of college after his first year. Now he regrets it. 
A. Julian regrets not having dropped out of college after his first year.

B. Julian wishes he didn’t drop out of college after his first year. 
C. If only Julian hadn’t dropped out of college after his first year.

D. Only if Julian had dropped out of college after his first year would he not regret it.

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THPT CHUYÊN LÊ QUÝ ĐÔN HCM 2019

I. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.

Question 1. – Bob: “Our team has just won the last football match.” 
- Peter : “_________________________”

A. Yes, I guess it’s very good. B. Well, that’s very surprising!
C. Yes, it’s our pleasure. D. Good idea. Thanks for the news. 
Question 2. This is the communicative exchange at an electric shop.

- The shop assistant. “This is my last portable CD player. I’ll let you have it for sixty dollars.”
- Steven: “ _________________?”

A. Could you possibly give me fifty dollars B. Can you tell me your favourite type of music 
C. Could you give me a discount D. Could you give me your last CD

II. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following question.

Question 3. Solution to the problem of how to dispose of excess rubbish must find.

A. the problem B. how to dispose C. must find D. Solution

Question 4. A food additive is any chemical that food manufactures intentional add to their products. 
A. intentional B. additive C. any chemical D. products

Question 5. A paragraph is a portion of a text consists of one or more sentences related to the same idea.

A. consists of B. sentences C. related to D. A paragraph

III. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 6. She was to wet behind the ears to be in charge of such demanding tasks.

A. lack of responsibility B. full of experience C. without money D. full of sincerity

Question 7. The storm was unexpected. No one was prepared for it so some people couldn’t excape and got
injured.

A. may be avoided B. should be followed C. can be predicted D. must be prevented

IV. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.

Question 8. By the end of last June, I ________ English for five years.

A. studied B. was studying C. had studied D. has studied 
Question 9. If she didn’t have to work today, she ________ her children to zoo.

A. will take B. takes C. would have taken D. would take
Question 10. Tom regrets ________ too much time ________ computer games last night.

A. spending … to play B. spending … playing C. to spend … playing D. spend … play 
Question 11. You will have a good feeling about yourself and ________ when you do voluntary work.

A. others B. the others C. other D. the other

Question 12. I’ll introduce to you the man ________ support is very necessary for your project.

A. whose B. whom C. that D. who

Question 13. Only professionals can identify different ________ of natural light.

A. expansions B. extensions C. intensities D. weights 
Question 14. If oil supplies run out in 2050 then we need to find ________ energy sources soon.

A. alternating B. alternate C. altering D. alternative 
Question 15. The man grew up in ________ orphanage in ________ United Kingdom.

A. the/ an B. an/ the C. an/ an D. the/ Ø

Question 16. These days more and more people are aware ________ the importance of protecting endangered
species.

A. with B. on C. of D. up

Question 17. The ________ in my neighborhood are well cared by the authorities.

A. disabilities B. unable C. disabled D. inability

Question 18. Solar energy is not widely used ________ it is friendly to the environment.

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Question 19. It was advisable that he ________ there alone. It was too dangerous.

A. hadn’t gone B. didn’t go C. doesn’t go D. not go

Question 20. Everybody is tired of watching the same commercials on TV every night, ________? 
A. aren’t they B. haven’t they C. are they D. don’t they

Question 21. Michael got surprisingly high grades in the final exam. He ________ his lessons very carefully. 
A. can’t have revised B. should have revised C. needn’t have revised D. must have revised

V. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 22. I arrived at work. The assistant knocked at the door. 
A. Hardly had I arrived at work then the assistant knocked at the door. 
B. No sooner had I arrived at work than the assistant knocked at the door. 
C. I hardly knew the assistant knocked at the door as I just arrived at work. 
D. I had to arrived at work as the assistant knocked at the door.

Question 23. She didn’t take her father’s advice. That’s why she is bored with her work. 
A. If she took her father’s advice, she wouldn’t be bored with her work.

B. If she had taken her father’s advice, she wouldn’t have been bored with her work. 
C. If she had taken her father’s advice, she wouldn’t be bored with her work.

D. If she takes her father’s advice, she won’t be bored with her work.

VI. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24. The government decided to pull down the old building after asking for the ideas from the local
residents.

A. demolish B. renovate C. maintain D. purchase

Question 25. The adhesive qualities of this new substance far surpass those of all others of its type.

A. dissolving B. sticky C. damaging D. disintegrating

VII. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position on primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 26. A. benefit B. argument C. vacancy D. apartment

Question 27. A. borrow B. explain C. discuss D. repair

VIII. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in
meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 28. It is said that the man was having business difficulties. 
A. The man was having business difficulties is said.

B. The man is said to be having business difficulties.

C. People said that the man was having business difficulties. 
D. The man is said to have been having business difficulties.

Question 29. “I would be grateful if you could send me further information about the job.”, Lee said to me. 
A. Lee thanked me for sending him further information about the job.

B. Lee felt great because further information about the job had been sent to him. 
C. Lee politely asked me to send him further information about the job.

D. Lee flattered me because I sent him further information about the job. 
Question 30. When he picked up my book he found that the cover had been torn.

A. Picked up, he saw that the cover of the book was torn.

B. The cover had been torn when his book is picked up. 
C. Picking up his book, the cover had been torn.

D. On picking up the book, he saw that the cover had been torn.

IX. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.

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Body language transmits ideas or thoughts by certain actions, either intentionally or unintentionally. A wink can
be a way of flirting or indicating that the party is only joking. A nod signifies approval, while sharking the head
indicates a negative reaction. Other forms of nonlinguistic language can be found in Braille (a system of raised
dots read with the fingertips), signal flags, Morse code, and smoke signals. Road maps and picture signs also
guide, warn, and instruct people.

While verbalization is the most common form of language, other systems and techniques also express human
thoughts and feelings.

Question 31. What is the best title for the passage? 
A. The Many Forms of Communication

B. The Importants of Sign Language 
C. Ways of Expressing Feelings

D. Picturesque Symbols of Communication

Question 32. The word “accomplished” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _______ .

A. attained B. meandered C. demoted D. translated

Question 33. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT ________ .

A. verbalization is the most common form of communication

B. the deaf and mute use an oral form of communication 
C. ideas and thoughts can be transmitted by body language 
D. there are many forms of communication in existence today

Question 34. Which form other than oral speech would be most commonly used among blind people? 
A. Signal flags B. Picture signs C. Braille D. Body language

Question 35. Sign language is said to be very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally EXCEPT
for _________ .

A. whole words B. expressions C. spelling D. ideas

X. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Thanks to our modern lifestyle, with more and more time spent sitting down in front of computers than ever
before, the (36) _________ of overweight people is at a new high. As people frantically search for a solution to
this problem, they often try some of popular fad diet being offered. Many people see fad diet (37) ______
harmless ways of losing weight, and they are grateful to have them. Unfortunately, not only do fad diet usually
fo the trick but also they can actually be dangerous for your health.

Although permanent weight loss is the goal, few are able to achieve it. Expert estimate that 95 percent of dieters
return to starting weight, or even (38) _________ weight. While reckless use of fad diets can bring some initial
results, long-term results are very rare.

Nonetheless, people who are fed up with the difficulties of changing their eating habits often turn to fad diets.
(39) _________ being moderate, fad diets involve extreme dictary changes. They advise eating only one type of
food, or they prohibit other types of foods entirely. This results in a situation (40) _________ a person’s body

doesn’t get all the vitamins and other things that it needs to stay healthy.

Question 36. A. number B. range C. sum D. amount

Question 37. A. as B. like C. through D. by

Question 38. A. lose B. gain C. reduce D. put

Question 39. A. In spite of B. Rather than C. In addition to D. More than

Question 40. A. what B. where C. which D. why

XI. Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.

Amelia Earhart was born in Kansas in 1897. Thirty one years later, she received a phone call that would change
her life. She was invited to become the first woman passenger to cross the Atlantic Ocean in a plane. The flight
took more than 20 hours – about three times longer than it routinely takes today to cross the Atlantic by plane.
Earhart was twelve years old before she ever saw an airplane, and she didn’t take her first flight until 1920. But
she was so thrilled by her first experience in a plane that she quickly began to take flying lessons. She wrote,
“As soon as I left the ground, I knew I myself had to fly.”

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appearance were similar to pioneering pilot and American hero Charles Lindbergh, she earned the nickname
“Lady Lindy.” She wrote a book about her flight across the Atlantic, called 20 Hrs, 40 Min.

Earhart continued to break records, and also polised her skills as a speaker and writer, always advocating
women’s achievements, especially in aviation. Her next goal was to achieve a transatlantic crossing alone. In
1927 Charles Lindbergh became the first person to make a solo nonstop flight across the Atlantic. Five years
later, Earhart became the first woman to repeat that feat. Her popularity grew even more and she was the
undisputed queen of the air. She then wanted to fly around the world, and in June 1973 she left Miami with

Fred Noonan as her navigator. No one knows why she left behind important communication and navigation
instruments. Perhaps it was to make room for additional fuel for the long flight. The pair made it to New Guinea
in 21 days and then left for Howland Island, a tiny island in the middle of the Pacific Ocean. The last
communication from Earhart and Noonan was on July 2, 1937 with a nearby Coast Guard ship. The United
States Navy conducted a massive search for more than two week but no trace of the plane or its passengers was
ever found. Many people believe they got lost simply ran out of fuel and died.

Question 41. With which of the following subject is the passage mainly concerned? 
A. The history of aviation

B. Achievements of early aviation pioneers. 
C. The achievements of a pioneering aviatrix. 
 D. The tragic death of the queen of air.

Question 42. According to the passage, which of the following statements about Earhart is NOT true? 
A. She wrote a book about her solo nonstop flight across the Atlantic, called 20 Hrs, 40 Min.

B. She was in her late twenties when she took her first flight. 
C. She is regarded as the female Chare Lindbergh in aviation.

D. In her last adventure, she didn’t take communication and navigation instruments by accident, and that led
to the tragedy.

Question 43. According to the passage, when did Amelia Earhart began her first flight _______.
A. when she was 12 years old

B. when she first saw an airplane

C. when she started to take flying lessons 
 D. 1920

Question 44. The word “sensation” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to __________.

A. perception B. feeling C. excitement D. hit

Question 45. Amelia Earhart eas called “Lady Lindy” because _____________. 
A. She repeated Charles Lindbergh’s feat

B. she was the undisputed queen of the air 
C. President Coolidge gave her the nickname

D. of her career and her phusical resemblance to Lindbergh

Question 46. The word “undisputed” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to __________. 
A. undeceived B. dissipated C. undoubted D. contemporary 
Question 47. The word “it” in the third paragraph refers to _______________.

A. the reason B. communication C. plane D. aviation

Question 48. It may be inferred from the passage that Amelia Earhart __________.

A. would have continued to seek new adventures and records to break if she had not died at the age of 39 
B. would not have developed her love of flying if she had not been invited to become the first woman
passenger to cross the Atlantic in a plane

C. became too confident and took too many risks to be able to live to old age 
D. did not want to return to the Unitted States

XII. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following question.

Question 49. A. attempts B. conserves C. plays D. studies

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THPT CHUYÊN CHU VĂN AN

Question 1: A. gloves B. says C. months D. sings

Question 2: A. summit B. voluntary C. compulsory D. upgrade

Question 3: A. engineer B. understand C. referee D. mechanic 
Question 4: A. oceanic B. environment C. reality D. psychologist 
Mark the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: More and more investors are pouring _______ money into food and beverage start-ups.

A. the B. a C. an D. Ø

Question 6: Do you think there _______ less conflict in the world if all people spoke the same language?

A. were B. will be C. would be D. are

Question 7: Linda rarely goes to school by bike, but today she _______ a bike.

A. rides B. is riding C. is going to ride D. will ride

Question 8: John has worked very late at night these day, _______ he is physically exhausted.

A. yet B. hence C. because D. so

Question 9: I agree _______ one point with Chris: it will be hard for us to walk 80km.

A. in B. of C. on D. for

Question 10: _______, the ancient place is still popular with modern tourists.

A. Building thousands of years ago B. It was built thousands of years ago 
C. To have built thousands of years ago D. Built thousands of years ago

Question 12: Your hair needs _______. You’d better have it done tomorrow.

A. cut B. to cut C. being cut D. cutting

Question 13: He was pleased that things were going on _______.

A. satisfied B. satisfactorily C. satisfying D. satisfactory

Question 14: Although our opinions on many things _______, we still maintain a good relationship with each
other.

A. differ B. receive C. maintain D. separate

Question 15: Daniel _______ a better understanding of Algebra than we do.

A. makes B. has C. takes D. gives

Question 16: The pointless war between the two countries left thousands of people dead and seriously _______.

A. injured B. wounded C. spoilt D. damaged

Question 17: Eager to be able to discuss my work _______ in French, I hired a tutor to help polish my language
skills.

A. expressively B. articulately C. ambiguously D. understandably 
Question 18: The sight of his face brought _______ to me how ill he really was.

A. place B. house C. life D. home

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19: In a study, more Asian students than American students hold a belief that a husband is obliged to
tell his wife his whereabouts if he comes home late.

A. urged B. free C. required D. suggested

Question 20: Though I persuaded my boss to solve a very serious problem in the new management system, he
just made light of it.

A. completely ignored B. treated as important B. disagreed with D. discovered by chance

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Question 21: Students from that university have conducted a survey to find out the most effective study habit.

A. organized B. delayed C. encouraged D. proposed

Question 22: Some operations many have to be halted unless more blood donors come forward to help.

A. offer B. claim C. attempt D. refuse

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of
the following exchanges.

Question 23: Bill is talking to his colleague.

Bill: “_______, Jack?” Jack: “Fine! I have just got a promotion.”

A. What happened B. What are you doing C. How are you doing D. How come
Question 24: Two students are taking in a new class.

Student 1: “Excuse me, is anybody sitting here?” Student 2: “_______”

A. No, thanks. B. Yes, I am so glad. C. Sorry, the seat is taken. D. Yes, yes. You can seat here. 
Reading the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

safety systems, early warning and (29) _______ planning.

Question 25: A. in B. with C. as D. from

Question 26: A. magnitude B. value C. amount D. quantity

Question 27: A. source B. origin C. center D. epicenter

Question 28: A. who B. what C. that D. those

Question 29: A. evacuator B. evacuate C. evacuating D. evacuation

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.

Each year, the Academy Awards, better known as the “Oscars”, celebrate the best films and
documentaries with categories ranging from acting, directing and screenwriting, to costumes and special effects.
This year, 9-year-old Quvenzhané Wallis joins the list of kids who have taken the movie business by storm,
as she competes for the best actress award for her role as „Hushpuppy’ in the film “Beasts of the Southern
Wild”.

Newcomer Quvenzhané Wallis (pronounced Kwe-VEN-zhah-nay) portrayed „Hushpuppy,’ a young girl
fighting to survive in a poor Mississippi Delta community prone to devastating flooding. In the film, Wallis
learns to find food in the wilderness, escapes a homeless shelter and deals with the death of her father. She will
be the youngest ever nominee in the best actress category at nine years old.

Question 30: Which of the following is the best title for this passage?

A. Young Actors Achieve Big for the Oscars B. Little Lady Nominees for the Oscars 
C. Youngest Ever Nominee for the Oscars D. A Young Actress makes it to the Oscars 
Question 31: Which of the following is NOT celebrated by the Academy Awards?

A. films B. documentaries C. news D. cartoons

Question 32: The phrase “that honor” in paragraph 2 refers to _______. 
A. lucky and talented individuals B. Oscars recognition

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Question 33: Which of the following best describe Quvenzhané Wallis according to the passage? 
A. She is a young girl fighting to survive in a poor Mississippi Delta community.

Question 34: Which of the following best paraphrases the clause “who have taken the movie business by
storm” in the reading?

A. who have earned their living in the movie business 
B. who have made huge profits in the movie business

C. who have been particularly successful in the movie business

D. who have recovered from a difficult period in the movie business

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.

While some forecasting methods had limited success predicting the 1997 El Nino a few months in advance,
the Columbia University researchers say their method can predict large El Nino events up to two years in
advance. That would be a boon for governments, farmers and others seeking to plan for the droughts and heavy
rainfall El Nino can produce in various parts of the world.

Using a computer, the researchers matched sea-surface temperatures to later El Nino occurrences between
1980 and 2000 and were then able to anticipate El Nino events dating back to 1857, using prior sea-surface
temperatures. The results were reported in the latest issue of the journal Nature.

The researchers say their method is not perfect, but Biyan Weare, a meteorologist at the University of
California, Davis, who was not involved in the work, said it "suggests El Nino is indeed predictable." "This will
probably convince others to search around more for even better methods," he added.

The new method "makes it possible to predict El Nino at long lead times," said lead author Dake Chen of
Columbia University’s Lamont-Doherty Earth Observatory. "Other models also use sea-surface temperatures,
but they have not looked as far back because they need other data, which is only available for recent decades,"
Chen said.

The ability to predict the warming and cooling of the Pacific is of immense importance. The 1997 El Nino, for
example, caused an estimated $20 billion in damage worldwide, offset by beneficial effects in other areas, said
David Anderson, of the European Centre for Medium-Range Weather Forecasts in Reading, England. The 1877

El Nino, meanwhile, coincided with a failure of the Indian monsoon and a famine that killed perhaps 40 million

in India and China, prompting the development of seasonal forecasting, Anderson said.

When El Nino hit in 1991 and 1997, 200 million people were affected by flooding in China alone, according
to a 2002 United Nations report. While predicting smaller El Nino events remains tricky, the ability to predict
larger ones should be increased to at least a year if the new method is confirmed, Anderson wrote in an
accompanying commentary. El Nino tends to develop between April and June and reaches its peak between
December and February. The warming tends to last between 9 and 12 months and occurs every two to seven
years. Chen said the new forecasting method does not predict any major El Nino events in the next two years,
although a weak warming toward the end of this year is possible.

Question 35: The word "tricky" in paragraph 8 is closest in meaning to...

A. difficult B. normal C. cunning D. common

Question 36: Which of the following can be the best title of the passage?

A. Evidence: Effects of El Nino on human lives B. Study: El Nino can be predicted

C. El Nino: Millions of people threatened with hunger D. Research: How Does the El Nino Develop? 
Question 37: The Columbia University researchers studied the relationship between the past El Nino

occurrences and...

A. the droughts and heavy rainfall B. sea-surface temperatures
C. wind direction and ocean current D. some forecasting methods
Question 38: The word "immense" in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to...

A. main B. special C. essential D. enormous

Question 39: The word "a boon" in paragraph 1 probably means...

A. scientific evidence B. living condition C. good news D. new information
Question 40: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?

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B. Due to the severe damage El Nino can cause to human life and property, many researchers have devoted
themselves to El Nino-related research.

C. According to a 2002 United Nations report, the flooding in China caused by El Nino in 1991 and 1997
affected 200 million Chinese people.

D. The 1877 El Nino happened at the same time as a failure of the Indian monsoon and a famine killed
perhaps 40 million in India and China.

Question 41: It is stated in the passage that Bryan Weare...

A. made a contribution to predicting El Nino, which was highly praised by other meteorologists.
B. had set up a special institute in America to study El Nino.

C. worked at the California University, but he used to live at the Columbia University.
D. didn’t do research on El Nino with researchers.

Question 42: According to the passage, it takes about...for El Nino to reach its peak.

A. 8 months B. less than 3 months C. 4 months D. 9 to 12 months

Mark the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43: Some people say often that using cars is not so convenient as using motorbikes.

A. say often B. using cars C. so D. as using motorbikes

Question 44: They are having their house being painted by a construction company.

A. having B. their C. being painted D. construction

Question 45: Transgender people are denied the ability to join the armed forces due to discriminating policies
implemented by the government.

A. Transgender B. are denied C. armed forces D. discriminating
Mark the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46: “If I hadn’t had so much work to do, I would have gone to the movies.” said the boy. 
A. As the boy did not have much work to do, he went to the movies.

D. It is necessary that you tell me the truth about the theft.

Question 48: The demand was so great that they had to reprint the book immediately. 
A. They had to print the book immediately to satisfy the increasing demand.

B. To meet the greater and greater demand, they had to print the book immediately. 
C. There was such a great demand that the book was printed immediately.

D. So great was the demand that they had to print the book immediately.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: Julian dropped out of college after his first year. Now he regrets it. 
A. Julian regretted having dropped out of college after his first year.

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THPT CHUYÊN HÀ TĨNH

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. compulsory B. comfo rtable C. acco mpany D. welco me
Question 2: A. tele cast B.tele metry C.tele scope D. tele ology

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. career B. prospect C.effort D.labour

Question 4: A. company B.vacancy C. overtired D.estimate

Mark the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: Many places of history , scientific, cultural, or scenic importance have been designated

A B C D

national monuments.

Question 6: Some underground water is enough safe to drink, but all the surface water must be treated.
A B C D

Question 7: When you are writing or speaking English, it is important to use language that both men and

A B C

women equally the same.
D

Markthe letter A, B,C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 
Question 8: I'm sorry I snapped at you like that, but I'm in a bad ________.

A. mind B. mood C. mentality D. manner

Question 9: The accident _______ was the mistake of the driver.

A. which causes many people to die B. causing many people to die
C. caused great human loss D. to cause many people die
Question 10: All right, Johnny, it’s time you _______ to bed.

A. are going to go B. will be going C. would go D. went

Question 11: There was _______ fuel in the car. Therefore, we had to stop midway to fill some.

A. a few B. little C. few D. a little

Question 12: My uncle wishes his son ________ much time when he grows up.

A. hasn't wasted B. hadn't wasted C. wouldn't waste D. didn't waste
Question 13: My relative _______ you met yesterday is an engineer.

A. whose B. whom C. that D. B and C are correct

Question 14: I ________ you don't make as much profit this year!

A. assure B. challenge C. bet D. doubt

Question 15: In future, cars will still be _________ us, but, instead of petrol, they will run ________anything
from electricity to methane gas.

A. for/ by B. for/ on C. with/ by D. with/ on

Question 16: Could you _______ a moment while I see if Peter is in his office?

A. get on well B. get on C. hold on D. stand on

Question 17: For me, the film didn't ________ all the enthusiastic publicity it received.

A. come up B. live up to C. turn up to D. live up

Question 18: Nowadays, most students use _______ calculators in their studies and examinations.

A. electrical B. electric C. electrified D. electronic

Question 19: Lan: "She seems ______ for the job". - Hoa: "Yes. Everybody thinks she's perfectly suited for
it."

A. ready-made B. home-made C. tailor-made D. self-made

Mark the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Daisy: “Would you mind getting me a cup of coffee?” - John: “_____________.”
A. Cream and sugar, please B. It's my pleasure

C. No, thanks D. I never drink coffee

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C. It's doesn't matter. Thank you. D. My pleasure. Don't worry about it.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word/phrases SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: When you see your teacher approaching you, a slight wave to attract his attention is
appropriate.

A. catching sight of B. pointing at C. coming nearer to D. looking up to

Question 23: Before he went on vacation, Peter left explicit instructions for the decoration of his office.

A. clear B. colorful C. vague D. direct

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the

underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 24: A frightening number of illiterate students are graduating from college.

A. inflexible B. able to read and write

C. able to enjoy winter sports D. unable to pass an examination in reading and writing
Question 25: In England, schooling is mandatory for all children from the age of 5 to 16.

A. voluntary B. obligatory C. advisory D. compulsory

Mark the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: My children are not old enough to read these novels.

A. These novels are too old for my children to read.
B. These novels are not new to my children's reading.
C. My children are too young to read these novels.
D. My children are completely new to these novels.

Question 27: Bed, breakfast and dinner are included in the price.
A. The price is inclusive of bed, breakfast and dinner.

B. The price includes bed and breakfast except dinner.
C. The price excludes bed, breakfast and dinner.
D. Breakfast and dinner are included in the price as meals.
Question 28: "All right, it's true. I was nervous," said the girl.

A. The girl admitted to have been nervous. B. The girl decided that she had been nervous
C. The girl denied being nervous. D. The girl admitted that she had been nervous.

Mark the letter A, B, C or 1) to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.

Question 29: The winds were very strong. The trees were uprooted.
A. So strong were the winds that the trees were uprooted.

B. The winds were strong that the trees were uprooted.
C. So were the winds strong that the trees were uprooted.
D. So strong the winds were that the trees were uprooted.

Question 30: She doesn't want to go to their party. We don't want to go either.

A. Neither she nor we don't want to go to their party. B. Neither we nor she wants to go to their party.
C. Either we or she doesn't want to go to their party. D. Neither we nor she want to go to their party.

Read the following passage and mark the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered
blanks from 31 to 35.

KEEPING FIT

Bodies are made to move! They are not (31) ________ for sitting around in front of the television or reading
magazines. Keeping fit doesn't mean have to be a super-athlete, and even (32) ________ exercise can give you a lot
of fun. When you are fit and healthy, you will find you look better and feel better. You will develop more energy
and self-confidence. Every time you move, you are exercising. The human body is designed to bend, stretch, run,
jump and climb. (33) ________it does, the stronger and fitter it will become. Best of all, exercise is fun. It's what
your body likes doing most-keeping on the move. Physical exercise is not only good for your body. People who
take regular exercise are usually happier, more relaxed and more alert than people who sit around all day. Try an
experiment-next time you are in a bad mood, go for a walk or play a ball game in the park. See how much better
you feel after an hour. A good (34) ________of achievement is yet another benefit of exercise. People feel good
about themselves when they know they have improved their fitness. People who exercise regularly will tell you that

they find they have more energy to enjoy life. So have (35) ________you'll soon see and feel the benefits.

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Question 32: A. a little B. a few C. little D. few
Question 33: A. more and more B. the more C. more D. moreover

Question 34: A. sense B. feel C. lot D. piece

Question 35: A. a run B. a trial C. a go D. a start

Read the following passage and mark the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Life originated in the early seas less than a billion years after the Earth was formed. Yet another
three billions years were to pass before the first plants and animals appeared on the continents. Life's transition
from the sea to the land was perhaps as much of an evolutionary challenge as was the genesis of life.

What forms of life were able to make such a drastic change in lifestyle? The traditional view of the
first terrestrial organisms is based on megafossils - relatively large specimens of essential whole plants and
animals. Vascular plants, related to modern seed plants and ferns, left the first comprehensive megafossil
record. Because of this, it has been commonly assumed that the sequence of terrestrialization reflected the
evolution of 10 modern terrestrial ecosystems. In this view, primitive vascular plants first colonized the margins
of continental waters, followed by animals that fed on the plants, and lastly by the animals that preyed on the
plant-eaters. Moreover, the megafossils suggest that terrestrial life appeared and diversified explosively near the
boundary between the Silurian and the Devonian periods, a little more than 400 million years ago.

Recently, however, paleontologists have been taking a closer look at sediments below this
Silurian-Devonian geological boundary. It turns out that some fossils can be extracted from these sediments by
putting the rock in an acid bath. The technique has uncovered new evidence from sediments that were deposited
near the shores of the ancient oceans - plant microfossils and microscopic pieces of small animals. In many
instances, the specimens are less than one-tenth of a millimeter in diameter. Although they were entombed
in the rocks for hundreds of millions of years, many of the fossils consist of the organic remains of the

organism.

These discovered fossils have not only revealed the existence ofpreviously unknown organisms, but have
also pushed back these dates for the invasion of land by multicellular organisms. Our view about the

nature of the early plants and animal communities are now being revised. And with those revisions come
new speculations about the first terrestrial life-forms.

Question 36: The word "drastic" is closest in meaning to ________.

A. widespread B. radical C. progressive D. risky

Question 37: According to the theory that the author calls "the traditional view", what was the first form
of life to appear on land?

A. Bacteria B. Meat-eating animals C. Plant-eating animalsD. Vascular plants
Question 38: According to the passage, what happened about 400 million years ago?

A. Many terrestrial life-forms died out. B.New life-forms on land developed at a rapid rate.
C.The megafossils were destroyed by floods. D. Life began to develop in the ancient seas.

Question 39: The word "extracted" is closest in meaning to ___________.

A. located B. preserved C. removed D. studied

Question 40: The word "they" refers to ______.

A. rocks B. shores C. oceans D. specimens

Question 41: Which of the following resulted from the discovery of microscopic fossils?

A. The time estimate for the first appearance of the terrestrial life forms was revised.
B. Old techniques for analyzing fossils were found to have new uses.

C. The origins of primitive sea life were explained.

D. Assumptions about the locations of ancient seas were changed.

Question 42: With which of the following conclusions would the author probably agree?
A. The evolution of terrestrial life was as complicated as the origin of life itself.

B. The discovery of microfossils supports the traditional view of how terrestrial life evolved.
C. New species have appeared at the same rate over the cause of the last 400 million years.

D.The technology used by paleontologists is too primitive to make accurate determinations about ages of fossils.
Read the following passage and mark the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

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In the early years of the 20th century there was little specialization in surgery. A good surgeon was
capable of performing almost every operation that had been advised up to that time. Today the situation is
different. Operations are now being carried out that were not even dreamed of fifty years ago. The heart
can be safely opened and its valves repaired. Clogged blood vessels can be cleaned out, and broken ones
mended or replaced. A lung, the whole stomach, or even part of the brain can be removed and still permit
the patient to live comfortable and satisfactory life. However, not every surgeon wants to, or is qualified to
carry out every type of modern operation.

The scope of surgery has increased remarkably in the past decades. Its safety has increased too.
Deaths from most operations are about 20% of what they were in 1910 and surgery has been extended in
many directions, for example to certain types of birth defects in new born babies, and, at the other end of
the scale, to life saving operations for the octogenarian. The hospital stay after surgery has been
shortened to as little as a week for most major operations. Most patients are out of bed on the day after an
operation and may be back at work in two or three weeks.

Many developments in modern surgery are almost incredible. They include replacement of damaged
blood vessels with simulated ones made of plastic: the replacement of heart valves with plastic substitutes;
the transplanting of tissues such as lens of the eye; the invention of the artificial kidney to clean the blood of
poisons at regular intervals and the development of heart and lung machines to keep patients alive during
very long operations. All these things open a hopeful vista for the future of surgery.

One of the most revolutionary areas of modem surgery is that of organ transplants. Until a few decades
ago, no person, except an identical twin, was able to accept into his body the tissues of another person without
reacting against them and eventually killing them. Recently, however, it has been discovered that with the use
of X-rays and special drugs, it is possible to graft tissues from one person to another which will survive for
periods of a year or more. Kidneys have been successfully transplanted between non-identical twins. Heart and
lung transplants have also been reasonably successful.

"Spare parts" surgery, the simple routine replacement of all worn-out organs by new ones, is still a
dream of the future but surgery is ready for such miracles. In the meantime, you can be happy if your doctors
say to you, "Yes, I think it is possible to operate on you for this condition."

Question 43: Most people are afraid of being operated on __________.

A. in spite of improvements in modem surgery B. because they think modem drugs are dangerous
C. because they do not believe they need anaesthetics D. unless it is an emergency operation
Question 44: Surgeons in the early 20th century, compared with modem ones _______.

A. had less to learn about surgery B. needed more knowledge

C. could perform every operation known today D. were more trusted by their patients
Question 45: A patient can still live a comfortable life even after the removal of _________.

A. his brain B. his lungs

C.a major organ such as the stomach or one lung D. part of the stomach or the whole liver

Question 46: The word "clogged" in the second paragraph is most likely to correspond to ________.

A. clean B. blocked C. covered D. unwashed

Question 47: Today, compared with 1910 ________.

A. 20% fewer of all operation patients die B. 20% of all operation patients recover

C. operation deaths have increased by 20% D. five times fewer patients die after being operated on
Question 48: Some of the more astonishing innovations in modern surgery include _________.

A. ear, nose and throat transplants B. valve less plastic hearts

C. plastic heart valves D. leg transplants

Question 49: Which of the following has the same meaning as "vista" in the fourth paragraph?'

A. support B. prospect C. history D. visit

Question 50: You can be happy if your surgeon can operate because it means ________.
A. he thinks your condition may be incurable B. he is a good doctor

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THPT ĐÀO DUY TỪ

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B. C, or D on, your answer sheer to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.

The invention of the electric telegraph gave birth to the communications industry. Although Samuel B.
Morse succeeded in making the invention useful in 1837, it was not until 1843 that the first telegraph line of
consequence was constructed. By 1860 more than 50,000 miles of lines connected people east of the Rockies.
The following year, San Francisco was added to the network.

The national telegraph network fortified the ties between East and West and contributed to the rapid
expansion of the railroads by providing an efficient means to monitor schedules and routes. Furthermore, the
extension of the telegraph, combined with the invention of the steam-driven rotary printing press by Richard M.
Hoe in 1846, revolutionized the world of journalism. Where the business of news gathering had been
dependent upon the mail and on hand-operated presses, the telegraph expanded the amount of information a
newspaper could supply and allowed for more timely reporting. The establishment of the Associated Press as a
central wire service in 1846 marked the advent of a new era in journalism.

Question 1. The main topic of the passage is___________.
A. the history of journalism

B. the origin of the national telegraph

C. how the telegraph network contributed to the expansion of railroads
D. the contributions and development of the telegraph network

Question 2. The word “gathering” refers to

A. people B. information C. objects D. substances

Question 3. The author’s main purpose in this passage is to______________.

A. compare the invention of the telegraph with the invention of the steam driven rotary press
B. propose new ways to develop the communication industry

C. show how the electric telegraph affected the communication industry
D. criticize Samuel Mors.

Question 4. It can be inferred from the passage that___________

A. Samuel Morse did not make a significant contribution to the communication industry.
B. Morse’s invention did not immediately achieve its full potential.

C. the extension of the telegraph was more important than its invention.

D. journalists have the Associated Press to thank for the birth of the communication industry

Question 5. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the growth of the
communications industry?

A. Morse invented the telegraph in 1837.

B. People could use the telegraph in San Francisco in 1861.
C. The telegraph led to the invention of the rotary printing press
D. The telegraph helped connect the entire nation.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.

Question 6: Every day in summer, but especially at (A) the weekends, all kinds of vehicles bring (B) crowds of
people (C) to enjoy the various attraction. (D)

A. at B. bring C. crowds of people D. attraction

Question 7: The federal government recommends (A) that all expectant (B) women will not only refrain (C)

from smoking but also avoid places where other people smoke (D)

A. recommends that B. expectant C. will not only refrain D. smoke

Question 8: He made (A) it clear (B) once more that the missed (C) books were to be received (D) and brought
to him.

A. made B. clear C. the missed D. to be received

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.

Question 9: Some people feel that television should give less ________ to sport.

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Question 10: The closer we are to our trip to Boston, the ________ my students become.

A. more exciting B. more excited C. more and more exciting D. more and more excited
Question 11: Africa has always had a large migratory population because of war and ________ famine.

A. a B. an C. the D. ø

Question 12: As we walked past, we saw John ________ his car.

A. repairing B. to be repairing C. repair D. being repairing

Question 13: I don’t like John. His ________ complaints make me angry.

A. continual B. continuous C. continuation D. continuously

Question 14: Poor management brought the company to ________ of collapse.

A. the edge B. the foot C. the ring D. the brink

Question 15: As a result of his father’s death, he ________ a lot of money.

A. came into B. came over C. came to D. came through

Question 16: The school drama club is ________ a play for the school’s anniversary, which is due to take place
next month.

A. turning up B. bringing down C. putting on D. making off

Question 17: The world’s biodiversity is declining at an unprecedented rate, which makes wildlife ________.

A. prosperous B. perfect C. vulnerable D. remained

Question 18: I caught ________ of a lion lying under the tree, and my heart jumped.

A. view B. sight C. look D. scene

Question 19: They ________ the bridge by the time you come back.

A. will finish B. will have finished C. will be finishing D. have finished
Question 20: Show me the house ________.

A. where they are living in B. which they are living
C. where they are living there D. where they are living
Question 21: I suggest the room ________ before Christmas.

A. being decorated B. be decorated C. need decorating D. needs being decorated

Question 22: The students’ plan for a musical show to raise money for charity received ________ support from
the school administrators.

A. warm-hearted B. light-hearted C. whole-hearted D. big-hearted

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to each of the
following questions

Question 23: Nancy and James are talking about their school days.
Nancy: “I think school days are the best time of our lives.”

Jame: “_______. We had sweet memories together then.”

A. Absolutely B. That’s nonsense C. I’m afraid so D. I doubt it
Question 24: John and Mike are talking about Mike’s new car.

John: “_________.”

Mike: “Thanks. I’m glad to hear that.”

A. What a nice car! B. Your car is new, isn’t it?

C. Where did you bought your car? D. My car is very expensive.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions

Question 25: Any students who neglects his or her homework is unlikely to do well at school.

A. puts off B. looks for C. attends to D. approves of

Question 26: Many political radicals advocated that women should not be discriminated on the basic of the sex.
A. openly criticized B. rightly claimed C. publicly said D. protested

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.

Question 27: “John shouldn’t have behaved so badly,” said Janet.
A. Janet doesn’t like John’s behavior.

B. Janet objected to John’s bad behavior
C. Janet dislikes John.

D. Janet was angry with John.

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A. If we have time, we will visit the museum.
B. If we had time, we would visit the museum.
C. If we had had time, we will visit the museum.

D. If we had had time, we would have visited the museum.

Question 29: The workers only complain because of their unfair treatment.
A. Were the workers fairly treated, they wouldn’t complain.

B. The workers complain because their employees are unfair.
C. If the workers are treated fairly, they will not complain.
D. Are the workers treated fairly, they will not complain.

Mark the letter A B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.

Question 30: He felt very tired. However, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
A. Tired as he might feel, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.

B. As the result of his tiredness, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
C. Feeling very tired, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.

D. He felt so tired that he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
Question 31: He behaved in a very strange way. That surprised me a lot.

A. He behaved very strangely, which surprised me very much.
B. I was almost not surprised by his strange behavior.

C. What almost surprised me was the strange thing, that surprised me a lot.
D. His behavior was a very strange thing, that surprised me a lot.

Read the following passage and then mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word that best fits each of the numbered blanks

The knock-on effect of volunteering on the lives of individuals can be profound. Voluntary work helps
foster independence and imparts the ability to deal with different situations, often simultaneously, thus teaching
people how to (32) ____ their way through different systems. It therefore brings people into touch with the real
world; and, hence, equips them for the future.

Initially, young adults in their late teens might not seem to have the expertise or knowledge to impart to
others that say a teacher or an agriculturalist or a nurse would have, (33)____ they do have many skills that can
help others. And in the absence of any particular talent, their energy and enthusiasm can be harnessed for the
benefit (34) ____ their fellow human beings, and ultimately themselves. From all this, the gain to any
community no matter how many voluntees are involved is (35) _____

Employers will generally look favorably on people (36) _____ have shown an ability to work as part of a team.
It demonstrates a willingness to learn and an independent spirit, which would be desirable qualities in any
employee.

Question 32: A. give B. work C. put D. take
Question 33: A. so B. but C. or D. for
Question 34: A. out B. under C. off D. on

Question 35: A. unattainable B. immeasurable C. undetectable D. impassable
Question 36: A. which B. whose C. who D. what

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B. C, or D on, your answer sheer to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions

All animals feed their young. Beluga whale mothers, for example, nurse their calves for some twenty
months, until they are about to give birth again and their young are able to find their own food. The behavior of
feeding of the young is built into the reproductive system. It is a nonelective part of parental care and the
defining feature of a mammal, the most important thing that mammals-- whether marsupials, platypuses, spiny
anteaters, or placental mammals -- have in common.

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venom and stored in a state of suspended animation so that their larvae might have a supply of fresh food when
they hatch.

For animals other than mammals, then, feeding is not intrinsic to parental care. Animals add it to their
reproductive strategies to give them an edge in their lifelong quest for descendants. The most vulnerable
moment in any animal's life is when it first finds itself completely on its own, when it must forage and fend for
itself. Feeding postpones that moment until a young animal has grown to such a size that it is better able to
cope.

Young that are fed by their parents become nutritionally independent at a much greater fraction of their

full adult size. And in the meantime those young are shielded against the vagaries of fluctuating of 
difficult-to-find supplies. Once a species does take the step of feeding its young, the young become totally dependent on the
extra effort. If both parents are removed, the young generally do not survive.

Question 37. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The care that various animals give to their offspring.
B. The difficulties young animals face in obtaining food.
C. The methods that mammals use to nurse their young.

D. The importance among young mammals of becoming independent.
Question 38. The author lists various animals in line 5 to

A. contrast the feeding habits of different types of mammals
B. describe the process by which mammals came to be defined

C. emphasize the point that every type of mammal feeds its own young
D. explain why a particular feature of mammals is nonelective

Question 39. The word "tend" in line 7 is closest in meaning to

A. sit on B. move C. notice D. care for
Question 40. The word "provisioning" in line 13 is closest in meaning to

A. supplying B. preparing C. building D. expanding
Question 41. According to the passage, how do some insects make sure their young have food?
A. By storing food near their young.

B. By locating their nests or cells near spiders and caterpillars.
C. By searching for food some distance from their nest.

D. By gathering food from a nearby water source.

Question 42. The word "edge" in line 17 is closest in meaning to

A. opportunity B. advantage C. purpose D. rest
Question 43. The word "it" in the third paragraph refers to

A. feeding B. moment C. young animal D. size
Question 44. The word "shielded" in line 22 is closest in meaning to

A. raised B. protected C. hatched D. valued

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions

Question 45: A. abundance B. acceptance C. accountant D. applicant
Question 46: A. reference B. volunteer C. refugee D. referee

Question 47: A. capital B. ancient C. cancer D. annual

Question 48: A. devotion B. congestion C. suggestion D. question

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 49: We decided to pay for the furniture on the installment plan.

A. monthly payment B. cash and carry C. credit card D. piece by piece
Question 50: Teletext is continuously sent out at all times when regular television programs are broadcast.

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THPT NGUYỄN THỊ MINH KHAI – HÀ NỘI

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. needed B. stopped C. walked D. laughed

Question 2: A. status B. state C. station D. statue

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. refuse B. destroy C. admit D. standard
Question 4: A. survival B. commercial C. endangered D. industry

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.

Question 5:_______we invested in telecommunications industry, we would be rich now.

A. Were B. Had C. Will D. Should

Question 6: It _______ these questions that are difficult.

A. are B. was C. is D. has

Question 7: Nobody answered the door, _______?

A. weren’t they B. were they C. did they D. didn’t they
Question 8: The number of the months in a year _______twelve.

A. was B. were C. are D. is

Question 9: Peter was absent; he _________sick again.

A. must have been B. must be C. must being D. must be being
Question 10: It is recommended that he ________this course.

A. taking B. take C. took D. takes

Question 11: He _______a large sum of money when his father died.

A. came out B. came over C. came into D. came off

Question 12: There was a _________table in the kitchen.

A. wooden large beautiful round B. large beautiful round wooden
C. beautiful large round wooden D. beautiful round large wooden

Question 13: They had a ______ candlelit dinner last night and she accepted his proposal of marriage.
A. romance B. romantic C. romantically D. romanticize

Question14: It is English pronunciation and phrasal verbs that _______ me a lot of trouble.

A. cause B. make C. get D. have

Question 15: If you _______ money to mine, we shall have enough.

A. add B. combine C. unite D. bank

Question 16: Alice said: “That guy is_______gorgeous. I wish he would ask me out.”
A. dead-centre B. drop-shot C. jumped-up D. drop-dead
Question 17: _______, he was unharmed after being struck by lightning.

A. Consequently B. Finally C. Cautiously D. Miraculously
Question 18: He lost his _______ when the policeman stopped him.

A. temper B. language C. spirit D. character

Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each
of the following exchanges.

Question 19: Jenifer and Susan are talking about a book they have just read.

- Jennifer: “ The book is really interesting and it’s hard to put it down.” - Susan: “_______”
A. Don’t mention it C. That’s nice of you to say so.

B. I couldn’t agree with you more. D. It’s alright.
Question 20: Andrew is talking to a waiter in a restaurant.

Andrew: "Can I have the bill, please?"
Waiter: "______."

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that is needed
correction in each of the following questions.

Question 21: Her application for a visa (A) was turned down (B) not only because it was incomplete ( C) and

incorrectly filled out but also because it was written in pencil (D).

Question 22: Quang Hai hardly never (A) misses an (B) opportunity to play (C) in the football tournament (D).
Question 23:Our understanding (A) and use of non-verbal cues in facial expressions (B) and gestures are
familiar (C) to us nearly in (D) birth.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: Unfortunately, I had to tell off John for his poor performance.

A. criticize B. encourage C. praise D. congratulate

Question 25: Before the interview, you have to send a letter of application and your résumé to the company.
A. recommendation B. reference C. curriculum vitae D. photograph

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 26: After five days on trial, the court found him innocent of the crime and he was released.

A. innovative B. naive C. guilty D. benevolent

Question 27: ~ Man: "I heard you have a part in the school play tonight." 
 ~ Woman: "Yes, and I’m on pins and needles."

A. nervous B. angry C. calm D. happy

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.

Question 28: Marry loved her stuffed animal when she was young. She couldn’t sleep without it. 
A. When Marry was young, she loved her stuffed animal so as not to sleep with it.
B. As Marry couldn’t sleep without her stuffed animal when she was young, she loved it.

C. When Marry was young, she loved her stuffed animal so much that she couldn’t sleep without it.
D. When Marry was young, she loved her stuffed animal though she couldn’t sleep without it.
Question 29 : Mrs Brown wants to buy the house. It was built two years ago.

A. The house Mrs Brown wants to buy built two years ago.
B. The house built two years ago will be bought by Mrs Brown.
C. Mrs Brown wants to buy the house which built two years ago.
D. Mrs Brown wants to buy the house built two years ago.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
the sentence in italics.

Question 30: The children couldn't go swimming because the sea was too rough. 
A. The children were not calm enough to swim in the sea.

B. The sea was too rough for the children to go swimming.
C. The sea was rough enough for the children to swim in.
D. The sea was too rough to the children's swimming.
Question 31: People believe that 13 is an unlucky number.

A. People are believed that 13 is an unlucky number. B. 13 has been believed to be an unlucky number.
C. It’s believed that 13 is an unlucky number. D. It’s believed 13 to be an unlucky number.
Question 32 : I have never seen this film before.

A. Never before have I seen this film. B. Never before I have seen this film.

C. Before have never I seen this film. D. Have I never before seen this film.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 33 to 37.

Between December 30 and 31, thousands of parents brought their children to the zoo to enjoy many
green activities, (33)_______ to the managers at the (34)_______Garden. As many as 35,000 people arrived at
the garden during this period.

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Between December 29 and 30, the park (36) _______ an additional 20,000 arrivals. The number was
expected to rise on New Year’s Day, Huỳnh Hồng Tuấn, deputy general manager of the park, said.

To provide quality services during this (37) _______ period, Tuấn said the park had employed 1,500
people and collaborated with authorities to ensure safety and food hygiene.

Another popular site, Rin Rin Park in Hóc Mơn District, which opened a few years ago, attracts visitors
who are interested in koi fish, the star attraction at this Japanese-style park, and bonsai art.

(Extracted from Vietnamnews.vn/amusement-parks.)
Question 33: A. according B. with a view C. with regard D. thanks
Question 34: A. Botanically B. Botanist C. Botany D. Botanical

Question 35: A. but B. though C. however D. therefore

Question 36: A. drew B. took C. welcomed D. celebrated

Question 37: A. top B. high C. great D. peak

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C,or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.

A report released by China shows that the country is facing a serious problem with drinking water.
According to the study about 80% of the country's shallow ground water is not clean enough to drink or bathe
in. It can only be used for industrial purposes.

Dirty drinking water exists especially in the countryside, where the population gets water from
shallow wells. This water has become more and more contaminated through farming, factories and household
waste.

While air pollution has caught the attention of the country's politicians, the situation of underground
water has widely been ignored. China may be facing another big environmental problem.

According to the report large cities are not affected by water pollution because they get their water from
underground reservoirs that are often hundreds or thousands of feet deep. In addition, cities operate purification
plants that get rid of harmful substances before drinking water gets to the people.

On the other hand the use of shallow underground water in rural areas has grown considerably in the
past decade. The report states that nitrates and ammonia are the major pollutants. In some areas heavy
metals were also found in the water.

Authorities found out that while none of the 2000 investigated wells had a Class I water quality, over
70% were classified in the worst two categories, those unfit for drinking.

(Extracted from English Online – Articles in Easy Understandable English for learners)
Question 38: What is the passage mainly about?

A. Drinking water problems in the world B. Polluted drinking water in the countryside
C. Problems with drinking water in China D. Undergound water in China.

Question 39: According to the passage, The population doesn’t get water from all of the following EXCEPT __?

A. rivers B. reservoirs C. lakes D. deep wells

Question 40: The word “It” in paragraph 1 refers to __________.

A. shallow ground water B. the country C. the study D. ground water
Question 41: The residents in big cities are not affected by the contamination of water because_______.

A. their water is taken from the deep wells
B. they get water from the shallow reservoirs.
C. they have purification machines.

D. water is taken from the underground reservoirs and it is purified before use.
Question 42: The word “ignored” in paragraph 3 is likely replaced by _______.

A. seen B. overlooked C. cared D. eliminated

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50 .

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Local farmers have lived off this rich and diverse land for thousands of years. They have been able to find
food and water here without destroying the land. The Kayapo people of Brazil farm in an 
environmentally-friendly way. Instead of chemicals, they use burned wood to enrich the soil, and plant banana trees, which
attract wasps. These wasps then feed on leafcutter ants and get rid of these harmful insects. The rainforest also
offers a lot of tropical fruits, such as bananas and coconuts, as food. Cinnamon is made from the bark of a
rainforest tree. Amazonian Indians use the fruit and stem of the Buruti plant as a drink, to make bread and to
build houses. Many other plants are used as medicine.

But the Amazon rainforest is in very big danger of disappearing. 9,169 square miles of forest have been cut
down in 2003 in Brazil alone. Trees take in poisonous carbon dioxide from the air and give off oxygen. There is

more oxygen and less carbon dioxide around a rainforest. When trees are cut down, however, the amount of
carbon dioxide increases and the air gets warmer. This leads to global warming, which is extremely harmful to
the environment. It is estimated that the burning of Brazilian rainforests alone produces 200 million metric tons
of carbon dioxide a year.

Another danger connected with destroying the rainforest is the disappearance of plants and animals. When
trees are cut down, plants and animals have no more food left and slowly die out. Killing wild animals is illegal
in Brazil, but there is plenty of stealing going on. 38 million animals are stolen and sold illegally each year. The
most hunted animals are birds, especially parrots, followed by snakes and the jaguar.

(Adapted from Longman Essence Reading Series)
Question 43: What is the passage mainly about?

A. The preservation of Amazon forest B. Facts about Amazon rainforest
C. Destruction of Amazon rainforest D. Importance of Amazon rainforest
Question 44 : Which of the following is TRUE about the Amazon rainforest?

A. Its overall number of animals is 2.5 million.
B. It covers approximately six percent of the world.
C. The rainfall in the forest is low.

D. It is a habitat for many reptiles and plants.

Question 45: The word "basin" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______
A. water mouth B. water clock

C. watershed D. water-bearer

Question 46 : Look at the end of paragraph 1. What does the author refer to when he says “rich and diverse

land” at the beginning of paragraph 2?

A. 400 types of insects in the Amazon rainforest
B. 2,000 birds and mammals in the Amazon rainforest

C. The many different kinds of plants growing in the Amazon rainforest
D.The large variety of Amazonian plants and animals

Question 47: Why does the author says that “people of Brazil farm in an environmentally friendly way” in
paragraph 3 ?

A. They do not poison the soil when farming.
B. They use natural chemicals to make the soil rich.
C. They plant and don’t cut down banana trees.
D. They do not kill insects even if they are harmful.
Question 48 : Which rainforest plant has more than one use?

A. The banana B. The coconut
C. Cinnamon D. The Buruti plant
Question 49: What does “This” in paragraph 3 refer to?

A. the effect of deforestation B. the amount of oxygen in the area
C. the plantation of trees D. the burning of the rainforest
Question 50: What is the biggest problem related to the disappearance of the rainforest?

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