The GMAT Verbal Section - Verbal Pretest

C H A P T E R

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Verbal Pretest

The Verbal section of the GMAT® exam is the last part of the test, but it is the first section covered in this book
because many of the concepts and skills you need to do well on the Verbal section are also important to your
success on the Analytical Writing Assessment (AWA) section. In the following chapters, you will learn all about
the Verbal section: what this portion of the test is like, what kinds of questions to expect, and how to tackle
those questions. You will also review the core skills you will need for each type of question and specific tips
and strategies to use on the exam.
Before you begin this section, take a few minutes to do the pretest that follows. The passage and questions on the pretest are the same types you will find on the GMAT exam. When you are finished, check the
answer key carefully to assess your results. Your pretest score will help you determine how much preparation
you need and the areas in which you need the most careful review and practice.

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– VERBAL PRETEST –



Pretest

The Verbal section pretest contains 20 multiple-choice questions—approximately half the number of
questions you will see on the actual exam. To practice the timing of the GMAT exam, take approximately 37
minutes to complete the pretest. Record your answers on the answer sheet provided on this page. Make sure
you mark your answer clearly in the circle that corresponds to the question.
Remember that the GMAT exam is a CAT, so you will not be able to write anywhere on the exam. To
mimic the exam environment, do not write on the pretest pages. Make any notes or calculations on a separate piece of paper.

ANSWER SHEET
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6
7.



a
a
a
a
a
a
a

b
b
b
b
b
b
b

c
c
c

c
c
c
c

d
d
d
d
d
d
d

e
e
e
e
e
e
e

8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.

a

a
a
a
a
a
a

b
b
b
b
b
b
b

c
c
c
c
c
c
c

d
d
d
d
d
d
d

e
e
e
e
e
e
e

15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.

a
a
a
a
a
a

b
b
b
b
b
b

c
c
c
c
c
c

d
d
d
d
d
d

e
e
e
e
e
e

Reading Comprehension

Directions: Questions 1—6 are based on the following passage. Read the passage carefully and then choose
the best answer to each question. Answer the questions based upon what is stated or implied in the reading
passage.
In Ursula LeGuin’s short story “The Ones Who Walk Away from Omelas,” everyone in the city of Omelas is happy—everyone, that is, except the child who is kept locked in a basement closet. The child is left
entirely alone and neglected except for occasional visits from the citizens of Omelas. They come at a certain
age as a rite of initiation, to learn the secret of the happiness they enjoy. They come to learn that their happiness has a price: the suffering of an innocent child. In the end, most people stay in Omelas; but a few, unable
to bear the fact that they are responsible for the suffering of that child, reject this utopia built upon a utilitarian morality.

Utilitarianism is an ethical theory based upon the belief that happiness is the ultimate good and that
people should use happiness as the measure for determining right and wrong. For utilitarians, the right thing
to do is that which will bring about the greatest amount of happiness for the greatest number of people. Furthermore, utilitarianism argues that the intention of people’s actions does not matter; only the consequences
of their actions are morally relevant, because only the consequences determine how much happiness is
produced.
Although many useful social policies and much legislation are founded on this “greatest good” philosophy, utilitarianism can be problematic as a basis for morality. First, happiness is not so easy to quantify, and any
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– VERBAL PRETEST –

measurement is bound to be subjective. Second, in a theory that treats everything except happiness as instrumentally rather than intrinsically valuable, anything—or, more importantly, anyone—can (and should) be
treated as a means to an end, if it means greater happiness. This rejects the notion that human beings have their
own intrinsic value. Further, utilitarianism puts the burden of the happiness of the masses on the suffering of
the few. Is the happiness of many worth the suffering of a few? Why do those few deserve to suffer? Isn’t this
burden of suffering morally irresponsible? This is the dilemma so brilliantly illustrated in LeGuin’s story.
1. Which of the following best sums up the author’s opinion of utilitarianism?
a. It is an ethical theory.
b. It is the ethical theory that people should all live by.
c. It is a useful but problematic ethical theory.
d. It does not adequately measure happiness.
e. It underestimates the intrinsic value of human beings.
2. According to the passage, in utilitarianism
a. only intentions have moral significance.
b. consequences are important, but intentions are more important.
c. intentions and consequences are equally important.
d. intentions are important, but consequences are more important.
e. only consequences have moral significance.
3. The author summarizes LeGuin’s story primarily to
a. show how good the story is.

b. get readers interested in the story.
c. illustrate the power of words.
d. illustrate the central problem with utilitarianism.
e. illustrate a utilitarian utopia.
4. From the passage, it can be inferred that the author
a. may use utilitarianism occasionally but not as a guiding moral principle.
b. would never use utilitarianism to make a decision about what is right or wrong.
c. uses utilitarianism regularly to make moral decisions.
d. believes utilitarianism is a good basis for social policy.
e. thinks most people do not really understand utilitarianism.
5. From the author’s summary of LeGuin’s story, the reader can infer that
a. most people in Omelas are utilitarians.
b. most people in Omelas reject utilitarianism.
c. everyone in Omelas is happy.
d. the child willingly sacrifices himself for others.
e. LeGuin is a popular science-fiction writer.
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6. Utilitarianism could best be expressed in which of the following formulas?
X  action
Y  consequences that create happiness
Z  consequences that create unhappiness
a. Do X if Y  Z.
b. Do X if Y  Z.
c. Do X if Y  Z.
d. Do X if Y  Z.
e. Do X if Y  Z.



Critical Reasoning

Directions: For each question, select the best answer from the choices given.
7. Unemployment in Winston County has risen only 4% since I took office. Under my predecessor,
unemployment rose 14%. Clearly, my economic policies are far more effective.
Which of the following must be true in order for this argument to be valid?
a. Winston County’s population dropped significantly during the current administration.
b. The national unemployment rate increased by 12% during the previous administration but only
2% during the current administration.
c. Key socioeconomic variables such as the state of the national economy and the demographics of
Winston County are comparable for each administration.
d. Key policy changes, such as increased job training for the unemployed, were implemented under
the current administration.
e. Tax incentives have been implemented to bring new businesses to Winston County.
8. Morning Glory, the coffee shop on the corner, has lost nearly 50% of its business because a national
retail coffee chain opened up a store down the street. Instead of closing up shop, the owner of Morning Glory plans to draw in customers by offering coffee, tea, and pastries at much lower prices than the
national coffee chain.
The owner’s plan of action is based on all of the following assumptions EXCEPT
a. some customers will choose the coffee shop that offers the lowest price.
b. the quality of Morning Glory’s coffee is comparable to that of the national coffee chain.
c. Morning Glory can afford to cut its profit margin in order to lower prices.
d. Morning Glory’s customers are very loyal.
e. the national coffee chain will not lower its prices in order to compete with Morning Glory.

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– VERBAL PRETEST –

9. When romance novels were located in the back of the bookstore, they accounted for approximately 6%
of total sales. Since we moved romance novels close to the front of the store and put several books on
display, sales of romance novels have increased to 14% to 18% of total sales.
All of the following conclusions can logically be drawn from this argument EXCEPT
a. customers who bought one romance novel are likely to come back for another.
b. customers are more likely to buy books located near the front of the bookstore than at the back.
c. the display caught the interest of people who might not have otherwise purchased a romance novel.
d. customers believe that bookstores put their best books near the front of the store.
e. sales of romance novels may increase even more if the section were moved all the way to the front.
10. With more and more classes being offered online, more and more students will earn their degrees in
virtual universities. Students in California will graduate from schools in New York without ever leaving their state. Because online courses offer flexibility without geographic boundaries, virtual degrees
will be in greater demand, and colleges and universities should invest the bulk of their resources in
developing online degree programs.
All of the following, if true, are valid objections to this argument EXCEPT
a. online courses are more time consuming for faculty to develop than regular courses.
b. many students need the ability to attend class outside of regular classroom hours.
c. some students prefer the traditional classroom to the virtual classroom.
d. not every course is suitable for an online environment.
e. there is no way to ensure the authenticity of a student’s work in an online environment.
11. Property values in South Orange, New Jersey, have nearly doubled in the last six years. South Orange is
located in Essex County, 17 miles from New York City.
Which of the following, if true, best explains the results described in the statement?
a. the proximity of South Orange to New York City
b. the completion of a direct rail line to New York City
c. the addition of 240 housing units in South Orange
d. improved schools and a renovated downtown in South Orange
e. the relocation of a major technical corporation to Union, New Jersey, two miles from South Orange
12. One out of four heart surgery patients at St. Vincent’s dies from complications during surgery. Only

one out of six heart surgery patients at St. Mary’s dies from complications during surgery. If you need
heart surgery, make sure you go to St. Mary’s, not St. Vincent’s.
Which of the following, if true, is the best reason to reject this argument?
a. St. Vincent’s specializes in heart surgery for elderly and high-risk patients.
b. St. Mary’s surgical equipment is more up to date than St. Vincent’s.
c. St. Vincent’s has the most renowned heart surgeon in the country on its staff.
d. St. Vincent’s offers flexible payment options for balances not covered by insurance.
e. Two doctors who used to work at St. Mary’s now work at St. Vincent’s.
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– VERBAL PRETEST –

13. DNA evidence has increasingly been used in court to prove guilt and to exonerate the innocent.
Because so many convicted felons have been cleared by DNA evidence, all cases in which someone was
convicted largely on circumstantial evidence should be called into question and reviewed.
Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen this argument?
a. One in three convictions today rests largely on DNA evidence.
b. DNA evidence is admissible even after the statute of limitations has expired.
c. Of every ten cases in which DNA evidence becomes available post-conviction, five convictions are
overturned.
d. DNA evidence is 99.8% accurate.
e. DNA evidence is very difficult to falsify or tamper with.



Sentence Correction

Directions: The following questions each present a sentence, part or all of which is underlined. Beneath the
sentence you will find five ways of phrasing the underlined portion. The first choice repeats the original; the

other four choices present different options for phrasing the underlined text. Determine which choice best
expresses the idea in the underlined text. If you think the original is best, choose option a. These questions
test both the correctness and overall effectiveness of expression. In choosing your answer, pay attention to
grammar, sentence construction, and word choice and style. The correct answer is free of grammatical errors,
clear, precise, and concise.
14. Despite growing evidence of global warming; 34 different states plan to develop nearly 100 new coalburning electric plants in the next decade.
a. warming; 34 different states
b. warming. Thirty-four different states
c. warming: 34 different states
d. warming, 34 different states
e. warming, for 34 different states
15. Suggested by new research is the fact that people who achieve phenomenal success do so, not only by
visualizing their success in future endeavors, but also, by recalling their past successes, creating a
tremendous surge in confidence.
a. Suggested by new research is the fact that people who achieve phenomenal success do so, not only
by visualizing their success in future endeavors, but also, by recalling their past successes, creating a
tremendous surge in confidence.
b. New research suggests that people that achieve phenomenal success visualize their success in future
endeavors and also recall their past successes to create a tremendous surge in confidence.
c. New research suggests that the achievement of phenomenal success by persons is accomplished not
only by the visualization of success in future endeavors but also by the recollection of past successes, which creates a tremendous surge in confidence.
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– VERBAL PRETEST –

d. New research suggests that people who achieve phenomenal success do so not only by visualizing
their success in future endeavors but also by recalling their past successes, creating a tremendous
surge in confidence.
e. New research suggests that people who achieve phenomenal success do so not only by visualizing

their success in future endeavors, but also they recall their past successes, creating a tremendous
surge in confidence.
16. Creating a fundamental shift in American foreign policy and establishing a “policy of containment”
that framed our foreign policy as a battle between the forces of good (America and other democratic
societies) and evil (the Soviet Union and other communist nations), was the 1947 Truman Doctrine.
a. Creating a fundamental shift in American foreign policy and establishing a “policy of containment” that framed our foreign policy as a battle between the forces of good (America and other
democratic societies) and evil (the Soviet Union and other communist nations), was the 1947
Truman Doctrine.
b. The 1947 Truman Doctrine created a fundamental shift in American foreign policy, establishing a
“policy of containment” that framed our foreign policy as a battle between the forces of good
(America and other democratic societies) and evil (the Soviet Union and other communist
nations).
c. Creating a fundamental shift in American foreign policy was the Truman Doctrine, which was put
forth in 1947, and which established a “policy of containment” that framed our foreign policy as a
battle between the forces of good (America, along with other democratic societies) and the forces
of evil (the Soviet Union, along with other communist nations).
d. The 1947 Truman Doctrine created a fundamental shift in American foreign policy, establishing a
“policy of containment” that framed our foreign policy as a battle between American and other
democratic societies, which it considered the forces of good, and the Soviet Union and other communist nations, which it considered the forces of evil.
e. A fundamental shift in American foreign policy was created in 1947 by the Truman Doctrine,
which importantly established a “policy of containment,” a policy that framed our foreign policy in
terms of a battle between good and evil, with the good forces being America and other democracies
and the evil forces being the Soviet Union and other communist nations.
17. The first science-fiction novel, Mary Shelley’s Frankenstein, actually contains very little science, but it
masterfully explores the social and moral repercussions of what might happen if certain scientific
advances were possible.
a. but it masterfully explores the social and moral repercussions of what might happen
b. but it explores in a masterful way the social and moral repercussions of what might happen
c. but, exploring the social and moral repercussions, it masterfully considers what might happen
d. but it masterfully explores repercussions, social and moral in nature, of what might happen

e. but it masterfully explores what are the social and moral repercussions

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18. The most important issue relating to computer technology and the Internet is the right of individual
privacy, this includes the privacy of our personal data and our actions in cyberspace.
a. Internet is the right of individual privacy, this includes the privacy
b. Internet is the right of individual privacy, being the privacy
c. Internet is the right of individual privacy, including the privacy
d. Internet is the right of individuals to have privacy, and included in this consideration is the privacy
e. Internet is an individual’s right to privacy. Including the privacy
19. While diabetes does not interfere with digestion, on the other hand, it does prevent the body from
converting an important product of digestion, glucose, which is commonly known as sugar, into
energy.
a. While diabetes does not interfere with digestion, on the other hand, it does prevent the body from
converting an important product of digestion, glucose, which is commonly known as sugar, into
energy.
b. Diabetes does not interfere with digestion, but it does prevent the body from using glucose, which
is commonly known as sugar, which is a product of digestion and which is converted into energy.
c. Commonly known as sugar, glucose is an important product of digestion, which is prevented from
being converted by the body into energy by diabetes, although diabetes does not interfere with
digestion.
d. Diabetes does not interfere with digestion, but it does prevent the body from converting an important product of digestion, glucose (commonly known as sugar), into energy.
e. Diabetes does not interfere with digestion, but glucose (commonly known as sugar) is an important product of digestion and is unable to be converted into energy by the body because of the
disease.
20. With an increasing amount of vegetarians, more stores are beginning to stock their shelves with standard vegetarian fare, such as soy milk and tofu.
a. With an increasing amount of vegetarians

b. With the number of vegetarians on the rise
c. With the number of vegetarians, which is on the rise
d. Increasingly, there are more and more vegetarians, so
e. Increasing in number are vegetarians, so



Answer Explanations

1. c. The author is critical of utilitarianism, but she also includes evidence that it is a useful theory.
LeGuin’s story, for example, shows how the sacrifice of one can create the happiness of many. The
author also notes that “many useful social policies and much legislation are founded on” utilitarianism, demonstrating that it is a useful ethical theory. The word choice throughout also indicates that
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the author feels that this ethical theory has both positive and negative aspects. For example, she calls it
“problematic,” but not “wrongheaded” or “faulty.” She calls the problem of the suffering of the few for
the happiness of the many a “dilemma,” not a “flaw” or “failure.” She asks questions rather than making statements about the immorality of utilitarian choices. Choice a is incorrect because it simply
states a fact from the essay; it does not express an opinion. The author clearly states that “there are several serious problems with utilitarianism as a basis for morality,” so choice b is incorrect. Although the
statements in choices d and e are true and clearly stated in the text, these are specific criticisms of utilitarianism and do not sum up the author’s opinion of this ethical theory.
2. e. In the second paragraph, the author states that “only the consequences of [people’s] actions are
morally relevant, because only the consequences determine how much happiness is produced.”
3. d. LeGuin’s story illustrates the problem with utilitarianism by describing how one person (the child)
lives in misery so that others can be happy. The author explains that “utilitarianism puts the burden of
the happiness of the masses on the suffering of the few” and then states that this problem is “so brilliantly illustrated in LeGuin’s story.” Choice a is incorrect because the author does not comment on or
make any inferences about the overall quality of the story; she only comments on it in relation to its
demonstration of the dilemma of utilitarianism. Readers may be interested in the story after reading
this passage (choice b), but again, the purpose of including the story is made evident by the last sentence in the passage. The author does not quote directly from the story, and she is clearly not summarizing it to illustrate the power of words, so choice c is incorrect.

4. a. The author is critical of utilitarianism and admits it has several problems, but she does not reject it
as an ethical theory. In fact, she concedes that it is useful in creating social policies and legislation.
Therefore, the most logical inference is that she may use utilitarianism occasionally but not as a guiding moral principle. Choices b and c are therefore incorrect. Choice d is incorrect because nothing in
the passage indicates how she feels about utilitarianism as a basis for social policy. The passage does
not state that she believes most people do not really understand utilitarianism, so choice e is incorrect.
5. a. The author states that “most people stay in Omelas” after they have visited the child. This indicates
that they understand and have accepted the utilitarian nature of their society. Only a few walk away
and reject the society, so choice b is incorrect. The summary clearly states that everyone except the
child and the ones who are “unable to bear the fact that they are responsible for the suffering of that
child” are happy, so choice c is incorrect. No evidence indicates that the child willingly sacrifices himself for others (choice d). The passage makes no reference to LeGuin’s popularity or success as a science-fiction writer, so choice e is incorrect.
6. d. The basic principle of utilitarianism as explained in the passage is that people should do “that
which will bring about the greatest amount of happiness for the greatest number of people.” Therefore, humans should choose actions that will have more happy consequences (Y) than unhappy consequences (Z); Y must be greater than () Z.
7. c. In order for the two administrations to be compared, the socioeconomic variables must be comparable. If Winston County’s economy had relied largely upon a factory that closed down during the
previous administration, then the unemployment rate would necessarily rise considerably following
that event. The state of the national, state, and local economies and the demographic makeup of
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8.

9.

10.

11.

Winston County (e.g., no significant increase or decrease in population) need to be nearly identical
for the speaker to make a fair comparison and claim that his or her policies are more effective. If

Winston County’s population dropped significantly (choice a), it could explain why the unemployment rate dropped as well—but it does not support the speaker’s claim that his or her policies “are
far more effective.” Choice b, which reflects the state of the national economy, also offers an explanation for the change in unemployment rates in Winston County, again contradicting the speaker’s
claim that his or her economic policies made the difference. If the speaker had implemented key policy changes (choice d) or tax incentives (choice e), they could have significantly reduced unemployment. However, the unemployment rates still cannot be compared unless other variables are
comparable.
d. The owner’s plan—to lower prices to attract customers—assumes that some customers will choose
the lower price (choice a), that the quality of Morning Glory’s products is comparable to its competitor (choice b), that Morning Glory can afford to offer lower prices (choice c), and that its competitor
will also not lower its prices (choice e). The plan does not rest on any assumptions about the loyalty
of Morning Glory customers (choice d). Indeed, there is evidence that the customers are not loyal,
because Morning Glory has already lost 50% of its business.
a. The significant increase in sales after the relocation of the books indicates that customers are more
likely to buy books at the front of the store (choice b) and that the display may have caught the interest of people who might not otherwise purchase a romance novel (choice c). It is also logical to conclude that sales would further increase if the books were moved even farther toward the front of the
store (choice e). Choices b and e and the increase in sales all suggest that customers believe the best
books are near the front of the store (choice d). The only conclusion that cannot logically be drawn
from this scenario is that customers will come back to purchase more romance novels (choice a). The
data does not indicate repeat purchases for customers.
b. All of the choices except b offer reasons why online degree programs are problematic, suggesting
that resources should not be focused on developing online degree programs. Choice b offers support
for the argument by stating that the flexibility of online classes will attract students who would not
normally be able to attend regular classes.
b. The direct rail line is the most logical explanation for an increase in property values. The proximity to New York City in itself (choice a) would not necessarily increase property values, but the addition of public transportation that provides direct access to the city would make the town a more
desirable place to live. When a place becomes more desirable, real-estate values increase. Choice c, the
addition of housing units, is likely an effect of the direct rail line and an increase in the desirability of
the location. The improvement of the schools and the renovation of the downtown (choice d) may or
may not be related to the increase in property values. It would be logical to conclude that funds for
improving the schools and downtown could be gleaned from additional resources from increased
property taxes, another effect of increased property values. The relocation of a major corporation to a
neighboring town (choice e) could account for the increased desirability of property in South
Orange, but the direct access to the city is a more compelling reason. Perhaps a few hundred persons
may work in the corporation, but many thousands are likely to want an easy commute to the city.
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12. a. Statistics can be very deceiving. In this case, based only on the numbers, St. Mary’s seems like a
safer place to undergo heart surgery. But what you do not know about St. Mary’s and St. Vincent’s
can lead you to make a poor choice. If St. Vincent’s specializes in heart surgery for elderly and highrisk patients (choice a), then it is logical that it would have a higher rate of mortality among its
patients. Indeed, given this fact, the difference in mortality rates may make a case for going to St. Vincent’s instead of St. Mary’s. Assuming you are not an elderly or high-risk patient, to make an
informed choice, you would need statistics about St. Vincent’s mortality rates for surgery on patients
who are not elderly or high risk. Up-to-date equipment is important (choice b), but the condition of
the patients prior to surgery and the skill of the surgeons are more important considerations. The
fact that St. Vincent’s has the best heart surgeon in the country (choice c) is compelling, but it does
not contradict the statistics. The payment options (choice d) are irrelevant if you do not survive the
surgery, and there can be many reasons why the doctors who worked at St. Mary’s are now at St. Vincent’s (choice e), so you cannot consider this factor without more information.
13. c. The fact that would most strengthen this argument is the percentage of cases in which DNA evidence overturned prior convictions. If half of all cases resulted in erroneous convictions that were
later cleared by DNA evidence, then that should certainly draw other convictions into doubt. The fact
that one in three of today’s convictions rest on DNA evidence has no bearing on prior convictions, so
choice a is incorrect. Similarly, the admissibility of DNA evidence (choice b) has no bearing on the
quality of prior convictions. That DNA evidence is accurate (choice d) and difficult to tamper with
(choice e) strengthens the argument for the use of DNA evidence in court, but it does not directly
strengthen the argument that prior convictions should be called into doubt.
14. d. Despite growing evidence of global warming is a dependent clause that should be followed by a
comma when preceding an independent clause (34 different states . . . ). Choice a is incorrect because
a semi-colon should not be used between a dependent and independent clause. Choice b creates a
sentence fragment because the dependent clause is set off as a separate sentence. Choice c incorrectly
uses a colon, which should only be used to introduce lists, quotations, or explanations. Choice e creates an illogical sentence that uses both despite and for, confusing the relationship between the two
clauses.
15. d. This version states the idea clearly, correctly, and concisely, using parallel structure. Choice a is
bulky and awkward with its opening phrase suggested by new research is the fact that; it also has several superfluous commas. Choice b incorrectly uses that instead of who to refer to people, and while it
is not wordy, it is not as fluent as choice d. Choice c is wordy, relying on bulky passive constructions

and prepositional phrases. Choice e is incorrect because it lacks parallel structure.
16. b. This version is the most active and direct, starting with the agent of action (the Truman Doctrine)
and clearly and concisely stating the effects of the doctrine. Choices a and c awkwardly put the action
before the subject, and choice c also breaks up the two actions, interrupting the fluency of the sentence. Choice d uses two bulky which clauses, rather than the more concise parenthetical phrases of
choice b. Choice e begins with a passive construction and is both wordy and redundant.

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17. a. This is the most concise, precise, and correct choice. Choice b is wordy, using the phrase in a masterful way instead of masterfully. Choice c uses awkward word order that requires the addition of a
verb (considers) because explores is moved to before the subject. Choice d is wordy as the result of
moving social and moral from their position directly before the noun they modify. Choice e awkwardly places what are after explores and deletes the important idea of possibility conveyed by of what
might happen.
18. c. Choice a is a run-on sentence and is therefore incorrect. Choice b uses being in an awkward and
grammatically incorrect manner. Choice d is unnecessarily wordy, and choice e replaces the comma
with a period and creates a sentence fragment.
19. d. This is the most concise and fluent version. Choice a incorrectly uses the transitional phrase on the
other hand, and because it puts which is commonly known as sugar into a nonrestrictive clause immediately after the appositive glucose, the sentence may be confusing. Choice b is grammatically correct
but quite awkward, using which three times in one sentence. Choice c inverts the sentence, making it
less direct and therefore less clear. Choice e is correct but less direct and slightly more wordy than d
because it uses the passive construction (converted by the body).
20. b. Choice b presents the most concise and fluent version. Choice a incorrectly uses amount instead
of number. Choice c is unnecessarily wordy, using the nonrestrictive phrase which is on the rise
instead of on the rise. Choice d is also unnecessarily wordy and less direct. Choice e is awkward, with
an inverted word order.



Pretest Assessment

How did you do on the pretest? If you answered nearly all of the questions correctly, congratulations. If you
missed more than three questions, chances are most of your incorrect answers were in one category. Perhaps
your reading comprehension skills are strong, but you need to focus on building your critical-reasoning skills.
Clearly, the more questions you got wrong in each section, the more time you should devote to your review
of that material.
It is difficult to scale your performance on this pretest to its actual GMAT equivalent because the GMAT
CAT factors in both the number of questions answered and the level of difficulty of each question to determine your score. However, a simple percentage of correct answers in each category should give you a good
indication of how you might perform on the Verbal section. If you missed three or more questions in any section, you will probably need several weeks of concentrated study to do well on those questions during the
actual exam.

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