Đề thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 môn tiếng anh năm 2018 - 2019 mã 1 | Tiếng Anh - Ôn Luyện

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ ÔN THI SỐ 01
(Đề thi này gồm có 08 trang)

KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 
NĂM HỌC 2018 - 2019

ĐỀ THI MÔN Tiếng Anh (Chuyên)

Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút Ngày thi: ……./06/2018
Buy this book with answer key and mp3

Phone: 0971.192.688

---SECTION I. LISTENING (1 pt)

Part 1: You will hear a radio interview with the manager of a summer activity course. For 
each question, choose the correct answer.

1. This year, the course will run for _______.

A. six weeks. B. seven weeks. C. eight weeks.

2. The problem last year was that _______.

A. few people wanted to attend.

B. there were too few workers.

C. there was nothing to do on rainy days.

3. This, year, for the first time, children will _______.

A. do creative activities. B. do new outdoor sports. C. organize events.

4. Molly doesn’t think children will come for six weeks because _______.

A. it’s too expensive.

B. they will do the same activities again and again.

C. their parents will want to spend time with them.

5. The course isn’t open to teenagers because _______.

A. Molly thinks they aren’t interested in the activities which are available.

B. Molly thinks they should spend time with young people of a similar age.

C. Molly’s staff think that teenagers are difficult to please.

Part 2: You will hear a radio announcer giving details about a local Motor Show. For each 
question, fill in the missing information in the spaces. Write no more than three words and/or 
a number.

East brook Motor Show

Date: (6)……….

Location: Three Tree Show Ground

Displays: Old cars and buses

Cars of the (7)……….

Famous People: Jack Tyler from the Television Show (8)……….
Top Racing Driver Michael Boreman

For Ladies: Stalls selling gifts, jewellery and clothes

Competition - Guess the number of (9)……….in the car
Price of Family Ticket: (10) £ ……….

A. PHẦN KIẾN THỨC NGÔN NGỮ

PHẦN I: TRẮC NGHIỆM KIẾN THỨC NGÔN NGỮ (3.5 pts)
1. PHONETICS (0.5 pts)

Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of 
the rest in each of the following questions.

11.A. coughs B. hopes C. thoughts D. ploughs

12. A. weather B. breathe C. healthy D. although

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Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose main stress pattern is different from that of the rest in 
each of the following questions.

14. A. ingenuity B. analysis C. refugee D. editorial

15. A. curiosity B. occupation C. Nepalese D. committee

2. LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS (0.5 pts)

Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) that is a reply to each of the following questions or 
statements.

16. - Jane: -“You look great in that red skirt, Lora!” - Lora: -“_________”

A. No, I don't think so. B. Oh, you don't like it, do you?

C. Thanks, I bought it at Macy’s. D. Thanks, my mum bought it.

17. A Man: “You haven’t been to the bank today, have you?” A woman -“_________”

A. No, I haven’t. I’m about to. B. Yes, I haven’t. I’m busy.

C. No, I haven’t any money. D. No, I have. I got some money.

18. Dave: “What a great haircut, Lucy!” Lucy: -“_________”

A. Thanks. It’s very kind of you to do this B. You think so? I think it’s a bit too short

C. Oh yes, It’s very unfashionable D. It’s my pleasure.

19. Laura: -“When would you like to have dinner?” Lisa: -“____________.”
A. How about at a Chinese restaurant? B. Anywhere you can go.
C. How about six o'clock? D. No, thank you. I'm full.

20. – Nancy: -“Your parents must be proud of your results at school”. – Peter: - “_______”

A. Sorry to hear that B. Thanks. It’s certainly encouraging

C. Of course D. I am glad you like it.
3. SYNONYM AND ANTONYM (0.5 pts)

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part
in each of the following sentences.

21. The cotton gin was commonplace on many nineteenth century farms.

A. often required B. sorely needed C. frequently seen D. visibly absent

22. In the field of artificial intelligence, scientists study methods for developing computer programs
that display aspects of intelligent behavior.

A. exhibit B. classify C. depend on D. conform to

23. She lost her temper with a customer and shouted at him.

A. had a temperature B. kept her temper C. became very angry D. felt worried
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is 
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

24. Doctors have been criticized for their indiscriminate use of antibiotics.

A. disciplined B. selective C. wholesale D. unconscious

25. Slavery was abolished in the US in the 19th century.

A. instituted B. eradicated C. eliminated D. required
4. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (2 pts)

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each o f the following sentences.

26. Without written evidence, we don't have a ______ on.

A. leg to stand B. foot to stand C. leg to lean D. foot to lean

27. They're going to tear down those old warehouses to ______ for a big new hotel.

A. make path B. do way C. do path D. make way

28. Don't let anyone ______ you into buying a new car.

A. talk B. turn C. look D. come

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A. down with B. off with C. out in D. down on

30. The daughter ______ her mother after her mom was sent home from the hospital with a broken
hip.

A. looked upon B. looked after C. looked on D. looked at

31. It takes one a long time to become an ______ pianist.

A. accomplish B. accomplished C. accomplishment D. accomplishing

32. Some people think it is_______ to use long and little-known words.

A. sensitive B. intentional C. clever D. skilled

33. In a multiple-choice exercise it's sometimes easier to________ the wrong answers before
choosing the right one

A. eliminate B. exclude C. give D. omit

34. We want everyone to begin the test_________.

A. simultaneously B. unexpectedly C. indefinitely D. continuously

35. Before the group of doctors would give their opinion they wanted to______ with each other.

A. confess B. confirm C. confer D. confide

36. He clearly had no __________of doing any work, although it was only a week till the exam

A. desire B. ambition C. willingness D. intention

37. The Government's present policy is seen as a _____ to local democracy.

A. threat B. harm C. suppression D. sneer

38. He _______ that he was leaving that afternoon.

A. told me B. told to me C. said me D. says to me

39. Are you going to attend Prof. Holden's______ on Medieval History next week?

A. conference B. lecture C. discussion D. meeting

40. Not till _____ that he had lost the key.

A. he got home did he find B. he got home he found

C. did he get home did he find D. did he get home he found

41. Jim is having difficulty doing his math assignment, and he wishes he __________ to the
instructions of his teacher more carefully.

A. had listened B. has listened C. would listen D. was listening

42. If I suggest ___________ the report yet, it’s because I am aware how complex the situation is.

A. to not publish B. do not publish C. not publishing D. not to publish

43. It was a ______ escape. They were both nearly killed.

A. narrow B. tight C. small D. simple

44. My mother always told me that I should __________ the things I believe in regardless of how
others perceive them.

A. put up with B. get along with C. come up to D. stand up for

45. Having_______ the table, Mrs. Stone called the family for supper

A. completed B. ordered C. laid D. spread

PHẢN II: T ự LUẬN KIẾN THỨC NGÔN NGỮ (1.5 pts)

1. WORD FORMS (0.5 pts)

Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the following sentences

46. They returned home exhausted and disappointed after the ……….search for
the missing child.

fruit

47. The World Wide Fund is a ……….organization. govern

48. With all the modern facilities, doing housework is still very ……….. consume

49. She is always ……….and polite in front of the elders. behave

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examinations.

51. Their ……….is rejected due to some problems of pollution. suggest

52. You can ……….knowledge by reading newspapers. rich

53. Would it be ……….for you if I asked you to pay by credit card? convenient

54. Who were the most ……….figures in your childhood apart from your immediate
family?

influence

55. Those remote areas are still ……….to the Internet. access
2. ERROR CORRECTION ( 0.5pts)

There are 5 errors in the following passage. Identify the errors, then underline and correct them, 
write your answers in the numbered spaces. Number (00.) is done as an example

Line 1
Line 2
Line 3
Line 4
Line 5
Line 6
Line 7
Line 8
Line 9
Line 10
Line 11
Line 12

Because difference tree species adapting to different climates and soil types have 
evolved over millennia, many kind of forests occupy the earth today. The primitive
forests of several hundred million years ago consisted of less kinds of trees. In fact,
the earliest ‘trees’, which grew nearly 500 million years ago, were like giant club
mosses. They lacked true roots and consisted of a confused mass of specialized
branches that climbed over rock ground. Fifty million years later came the dense
forests of tree ferns that prevailed in tropical climates of that era. The forerunners of
modern conifers-trees that bear cones – were on the scene 300 million years ago,
when plant life abundant colonized marshy land, building the tremendous coal and oil
reserves so important today. By the time the dinosaurs roamed the earth some 180
million years before, seed bearing trees that shed their leaves in winter had evolved;
from these have sprung our present deciduous forests.

Line Error Correction

Line 1 00. adapting adapted

Line: ... 56.

Line: ... 57.

Line: ... 58.

Line: ... 59.

Line: ... 60.

3. PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS (0.5 pts)

Supply each space with a suitable preposition or adverbial particle to complete each of the 
following sentences.

61. Would you like to set ………business in the United States?

62. I don't think people should be allowed to perform experiments ………animals.

63. Students benefit ………listening to news reports on the radio.

64. At the next stop we have to get ………the bus and walk along the street to the cinema.
65. My grandfather's over 95 and is ………pretty poor health these days.

66. I can hardly concentrate. I could really do ………a holiday.

67. Dr Richards is distinguished ………his selfless service to humanity.

68. He was discharged because there was no proof ………him.

69. This peculiar custom prevails ………the Hindus.
70. The connection ………the two victims was minimal.

B. PHẦN KỸ NĂNG NGÔN NGỮ (2 pts)
1. GUIDED CLOZE TEST (1 pt)

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“Just imagine a day without paper” reads one advertisement for a Finnish paper company. It
adds, “You almost certainly see our products every day.” And they’re right. But in most industrial
countries, people are so accustomed to paper- whether it’s for holding their groceries, for drying
their hands or for (71) _______ them with the daily news – that its (72) _______daily lives passes
largely unnoticed.

At one (73) _______paper was in short supply and was used mainly for important
documents, but more recently, growing economies and new technologies have (74) _______a
dramatic increase in the (75) _______of paper used. Today, there are more than 450 different grades
of paper, all designed for a different (76) _______

Decades ago, some people predicted a “paperless office”. (77) _______the widespread use of
new technologies has gone hand-in-hand with an increased use of paper. Research into the
relationship between paper use and the use of computers has shown that the general (78) _______is
likely to be one of growth and interdependence.

However, the costs (79) _______in paper production, in terms of the world’s land, water and
air resources, are high. This (80) _______some important questions. How much paper do we really
need and how much is wasted?

71. A. providing B. delivering C. contributing D. giving

72. A. task B. operation C. service D. role

73. A. time B. instance C. date D. occasion

74. A. called on B. come around C. brought about D. drawn up

75. A. total B. portion C. number D. amount

76. A. point B. goal C. purpose D. result

77. A. Instead B. Besides C. Otherwise D. Alternatively

78. A. method B. order C. trend D. system

79. A. involved B. contained C. held D. connected

80. A. puts B. raises C. gets D. places

2. READING COMPREHENSION (1 pt)

Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question below.

MOBILE PHONES: Are they about to transform our lives?

We love them so much that some of us sleep with them under the pillow, yet we are increasingly
concerned that we cannot escape their electronic reach. We use them to convey our most intimate
secrets, yet we worry that they are a threat to our privacy. We rely on them more than the Internet to
cope with modern life, yet many of us don’t believe advertisements saying we need more advanced
services.

Sweeping aside the doubts that many people feel about the benefits of new third generations
phones and fears over the health effects of phone masts, a recent report claims that the long-term
effects of new mobile technologies will be entirely positive so long as the public can be convinced
to make use of them. Research about users of mobile phones reveals that the mobile has already
moved beyond being a mere practical. communications tool to become the backbone of modern
social life, from love affairs to friendship to work.

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Among the most important benefits of using mobiles phones, the report claims, will be a vastly
improved mobile infrastructure, providing gains throughout the economy, and the provision of a
more sophisticated location-based services for users. The report calls on government to put more
effort into the delivery of services by mobile phone, with suggestion including public transport and
traffic information and doctors’ text messages to remind patients of appointments. There are many
possibilities. At a recent trade fair in Sweden, a mobile navigation product was launched. When the
user enters a destination, a route is automatically downloaded to their mobile and presented by
voices, pictures and maps as they drive. In future, these devices will also be able to plan around
congestion and road works in real time. Third generation phones will also allow for remote
monitoring of patients by doctors. In Britain scientists are developing an asthma management
solution using mobiles to detect early signs of an attack.

Mobile phones can be used in education. A group of teachers in Britain use third generation
phones to provide fast internet service to children who live beyond the reach of terrestrial broadband
services and can have no access to online information. ‘As the new generation of mobile
technologies takes off, the social potential of the vastly increase,’ the report argues.

81. What does the writer suggest in the first paragraph about our attitudes to mobile phones

A. We can’t live without them.

B. We are worried about using them so much.

C. We have contradictory feelings about them.

D. We need them more than anything else to deal with modern life.

82. What does “them” in paragraph 2 refer to?

A. long-term effects B. new mobile technologies

C. doubts D. benefits

83. What is the connection between social life and mobile phones?

A. Modern social life relies significantly on the use of mobile phones

B. Mobile phones make romantic communication easier

C. Mobile phones encourage people to make friends.

D. Mobile phones enable people to communicate while moving around

84. Why do teenagers have such a close relationship with their mobile phones?

A. They use text messages more than any other group

B. They are more inclined to be late than older people

C. They feel independent when they use them

D. They tend to feel uncomfortable in many situations

85. Which of the following is NOT true?

A. Mobile phone is considered as a means for the youth to show their characters.

B. Mobile phones are playing a wide range of roles in people’s life.

C. People can overcome shyness by using texting to communicating things that make them
uncomfortable.

D. There is no need to suspect the harmfulness of mobile phones.

86. In what sense has the impact of phones been “local” in paragraph 3?

A. People tend to communicate with people they already know.

B. Users generally phone people who live in the same neighborhood.

C. It depends on local dialects.

D. The phone networks use different systems.

87. How might mobile phones be used in the future?

A. To give the address of the nearest doctor’s surgery

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C. To arrange deliveries

D. To cure diseases

88. The navigation product launched in Sweden is helpful for drivers because ________.

A. it can suggest the best way to get to a place

B. it provides directions orally

C. it tells them which roads are congested

D. it shows them how to avoid road works

89. What is the general attitude of the report described here?

A. Manufacturers need to produce better equipment.

B. The government should take over the mobile phone networks.

C. There are problems with mobile phones that cannot be overcome.

D. Mobile phones can have a variety of very useful applications.

90. The word “pronounced” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. obvious B. serious C. voiced D. overwhelmed
PHẦN III: WRITING (2 pts)

1. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (1 pt – 0.2/each)

Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that their meanings remain unchanged.

91. We couldn't relax until all the guests had gone home.

 Only ...

92. House prices have risen sharply this year.

 There has ...
Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first sentence, using the
word given. Do NOT change the word given in the parentheses.

93. His rude behavior is too much for me. (put)

 I can't ……….……… behavior.
94. I find his handwriting very hard to read. (difficulty)

I have ………..……… his hand writing

95. "It wasn't my fault that the window got broken," Gary said. (responsibility)
 Gary denied ……… the window.

2. WRITING (1 pt)

Write a paragraph of about 150 words about the reason why teenagers should be encouraged to 
do household chores.

* Note: You are not allowed to include any personal information such as your name, your
school’s name, your address, etc. in your writing.

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………
………
………
………

………
………
………
………
………
………
………
………
………
………
………

THE END
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

ĐỀ ÔN THI SỐ 02
(Đề thi này gồm có 08 trang)

KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 
NĂM HỌC 2018 - 2019

ĐỀ THI MÔN tiếngAnh (Chuyên)

Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút Ngày thi: ………06/ 2018

---SECTION I. LISTENING (1 pt)

Part 1. Listen to part of the passage. Choose the best answer for each question below. (0.5 pts)

1. How many percents do graduate schools in the United States increase in applications from

international students this year?

A. seven percents B. eight percents

C. nine percents D. ten percents

2. When is the increase the same as?

A. two years ago B. three years ago

C. four years ago D. five years ago

3. Which countries showed the biggest increases in applications to enter master’s and doctoral
programs this fall?

A. China B. China, Mexico

C. Mexico and Brazil D. China, Mexico and Brazil

4. Which is the top area of study for international students?

A. Engineering B. Business

C. Physical D. Earth sciences

5. Who made the survey?

A. South Korea B. The Council of Graduate Schools

C. India D. Brazil

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STREET STYLE

This week we went to South Molton Street to find out what (6) ……….. people are
wearing when they go shopping. Mina is from London: She’s a student at the London College of
Fashion . “ I’m wearing a pair of (7) ……….. from Michiko - it’s a Japanese shop here in
London. I love Japanese clothes. The jumper is from Space, and I bought the (8) ……….. at
Camden Market a couple of weeks ago. My bag and (9) ……….. were presents from my
family. I like wearing clothes that are (10) ……….., so I don’t usually go shopping in big
shops.”

A. PHẦN KIẾN THỨC NGÔN NGỮ

Phần I: TRẮC NGHIỆM KIẾN THỨC NGÔN NGỮ (3.5đ) 
1. PHONETICS (0.5pts)

Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the 
rest in each o f the following questions.

11. A. precious B. preparation C. pretty D. repetition

12. A. architect B. parachute C. choir D. psychology

13. A. find B. while C. arrive D. increasingly

Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose main stress pattern is different from that of the rest in each
o f the following questions.

14. A. interview B. industry C. essential D. difficult

15. A. economical B. personality C. entertainment D. preparatory
2. LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS (0.5pts)

Choose the best option (A, B, c or D) that is a reply to each of the following questions or 
statements.

16. -“Can I give you a little more coffee?” – “____________.”

A. No, you’re welcome B. No, thank you C. Yes, you’re right D. Yes, I’m OK

17. -“Those are beautiful.” – “____________.”

A. Well, it can happen to anyone B. I know. Sorry

C. Thank you. It’s nice of you to say so D. Nice to meet you

18. -"Would you like to go hunting tomorrow afternoon?" – “____________.”

A. I'm afraid I can't. I have an appointment. B. Yes, I'd like to.

C. Nothing special. Why? D. A or B.

19. "How do you like the chicken?" – “____________.”

A. Here it is. B. Which ones? C. Yes, it is. D. It's delicious.

20. -"Do you like fried rice?" – “____________.”
 A. No, I prefer it steamed. B. It's convenient.

C. No, rice is good. D. I like them both.

3. SYNONYM AND ANTONYM (0.5pts)

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in 
each o f the following sentences.

21.It will be fine tomorrow. But if it should rain tomorrow, the match will be postponed.

A. taken off B. sold off C. put off D. turned off

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A. caused B. lessened C. stopped D. overcame

23.Helen Keller, blind and deaf from an early age, developed her sense of smell so finely that she
could identify friends by their personal odors.

A. classify B. communicate with C. describe D. recognize

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part 
in each o f the following sentences.

24. There has been insufficient rainfall over the past two years, and farmers are having trouble.

A. adequate B. unsatisfactory C. abundant D. dominant

25. Mr. Smith’s new neighbors appear to be very friendly.

A. amicable B. inapplicable C. hostile D. Futile
4. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (2pts)

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C orD) that best completes each o f the following sentences.

26. Don’t set off fireworks too closely to your house, _______?

A. do you B. don’t you C. will you D. won’t you

27. It is recommended that he _______ this course

A. took B. takes C. take D. taking

28. He was the first person _______ the fire.

A. discover B. to discover C. discovering D. discovered

29. You are late again; please try to be _______ in the future.

A. accurate B. punctual C. efficient D. reliable

30. Edward has found a bigger flat and is _______ move into it.

A. near to B. ready for C. on the way D. about to

31. After he had broken his leg, Henry could only go up and down stairs _______.

A. hardly B. in difficulties C. with difficulty D. hard

32. To everyone’s surprise, Mr Brown _______ at the Trade Union meeting.

A. turned up B. turned over C. turned in D. turned round

33. When I first visited Moscow, I couldn’t get used _______ the cold weather.

A. with B. for C. in D. to

34. Please remember _______ this exercise first!

A. to do B. doing C. to be doing D. do

35. The smaller the room is, the _______ furniture it needs.

A. fewer B. small C. more D. less

36. If you don’t want this pen, take _______. There are some left in the box.

A. the other B. others C. one other D. another

37. The internet has _______ developed and become a part of our life.

A. increasing B. increasingly C. increase D. increased

38. I don’t think that purple shirt _______ with your skirt.

A. fits B. goes C. wears D. suits

39. Each of the guests _______ a bunch of flowers.

A. are given B. is given C. were given D. give

40. _______, after trying three times, he passed the examination.

A. Lastly B. Last of all C. Last D. At last

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A. planting B. was planted C. planted D. plants

42. The doctor made me_______ in bed for a week.

A. staying B. stay C. stayed D. to stay

43. How you invest your money is none of my _______.

A. affair B. business C. matter D. care

44. The visitor spoke _______ the subject of wildlife in northern Britain.

A. in B. from C. with D. on

45. He was _______ speaker!

A. so good a B. what a good C. so a good D. how good a
PHẦN II: TỰ LUẬN KIẾN THỨC NGÔN NGỮ (1.5đ)

1. WORD FORMS (0.5pts)

Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the following sentences

46.………..has caused many so-called man-made disasters. (forest)

47. You can never be sure what he is going to do. He is so ………... (predict)

48. If your work is ………..you won’t get a raise. (satisfy)

49. How do you ………..the real painting from the fake one? (different)

50. Pele ………..Ronaldo to take part in 2002 World Cup. (courage)

51. If it doesn’t rain soon, there’ll be a great ………..of water. (short)

52. My brother can repair electric ………..very well. (apply)

53. The old theater of our city is being enlarged and ………..(modern)

54. In winter it is important for farmers to provide food and ………..for their animals. (warm)

55. He drives very ………... He is sure to have an accident. (care)
2. ERROR CORRECTION ( 0.5pts)

There are 5 errors in the following passage. Identify the errors, then underline and correct them, write your
answers in the numbered spaces. Number (00.) is done as an example.

As far back as 700 B.C, man has talked about children being cared of by wolves.
Romulus and Remus, the legend twin founders of Rome, were purported to have been
cared for by wolves. It is believed that when a she-wolf loses her litter, she seeks a
human child to take its place.

This seeming preposterous idea did not become credible until the late nineteenth
century when a French doctor actually had found a naked ten-year-old boy wandering
in the woods. He did not walk erectly, could not speak intelligibly, or could he relate
to people. He only growled and stared at them. Finally the doctor won the boy's
confidence and began to work with him. After many long years of devoted and
patient instruction, the doctor was able to get the boy to clothe and feed himself,
recognize and utter a number of word, as well as write letters and form words.

Line 1
Line 2
Line 3
Line 4
Line 5
Line 6
Line 7
Line 8
Line 9
Line 10
Line 11

Line Error Correction

Line 00. 

Line 56. 

Line 57. 

Line 58. 

Line 59. 

Line 60. 

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Supply each space with a suitable preposition or adverbial particle to complete each of the 
following sentences.

61. If she takes ………..the job of the director, she will have to work harder.

62. Mary broke down ………..tears when we told her about the accident.

63. ………..behalf of everyone here tonight, I’d like to thank you for your advice.

64. It’s a small island, four miles ………..the Thai coast.

65. We need to talk ………..the situation.

66. I left the job because I couldn’t put………..with my boss a moment longer.

67. Small boys often look down ………..little girls and refuse to play with them.

68. You’ll have to work very hard today to make up ………..the time you wasted yesterday.

69. Don’t throw………..that box. We can use it again.

70. I saw Martin get ………..the bus and go straight home.
B. KỸ NĂNG NGÔN NGỮ - 2đ

1. GUIDED CLOZE TEST (1pt)

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits each blank space in the following passage.
NEW HUNT FOR LIFE IN SPACE

British space scientists are planning to join the American in the race to find evidence of life on
(71)_______ planets. Alan Penny and his team at the Rutherford Appleton Laboratory have designed a
telescope that is 40 times more powerful than Hubble. Known as ‘Darwin’, his telescope could tell if
planets 50 (72) _______ years away have any kind of life on them. Two days (73) _______, NASA
scientists had shown a proof that one of Jupiter’s moons could support life, Penny announced that his

telescope may be included in a European Space Agency mission. The Darwin project, with a (74)
_______ of 500 million, is on a short list of two proposals. If approved it will probably be (75) _______
around 2015, its destination somewhere between Mars and Jupiter. The blueprint is actually for five
telescopes positioned 50 meters apart in space, slowly circling a (76) _______ processing station. The
combined data from these telescopes would build up a full picture of a planet, picking out faint images
that have never been seen before. Darwin would not be able to take detailed photographs of the planets
it (77) _______, but Penny believes a second- generation telescope could be sent up to do this. He
claims it is worthwhile mapping the universe around our (78) _______ galaxy, even though these
planets lie (79) _______ our reach for the moment. The European Space Agency will make its decision
(80) ______ Darwin within three years.

71. A. another B. other C. others D. the other

72. A. light B. lighten C. lightening D. lighting

73. A. following B. after C. next D. later

74. A. price B. schedule C. charge D. budget

75. A. driven B. fetched C. launched D. taken

76. A. central B. centre C. middle D. heart

77. A. invents B. searches C. discovers D. looks

78. A. alone B. same C. one D. own

79. A. out B. toward C. beyond D. over

80. A. of B. on C. about D. with

2. READING COMPREHENSION (1pt)

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The Winterthur Museum is a collection and a house. There are many museums devoted to 
the decorative arts and many house museums, but rarely in the United States is a great collection
displayed in a great country house. Passing through successive generations of a single family,
Winterthur has been a private estate for more than a century. Even after the extensive renovations
made to it between 1929 and 1931, the house remained a family residence. This fact is of

importance to the atmosphere and effect of the museum. The impression of a lived-in house is 
apparent to the visitor: the rooms look as if they were vacated only a short while ago whether by 
the original owners of the furniture or the most recent residents of the house can be a matter of
personal interpretation. Winterthur remains, then, a house in which a collection of furniture and
architectural elements has been assembled. Like an English country house, it is an organic

structure; the house, as well as the collection and manner of displaying it to the visitor, has changed
over the years. The changes have coincided with developing concepts of the American arts,

increased knowledge on the part of collectors and students, and a progression toward the

achievement of a historical effect in period-room displays. The rooms at Winterthur have followed
this current, yet still retained the character of a private house.

The concept of a period room as a display technique has developed gradually over the years
in an effort to present works of art in a context that would show them to greater effect and would
give them more meaning for the viewer. Comparable to the habitat group in a natural history
museum, the period room represents the decorative arts in a lively and interesting manner and
provides an opportunity to assemble objects related by style, date, or place of manufacture.

81. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The reason that Winterthur was redesigned

B. Elements that make Winterthur an unusual museum

C. How Winterthur compares to English country houses

D. Historical furniture contained in Winterthur

82. The phrase "devoted to" in line 2 is closest in meaning to

A. surrounded by B. specializing in C. successful in D. sentimental about

83. What happened at Winterthur between 1929 and 1931?

A. The owners moved out B. The house was repaired

C. The old furniture was replaced D. The estate became a museum

84. What does the author mean by stating "the impression of a lived-in house is apparent to the 
visitor" (lines 7-8)?

A. Winterthur is very old

B. Few people visit Winterthur

C. Winterthur does not look like a typical museum

D. The furniture at Winterthur looks comfortable

85. The word "assembled" in line 12 is closest in meaning to

A. summoned B. appreciated C. brought together D. fundamentally changed

86. The word "it" in line 12 refers to

A. Winterthur B. collection C. English country house D. visitor

87. The word "developing" in line 14 is closest in meaning to

A. traditional B. exhibiting C. informative D. evolving

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A. date B.style C.place of manufacture D. past ownership

89. What is the relationship between the two paragraphs in the passage?

A. Paragraph 2 explains a term that was mentioned in Paragraph 1.

B. Each paragraph describes a different approach to the display of objects in a museum

C. Paragraph 2 explains a philosophy of art appreciation that contrasts with that explained in
Paragraph 1.

D. Each paragraph describes a different historical period

90. Where in the passage does the author explain why displays at Winterthur have changed?

A. lines 1-4 B. lines 5-8 C. lines 9-12 D. lines 13-16
Phần III: WRITING (2pts)

1. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (l pt)

Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that their meanings remain unchanged.

91. I don't really like her, even though I admire her achievements.

 Much...

92. We spent five hours getting to London.

 It took ...
Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first sentence, using the 
word given. Do NOT change the word given in the parentheses.

93. What sort of weather did you have on holiday? like

 ...

94. I’m sure you were proud of your son’s success. must

 ...

95. Nobody could possibly believe the story he told us. beyond

 ...
2. WRITING (1pt)

Write a paragraph of about 100-150 words in the following topic: Describe what you can do to
protect the environment

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………
………
………
………
………
………
………
………
………
………
………
………
………
………
………

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ THI SỐ 03

(Đề thi này gồm có 08 trang)

KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 
NĂM HỌC 2018 - 2019

ĐỀ THI MÔN tiếngAnh (Chuyên)

Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút Ngày thi: ………../2018

---A. LISTENING (1 pt)

Part 1: You will hear an interview with a teenager called Amy Manero, w ho is talking about 
her interest in music, particularly jazz piano. For each question, choose the correct answer A, 
B or C.

1. When did Amy have lessons with a piano teacher?

A. at the age of four.

B. before she started secondary school.

C. after getting advice from her school music teacher.

2. How did Amy feel at her first big public event?

A. excited because she was wearing a wonderful costume.

B. nervous because it was her first time on stage.

C. surprised because the audience was very big.

3. What does Amy say about playing jazz with the school band?

A. She was better at it than the rest of the players.

B. She put lots of effort into learning about it.

C. She enjoyed it as soon as she started.

4. Amy gives piano lessons so that she can _______.

A. help people who couldn’t normally afford them .

B. encourage lots of young people to play the piano.

C. improve her own playing technique.

5. Why does Amy write a blog on the internet?

A. to get some experience for becoming a journalist.

B. to tell people about her daily life as a musician.

C. to recommend events for people to go to.

Part 2. You will hear a boy called Adam telling his class about a hot air balloon flight he went 
on. For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space.

ADAM’S HOT AIR BALLOON FLIGHT

6. The flight in the balloon lasted for ……….. .

7. Adam could see as far as the ………..from the balloon.

8. Adam didn't recognize a local ………..from the air.
Adam was surprised that it was warm in the balloon basket.

9. Adam didn't like having to ………..in the basket.

10. The balloon finally landed on a ………...
I. TRẮC NGHIỆM NGÔN NGỮ (3,5 điểm)

PART 1: PHONETICS (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)

Task 1: Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently from
that of the rest in each o f the following questions.

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12. A. dictation B. station C. repetition D. question

Task 2: Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose main stress pattern is different from that o f the
rest in each of the following questions.

13. A. minority B. priority C. necessary D. facility

14. A. delicious B. generous C. confidence D. energy

15. A. unidentified B. imagination C. disappointed D. interactive
PART 2: LANGUAGE FUNCTION (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the following exchanges.

16. Daisy: “What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary!” - Mary: “_______”

A. Thank you very much! I am afraid. B. You are telling a lie.

C. Thank you for your compliment! D. I don't like your sayings.

17. Dick: “Sorry, Brian is not here.” - Peter: “_________”

A. Would you like to leave a message? B. Can I take a message then?

C. Can I speak to Brian, please? D. Can I leave a message then?

18. Susan: “Tom says he doesn’t like you!” – Lucy: “ _________”

A. It makes nothing B. So do I C. I know he isn’t D. I don’t care

19. Tom: “May I smoke?” Jerry: “________”

A. What suits you? B. You are free

C. Accommodate yourself! D. Go ahead!

20. Laura: “What a lovely house you have!” – Maria: “_________”.

A. Of course not, it ‘s not costly B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in

C. I think so D. No problem

PART 3: SYNONYM AND ANTONYM (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)

Task 1: Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is CLOSEST in meaning to the 
underlined part in each of the following sentences.

21. The most important thing is to keep yourself occupied.

A. busy B. comfortable C. free D. relaxed

22. My uncle, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play.

A. skillful B. famous C. perfect D. modest

23. After many year of unsuccessfully endeavoring to form his own orchestra, Glenn Miller finally
achieved world fame in 1939 as a big band leader.

A. requesting B. trying C. offering D. deciding

Task 2: Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the 
underlined part in each of the following sentences.

24. We offer a speedy and secure service of transferring money in less than 24 hours.

A. uninterested B. unsure C. open D. slow

25. The Red Cross is an international humanitarian agency dedicated to reducing the sufferings of
wounded soldiers, civilians and prisoners of war.

A. happiness B. worry and sadness C. pain and sorrow D. loss
PART 4: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (2.0 pts - 0.1/ each)

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the following sentences.

26. He is a specialist ______ modern Vietnamese literature.

A. of B. at C. for D. in

27. David has not seen Linda for fifteen years and has ______of her address.

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28. The population of the world is growing at an alarming ______.

A. rate B. measure C. step D. cost

29. After Freddie ______school, he joined the army.

A. finishing B. finishes C. had finished D. has finished

30. Don't go too fast! I can't ______ up with you.

A. go B. walk C. run D. keep

31. It is imperative ________ what to do when there is a fire.

A. he must know aboutB. that everyone know C. we knew D. that he
knew

32. Our industrial output ________ from $2 million in 2002 to $4 million this year.

A. was rising B. rises C. rose D. has risen

33. That hotel is so expensive. They________ you sixty pounds for bed and breakfast.

A. charge B. fine C. take D. cost

34. Under no circumstances________in public places.

A. should we allow to be smoked B. should smoking be allowed

C. we should allow smoking D. smoking should be allowed

35. The carefully nurtured gardens with a wide________of flowers and fruit trees have added
elegance to this place and made it a major tourist attraction.

A. amount B. number C. species D. variety

36. Visitors to the local museum are mostly attracted by___________ table.

A. an old wooden Chinese beautiful B. an old beautiful wooden Chinese

C. a wooden old beautiful Chinese D. a beautiful old Chinese wooden

37. While I was looking through my old albums the other day, I ________ this photograph of my
parents' wedding.

A. saw about B. looked down C. came across D. made up

38. We've already bought the house but won't ________ it until May, when the present occupants
have moved out.

A. take possession of B. keep track of C. catch sight of D. gain recognition of

39. With ________, it is obvious that our approach to the problem was completely wrong.

A. retrospect B. hindsight C. afterthought D. review

40. She ________ me a very charming compliment on my painting.

A. made B. showed C. look D. paid

41. I was immensely ________to hear that none of my relatives was killed in the bus accident.

A. shocked B. relieved C. enlightened D. healed

42. Some data surveyed by the researchers have already proved that there is no ________ for
mother’s milk.

A. alternative B. exchange C. substitute D. equivalent

43. I get the ________ impression that you don't like her very much.

A. distinct B. distinction C. distinctive D. distinguishable

44. She does what she wants to do, showing little ________ for the feelings of others.

A. regard B. sensitivity C. awareness D. perception

45. After she had made several disastrous decisions, people began to ________ her judgment.

A. disbelieve B. inspect C. wonder D. question
II. TỰ LUẬN KIẾN THỨC NGÔN NGỮ (1,5 điểm)

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Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the following sentences.

46. In the exam we had to write one ………..essay. (describe)

47. The reports are treated as strictly………... (confidence)

48. They knew that a vaccine for the virus was ………..possible. (theory)

48. The streets were ………..with strings of coloured lights. (luminous)

49. Children normally feel a lot of ………..about their first day at school. (anxious)

50. Safety tests on old cars have been ……….. throughout Europe. (standard)

51. We eventually began the ……….. task of sorting through his papers. (labour)

52. The engineering sector achieved significant ………..last year. (grow)

53. There is (an) ………..simple explanation of what happened. (suppose)

54. The magazine offers tips on cutting your house ………..costs. (maintain)

55. Over 30,000 ………..will run in the New York marathon. (compete)
PART 2: ERROR CORRECTION (0.5 pts – 0.1/ each)

There are 05 errors in the following passage. Identify the errors, write the line number and
correct them. Write your answers in the numbered spaces below. Number (00.) is done as an
example.

Line Passage

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10

11
12
13
14

KEEPING OUR TEETH HEALTHY

It’s very important to have health teeth. Good teeth help us to chew our food. They
also help us to look nicely. How does a tooth go bad? The decay begins in a little crack in the
enamel covering of the tooth. This happens after germs and bits of food have collected there.
Then the decay slowly spreads inside the tooth. Eventually, poisonous goes into the blood,
and we may feel quite ill. How can we keep our teeth healthy? First, we ought to visit our
dentist twice a year. He can fill the small holes in our teeth before they destroy the teeth. He
can examine our teeth to check that they are growing in the right way. Fortunately, many
people wait until they have toothache before they see a dentist. Secondly, we should brush
our teeth with a toothbrush and fluoride toothpaste at least twice a day once after breakfast
and once before we go to bed. We can also use wood toothpicks to clean between our teeth
after a meal. Thirdly, we should eat food that is good for our teeth and our body: milk,
cheese, fish, brown bread, potatoes, red rice, raw vegetables and fresh fruit. Chocolate,
sweets, biscuits and cakes are bad, especially when we eat it between meals. They are
harmful because they stick to our teeth and cause decay.

Line Error Correction

1 00. health  healthy

56. 

57. 

58. 

59. 

60. 

PART 3: PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)

Supply each space with a suitable preposition or adverbial particle to complete each of the
following sentences.

61. The certificates can be exchanged ………..goods in any of our stores.

62. Their stated aim was to free women ……….. domestic slavery.

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64. Her injuries are consistent ………..having fallen from the building

65. He made a good impression ………..his first day at work.

66. Why should you be displeased ………..the fun of the children?

67. Be temperate ………..speech as well as in eating and drinking.

68. Rewards should be proportionate ………..merit.

69. Where is Anna? She should be here ………..now.

70. ………..heat from the sun, there would be no life on earth.
KỸ NĂNG NGÔN NGỮ

PART 1: READING (2 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: GUIDED CLOZE TEST

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits each blank in the following passage.
Why is it that many teenagers have the energy to play computer games until late at night but
can’t find the energy to get out of bed (71) ________ for school? According to a new report, today’s
generation of children are in danger of getting so (72) ________sleep that they are putting their
mental and physical health at (73) ________. Adults can easily survive on seven to eight hours’
sleep a night, (74) ________teenagers require nine or ten hours. According to medical experts, one
in five youngsters (75) ________anything between two and five hours’ sleep a night less than their
parents did at their age.

This (76) ________serious questions about whether lack of sleep is affecting children’s
ability to concentrate at school. The connection between sleep deprivation and lapses in memory,
impaired reaction time and poor concentration is well (77) ________. Research has shown that
losing as little as half an hour’s sleep a night can have profound effects (78) ________how children
perform the next day. A good night’s sleep is also crucial for teenagers because it is while they are
asleep (79) ________they release a hormone that is essential for their ‘growth spurt’ (the period
during teenage years when the body grows at a rapid rate). It’s true that they can, to some (80)
________, catch up on sleep at weekends, but that won’t help them when they are dropping off to
sleep in class on a Friday afternoon.

71. A. behind time B. about time C. in time D. at time

72. A. few B. less C. much D. little

73. A. jeopardy B. threat C. risk D. danger

74. A. or B. because C. whereas D. so

75. A. puts B. gets C. brings D. makes

76. A. raises B. rises C. results D. comes

77. A. organized B. arranged C. established D. acquired

78. A. in B. on C. to D. at

79. A. at which B. which C. where D. that

80. A. rate B. extent C. level D. point
Task 2: READING COMPREHENSION

Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question below.

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known as a sea of electrons. Since the electrons are negatively charged they attract the ions and this
is what keeps the structure together.

An electric current is a flow of charge and since the electrons in the sea of electrons are free
to move they can be made to flow in one direction when a source of electrical energy such as a
battery is connected to the metal. Hence we have an electric current flowing through the wire, and
this is what makes metals such good conductors of electricity. The only other common solid
conducting material that pencil users are likely to encounter is graphite (what the ‘lead’ of a pencil
is made from). Graphite is a form of carbon and again the carbon atoms bond in such a way that
there is a sea of electrons that can be made to flow as an electric current. Likewise, if we have an
ionic substance like salt we can make the electrically charged ions flow to create a current but only
when those ions are free to move, either when the substance is a liquid or dissolved in water. In its
solid state an ionic substance like salt cannot conduct electricity as its charged ions cannot flow.

Electrical insulators are substances that cannot conduct electricity well either, because they

contain no charged particles or any charged particles they might contain do not flow easily. Water
itself is a poor conductor or electricity as it does not contain a significant amount of fully charged
particles (the ends of a water molecule are partly charged but overall the molecule is neutral).
However, most water we encounter does contain dissolved charged particles, so it will be more
conductive than pure water. Many of the problems that occur when touching electrical devices with
wet hands result from the ever-present salt that is left on our skin through perspiration and it
dissolves in the water to make it more conductive.

81. Electrical conductivity is

A. one of the most important properties of metals

B. one of the key properties of most solid materials

C. impossible for any substance when it is dissolved in water

D. completely impossible for silicon

82. According to the passage, a metal can conduct electricity due to

A. the absence of free electrons B. its atoms with a positive charge

C. the way its atoms bond together D. the loss of one electron in the core of its atoms

83. The word “outermost” in paragraph 1 mostly means

A. the lightest. B. nearest to the inside.

C. furthest from the inside. D. the heaviest.

84. The atoms of a metal can bond together because

A. the lost electrons cannot move freely in the sea of electrons

B. electrons can flow in a single direction

C. they lose all of electrons

D. negatively charged electrons attract positive ions

85. Salt in its solid state is not able to conduct electricity because

A. it has free electrons B. its charged ions can flow easily

C. it cannot create any charge ions D. it charged ions are not free to move

86. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to

A. charged ions B. electric currents C. charged particles D. electrical insulators
87. Water is a poor conductor because it contains

A. no positive or negative electric charge B. only a small amount of fully charged particles

C. only a positive electric charge D. only a negative electric charge

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A. the eater itself is a good conductor of electricity

B. the water dissolves the salt on our skin and becomes more conductive

C. the water contains too many neutral molecules

D. the water containing no charged particles makes it more conductive

89. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?

A. Pure water is much more conductive than most water we encounter every day.

B. Graphite is a common solid substance that can conduct electricity.

C. Salt can conduct electricity when it is molten or dissolved.

D. Some materials are more conductive than others.

90. Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?

A. Electrical Energy B. Electrical Devices C. Electrical Insulators D. Electrical
Conductivity

PART 2: WRITING (2 pts)

Task 1: SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (1.0 pt – 0.2/ each)

Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that their meanings remain unchanged, 
using the words given.

91. He is very sorry he didn’t come to the meeting yesterday.

 He apologized...

92. The reduction in the price of the magazines led to a growth in sales. (result)

 Sales of the magazines ...

93. Many people think that “Gone with the Wind” is one of the greatest films ever made. (be)
 “Gone with the Wind” ...

94. The police said Jim had stolen the money. (accused)

 The police ...

95. Because of his illness he could not work effectively. (impossible)

 His illness ...
Part 2:

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ THI SỐ 04

(Đề thi này gồm có 08 trang)

KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 
NĂM HỌC 2018 - 2019

ĐỀ THI MÔN tiếng Anh (Chuyên)

Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút Ngày thi: ……….. / 2018

---A. LISTENING (1 pt)

Part 1. You will hear an interview with a girl called Maria Shaw, who went on an outdoor

adventure trip with girls from her school. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B 
or C.

1. Maria didn’t think she’d find the trip hard because _______.

A. she’d had experience o f cam ping with her family.

B. she’d always cycled a long way to school every day.

C. she’d been on walking trips with the school.

2. What was Maria worried about during the first day’s activities?

A. She wouldn’t complete everything in time.

B. She’d be very cold while she was there.

C. She wouldn’t manage to sail in the right direction.

3. What made the climb up the rocks so slow?

A. The group kept slipping on the slopes.

B. Several students fell and hurt themselves.

C. Parts of the climb were extremely steep.

4. When M aria’s group got to the top of the rocks, they _______.

A. were given a talk on the environment.

B. to o k photos of each other.

C. ate a big meal.

5. Maria says that by the end of the trip the girls were _______.

A. feeling keen to go home again.

B. working together better.

C. cooking food for each other.

Part 2. You will hear a boy called Josh talking to his class about a trip he recently went on. 
For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered spaces.

JOSH’S WHEATHER CENTRE TRIP
- Josh went to the Weather Centre with his (6) ………. .

- Josh says the Centre first reported strong winds in (7) ………..
- The Centre later put forecasts in (8) ………. for everyone to see.

- Lots of weather information now comes from (9) ………. according to Josh.
- Josh thinks people need to know how much rainthere'll be.

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PART 1: PHONETICS (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)

Task 1: Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently from 
that of the rest in each o f the following questions.

11. A. financial B. intellectual C. preferential D. potential

12. A. merchant B. sergeant C. commercial D. term

Task 2: Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose main stress pattern is different from that o f the 
rest in each of the following questions.

13. A. character B. industry C. position D. audience

14. A. witness B. compete C. trophy D. title

15. A. activity B. investigate C. diversity D. fertilizer
PART 2: LANGUAGE FUNCTION (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the following exchanges.

1.Janet: “Do you feel like going to the cinema this evening?” Susan: “____________.”

A. You’re welcome B. That would be great

C. I feel very bored D. I don't agree, I'm afraid

2.Bill: -“I am terribly sorry !” Jill: -“____________.”

A. It’s nothing B. Nothing C. Don’t worry D. Never mind !

3.Peter: “ Janet, make us some tea, will you?” Janet: “____________.”

A. No, I won’t I’m afraid. B. Don’t worry. Go ahead

C. Sorry, I don’t D. I’m afraid I can’t

4. - Peter: “Do you have a minute please?” - Tim: “____________.”

A. Yes. But you should be brief B. That’s just fantastic. Thank.

C. Sorry, I left my watch at home. D. Well, it is not as good as I think

5. Hint: “I have passed all my examinations !” TMK: “____________.”

A. My dear! B. Best wishes! C. Well done! D. That’s very well!
PART 3: SYNONYM AND ANTONYM (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)

Task 1: Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is CLOSEST in meaning to the 
underlined part in each of the following sentences.

21. This tapestry has a very complicated pattern.

A. obsolete B. intricate C. ultimate D. appropriate

22. During the Great Depression, there were many wanderers who traveled on the railroads and 
camped along the tracks.

A. veterans B. tyros C. vagabonds D. zealots

23. We decided to pay for the furniture on the installment plan.

A. monthly payment B. cash and carry C. credit card D. piece by piece
Task 2: Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the 
underlined part in each of the following sentences.

24. There is growing concern about the way man has destroyed the environment.

A. ease B. attraction C. consideration D. speculation

25. Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance on the island. The islanders even exported the surplus.

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PART 4: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (2.0 pts - 0.1/ each)

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the following sentences.

26. After the car crash last night, all the injured ________to the hospital in an ambulance.

A. was rushing B. were rushed C. was rushed D. were rushing

27. “The inflation rate in Venezuela is five times________my country,” he said.

A. as much as B. more than C. as many as that in D. as high as that in

28. If you don’t stop smoking, you ________the risk of developing chronic bronchitis.

A. bear B. take C. make D. run

29. If you lose your passport, you should contact the embassy without ________.

A. delay B. cancel C. postpone D. consider

30. The man ________to having stolen the car.

A. refused B. admitted C. decided D. apologized

31. Congress finally ________the law after a two-year debate.

A. verified B. adapted C. applied D. adopted

32. Phew, what a lucky escape it was! We ________have been killed.

A. can’t B. must C. might D. shouldn’t

33. My supervisor is angry with me. I didn’t do all the work I ________last week.

A. should have done B. need to have done C. may have done D. must have done

34. This cheese isn’t fit for eating. It’s ________all over after lying in the bin for so long.

A. spoiled B. mouldy C. sour D. rusty

35. ________, the whole family slept soundly.

A. Hot though the night air was B. Hot though was the night air
C. Hot although the night air was D. Hot although was the night air

36. The new office block ________well with its surroundings.

A. blends in B. stands out C. shapes up D. sets off

37. ________ native to Europe, the daisy has now spread throughout most of North America.

A. Although B. In spite of C. If it were D. That it is

38. In the United States, a primary election is a method ________ voters select the nominees for
public office.

A. that B. is that C. by which D. by those

39. After a great deal of questioning, he decided to come clean and tell the truth.

A. admit B. confess C. agree D. deny

40. Now, don’t tell anyone else what I’ve just told you. Remember, it is ________.

A. confidence B. confident C. confidential D. confidentially

41. Either John or his friends ________ in the class now.

A. is B. are C. were D. have been

42. Everyone here has been to London, ________?

A. hasn’t he B. haven’t they C. have they D. has he

43. Dinner will be ready soon. Can you please ________ the table?

A. settle B. put C. lay D. make’

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A. like B. as C. as if D. as for

45. You will have to ________ your holiday if you are too ill to travel.

A. call off B. cut down C. back out D. put aside

II. TỰ LUẬN KIẾN THỨC NGÔN NGỮ (1,5 điểm)

PART 1: WORD FORM (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)

Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the following sentences.

46. John lost his job because he often behaved ………towards his customers. (polite)

47. A great deal of ………. research has been performed in this field. (science)

48. Hoang Anh was ………. to apply for the job. (courage)

49. Mr. Long is a very ………. person, so we love him very much. (consider)

50. He didn’t pass the final examination due to his ……….. (lazy)

51. Many rural areas in Viet Nam have been ………. in the past few years. (urban)

52. Peter fell off the ladder, but his ………. were not very serious. (injure)

53. The ………. in this city are very friendly. (reside)

54. Those clothes look smart, but they are very ……….. (comfort)

55. The movie we have just watched is ………. good. (exception)
PART 2: ERROR CORRECTION (0.5 pts – 0.1/ each)

ERROR IN A PASSAGE 02

Line Passage

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13

The best way to learn English is to come to class regular and do your homework.
If you miss several days of classes, for any reason, you cannot keep up with the others
students. The Language and Culture Centre is a serious academic program in intensive
English and wants all of its students to success. Therefore, students are expected to attend
all classes regularly, do all classroom assignments, meet all class requirements, and make
academic progress. Students who do not meet these standards may be placed on
probation. Students placed on academic probation with meet their teacher(s) and with
either or both the Associate Director and Foreign Student Advisor. Students will be
inform in writing of the terms and length of their probation. Students who have 30 hours
of absences are in danger of being placed on academic probation. Students fail to meet the
terms of their probation will be terminated from the LCC for the remainder of the

semester. This will also likely result on loss of student status with the US Immigration
and Naturalisation Service.

Line Error Correction

1 00. Regular  regularly

56. 

57. 

58. 

59. 

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PART 3: PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)

Supply each space with a suitable preposition or adverbial particle to complete each of the
following sentences.

61. The school provided me ………. all the materials I needed for the course.

62. I think you would benefit ………. spending a few weeks in an English speaking country.

63. The teacher scolded the students ………. misbehaving when she stepped out of the room.

64. I don't know where she is, I'm a little concerned ………. her.

65. I need to translate this document ………. German. Can you help me?

66. You need to concentrate more ………. your written work.

67. I’m disgusted ………. the sight of the opium-smoking den

68. Stability of government is beneficial ………. any nation.

69. I'm afraid you can't enter the bar because you are ………. age.

70. I'm sure he didn't mean to break the window. It must have happened ………. accident.
KỸ NĂNG NGÔN NGỮ

PART 1: READING (2 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: GUIDED CLOZE TEST

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits each blank in the following passage.
Everyone wants to reduce pollution. But the pollution problem is as complicated (71)
_________ it is serious. It is complicated because much (72) _________ is caused by things that
benefit people. For example, exhaust (73) _________ automobiles causes a large percentage of all
air pollution. (74) _________ the automobiles provide transportation for millions of people.
Factories (75) _________ much of the material which pollutes air and water, but factories give
employment to a large number of people.

Thus, to (76) _________ or greatly reduce pollution immediately, people would have to stop
using many things that benefit them. Most of the people do not want to do that, of course. But
pollution can be (77) _________ reduced in several ways. (78) _________ and engineers can work
to find ways to lessen the (79) _________ of pollution that such things as automobiles and factories
cause. Governments can pass and enforce laws that require businesses and individuals to stop, or cut
(80) _________ on certain polluting activities.

71. A. since B. because C. as D. for

72. A. pollution B. pollutant C. polluter D. polluting

73. A. in B. from C. at D. for

74. A. Therefore B. However C. Moreover D. But

75. A. offer B. discharge C. emit D. dissolve

76. A. increase B. pause C. cause D. end

77. A. increasingly B. gradually C. hopelessly D. dangerously

78. A. Scientists B. Doctors C. Lecturers D. Botanists

79. A. number B. figures C. amount D. numbers

80. A. down B. off C. up D. into

Task 2: READING COMPREHENSION

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On March 25, 1911, one of the five hundred employees of the Triangle Shirtwaist factory in
New York noticed that a rag bin near her eighth- floor work station was on fire. Workers
immediately tried to extinguish the flames. Their efforts prove futile, as piles of fabric ignited all
over the eighth floor. The manager of the factory ordered his employees to unroll the fire
extinguisher hose, but they found it rotted and useless.

The shirt factory occupied the top three floors of the ten- story Asch Building. The seventy
employees who worked on thetenth floor escaped the fire by way of the staircases or climbed onto
the roof, where students from New York University, located across the street, stretched ladders over

to the Asch Building.

The 260 workers on the ninth floor had the worst luck of all. Although the eighth- floor
workers tried to warn them by telephone, the call did not reach them, and by the time they learned
about the fire, their routes of escape were mostly blocked. Some managed to climb down the cables
of the freight elevator. Others crammed into the narrow stairway. Still others climbed onto the
single, inadequately constructed fire escape. But that spindly structure could not support the weight
of hundreds of people, and it separated from the wall,fallingto the ground and carrying many people
with it.

To combat the disaster, the New York Fire Department sent thirty five pieces of equipment,
including a hook and ladder. The young women trapped on the ninth- floor windowledge watchedin
horror as the ladder, fully raised, stopped far below them, reaching only as far as the sixth floor.

Within minutes, the factory- a fire trap typical of the period’s working conditions- was
consumed by flame, killing 146 workers, mostly immigrant women. City officials set up a
temporary morgue on 26th Street, and over the next few days streams of survivors filed through the
building toidentifythe dead.

The Triangle Shirtwaist fire brought a public outcry for laws to regulate the safety of
working conditions. The New York Factory Investigating Commission was formed to examine the
working conditions infactories throughout the state. Their reportintroduced many new regulations.
The fire had occurred during an era of progressive reform that was beginning to sweep the nation,
as people decided that government had a responsibility to ensure that private industry protected the
welfare of working people.

81. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The causes of a fire in a shirt factory C. Escaping from a fire in a shirt factory

B. Working conditions in New York City D. The events surrounding a tragic fire

82. Theword “ignited” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by____________.

A. becamewet B. caught fire C. exploded D. spread

83. Accordingto the passage,the fire began__________.

A. onthe ninth floor C. when some rags started burning

B. when aworker dropped a cigarette D. when a pile of fabric rotted

84. Why does the writermentionthe fire extinguisher hose in paragraph 1?

A. To emphasizethe unsafe working conditions

B. Toshow themanager’s competence

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D. To explain how the fire was eventually put out.

85. How didmany workers on the top floormanageto escape?

A. On the fire escape B. On the elevator C. On ladders D. On ropes

86. The phrase “Stillothers” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.

A. The eighth floor workers C. the routes of escape

B. The ninth floor workers D. the people in the freight elevator

87. It can be inferred from paragraph 4that__________.

A. New York had a well-equipped fire department

B. fire fighterswere ableto rescue thewomen onthe ninth floor

C. thewomen on the window ledge probably died

D. thewomen probablytook the stairs down to the sixth floor

88. Accordingto the passage, most of theworkers who died in the fire ___________.

A. were university students C. worked on the tenth floor

B. had only worked there for a short time D. were immigrant women

89. The phrase “beginning to sweep the nation” in paragraph 6means ___________.

A. changing politics C. investigating the government

B. becomingmore popular D. starting a controversy

90. Which of the following could NOT be inferred fromthe passage?

A. The Triangle Shirtwaist fire influenced public opinion.

B. The Triangle Shirtwaist factory was rebuilt.

C. Afterthe fire, new regulations improvedworkingconditions in factories.

D. Disasters can lead to a demand forreform.
PART 2: WRITING (2 pts)

Task 1: SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (1.0 pt – 0.2/ each)

Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that their meanings remain unchanged, 
using the words given.

91. He told me that it was wrong of me to leave early.

 He criticized ...

92. It is believed that his father died in a car accident.

 His father...

93. When the Minister was asked about the strike, he declined to comment.

 On...

94. The accident took place just after the workers started their work. (hardly)

 ...

95. Although he took a taxi, Jack still arrived late for the conference. (spite)

 ...
Part 2:

Part 2: Write an essay about 180 - 200 words on the following topic. "Parents are the best teachers".

Do you agree or disagree with this statement? Use specific reasons and examples to support your
answer.

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ THI SỐ 05

(Đề thi này gồm có 08 trang)

KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 
NĂM HỌC 2018 - 2019

ĐỀ THI MÔN tiếng Anh (Chuyên)

Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút Ngày thi: ……../2018

---A. LISTENING (1 pt)

Part 1. You will hear part of an interview with a boy called Simon who is helping to protect 
the environment. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B or C to best asnwer each 
of the following questions.

1. Simon enjoys taking his boat onto the River Stanton because _______.

A. he knows many people who go there.

B. the speed of the water makes it exciting.

C. it is the closest river to his home town.

2. Simon noticed that the river water _______.

A. was getting lower and lower.

B. was too dark to let him see the bottom.

C. was having a negative effect on him.

3. Simon learned more about the problem with the river _______.

A. by looking on the internet.

B. by asking the people who owned the river.

C. by talking to his school teachers.

4. Why did Simon do a special course?

A. to join an organization that protects the river.

B. to learn about the geography of the river.

C. to be able to check the water quality of the river.

5. Simon is pleased because _______.

A. the company causing the problem closed.

B. he found a way to reduce the problem.

C. he discovered new plants that live in the river.

Part 2. You will hear some information about a café for young people. For each question, fill 
in the missing information in the numbered space.

NOTES ABOUT THE RAINBOW CAFÉ
* This is a special café for teenagers which opened last month.

* The café is run by a (6)………..………of ten local teenagers.

* The teenagers got a grant worth (7) £ ………..………to start the café.
* They need some more teenagers to work as cooksin the café.

* The café is currently open every (8)………..………from 1.30 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
* The café serves a range of hot and cold drinks and some (9)………..………
* To get more information, call (10)………..………or visit www.youthcafe.com.
I. TRẮC NGHIỆM NGÔN NGỮ (3,5 điểm)

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Task 1: Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently from
that of the rest in each o f the following questions.

11. A. appealed B. denied C. hoped D. trained

12. A. doubt B. thumb C. subtle D. absorb

Task 2: Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose main stress pattern is different from that o f the 
rest in each of the following questions.

13. A. interfere B. entertain C. difference D. magazine

14. A. impossible B. geography C. information D. convenience

15. A. ethnic B. nuclear C. sewage D. persuade
PART 2: LANGUAGE FUNCTION (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the following exchanges.

16. Tom: “Can I borrow your umbrella for a day?” TMK: “___________”

A. With pleasure B. Ready C. Welcome D. Yes, I can

17. -“What a new nice style of hair you have it cut!” “___________.”

A. Yes, please B. It’s from Italy

C. Thank you D. No, I think it’s suitable for me.

18. Reese: remember, they want someone who works well with people . You’re going to show
them how easy- going and personable you are!

Kent: ________.

A. wait and see. Thanks B. thanks .I hope you

C. you see what I am like. Don’t worry D. Thanks. I’ll keep that in mind

19. Bill: -“Where can we meet?” – Joanna: “___________.”

A. at your house B. I do not know

C. I do not want to meet you D. It’s up to you

20. - “A bat can hear from a long distance .” “________”

A. You bet B. Yes, good hearer

C. No, you can be so sure D. You know a bat well
PART 3: SYNONYM AND ANTONYM (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is 
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

21. When their rent increased from 200 to 400 a month, they protested against such a tremendous 
increase.

A. light B. huge C. tiring D. difficult

22. In 1952, Akihito was officially proclaimed heir to the Japanese throne.

A. installed B. declared C. denounced D. advise

23. The augmentation in the population has created a fuel shortage.

A. increase B.necessity C. demand D. decrease

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is 
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

24. During the five- decade history the Asian Games have been advancing in all aspects.

A. holding at B. holding back C. holding to D. holding by

25. The distinction between schooling and education implied by this remark is important.

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PART 4: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (2.0 pts - 0.1/ each)

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the following sentences.

26. It is imperative ________ what to do when there is a fire.

A. he must know about B. that everyone know C. we knew D. that he knew

27. Our industrial output ________ from $2 million in 2002 to $4 million this year.

A. was rising B. rises C. rose D. has risen

28. That hotel is so expensive. They________ you sixty pounds for bed and breakfast.

A. charge B. fine C. take D. cost

29. Under no circumstances________in public places.

A. should we allow to be smoked B. should smoking be allowed

C. we should allow smoking D. smoking should be allowed

30. The carefully nurtured gardens with a wide________of flowers and fruit trees have added
elegance to this place and made it a major tourist attraction.

A. amount B. number C. species D. variety

31. Visitors to the local museum are mostly attracted by___________ table.

A. an old wooden Chinese beautiful B. an old beautiful wooden Chinese

C. a wooden old beautiful Chinese D. a beautiful old Chinese wooden

32. While I was looking through my old albums the other day, I ________ this photograph of my
parents' wedding.

A. saw about B. looked down C. came across D. made up

33. We've already bought the house but won't ________ it until May, when the present occupants
have moved out.

A. take possession of B. keep track of C. catch sight of D. gain recognition of

34. ________my mother's encouragement, I wouldn't have made such a daring decision.

A. In spite of B. Providing C. But for D. Due to

35. The young lady sat still in the afternoon breeze, with her hair________her back.

A. streaming down B. fallen against C. flowed down D. running over

36. Mai is a student in Ms Lan's writing class. She is asking for Ms Lan's comments on her last
essay. Select the most suitable response to fill in the blank.

- Mai. "You must have found reading my essay very tiring." - Ms Lan. "________. I enjoyed it."

A. You are welcome B. Just in case C. At all costs D. Not in the least

37. My car may be ugly, but it's certainly ________ . In fact, I haven't had any problem with it for
over five years.

A. dependable B. dependent C. independent D. dependant

38. Books and magazines________around made his room very untidy.

A. lying B. which lied C. laying D. that lie

39. Having traveled to different parts of our country, ________.

A. many interesting lifestyles and customs have been learned by us

B. we have learned a lot about interesting lifestyles and customs

C. much has been learned about interesting lifestyles and customs

D. we are seeing a lot of interesting lifestyles and customs

40. He wasn't attending the lecture properly and missed most of________.

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C. things said by the teacher D. that the teacher said

41. Angela’s enthusiasm makes________ her lack of work experience.

A. off with B. up with C. up for D. up to

42. After the car crash last night, all the injured ________ to the hospital in an ambulance.

A. was rushing B. were rushed C. was rushed D. were rushing

43. “The inflation rate in Venezuela is five times________my country,” he said.

A. as much as B. more than C. as many as that in D. as high as that in

44. If you don’t stop smoking, you ________ the risk of developing chronic bronchitis.

A. bear B. take C. make D. run

45. With ________, it is obvious that our approach to the problem was completely wrong.

A. retrospect B. hindsight C. afterthought D. review
II. TỰ LUẬN KIẾN THỨC NGÔN NGỮ (1,5 điểm)

PART 1: WORD FORM (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)

Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the following sentences.

46. It is not ………..………to stay up late the night before a test. (advise)

47. The idea of working four, 10-hour work days was ………..…… to the employees. (attract)

46. The major ………..………of the show was a speech by the president. (attract)

45. The attorney's ………..………questioning weakened the witness. (persist)

50. Their ………..………of the plan caused the experiment to be abandoned. (approve)

51. It was obvious that the house was built ………..………. (haphazard)

52. His ………..………to captain came unexpectedly. (advance)

53. The ………..………of seeds is very quick with this new machine. (distribute)

54. His teacher gave him the ………..………that he needed to learn the material. (encourage)

55. John presented ………..………the argument for his salary increase. (persuade)
PART 2: ERROR CORRECTION (0.5 pts – 0.1/ each)

Line Passage

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13

KEEPING OUR TEETH HEALTHY

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14
15

meals. They are harmful because they stick to our teeth and cause decay.

Line Error Correction

00. health  healthy

56. 

57. 

58. 

59. 

60. 

PART 3: PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)

Supply each space with a suitable preposition or adverbial particle to complete each of the
following sentences.

61. Little Angela hasn’t got………..……… her shyness yet.

62. The garage gave me a 5 per cent discount………..………paying cash.

63. Our teacher explains things so quickly that sometimes I can’t keep up ………..………her.

64. I’m so sorry I’m late, the car broke………..………on my way here.

65. Peter, you’re a stupid little boy! Stop showing………..………like that.

66. Children should be prohibited………..………smoking.

67. Everyone in the village was concerned………..………the plans for the new road.

68. It was a good attempt, but it didn’t really come………..………, which was a pity.

69. He confessed to me that he had just been converted ………..………some strange religion.

70. We are fortunate………..………having sufficient supplies of fuel for the winter.
KỸ NĂNG NGÔN NGỮ

PART 1: READING (2 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: GUIDED CLOZE TEST

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits each blank in the following passage.
IT’S COOL TO CAMP

For many of us, life is full of man-made sounds: traffic, machinery, television and other
human beings. It is not surprising (71) ________ that camping continues to (72) ________in
popularity, as it teaches us to take our focus off these distractions and (73) ________to enrich our
lives. According to a recent report, one holiday (74) ________eight in Europe is a camping holiday.
Despite that, some would still have you believe that camping should be considered an alternative
holiday that you are driven towards because money is (75) ________ nonsense. It is a lifestyle

choice to be embraced and enjoyed, for it (76) ________us the freedom to explore in our own time
and (77) ________ our own speed. The opportunities available for (78) ________camping with
some form of recreational activity are as varied as Europe’s many thousands of miles of hiking
trails, cycling routes, canals, rivers and lakes. Whether your chosen form of activity is recreational
or competitive, a sociable hobby or a way of (79) ________the crowds, there can be nothing more
pleasurable than sitting outside your tent after a day of activity with only the hum of dragonflies and
the gas stove (80) ________the peace. And just remember: whatever form of camping you choose,
as long as you are out there enjoying yourself and the surroundings, the rest of the world can wait.

71. A. therefore B. nevertheless C. so D. though

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73. A. contributes B. gives C. supplies D. helps

74. A. from B. on C. for D. in

75. A. hard B. rare C. tight D. slim

76. A. lets B. opens C. allows D. enables

77. A. of B. at C. by D. to

78. A. mixing B. attaching C. adding D. uniting

79. A. escaping B. separating C. clearing D. departing

80. A. stopping B. annoying C. disturbing D. breaking
Task 2: READING COMPREHENSION

Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question below.

A balanced diet contains proteins, which are composed of complex amino acids. There are 20
types of amino acids, comprising about 16 percent of the body weight in a lean individual. A body
needs all 20 to be healthy. Amino acids can be divided into two groups: essential and nonessential.
There are 9 essential amino acids. These are the proteins that the body cannot produce by itself, so a
healthy individual must ingest them. The 11 nonessential amino acids, on the other hand, are
produced by the body, so it is not necessary to ingest them. Proteins are described as being either
high-quality or low-quality, depending on how many of the 9 essential amino acids the food
contains. High-quality proteins, typically found in animal meats, are proteins that have ample
amounts of the essential amino acids. Low-quality proteins are mainly plant proteins and usually
lack one or more of the essential amino acids. Since people who follow a strict vegetarian diet are
ingesting only low-quality proteins, they must make sure that their diets contain a variety of
proteins, in order to ensure that what is lacking in one food is available in another. This process of
selecting a variety of the essential proteins is called protein complementation. Since an insufficient
amount of protein in the diet can be crippling, and prolonged absence of proteins can cause death,
it is imperative that a vegetarian diet contains an ample amount of the essential proteins.

81. With what topic is this passage primarily concerned?

A. the 20 types of amino acids B. high- and low-quality proteins

C. the process of complementation D. healthy diets for vegetarians

82. The word "lean" in line 2 could be best replaced by

A. thin B. fat C. tall D. short

83. The word "ingest" in line 5 is closest in meaning to which of the following?

A. chew B. swallow C. suck D. drink

84. Which of the following would NOT be an example of a low-quality protein?

A. legumes B. apples C. grains D. tuna

85. According to the passage, a vegetarian could die from insufficient protein ingestion if he or she
_________.

A. did not follow a varied and properly protein-complemented diet.

B. ate too many animal proteins,and could not digest them properly.

C. did not follow a diet in which nonessential proteins were ingested.

D. ate too many low-quality proteins.

86. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "crippling" as used in line 19?

A. discouraging B. betraying C. incapacitating D. amazing

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A. narrow B. hollow C. hard-hearted D. extended

88. In line 15, the word "imperative" can be best replaced by _________.

A. crucial B. impossible C. wonderful D. satisfying

89. Which of the following best describes the author's tone in this passage?

A. forceful B. light C. casual D. argumentative

90. Which statement best describes the organization of this passage?

A. Contrasting views concerning proteins are compared.

B. The author moves from a general comment to a specific argument.

C. A statement is given and its cause is then discussed.

D. Items are discussed in their order of importance.
PART 2: WRITING (2 pts)

Task 1: SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (1.0 pt – 0.2/ each)

Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that their meanings remain unchanged, 
using the words given.

91. He speaks more persuasively than his brother.

 He is a ...

92. Mary told the police about the burglary.

 Mary reported ...

93. “You had better go to see the doctor immediately,” Jone said. advised

 ...

94. She liked Paris very little and Rome less. worse

 ...

95. I called my uncle for some advice. order

 ...
Part 2: Write a paragraph about this topic.

Using cell phones and computers have made communication among people much easier. What
is your point of view about it?

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………
………
………
………
………
………
………
………
………
………
………
………
………
………
………

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---SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ THI SỐ 06

(Đề thi này gồm có 08 trang)

KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 
NĂM HỌC 2018 - 2019

ĐỀ THI MÔN tiếngAnh (Chuyên)

Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút Ngày thi: ……../2018

---A. LISTENING (1 pt)

Part 1. You will hear part of an interview with a girl called Elena, a young

film-maker who wrote, directed and starred in her own film. For each question, choose the 
correct answer A, B or C.

1. What does Elena say about the character she played in her film?

A. She has a very similar personality to Elena’s.

B. She worries too much about people.

C. She is easily hurt by other people’s actions.

2. What message does Elena want her film to communicate?

A. Value your background.

B. Believe in your own abilities.

C. Be realistic about the choices you make.

3. While filming the atmosphere was _______.

A. difficult because it was hard to get people to work.

B. sad because o f the subject matter of the film.

C. close because the difficulty of the work brought them together.

4. What does Elena say about filming?

A. The days tended to start and end at the same time.

B. They had to work every day of the week to get the film finished.

C. She filmed a similar number of scenes each day.

5. What did Elena find most challenging about making the film?

A. controlling large groups of actors when filming.

B. telling people what she wanted them to do.

C. having so many different jobs to do herself.

Part 3: Questions 14-19. You will hear some information about a special science lesson. For 
each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space.

SPECIAL SCIENCE LESSON

This school will speak to an astronaut working on the International Space Station!
* The lesson:

7th August at 9.20 a.m.
for the whole school

will take place in the (6) ………

all questions and answers sent and received by (7) ……….
* The astronaut:

name: Harry Burton

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work Harry is doing: experiments on sleep while living in space.
* The Space Station:

travels at (9) ………miles per hour

takes 90 minutes to go round the (10) ……….
I. TRẮC NGHIỆM NGÔN NGỮ (3,5 điểm)

PART 1: PHONETICS (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)

Task 1: Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently from
that of the rest in each o f the following questions.

11. A. narrow B. power C. browse D. allow

12. A. dishonor B. historic C. honesty D. rhythm

Task 2: Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose main stress pattern is different from that o f the
rest in each of the following questions.

13. A. primary B. compulsory C. occasion D. appliance

14. A. escape B.lotion C. prefer D. review

15. A.discourage B. document C. general D. politics
PART 2: LANGUAGE FUNCTION (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the following exchanges.

16. A: Look at this beautiful butterfly! B: ___________

A. Why can’t you? B. Where? I don’t see it.

C. No, it’s your turn. D. I'll take it, don’t worry.

17. A: Shall we go out tomorrow night? B: ___________.

A. I’m sorry I can’t, I’m busy. B. Of course you can come.

C. Yes, I am going out now. D. No, thanks to you.

18. A: That’s really kind of you. B: ___________ .

A. You did too. B. Very well thanks. C. You’re welcome. D. My pleasures.

19. A: I’m sorry for shouting at you. B: ___________

A. It’s OK. B. So do I. C. I still can’t hear you. D. I am too.

20. A: John’s going to London. B: ___________

A. Often? B. Yesterday? C. By train? D. Already?
PART 3: SYNONYM AND ANTONYM (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)

Task 1: Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is CLOSEST in meaning to the 
underlined part in each of the following sentences.

21. Remember to drop me a line while you are away on business.

A. give me a ring B.write to me C. call me D. drop in me

22. He disapproved of the behavior his sons displayed during the church service this week.

A. comment B. support C.blame D. like

23. The dim lights made it hard to see, so Ben squinted to make out the stranger's face in the 
distance.

A. faint B. muted C. weak D. strong

Task 2: Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the 
underlined part in each of the following sentences.

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A.impractical B. feasible C. practical D. positive

25. The couple tried to converse in the busy restaurant, but they couldn't hear themselves speak so 
they went elsewhere.

A. talk B.stop talking C. chat D. communicate
PART 4: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (2.0 pts - 0.1/ each)

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the following sentences.

26. No one knows exactly _______.

A. how did speech begin B. how speech began

C. how the beginning of speech D. of how beginning speech

27. _______ one or more units of living substance called protoplasm.

A. All living things consist of B. In all living things consisting of

C. Although all living things that consist of D. All living things consisting of

28. I think you’ll find that the inconvenience of the diet is _______ by the benefits.

A. outranked B. overthrown C. overbalanced D. outweighed

29. The marathon, first staged in 1896, ______ the legendary feat of a Greek soldier who carried
news of victory from the battle at Marathon to Athens.

A. commemorating B. was commemorated C. commemorated D. commemorates

30. Neither my dad nor my mum _______ of the idea.

A. convinced B. have convinced C. was convinced D. were convinced

31. He was brave; _______ soldier fought so bravely in that battle.

A. no others B. no another C. no other D. no others

32. My mother ______ when she found out that I’d forgotten to do the washing-up again.

A. stood her ground B. hitthe ceiling C. felt off color D. made her blood boil

33. Jones: “It seems to me that the summer is nice here.” Tam: “_______. It’s really lovely.”

A. You’re exactly right B. You’re dead wrong C. I couldn’t agree less

D. You couldbe right

34. The quality of the young artist’s painting is beginning to gain _______ throughout the world.

A. knowledge B. understanding C. recognition D. familiarity

35. I took a course in shorthand and typing with a(n) _______ to applying for a secretarial job.

A. purpose B. intention C. view D. project

36. Have you got a new battery for the radio? This one's ____ .

A. stale B. worn C. flat D. off

37. Careful when you drink from that cup. The rim is _______.

A. split B. dented C. scratched D. chipped

38. I had a small accident with the car. One of the wings is a little ____ .

A. stained B. dented C. jammed D. cracked

39. Someone spilt red wine on the carpet and now it's _______ .

A. worn B. scratched C. cracked D. stained

40. I can't open the window. I think it's _____ .

A. run out B. stained C. stuck D. loose

41. That knife's no good. It's _____ .

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42. Don't eat that sandwich. the bread's _____ .

A. off B. stale C. rancid D. jammed

43. We need a new carpet for the bedroom. This one's ____ .

A. mouldy B. dog-eared C. smudged D. worn

44. You shouldn't eat that cheese. It's ______ .

A. flat B. mouldy C. jaded D. rown

45. I've washed these jeans many times so they're a bit _____ .

A. faded B. scratched C. worn D. filthy

II. TỰ LUẬN KIẾN THỨC NGÔN NGỮ (1,5 điểm)

PART 1: WORD FORM (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)

Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the following sentences.

46. What the teacher does first is to check ………of the students. (attend)

47. The mechanic ………fixed our car, which really upset us. (profession)

48. His ………of his opponent led to his biggest failure. (estimate)

49. The interior decoration of the hotel presents ………, which is just one of
the drawbacks.

(taste)

50. We all take pride in our ………friendship. (destroy)

51. The company went bankrupt on account of inefficient ………. (manage)

52. He proposes closing down all the ………factories in the area. (economy)

53.The song always brings back her lovely ………memories. (children)

54. The article failed to ………the unemployment issue. (public)

55. Falling coffee prices have ………many Third World economies. (poor)
PART 2: ERROR CORRECTION (0.5 pts – 0.1/ each)

Line Passage

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11

The Internet is made up of million of computers linked together around the world
in so a way that information can be sent from any computer to any other 24 hours a day.
These computers can be in homes, schools, universities, government departments, or
businesses. The Internet is often described like a network of networks because all the
smaller networks of organizations are linked together into one giant network called the
Internet. All computers are pretty much equal once connected to the Internet, the uniquely
difference will be the speed of the connection which is dependent on your Internet Service
Provider and your own modem. There are many things you can do and participate in once
connected to the Internet. They include using a range of services in order to
communication and share information and things quickly and inexpensively with millions
of people, both young and old and from diversity cultures around the world.

Line Error Correction

1 00. million  millions

56. 

57. 

58. 

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60. 

PART 3: PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)

Supply each space with a suitable preposition or adverbial particle to complete each of the
following sentences.

61. The car slid on the icy road and crashed ……….. the parked car.

62. I can't concentrate ……….. what I'm doing with all that noise outside.

63. It was only ……….. accident when I found out who the man really was.

64. Long skirts are ……….. fashion nowadays.

65.The city council objects ……….. vulgar art displays in public buildings.

66. I just cannot do ……….. my mobile. I always keep it with me.

67. These are the cultural processes ……….. globalisation.

68. Jenny is clearly ……….. a disadvantage when it come to speaking a foreign language.

69. His mother can't put up ……….. his terrible behavior anymore.

70. As an excuse for being late, she made ……….. a whole story.
KỸ NĂNG NGÔN NGỮ

PART 1: READING (2 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: GUIDED CLOZE TEST

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits each blank in the following passage.
The traditional definition of literacy is considered to be the ability to read and write, or the
ability to use language to read, write, listen, and speak. In modern contexts, the word refers to
reading and writing at a (71) _____ level for communication, or at a level that lets one understand
and communicate ideas in a literate society,' so as to take (72) _____ in that society. The United
Nations, Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) has drafted the following
definition: “Literacy is the ability to identify, understand, interpret, create, communicate and
compute, using printed and written' materials (73) _____ with varying contexts. Literacy involves a
continuum of learning to enable an Individual to achieve his or her goals, to develop his, or her (74)
_____ and potential, and to participate fully in the wider society."

Many policy analysts consider literacy rates a crucial measure of a region's human capital. This
claim is made on the (75) _____ that literate people can be trained less expensively than illiterate
people, generally have a higher socio-economic (76) _____ and enjoy better health and employment
prospects. Policy makers also argue that literacy increases job opportunities and access to higher
education. In Kerala, India, for example, female and child mortality rates declined (77) _____ in the
1960s, when girls who were educated in the education reforms after 1948 began to raise families.
Recent researchers, (78) _____, argue that correlations such as, the one listed above may have more
to do with the effects of schooling rather than literacy in general. Regardless, the (79) _____ of

educational systems worldwide includes a basic (80) _____ around communication through test and
print, which is the foundation of most definitions of literacy.

71. A. important B. adequate C. adaptable D. suitable

72. A. control B. comfort C. part D. honor

73. A. associated B. worked C. appropriated D. related

74. A. ability B. knowledge C. behavior D. performance

75. A. basics B. ways C. foundations D. grounds

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77.A. actually B. dramatically C. extremely D. accurately

78.A. therefore B. however C. consequently D. additionally

79.A. main B. majority C. focus D. demand

80.A. concept B. content C. contact D. context
Task 2: READING COMPREHENSION

Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question below.

Centuries ago, man discovered that removing moisture from food helped to preserve it, and
that the easiest way to do it was to expose the food to sun and wind, In this way the North American
Indians produced pemmican (dried meat ground into powder and made into cakes), the
Scandinavians made stock fish and the Arabs dried dates and apricots.

All foods contain water – cabbage and other leaf vegetables contain as much as 93% wave,

potatoes and other root vegetables 80%, lean meat 75% and fish anything from 80% to 60%
depending on how fatty it is. If this water is removed, the activity of the bacteria which cause food
to bad is checked.

Fruit is sun-dried in Asia Minor, Greece, Spain and other Mediterranean countries, and also
in California, South Africa and Australia. The methods used carry, but in general the fruit is spread
out on trays in drying yards in the hot sun. In order to prevent darkening, pears, peaches and
apricots are exposed to the fumes of burning sulphur before drying. Plums for making prunes, and
certain varieties of grapes for making raisins and currants, are dipped in an alkaline solution in order
to crack the skins of the fruit slightly and remove their wax coating, so increasing the rate of drying.

Nowadays most of foods are dried mechanically; the conventional method of such
dehydration is to put food in chambers through which hot air is blown at temperatures of about
1100C at entry to about 450C at exit. This is usual method for drying such things as vegetables,
minced meat, and fish.

Liquids such as milk, coffee, tea, soups and eggs may be dried by pouring them over a heated
horizontal steel cylinder or by spraying them into a chamber through which a current of hot air
passes. In the first case, the dried material is scraped off the roller as a thin film which is then
broken up into small, though still relatively coarse flakes. In the second process it falls to the bottom
of the chamber as a fine powder. Where recognizable pieces of meat and vegetables are required, as
in soup, the ingredients are dried separately and then mixed.

Dried foods take up less room and weigh less than the same food packed in cans of frozen,
and they do not need to be stored in special conditions. For these reasons they are invaluable to
climbers, explorers and soldiers in battle, who have little storage space. They are also popular with
housewives because it takes so little time to cook them.

81. What is the main idea of the passage?

A. Water: the main component of food. B. Advantages of dried foods.

C. Mechanization of drying foods. D. Different methods of drying foods.

82. The phrase “do this” in the first paragraph mostly means .

A. moisten foods B. expose foods to sun and wind

C. produce pemmican D. remove moisture from foods

83. The word “checked” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to .

A. motivated to develop B. reduced considerably

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84. In the process of drying certain kinds of fruits, sulphur fumes help .

A. remove their wax coating B. kill of bacteria

C. maintain their color D. crack their skin

85. Nowadays the common method for drying vegetables and minced meat is .

A. dipping them in an alkaline solution

B. spreading them out on trays in drying yards

C. putting them in chambers and blowing hot air through

D. pouring them over a heated horizontal steel cylinder

86. What does the word “which” in the fourth paragraph refer to?

A. Foods B. Things C. Vegetables D. Chambers

87. The final product of the process of drying liquids that uses the first method will be.

A. small flakes B. fine powder C. dried soup D. recognizable pieces

88. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?

A. People in India began to use drying methods centuries ago.

B. Dried foods have several advantages over canned or frozen foods.

C. Fruit is usually dried by being laid out on trays in the sun.

D. Liquids are not dried in the same way as fruits and vegetables.

89. According to the passage, dried foods are most useful for .

A. people who are on the move B. housewives who have little storage space

C. explores who are underweight D. soldiers who are not in battle

90. This passage is mainly .

A. analytical B. fictional C. argumentative D. informative
PART 2: WRITING (2 pts)

Task 1: SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (1.0 pt – 0.2/ each)

Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that their meanings remain unchanged, 
using the words given.

91. I find his handwriting very hard to read.

 I have ...

92. Success depends on your hard work.

 The harder ...

93. “Don’t forget to tidy up the final draft before submission,” the team leader told us.

 The team leader reminded ...

94. “Why don’t you invest more money in my company?” my friend said to me.

 My friend persuaded ...

95. “If you don’t pay the ransom, we’ll kill your boy,” the kidnappers told us.

 The kidnappers threatened ...

96. The company didn’t decide to replace this model. (intention)

 ...

97. In the end, I felt I had been right to leave the club. (regrets)

 ...

98. They helped us a lot when we were in trouble. (assistance)

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99. I offered to help her but she refused. (turned)

 ...

100. Mary didn't feel like going to the party. (mood)

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ THI SỐ 07

(Đề thi này gồm có 08 trang)

KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 
NĂM HỌC 2018 - 2019

ĐỀ THI MÔN tiếngAnh (Chuyên)

Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút Ngày thi: ………../2018

---A. LISTENING (1 pt)

Part 1. You will hear a man talking on the radio about a number of local sporting events 
happening over the next week. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B or C.

1. The cycling event on Saturday is ________.

A. open for anyone to join in on the day.

B. only for teams of cyclists.

C. over two distances.

2. The athletics competition being held this weekend will ________.

A. take place at a new stadium .

B. be shown on national television.

C. be a chance to see some world-class runners.

3. What is interesting about the diving competition on Sunday?

A. It is a new competition.

B. A local teenager is in it.

C. A world record might be broken.

4. What does the speaker say about the tennis tournament?

A. There are no more tickets left.

B. Ticket prices are more expensive this year.

C. Listeners can enter a competition to win tickets.

5. The speaker advises that people going to see the surfing competition ________.

A. should wear warm clothes.

B. should go to the beach on the bus.

C. should take a picnic lunch with them.

Part 2. You will hear a teacher talking about some visitors comin g to speak at the school. For 
each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space.

Visiting Speakers
Series of talks by visiting speakers:

monthly

on first (6)………
at 4.45 p.m.

The first talk - Ellie Brown

Date: 2nd November

Ellies job: travel writer
Ellie will:

* talk about her education and studies

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* play a video and show photographs
* The second talk - Harry Fowler

Date: (8)………

Harry's job: camera operator

Topic o f talk: making (9)………films.
Harry's book: Behind the Lens

Book costs: (10) £ ………at the talk
I. TRẮC NGHIỆM NGÔN NGỮ (3,5 điểm)

PART 1: PHONETICS (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)

Task 1: Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently from
that of the rest in each o f the following questions.

11. A. challenge B. chance C. achievement D. scholarship

12. A. headaches B. wishes C. finishes D. watches

Task 2: Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose main stress pattern is different from that o f the
rest in each of the following questions.

13. A. intelligent B. population C. opportunity D. economics

14. A. advisable B. admirable C. reliable D. desirable

15. A. method B. invention C. intense D. effective
PART 2: LANGUAGE FUNCTION (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the following exchanges.

16. - Nam: “Do you have a minute, Dr Keith?” - Dr Keith: “__________”

A. Well. I’m not sure when B. Good, I hope so

C. Sure. What’s the problem? D. Sorry, I haven’t got it here

17. - Tom: “Oh, I have to leave. Bye.” - Bill: “________________”

A. Bye. Nice to meet you too. B. Good day!

C. Good job! See you later. D. Please, don‟t move!

18. - Nhung: “If you ask me, action movies are great!” - Tuy :“ _______________ “

A. You can say it again B. Never mind

C. That’s that D. Sure. It’s my pleasure.

19. - Tai: “Let me do that for you” - Nam: “______________”

A. Don’t worry yourself B. Please don’t bother

C. It’s not for you D. Make yourself at home

20. “Are you free this coming Sunday?” “____________”

A. I think so. Why? B. Yes, I can

C. Yes, I will D. No, thank you

PART 3: SYNONYM AND ANTONYM (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)

Task 1: Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is CLOSEST in meaning to the 
underlined part in each of the following sentences.

21. Married couples can get a divorce if they find they are not compatible.

A. able to budget the money B. capable of having children

C. capable of living harmoniously D. able to share an apartment or a house

22. The kidnapper gave himself up to the authorities.

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C. went up D. accommodated himself

23. Prior to his appointment as secretary of state, Henry Kissinger was a professor of government
and international affairs at Harvard.

A. Instead of B. Before C. During D. After

Task 2: Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the 
underlined part in each of the following sentences.

24. One of the reasons why families break up is that parents are always critical of each other.

A. unaware B. supportive C. intolerant D. tired

25. It's discourteous to ask Americans questions about their age, marriage or income.

A. impolite B. polite C. unacceptable D. rude
PART 4: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (2.0 pts - 0.1/ each)

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the following sentences.

26. Our teacher tends to ______ certain subjects which she finds difficult to talk about.

A. boil down B. string along C. skate over D. track down

27. Jacobson is often referred to ______ at the factory.

A. be the best engineer B. as the best engineer

C. by the president to be the best engineer D. as being the best engineer

28. Monica was so angry about the noise her neighbors were making that she refused to ______ it
anymore.

A. get away with B. run away with C. put up with D. cut down on

29. Linda: “I’ve got to go, Sasha.So long.” Sasha: “So long, Linda.And _______.”

A. don’t hurry B. be careful

C. take care D. don’t take it seriously

30. I ______ hope there won’t be a repetition of these unfortunate events.

A. bitterly B. sincerely C. unfailingly D. completely

31. Anna: “In my opinion, children always watch too much TV.” Tom: “_______.”

A. Completely B. Of course C. Totally D. Absolutely

32. There was _______ evidence to bring charges against the man.

A. ineffective B. inadvisable C. interior D. insufficient

33. If Michael ______ with his piano playing, he could even tually reach concert standard.

A. perseveres B. maintains C. survives D. sustains

34. After you have finished the _________, restart the computer to get it acquainted to the new
program.

A. installation B. install C. installment D. installing

35. _______ inventions such as video CD Rom and the Internet, it has been difficult for movie
theatres to turn a profit since the early 1970s.

A. Because of recent B. Since recent C. Recent D. The result of recent

36. It was costing us a thousand pounds a week to _____ a medium-sized ad in a daily paper. So we
decided to spend the money on other forms of advertising.

A. mark B. engage C. place D. draw up

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A. life B. strap C. bottom D. jingle

38. In 2004, it became illegal in the UK to advertise cigarettes in magazines and outdoors on

__________. Since then cigarettes have been advertised in other ways.

A. billboards B. wall boards C. signboards D. sideboards

39. Many companies use _______ placement to put items that they sell into famous movies. For
example in 'movie land' everybody uses Apple Computers whereas in real life most people use PCs.

A. merchandising B. hardware C. subliminal D. product

40. Our company has spent millions trying to give our brand of toilet cleaners a fashionable image
in the hope that younger households will buy ____ that image.

A. up B. into C. for D. with

41. She's read this book twice already. That's why it's so ______ .

A. smudged B. dusty C. dented D. dog-eared

42. Charlie doesn't have as much hair as he used to. He's got a receding hairline at the front and it's
________ on top.

A. shrinking B. thinning C. lightening D. weakening

43. Many companies use sponsorship of sporting events to gain increased ________ of their name
or brand.

A. sighting B. openness C. viewing D. exposure

44. New restaurants often try to attract customers by using _________ to homes in the surrounding
area.

A postal adverts B. mailshots C. mail flyers D. mailboxing

45. When I got back from my holiday, I opened the door to find a huge pile of ____ mail on the
doormat. A lot of it was advertising holidays.

A. ad B. bin C. junk D. promo

II. TỰ LUẬN KIẾN THỨC NGÔN NGỮ (1,5 điểm)
PART 1: WORD FORM (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)

Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the following sentences.

46. There can be no ………whatever for violence like this! (justify)

47. There has been widespread public ………with the Prime Minister’s
controversial new education policy.

(satisfy)

48. I’m sorry, but I find your remarks totally ………. (accept)

49. After my last ………attempt at making a cake, this time I think I’ll
just go and buy one.

(disaster)

50. The lack of women in senior government posts is a rather ………
issue at the moment.

(sense)

51. The ………effects of moderate amounts of red wine are well-known
to health professionals.

(benefit)

52. Jim is one of the most ………members of the committee. (speak)

53. This statue ………the soldiers who died in the war. (memory)

54. The troops were thoroughly ………by this set-back. (moral)

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Line Passage

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11

12
13
14

Man discovered fire many thousands years ago. The first time he saw fire was
probably when a tree was struck by lightning. He soon learned how to make fire for
himself. However man probably made his fire by rubbing two sticks each other. Fire was
very important to man. He needed fire to keep himself warm at night. He used fire to cook
his food. He used fire to frighten away enemies and wild animals. In some parts of the
world he used fire to signal messages. Red Indians, for example, used fire to do smoke
signals. In some other countries people lit fires to warn their friends of danger. Fire was
very also used to give light. Before the invention of oil lamp, men used burning sticks as
torches. And before man discovery gas and electricity, he hung small fires in wire baskets
from posts to light the streets. One man even used fire to tell the time. He invented a
candle clock. He made a candle that took exactly twelve hours burning. Then he marked
this candle in twelve equal parts. He lit the candle and could tell the time by counting the
number of parts left of the burning candle. But the candle clock did not always work well.
If there was a wind blowing on the candle, the flame burned too quick.

Line Error Correction

00. thousands  thousand

56. 

57. 

58. 

59. 

60. 

PART 3: PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)

Supply each space with a suitable preposition or adverbial particle to complete each of the
following sentences.

61. Is it possible to insure yourself ………nuclear attack?

62. “How can I discourage my boyfriend …...…trying to kiss me all the time?” “Eat plenty of garlic.”

63. Small children should be watched ………carefully.

64. Would you give up your country cottage ………a town flat?

65. He dropped the glass and it broke ………pieces.

66. It is vital that we bring ………a change in people's attitudes.

67. The secretary put me ………to the manager within a couple of minutes.

68. She refused to eat meat ………any circumstances

69. The noise of the airplanes taking …………from the airport over our house was unbearable at times.

70. They are going to tear ………those old warehouses to make way for a big new hotel.
KỸ NĂNG NGÔN NGỮ

PART 1: READING (2 pts - 0.1/ each)

Task 1: GUIDED CLOZE TEST

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The heart has long been considered to be (71) ________ feelings of love dwell. In love songs
throughout the ages, love almost always goes together (72) ________ the heart. The heart has
continuously been viewed (73) ________ the place where love begins and develops. Even the Bible
gives (74) ________ to love and the heart. The role of the heart in love must come from what
happens to it when a person feels strongly (75) ________ to someone. The strong feelings (76)

________ the other person, especially in the early stages of a relationship, have the results that the
heart starts beating faster and breathing starts speeding (77) ________ According to psychologists, a
love relationship is a situation that (78) ________ a lot of stress and the body reacts to this by
getting ready to face the unknown. This has been called the "fight or flight" (79) ________, meeting
danger by fighting it or running away. So with love, the heart accelerates and (80) ________
becomes quick.

71. A. when B. where C. that D. what

72. A. to B. from C. with D. at

73. A. like B. as though C. as D. as if

74. A. reference B. citation C. preference D. quote

75. A. attracting B. attractive C. attract D. attracted

76. A. of B. for C. to D. with

77. A. up B. forward C. on D. upon

78. A. comprises B. arouses C. involves D. includes

79. A. reactionary B. reactor C. reaction D. reacting

80. A. exhaling B. breathing C. inhaling D. sweating
Task 2: READING COMPREHENSION

Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question below.

Most human diets contain between 10 and 15 percent of their total calories as protein. The rest
of the dietary energy conies from carbohydrates, fats, and in some people, alcohol.The proportion of
calories from fats varies from 10 percent in poor communities to 40 percent or more in rich
communities.

In addition to providing energy, fats have several other functions in the body. The fat-soluble
vitamins, A, D, E, and K, are dissolved in fats, as their name implies. Good sources of these
vitamins have high oil or fat content, and the vitamins are stored in the body’s fatty tissues. In the
diet, fats cause food to remain longer in the stomach, thus increasing the feeling of fullness for some
time after a meal is eaten. Fats add variety, taste, and texture to foods, which accounts for the
popularity of fried foods. Fatty deposits in the body have an insulating and protective value. The
curves of the human female body are due mostly to strategically located fat deposits.

Whether a certain amount of fat in the diet is essential to human health is not definitely
known. When rats are fed a fat-free diet, their growth eventually ceases, their skin becomes
inflamed and scaly, and their reproductive systems are damaged.Two fatty acids,linoleic and
arachidonic acids, prevent these abnormalities and hence are called eseential fatty acids.They also
are required by a number of other animals, but their roles in human beings are debatable. Most
nutritionists consider linoleic fatty acid an essential nutrient for humans.

81. This passage probably appeared in which of the following?

A. A diet book B. A book on basic nutrition

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82. We can infer from the passage that all of the following statements about fats are true EXCEPT

A. fats provide energy for the body

B. economics influences the distribution of calorie intake

C. poor people eat more fatty foods

D. alcohol is not a common source of dietary energy

83. The word “functions” in line 5 is closest in meaning to ________.

A. forms B. needs C. jobs D. sources

84. The phrase “stored in” in line 7 is closest in meaning to________.

A. manufactured in B. attached to C. measured by D. accumulated in

85. The author states that fats serve all of the following body functions EXCEPT to________.

A. promote a feeling of fullness B. insulate and protect the body

C. provide energy D. control weight gain

86. The word “essential to” in line 12 is closest in meaning to________.

A. required for B. desired for C. detrimental to D. beneficial to

87. According to the author of the passage, which of the following is true for rats when they are fed
a fat free diet?

A. They stop growing B. They have more babies

C. They lose body hair D. They require less care

88. Linoleic fatty acid is mentioned in the passage as________.

A. an essential nutrient for humans B. more useful than arachidonic acid

C. preventing weight gain in rats D. a nutrient found in most foods

89. The phrase “these abnormalities” in line 15 refer to________.

A. a condition caused by fried foods

B. strategically located fat deposits

C. curves on the human female body

D. cessation of growth, bad skin, and damaged reproductive systems

90. That humans should all have some fat our diet is, according to the author, ________.

A. a commonly held view B. not yet a proven fact

C. only true for women D. proven to be true by experiments in rats
PART 2: WRITING (2 pts– 0.2/ each)

Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that their meanings remain unchanged, 
using the words given.

91. Although it rain torrentially all day, we all enjoyed the excursion.

 Despite ...

92. As he grew older, he became more and more forgetful.

 The older ...

93. I must have my suit cleaned before the interview.

 My suit needs ...

94. It was such a boring film that we left before the end.

 The film ...

95. We couldn’t drive because of the fog.

 The fog prevented ...

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 I'd ...

97. I wish I hadn't bought that expensive watch! (buying)

 I ...

98. The boss wouldn't object to you going early today. (objection)

 The boss would not ...

99. You should use the sports facilities available here. (advantage)

 We advise you ...

100. Why is there never any orange juice left when I want some? (run)

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ THI SỐ 08

(Đề thi này gồm có 08 trang)

KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 
NĂM HỌC 2018-2019

ĐỀ THI MÔN tiếngAnh (Chuyên)

Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút Ngày thi: ………../2018

---A. LISTENING (1 pt)

Part 1. You will hear the writer, Holly Boland, talking about her books and her interest in 
nature and wildlife. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B or C.

1. What made Holly start writing when she was young?

A. keeping a diary each day

B. wanting to remember her dreams

C. completing a homework project

2. Holly tells the story about the starfish to show

A. how to keep wild animals at home.

B. how to enjoy wildlife with out hurting it.

C. how to find the most interesting animals in the wild.

3. What does Holly think is the most interesting thing about nature?

A. that animals live so close to us

B. that there is so much to learn

C. that nature is so beautiful

4. What does Holly say about trees?

A. They have lots of uses. B. They are everywhere. C. They are often unnoticed.

5. Holly hopes that her young readers

A. learn how to discover nature for them selves.

B. im prove their general reading skills.

C. go on to study nature at college or university.

Part 2. You will hear a recorded message about a competition. For each question, fill in the m 
issing information in the numbered space.

Competition
Type of competition: Painting

Date to send in paintings: (6)………

Prize: Winners will have their paintings shown at the School of Arts.
Number of entries last year: (7)………

Look online at www.youngpainter.org to see winning paintings from last year.
Topic for this year's competition: The (8)………

Here are some ideas:

• my world - my family, my home
• inventions -travel, robots

• issues - global warming, pollution

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Goto www.youngpainter.org to download:
• all entry information

• a (10) ………to complete and send in with the painting
Or call 01748 338294 to order an inform ation pack.

Special workshop for schools:

with artist Barry Wells from Australia, learn to draw cartoons
I. TRẮC NGHIỆM NGÔN NGỮ (3,5 điểm)

PART 1: PHONETICS (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)

Task 1: Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently from 
that of the rest in each o f the following questions.

11. A. amuses B. purses C. blouses D. pleases

12. A. south B. southern C. scout D. drought

Task 2: Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose main stress pattern is different from that of the 
rest in each of the following questions.

13. A. example B. continue C. sensible D. contestant

14. A. constant B. magnetic C. sensitive D. atmosphere

15. A. adverb B. advent C. addict D. adventure
PART 2: LANGUAGE FUNCTION (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the following exchanges.

16.Mary: “Would you mind if I use your computer for an hour?” Tony: "________.”

A. Not at all. I've finished my job B. Yes, you can use it

C. Of course not. I still need it now D. Yes. It’s all right.

17.Tom: "Do you think it's going to rain?” - Trump: "________.”

A. I don't hope so B. I don't hope so

C. I hope not D. I think not

18. - Laura: “What shall we do this evening? - Annie: "________.”

A. I went out for dinner. B. Oh, that’s bad!

C. No problem D. Let’s go out for dinner.

19. - Kathy: “Make yourself at home” – Jim: "________.”

A. Yes. Can I help you? B. Not at all. Don’t mention it.

C. That’s very kind. Thank you. D. Thanks! Same to you.

20. Boss: “Have you been able to reach that customer?” Secretary: “________.”

A. Oh, there’s no approval B. Yes, I have known him for 6 years

C. It’s much too high to reach D. Oh, no. The line’s busy
PART 3: SYNONYM AND ANTONYM (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)

Task 1: Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is CLOSEST in meaning to the 
underlined part in each of the following sentences.

21. The shop assistant was totally bewildered by the customer's behavior.

A. disgusted B. puzzled C. angry D. upset

22. He didn't bat an eyelid when he realized he failed the exam again.

A. wasn't happy B. didn't want to see C. didn't show surprise D. didn't care

23. Ralph Nader was the most prominent leader of the U.S consumer protection movement.

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Task 2: Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the 
underlined part in each of the following sentences.

24. The International Organizations are going to be in a temporary way in the country.

A. soak B. permanent C. complicated D. guess

25. The US troops are using much more sophisticated weapons in the Far East.

A. expensive B. complicated

C. simple and easy to use D. difficult to operate
PART 4: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (2.0 pts - 0.1/ each)

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the following sentences.

26. She looked very______ when I told her the good news.

A. happily B. happiness C. happy D. was happy

27. I don't want much sugar in my coffee. Just_______, please.

A. few B. a few C. little D. a little

28. He's left his book at home; he's always so______.

A. forgetful B. forgettable C. forgotten D. forgetting

29. 'I'm very ______ to you for putting in so much hard work,' the boss said.

A. thanking B. grateful C. considerate D. careful

30. Steel_______ with chromium to produce a noncorrosive substance known as stainless steel.

A. is combined B. that is combined C. combining D. when combined

31. Joe seemed to be in a good mood, _____ he snapped at me angrily when I asked him to join us.

A. yet B. so C. for D. and

32. A fire must have a readily available supply of oxygen. ________, it will stop burning.

A. Consequently B. Furthermore C. Otherwise D. However

33. “Who has brothers and sisters?” “Everyone ________Virginia who’s an only child.”

A. except to B. with C. from D. but

34. He is the manager of the factory. He’s ________it.

A. charged with B. charged C. in charge D. in charge of

35. He was new on the job, but he quickly fit himself into the ________ routine of the office.

A. establishing B. established C. establishes D. establish

36. Parents should be very careful with their baby’s ______ skin.

A. pretty B. delicate C. sensible D. sweat

37. It was felt that the new bonus for increased production would provide an ______ to work
overtime.

A. incitement B. attraction C. initiative D. incentive

38. The biggest advantage is that the shops are within easy _______.

A. touch B. contact C. access D. reach

39. Language can change the _______of history and affect the behaviour of people.

A. route B. way C. course D. direction

40. John really ought to lose some weight. He ________ very heavily during the walk yesterday.

A. should have breathed B. was breathing

C. had breathed D. had been breathing

41. Harry’s so _______! I wish he’d think things through a little more carefully.

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42. I’d rather you _______ the deal in writing by the end of next week.

A. confirmed B. have confirmed C. had confirmed D. confirm

43. Unfortunately, not all of us obtain our just ______ in this life.

A. demands B. deserts C. gains D. wins

44. In order to be successful in business, you’ve got to be able to _______ the competition.

A. outreach B. outstand C. outwit D. output

45. Mr Brown has kindly agreed to spare us some of his ______ time to answer our questions.

A. valuable B. worthy C. costly D. beneficial
II. TỰ LUẬN KIẾN THỨC NGÔN NGỮ (1,5 điểm)

PART 1: WORD FORM (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)

Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the following sentences.

46. Eating fish and lots of vegetables greatly increases your life ……….. EXPECT

47. There is too much ……….in this movie. VIOLENT

48. Dolphins sometimes are killed when they are ……….entrapped in
fishing nets.

ACCIDENT

49. It is a good book because it is very ……….. INFORM

50. Third time lucky! After two ……….attempts, Mark’s finally passed
his driving test.

SUCCEED

51. He’s so nice. It’s a ……….working for him. PLEASE

52. One disadvantage of the Internet is that it takes time away from ……….
such as watching TV and reading.

ACT

53. He is behaving in a very……….way. MYSTERY

54. My teacher is very ……….about the history of Vietnam. KNOW

55. Don’t eat that fruit. It is ……….. POISON
PART 2: ERROR CORRECTION (0.5 pts – 0.1/ each)

Line Passage

1
2
3

4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12

A NOBLE GIFT

One of the most famous monument in the world, the Statute of Liberty, was presented to
the United States of America in the nineteenth century by the people of France. The great
statute, which was design by the sculptor Auguste Bartholdi, took ten years to complete.
The actual figure was made into copper supported by a metal framework which had been
especially constructed by Eiffel. Before it could be transported to the United States, a site
had to be found for it and a pedestal had to be built. The site chosen was an island at the
entrance of New York Harbour. By 1884, a statute which was 151 feet height, had been
erected in Paris. The following year, it was taken to pieces and sent to America. By the
end of October 1886, the statute had been put together again and it was official presented
to the American people by Bartholdi. Ever since then, the great monument has been a
symbol of liberty for million of people who have passed through New York Harbour to
make their home in America.

Line Error Correction

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56. 

57. 

58. 

59. 

60. 

PART 3: PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)

Supply each space with a suitable preposition or adverbial particle to complete each of the
following sentences.

61. I must go to the bank because I've run ……….of cash.

62. A gang of terrorists burned ……….the embassy with a petrol bomb.

63. It was such a good book that I got ……….it in one evening.

64. My younger brother broke ……….my money box and stole my savings.

65. Bandits held ……….the bus and robbed the passengers.

66. The firefighters fought the blaze while the crowd looked ………..

67. And when we get into town, we can head straight ……….the first bank we see.

68. The sniper picked ……….the enemy troops one by one till they were all dead.

69. Don't worry about the argument you had with your sister. It will soonblow………..

70. John takes……….his mother in many ways. They are very similar.
KỸ NĂNG NGÔN NGỮ

PART 1: READING (2 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: GUIDED CLOZE TEST

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits each blank in the following passage.
All life is sound. We are constantly surrounded by sounds and noises (71) ________ by
nature and everything in it. For thousands of years man has been speaking and singing, and (72)

________ his wonderfully constructed ear, perceiving sounds and noises, although they are but a
small part of the inconceivable wealth of sounds filling the universe. Children everywhere and
without (73) ________ are born with musical abilities with voices, and with hearing. The difference
lies (74) ________ in what they do with these gifts. That (75) ________ according to temperament
upbringing nationality, and time. Nature itself is full of sound, full of music. Musical sounds existed
millions of years before there was a human ear to hear (76) ________ the soft bubbling of the water,
the roll of thunder, the whistling and rustling of leaves in the wind and (77) ________ knows how
many other audible manifestations of nature. Man was born (78) ________ a world of sound.
Thunder filled him with fear and became a symbol of supernatural (79) ________. In the roar of the
wind he heard the voices of demons. Dwellers at the seashore (80) ________ the temper of the gods
by the sound of the waves. Religious rites and music were inseparable at the dawn of humanity.

71. A. found B. heard C. produced D. existing

72. A. thanks to B. based on C. in spite of D. without

73. A. exception B. consideration C. doubt D. preparation

74. A. absolutely B. merely C. especially D. suddenly

75. A. depends B. forms C. varies D. differentiates

76. A. them B. it C. all D. from

77. A. he B. someone C. who D. everyone

78. A. with B. from C. in D. into

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80. A. terrified B. touched C. judged D. heard
Task 2: READING COMPREHENSION

Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question below.

Ocean water plays an indispensable role in supporting life. The great ocean basins hold about 300
million cubic miles of water. From this vast amount, about 80,000 cubic miles of water are sucked
into the atmosphere each year by evaporation and returned by precipitation and drainage to the
ocean. More than 24,000 cubic miles of rain descend annually upon the continents. This vast
amount is required to replenish the lakes and streams, springs and water tables on which all flora
and fauna are dependent. Thus, the hydrosphere permits organic existence.

The hydrosphere has strange characteristics because water has properties unlike those of any
other liquid. One anomaly is that water upon freezing expands by about 9 percent, whereas most
liquids contract on cooling. For this reason, ice floats on water bodies instead of sinking to the
bottom. If the ice sank, the hydrosphere would soon be frozen solidly, except for a thin layer of
surface melt water during the summer season. Thus, all aquatic life would be destroyed and the
interchange of warm and cold currents, which moderates climate, would be notably absent.

Another outstanding characteristic of water is that water has a heat capacity which is the highest
of all liquids and solids except ammonia. This characteristic enables the oceans to absorb and store
vast quantities of heat, thereby often preventing climatic extremes. In addition, water dissolves more

substances than any other liquid. It is this characteristic that helps make oceans a great storehouse
for minerals which have been washed down from the continents. In several areas of the world these
minerals are being commercially exploited. Solar evaporation of salt is widely practiced, potash is
extracted from the Dead Sea, and magnesium is produced from sea water along the American Gulf
Coast.

81. The author's main purpose in this passage is to .

A.describe the properties and uses of water

B. illustrate the importance of conserving water

C. explain how water is used in commerce and industry

D. compare water with other liquids

82. The phrase "This vast amount" in line 4 refers to .

A. 300 million cubic miles of water B. 80,000 million cubic of water

C. 80,000 cubic miles of water D.24,000 cubic miles of rain

83. The word "replenish" can best be replaced by .

A.fill again B. replace C. evaporate D. form

84. According to the passage, fish can survive in the oceans because .

A. they do not need oxygen

B.ice floats

C. evaporation and condensation create a water cycle

D. there are currents in the ocean

85. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of water?

A. Water expands when it is frozen. B. Water is a good solvent.

C. Water can absorb heat. D.Water contracts on cooling.

86. The word "outstanding" is closest in meaning to .

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87. According to the passage, the hydrosphere is NOT .

A. responsible for all forms of life B. that part of the earth covered by water

C. a source of natural resources D.in danger of freezing water

88. The author's tone in the passage can best be described as .

A. dogmatic B.dispassionate C. speculative D. biased

89. The author organizes the passage by .

A. comparison and contrast B. juxtaposition of true and untrue ideas

C.general statements followed by examples D. hypothesis and proof

90. Which of the following statements would be most likely to begin the paragraph immediately
following the passage?

A.Water has the ability to erode land.

B. Magnesium is widely used in metallurgical processes.

C. Another remarkably property of ice is its strength.

D. Drought and flooding are two types of disasters associated with water.
PART 2: WRITING (2 pts)

Task 1: SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (2.0 pt – 0.2/ each)

Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that their meanings remain unchanged, 
using the words given.

91. We couldn’t get nearer because of the police.

 The police ...

92. Somebody repaired her car yesterday.

 She...

93. I'm on the fifth page of the letter I'm writing.

 So far ...

94. I only recognized him when he came into the room

 It ...

95. Thanks to Lan’s help, I was able to finish the project.

 Had ...

96. Could you take me to the station in your car, please? (lift)

 Would you mind ...

97. 'I'll drive Tim to the airport,' Martin insisted. (insisted)

 Martin ...

98. I don't understand why Bob's going to study science. (sense)

 It doesn't ...

99. There's no way Bethany will resign from her job. (intention)

 Bethany ...

100. I didn't take a picture of that bird before it flew away, and now I regret it! (should)

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ THI SỐ 09

(Đề thi này gồm có 08 trang)

KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 NĂM HỌC 2018 - 2019
ĐỀ THI MÔN tiếng Anh (Chuyên)

Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút Ngày thi: ………../2018

---A. LISTENING (1 pt)

Part 1. You will hear an interview with a singer called Nick Parker who plays in a band called 
Krispy with his sister Mel. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B or C.

1. When Nick and Mel were younger_______.

A. they studied music at school.

B. their father took them to live concerts.

C. their mother encouraged them to play music.

2. When Nick and Mel started writing music together, they _______.

A. disagreed about the style they should have.

B. didn't want to be the same as other bands.

C. were influenced by different kinds of music.

3. The band Krispy was started after_______.

A. Nick began studying at music school.

B. two other musicians heard Nick and Mel playing.

C. Nick and Mel advertised for the band members.

4. In the band’s first year together_______.

A. concert audiences liked their music.

B. they signed a recording contract.

C. their national tour was very successful.

5. What does Nick say about life in the band today?

A. The older members look after him and Mel.

B. He’s pleased to have the chance to travel.

C. There’s no opportunity for them to relax together.

Part 2. You will hear a man called Ben from a young people’s organization telling a youth 
group about a course they can do on Saturdays. For each question, fill in the missing 
information in the numbered space.

SATURDAY COURSE
Name of Ben’s organization: Nature

Aim of course: Discovering (6)………..

Closest course location for this group: (7)………..
Length of course: (8)………..weeks

Examples of activities we will do:
• Learn how to climb

• Cut up wood

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• Design a (10)………..to take home.
I. TRẮC NGHIỆM NGÔN NGỮ (3,5 điểm)
PART 1: PHONETICS (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)

Task 1: Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently from
that of the rest in each o f the following questions.

11. A. dressed B. dropped C. matched D. hatred

12. A. walk B. call C. take D. talk

Task 2: Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose main stress pattern is different from that o f the
rest in each of the following questions.

13. A. possible B. cultural C. confident D. supportive

14. A. office B. nature C. result D. farmer

15. A. reservation B. communicate C. dictation D. occasion
PART 2: LANGUAGE FUNCTION (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the following exchanges.

16. Tom: "Do you think it's going to rain?” - Trump: "________.”

A. absolutely B. I don't hope so

C. I hope not D. I think not

17. - Laura: “What shall we do this evening? - Annie: "________.”

A. I went out for dinner. B. Oh, that’s bad!

C. No problem D. Let’s go out for dinner.

18. - Kathy: “Make yourself at home” – Jim: "________.”

A. Yes. Can I help you? B. Not at all. Don’t mention it.

C. That’s very kind. Thank you. D. Thanks! Same to you.

19. - John: “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our environment?”
- Laura: "________.”

A. Yes, it’s an absurd idea. B. There’s no doubt about it.

C. Of course not. You bet. D. Well, that’s very surprising.

20. - Jane: “Tom’s the best singer in our school.”- Mary: "________.”

A. Yes, tell me about it! B. That’s OK!

C. I can’t agree with you more! D. Yes, please.
PART 3: SYNONYM AND ANTONYM (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)

Task 1: Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is CLOSEST in meaning to the 
underlined part in each of the following sentences.

21. As a government official, Benjamin Franklin often traveled abroad.

A. widely B. secretly C. alone D. overseas

22. American poet James Merrily received critical acclaim for his work entitled Jim's Book.

A. advice B. disapproval C. praise D. attention

23. The lost hikers stayed alive by eating wild berries and drinking spring water.

A. connived B. survived C. surprised D. revived

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24. The rocket steepened its ascent.

A. descent B. decent C. decant D. dissent

25. The plane landed safely.

A. touched down B. took off C. switched off D. set off
PART 4: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (2.0 pts - 0.1/ each)

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the following sentences.

26. It is not always easy to make a good ______ at the last minute.

A. decide B. decision C. decisive D. decisively

27. More and more investors are pouring ______ money into food and beverage start-ups.

A. an B. the C. Ø D. a

28. A survey was ______ to study the effects of smoking on young adults.

A. commented B. filled C. conducted D. carried

29. The better the weather is, ______.

A. the most crowded the beaches get B. the most the beaches get crowded

C. the more crowded the beaches get D. the more the beaches get crowded

30. The book ______ you gave me is very interesting.

A. when B. which C. who D. where

31. The ______ of the Internet has played an important part in the development of
communication.

A. research B. occurrence C. invention D. display

32. When the manager of our company retires, the deputy manager will ______ that position.

A. stand for B. take over C. catch on D. hold on

33. He was a great athlete when he was younger. He now stll ________ if he hadn't had that accident.

A. would have been B. had been C. will be D. would be

34. Paul has just sold his ______ car and intends to buy a new one.

A. black old Japanese B. Japanese old black C. old black JapaneseD. old Japanese black

35. You ______ use your mobile phone during the test. It's against the rules.

A. mightn't B. mustn't C. oughtn't D. needn't

36. A university degree is considered to be a ______ for entry into most professions.

A. demand B. requisite C. claim D. request

37. I'm not sure, but Tony ______ probably get that demanding job.

A. must B. need C. ought D. might

38. They were among the first companies to exploit the ______ of the Internet.

A. potential B. prospect C. possibility D. ability

39. Thanks to her father's encouragement, she has made great ______ in her study.

A. standard B. development C. contribution D. progress

40. If you think you are right, then________. Don't let him bully you into changing your mind.

A. stand your ground B. hit it off C. kick the bucket D. give the green light

41. The people ______ live in this village are very friendly.

A. who B. where C. which D. when

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A. occasion B. chance C. intention D. purpose

43. I am not used to the cold weather here, so I need to have a heating system ______.

A. installed B. serviced C. developed D. repaired

44. Travelling to ______ countries in the world enables me to learn many interesting things.

A. differ B. difference C. differently D. different

45. Peter is disappointed at not getting the job, but he will ______ it soon.

A. take on B. get over C. go through D. come over
II. TỰ LUẬN KIẾN THỨC NGÔN NGỮ (1,5 điểm)

PART 1: WORD FORM (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)

Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the following sentences.

46. Tim is one of the ………..on a boat trip on Lake Michigan. PARTICIPATE

47. Vitamin C increases the ………..of iron from food. ABSORB

48. The players were ………..by the referee’s decision. FURY

49. If you are sweating a lot you should wear an ………... ODOUR

50. They executed Russia’s ………..family in 1918. EMPIRE

51. The window-dresser has arranged the clothes very ………..in the
windows of the department store.

ART

52. She scooped up a(n) ………..of sand and let it truckle through her
fingers.

HAND

53. It is ………..for companies to provide details of their industrial
processes.

OBLIGE

54. The seller usually pays a commission to the ………..or auction
company based on a percentage of the final sale price.

AUCTION

55. The main ………..of pension equality so far have been men. BENEFIT
PART 2: ERROR CORRECTION (0.5 pts – 0.1/ each)

There are 05 errors in the following passage. Identify the errors, write the line number and
correct them. Write your answers in the numbered spaces below. Number (00.) is done as an

example.

ERROR IN A PASSAGE 05

Line Passage

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10

Computers are now very usefully and important for people all over the world.
Computers have been in use widely in Vietnam nowadays and they completely changed
the face of Vietnam. Computers have contributed greatly for the modernization of
Vietnam. With the help of computers, we can communicate with people thousands of
kilometers away in a second. We can know the information on science and technology,
medicine or education not only in our country but so in other countries very quickly.
Accounting tasks took a person the whole day calculating but they can be accomplished in
a very short time. Some universities without libraries have recently opened in the USA
and Singapore. All information normally found in libraries is now store in the
universities’ computers. Students can send and receive messages by used computers.
Computers are wonderful. They can help us save time.

Line Error Correction

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56. 

57. 

58. 

59. 

60. 

PART 3: PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)

Supply each space with a suitable preposition or adverbial particle to complete each of the
following sentences.

61. Decorating the house all day has worn me ……….

62. Many athletes use steroids to build themselves ……….

63. In this snow and ice, it's so easy to fall ……….

64. She wasn't interested in his money. In fact, she fell ………his sense of humour.

65. If you see Jane tomorrow, pass ………my best wishes to her for her new baby.

66. Before the ship could move ………, the crew had to wait for a late passenger.

67. The doctor was called ………urgently while at the party.

68. He came ………a lot of money when his rich French uncle died a couple of years ago.

69. All dogs are thought to have evolved ………wolves.

70. Business was so bad that they had to close ………two factories.
KỸ NĂNG NGÔN NGỮ

PART 1: READING (2 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: GUIDED CLOZE TEST

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits each blank in the following passage.
LEARNING TO MAKE A PERFECT PIZZA

According to the European Pizza-Makers’ Association, making a good pizza is not a
straightforward skill to learn. The ingredients seem very simple: flour, yeast, water and a bit of salt.
However, water and flour can easily turn into a rather unappetizing gluey mix, and anyone who has
eaten a (71) ________ quality pizza will know how bad it can make your stomach (72) ________ “In
Italy, 70 per cent of pizza makers could improve on their product, not to (73) ________ all the pizza
makers around the world who (74) ________uneatable meals,” says Antonio Primiceri, the
Association’s founder. He has now started a pizza school in an attempt to (75) ________the
reputation of this traditional dish. As part of an (76) ________course, the students at Mr Primiceri’s
school are taught to (77) ________common mistakes, produce a good basic mixture, add a tasty
topping and cook the pizza properly. “Test the finished pizza by breaking the crust,” advises Mr
Primiceri. “If the soft (78) ________inside the pizza is white, clean and dry, it’s a good pizza. If it is
not like this, the pizza will (79) ________your stomach. You will feel (80) ________full and also
thirsty.

71. A. sad B. poor C. short D. weak

72. A. sense B. do C. feel D. be

73. A. mention B. state C. remark D. tell

74. A. submit B. give C. deal D. provide

75. A. save B. hold C. deliver D. return

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77. A. pass B. escape C. miss D. avoid

78. A. spot B. part C. side D. slice

79. A. worry B. upset C. ache D. depress

80. A. discouragingly B. tightly C. uncomfortably D. heavily
Task 2: READING COMPREHENSION

Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question below.

The history of clinical nutrition, or the study of the relationship between health and how the
body takes in and utilizes food substances, can be divided into four distinct eras: the first began in
the nineteenth century and extended into the early twentieth century when it was recognized for the
first time that food contained constituents that were essential for human function and that different
foods provided different amounts of these essential agents. Near the end of this era, research studies
demonstrated that rapid weight loss was associated with nitrogen imbalance and could only be
rectified by providing adequate dietary protein associated with certain foods.

The second era was initiated in the early decades of the twentieth century and might be called
"the vitamin period. "Vitamins came to be recognized in foods, and deficiency syndromes were
described. As vitamins became recognized as essential food constituents necessary for health, it
became tempting to suggest that every disease and condition for which there had been no previous

effective treatment might be responsive to vitamin therapy. At that point in time, medical schools
started to become more interested in having their curricula integrate nutritional concepts into the
basic sciences. Much of the focus of this education was on the recognition of deficiency symptoms.
Herein lay the beginning of what ultimately turned from ignorance to denial of the value of
nutritional therapies in medicine. Reckless claims were made for effects of vitamins that went far
beyond what could actually be achieved from the use of them.

In the third era of nutritional history in the early 1950's to mid-1960's, vitamin therapy began
to fall into disrepute. Concomitant with this, nutrition education in medical schools also became
less popular. It was just a decade before this that many drug companies had found their vitamin
sales skyrocketing and were quick to supply practicing physicians with generous samples of
vitamins and literature extolling the virtue of supplementation for a variety of health-related
conditions. Expectations as to the success of vitamins in disease control were exaggerated. As is
known in retrospect, vitamin and mineral therapies are much less effective when applied to
health-crisis conditions than when applied to long-term problems of under nutrition that lead to chronic
health problems.

81. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A.The stages of development of clinical nutrition as a field of study

B.The history of food preferences from the nineteenth century to the present

C.The effects of vitamins on the human body

D.Nutritional practices of the nineteenth century

82. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following discoveries was made during the
first era in the history of nutrition?

A.Certain foods were found to be harmful to good health.

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C.Effective techniques of weight loss were determined.

D.Protein was recognized as an essential component of diet.

83.The word "tempting" is closest in meaning to ________.

A.realistic B.necessary C.correct D.attractive

84.It can be inferred from the passage that medical schools began to teach concepts of nutrition in
order to ________.

A.encourage medical doctors to apply concepts of nutrition in the treatment of disease

B.support the creation of artificial vitamins

C.convince doctors to conduct experimental vitamin therapies on their patients

D.convince medical doctors to participate in research studies on nutrition

85.The word "Reckless" is closest in meaning to________.

A.recorded B.irresponsible C.informative D.urgent

86.The word "them" refers to

A.effects B.vitamins C.claims D.therapies

87.Why did vitamin therapy begin losing favor in the 1950's?

A.Medical schools stopped teaching nutritional concepts

B.Nutritional research was of poor quality

C.The public lost interest in vitamins

D.Claims for the effectiveness of vitamin therapy were seen to be exaggerated.

88.The phrase "concomitant with" is closest in meaning to ________.

A.in dispute with B.prior to C.in conjunction with D.in regard to

89.The word "skyrocketing" is closest in meaning to ________.

A.internationally popular B.increasing rapidly

C.surprising D.acceptable

90.The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses ________.

A.Why nutrition education lost its appeal B.Problems associated with undernutrition

C.The fourth era of nutrition history D.How drug companies became successful
PART 2: WRITING (2 pts)

Task 1: SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (2.0 pt – 0.2/ each)

Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that their meanings remain unchanged, using 
the words given.

91. Richard only took over the family business because his father decided to retire early.

 But for his ...

92. Phuong works more efficiently if she’s pressed for time.

 The less ...

93. You may be smart, but you must be educated to become an overall successful person.

 Smart ...

94. “Mum, please don’t tell dad about my mistake,” the boy said.

 The boy begged ...

95. “You shouldn’t have leaked our confidential report to the press, Frank!” said Jane.

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96. I can't find the answer without a calculator. (out)

 I can't ...

97. My friend took no notice of my advice. (deaf)

 My friend ...

98. These two makes of computer are practically the same. (hardly)

 There ...

99. His smooth manner didn't deceive us. (taken)

 We were ...

100. Everyone who spoke to the victim is a suspect. (under)

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ THI SỐ 10

(Đề thi này gồm có 08 trang)

KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 
NĂM HỌC 2018-2019

ĐỀ THI MÔN tiếng Anh (Chuyên)

Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút Ngày thi: ………../2018

---A. LISTENING (1 pt)

Part 1. You will hear an interview with a teenager called Simon about going to an indoor 
climbing centre that has a climbing wall. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B or
C.

1. Simon’s mum decided to take him to the climbing centre because _______.

A. she had enjoyed going there.

B. her friends had recommended it.

C. Simon had been there with his school.

2. Before he went to the centre, Simon was _______.

A. worried about going climbing there.

B. interested in seeing the climbing wall.

C. disappointed to hear it was all indoors.

3. Simon says that at the centre there were _______.

A. lots of people when it opened.

B. many different types of people.

C. no other people his age.

4. What did Simon think about the climbing wall?

A. He thought it looked very high.

B. He was afraid he might fall.

C. He found the foot holes helpful.

5. Why was Simon unhappy with his first climb?

A. He was slower than everyone else.

B. He found it hurt his arms.

C. He didn’t get to the top.

Part 2. You will hear a girl called Hannah talking about her family’s champion horse called 
Griffon. For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space.

Griffon the Horse

The international horse show will be held in the month of March just after Hannah’s birthday.
The family will travel from Poland to the horse show in (6) ………...

The person who will ride Griffon round rhe ring in the international show is Hannah’s (7) ……….
Two weeks ago Griffon won some (8) ………...as a prize.

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When Griffon wins a competition, he is given some (10) ………...by the family.
PART 1: PHONETICS (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)

Task 1: Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently from
that of the rest in each o f the following questions.

11. A. naked B. sacred C. needed D. walked

12. A. divisible B. design C. disease D. excursion

Task 2: Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose main stress pattern is different from that o f 
the

rest in each of the following questions.

13. A. proportion B. national C. tutorial D. conclusion

14. A. discussion B. appointment C. character D. important

15. A. mathematician B. agricultural C. international D. university
PART 2: LANGUAGE FUNCTION (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the following exchanges.

16. Susan accidentally stepped on Denise’s foot.

~Susan: “Oops! I’m sorry, Denise.” ~Denise: "________.”

A. You shouldn’t do that. B. It’s alright.

C. You are welcome. D. It’s nonsense.

17. Mai and Nam are talking about the cell phone that Nam has just bought.
~Mai: “Wow, I’ve never seen such a nice cell phone, Nam” ~Nam: "________.”

A. Oh, I don’t know. B. Thank you. I’m glad you like it.

C. You’re welcome. D. I agree with you.

18. Charlie Puth and Selena are talking about their summer plan.

Charlie Puth: - “Would you like to join our volunteer group this summer?” - Selena: "________.”

A. Do you think I would? B. I wouldn’t. Thank you.

C. Yes, you’re a good friend. D. Yes, I’d love to. Thanks.

19. John is helping Mary to prepare for her coming presentation.

John: “Don’t you need this note for your presentation?” Mary: - "________.”

A.Thanks, I almost forgot about it B. Actually, there was nobody present

C. No, I didn’t take notes during the speech D. You can say that again.

20. George and Frankie are talking about their hobbies.

George: “In my opinion films are exciting”. Frankie: "________.”

A. Your opinion is exactly C. What are opinion!

B. Yes, you can do it D. There’s no doubt about it.
PART 3: SYNONYM AND ANTONYM (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)

Task 1: Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is CLOSEST in meaning to the 
underlined part in each of the following sentences.

21. The organization has the authority to manage and regulate new and existing free trade

agreements, to supervise world trade practices and to settle trade disputes among member states.

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22. With its various activities, the Camp has set up a stronger regional identity by raising youth’s
awareness of Southeast Asia’s history and heritage.

A. heredity B. tradition C. endowment D. bequest

23. All the presentations and activities at the ASEAN Youth in January 2006 Camp echoed that 
theme named “Water and the Arts”.

A. reflected B. mentioned C. illustrated D. remembered
Task 2: Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the 
underlined part in each of the following sentences.

24. We offer a speedy and secure service of transferring money in less than 24 hours.

A. uninterested B. unsure C. slow D. open

25. There is growing concern about the way man has destroyed the environment.

A. ease B. attraction C. consideration D. speculation
PART 4: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (2.0 pts - 0.1/ each)

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the following sentences.

26. Neil Armstrong was the first person________ foot on the moon.

A. set B. setting C. to set D. who was set

27. Only when you become a parent________ what true responsibility is.

A. you will understand B. don’t you understand

C. will you understand D. would you understand

28. Toxic chemicals in the air and land may drive many species to the________ of extinction.

A. edge B. border C. circumstance D. verge

29. Jack has decided to________ the time he spends watching television.

A. come up with B. cut down on C. run out of D. make up for

30. Women in the past were________ dependent on their husbands and fathers

A. economic B. economically C. economical D. economy

31. So many________ people applied for the position that we won’t be able to make a decision for
weeks.

A. well-qualified B. well-behaved C. well-known D. well-mannered

32. The reviewer ________ Mathew's new novel as a new style of modern science fiction.

A. chewed B. digested C. described D. drew

33. If it's raining tomorrow afternoon, we'll have to ________ the match till next Sunday.

A. put out B. put off C. put up D. put away

34. It was so foggy that the climbers couldn't ________ the nearest shelter.

A. make out B. break out C. take out D. run out

35. When you are an old age pensioner, you have to learn to ________ a very small income.

A. live on B. live up to C. live out D. live down

36. I felt so much better, my doctor ________ me to take a holiday by the sea.

A. suggested B. considered C. accepted D. advised

37. He said that the plane had already left and that I ________ arrived an hour earlier.

A. must have B. had to C. should have D. was supposed to

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A. to ask B. being asked C. to be asked D. asking

39. The restaurants on the island are expensive, so it's worth ________ a packed lunch.

A. take B. to take C. taking D. taken

40. When the alarm went off, Mick just turned ________ and went back to sleep.

A. down B. over C. up D. out

41. She refused to eat meat under any ________.

A. circumstances B. occasion C. opportunity D. reason

42. It was difficult to guess what he ________ to the news would be.

A. feelings B. reaction C. capital D. opinion

43. Though badly damaged by fire, the palace was eventually ________ to its original splendour.

A. repaired B. renewed C. restored D. renovated

44. He didn't know anyone at the wedding ________ than the bride and the groom.

A. except B. other C. apart D. rather
II. TỰ LUẬN KIẾN THỨC NGÔN NGỮ (1,5 điểm)

PART 1: WORD FORM (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)

Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the following sentences.
46. The first inhabitants of Iceland were a group of ………..………...families who
settled on the island in AD 874.

NORWAY

47. There was disagreement about whether the country needs to maintain a
………..………....

DETER

48. Hundreds of ………..………...from the war zone have arrived in the city and
we are trying to find homes for them.

EVACUATE

49. ………..………...patients are often given exercises to help prevent their
muscles from becoming stiff.

BED

50. It was this passion for fast cars that led to his ………..………...death at the age
of 33.

TIME

51. Every effort is made to ………..………...any errors before the book is printed. RIGHT

52. In a recent opinion poll, a majority of ………..………...were against nuclear
weapons.

RESPONSE

53. Her mouth is ………..………...lipsticked and her eyes are wide open with
anticipation.

SEDUCE

54. The script has a refreshing ………..………...and sparkle. SPONTANEOUS

55. It’s better to be a(n) ………..………...and eat a variety of plant and animals in
case there is a shortage of one particular kind of food.

VORE
PART 2: ERROR CORRECTION (0.5 pts – 0.1/ each)

ERROR IN A PASSAGE 07

Line Passage

1
2

HOW THE MAY DAY HOLIDAY BEGAN IN ENGLAND

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3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12

Sunday of May they usually took a tree back with them and put it in the center of the
village. The children danced round it and the men and the women took part in games
around it. Late the international working class made the First of May their day of
solidarity. The first May Day was celebrated in England in 1890, when the workers
decided to fight for an eight-hours working day and an end to the very long hours that
they worked. In London, the workers marched from all places to a meeting in Hyde Park.
This demonstrate showed their unity and solidarity. After that, May Day in England was
usual celebrated on the Sunday nearest to the first day of the month. There have been
many large May Day demonstrations. The working people showed on those days their
solidarity with the progressive people in another countries.

Line Error Correction

1 00. 

5 56. 

7 57. 

9 58. 

10 59. 

12 60. 

PART 3: PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)

Supply each space with a suitable preposition or adverbial particle to complete each of the
following sentences.

61.………...behalf of the department I would like to thank you all.

62. Many people expressed a strong preference ………...the original plan.

63. They were refused entrance ………...the exhibition .

64. He graduated ………...York with a degree in Psychology.

65. We had an argument ………...the waiter about the bill.

66. She complimented him ………...his exellent German.

67. She sacrificed everything ………...her children.

68. Sit down and make yourself ………...home.

69. He works away ………...home during the week.

70. The searchers spread ………...to over the area faster.
KỸ NĂNG NGÔN NGỮ

PART 1: READING (2 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: GUIDED CLOZE TEST

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits each blank in the following passage.
EVERYONE’S AN ARTIST

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Visitors to the village are eagerly (76) ________ into homes to see these paintings. The festival was
the idea of Antonio Presti, a local businessman who (77) ________ it up several years ago. Since
then, Pettineo has (78) ________ a sort of domestic art museum in (79) ________ any visitor can
ring a doorbell, go into a house and (80) ________ a painting. In addition to this exhibition of
paintings in people’s homes, for those who have time to spare, there is an opprtunity to wander
through the display of huge sculptures in the village square.

71. A. size B. measure C. length D. area

72. A. Just B. Once C. Soon D. Only

73. A. in addition to B. in place of C. in common with D. in exchange for

74. A. partition B. section C. division D. region

75. A. though B. despite C. since D. even

76. A. persuaded B. invited C. requested D. attracted

77. A. set B. put C. got D. had

78. A. become B. advanced C. grown D. increased

79. A. what B. where C. whom D. which

80. A. wonder B. stare C. admire D. respect
Task 2: READING COMPREHENSION

Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question below.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions.

Sharks have gained an unfair reputation for being fierce predators of large sea
animals. Humanity's unfounded fear and hatred of these ancient creatures is leading to a
worldwide slaughter that may result in the extinction of many coastal shark species.
The shark is the victim of a warped attitude of wildlife protection; we strive only to
protect the beautiful, non-threatening parts of our environment. And, in our efforts to
restore only non-threatening parts of our earth, we ignore other important parts.

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sharks as an important part of a program for protection of all our natural environment.

81. With which of the following topics is this passage primarily concerned?

A. Sharks are some of the oldest creatures on earth.

B. The campaign to save dolphins was not extended to save sharks.

C. Sharks illustrate a problem in wildlife protection.

D. Sharks are efficient creatures with bad reputations.

82. Which of the following is most similar to the meaning of the word warped in line 4?

A. wasteful B. wanton C. extravagant D. distorted

83. In the second paragraph, the word "generated" could be best replaced by ______.

A. absorbed B. consumed C. produced D. designated

84. How did environmentalists manage to protect dolphins?

A. They prevented fishermen from selling them for meat.

B. They brought political pressure against tuna companies.

C. They pressured fishermen into protecting dolphins by law.

D. They created sanctuaries where dolphin fishing was not allowed.

85. About how long have sharks lived on the planet?

A. 150 million years B. 25 million years C. 350 million years D. 500 million years

86. The author uses the phrase weeding out in line 16 to mean ______.

A. encouraging something that is efficient B. strengthening something that is weak

C. feeding something that is hungry D. getting rid of something that is unwanted

87. The phrase managed to live in line 17 is used to infer that ______.

A. procreation was expanding B. migration was common

C. roaming was necessary D. surviving was difficult

88. The word proof in line 18 could be best replaced by which of the following?

A. praise B. characteristic C. customary D. evidence

89. The phrase "to cast away" in line 20 means most nearly _______.

A. to bring in B. to see through C. to set apart D. to throw off

90. What is the author's tone in this passage?

A. proud B. gentle C. explanatory D. accusatory

PART 2: WRITING (2 pts)

Task 1: SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (1.0 pt – 0.2/ each)

Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that their meanings remain unchanged, 
using the words given.

91. I never intended to go to the meeting.

 I never had ...

92. He forgot about the gun until he got home.

 Not until ...

93. You really should be able to dress yourself by now!
 It’s high time

...

94. She never seems to succeed eventhough she studies much.

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95. Maria didn’t apply for the job in the library and regrets it now

 Maria wishes ...

96. Dick's school is making him sit his exams again. made

 ...

97. John is not accustomed to sleeping after meals. (habit)

 ...

98. The service at the hotel wasn't as good as I expected. (come)

 ...

99. It's very kind of you to help me with the suitcase. (appreciate)

 ...

100. He used to get up very late. habit

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Đề thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 môn tiếng anh năm 2018 - 2019 mã 1 | Tiếng Anh - Ôn Luyện

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