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Test Gmat 31

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Graduate Management
Admission Test
®
(GMAT
®
)

Disclosed Edition
Test Code 31
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1
ABOUT THIS EDITION OF THE GMAT®
This booklet contains the questions that were used to derive scores on the edition of the Graduate Management
Admission Test (GMAT®) with test code 31. If the first two digits of the test code on your answer sheet (item 5
on Side 1) are not 31, please contact ETS to send you the correct booklet to match your answer sheet. The
answer key follows the test questions. This booklet also contains instructions for calculating raw scores
corrected for guessing. These are followed by unique tables for converting raw scores to the reported scaled
scores for test code 31.

In this edition of the GMAT, the following essay and multiple-choice sections contributed to your scores:

Analytical Writing Assessment


Essay 1 Analysis of an Argument
Essay 2 Analysis of an Issue

Verbal Assessment
Section 1 Reading Comprehension
Section 4 Sentence Correction
Section 6 Critical Reasoning

Quantitative Assessment
Section 2 Data Sufficiency
Section 5 Problem Solving
Section 7 Problem Solving

GMAT Total
All six verbal and quantitative sections combined as one score

Section 3 in this edition of the GMAT contained trial or equating questions and does not contribute to your
score. Questions from this section are not included in this booklet.
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2
Analytical Writing 1
ANALYSIS OF AN ARGUMENT
Time—30 minutes
Directions:
In this section you will be asked to write a critique of the argument presented below. Note that you are not being asked to
present your own views on the subject. Instead, you may need to consider what questionable assumptions underlie the thinking, what
alternative explanations or counterexamples might weaken the conclusion, or what sort of evidence could help strengthen or refute the
argument.
Read the argument and the instructions that follow it, and then make any notes in your test booklet that will help you plan your

response. Begin writing your response on the separate answer document. Make sure that you use the answer document that goes with
this writing task.

The following appeared in a memorandum from the directors of a security and safety consulting service.
“Our research indicates that over the past six years no incidents of employee theft have been reported within ten of the companies that
have been our clients. In analyzing the security practices of these ten companies, we have further learned that each of them requires
its employees to war photo identification badges while at work. In the future, therefore, we should recommend the use of such
identification badges to all of our clients.”
Discuss how well reasoned you find this argument. In your discussion, be sure to analyze the line of reasoning and the use of evidence
in the argument. You can also discuss what, if anything, would make the argument more sound and persuasive or would help you to
better evaluate its conclusion.


NOTES
Use the space below or on the facing page to plan your response. Any writing on these pages will not be evaluated.










S T O P
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.




Copyright © 1993, 1995 Graduate Management Admission Council. All rights reserved.
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3
Analytical Writing 2
ANALYSIS OF AN ISSUE
Time—30 minutes
Directions:
In this section, you will need to analyze the issue presented below and explain your views on it. The question has no
“correct” answer. Instead, you should consider various perspectives as you develop your own position on the issue.
Read the statement and the instructions that follow it, and then make any notes in your test booklet that will help you plan your
response. Begin writing your response on the separate answer sheet. Make sure that you use the answer sheet that goes with this
writing task.

“As technologies and the demand for certain services change, many workers will lose their jobs. The responsibility for those people to
adjust to such change should belong to the individual worker, not to government or to business.”

Discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with the opinion stated above. Support your position with specific reasons and/or
examples drawn from your reading, your observations, or your own experience.

NOTES
Use the space below or on the facing page to plan your response. Any writing on these pages will not be evaluated.
















S T O P
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

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4
ANSWER SHEET – Test Code 31
Section 1 Section 2 Section 4 Section 5 Section 6 Section 7
1. 1. 1. 1. 1. 1.
2. 2. 2. 2. 2. 2.
3. 3. 3. 3. 3. 3.
4. 4. 4. 4. 4. 4.
5. 5. 5. 5. 5. 5.

6. 6. 6. 6. 6. 6.
7. 7. 7. 7. 7. 7.
8. 8. 8. 8. 8. 8.
9. 9. 9. 9. 9. 9.
10. 10. 10. 10. 10. 10.

11. 11. 11. 11. 11. 11.

12. 12. 12. 12. 12. 12.
13. 13. 13. 13. 13. 13.
14. 14. 14. 14. 14. 14.
15. 15. 15. 15. 15. 15.

16. 16. 16. 16. 16. 16.
17. 17. 17.
18. 18. 18.
19. 19.
20. 20.

21.
22.

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5
SECTION 1
Time—25 minutes
18 Questions
Directions:
Each passage in this group is followed by questions based on its content. After reading a passage, choose the best answer
to each question and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what
is stated
or implied in that passage.

Traditionally, the first firm to commercialize a
new technology has benefited from the unique
opportunity to shape product definitions, forcing
followers to adapt to a standard or invest in an

unproven alternative. Today, however, the largest
payoffs may go to companies that lead in developing
integrated approaches for successful mass production
and distribution.
2. According to the passage, today’s successful firms,
unlike successful firms in the past, may earn the
greatest profits by
Line
(5)
(A) investing in research to produce cheaper versions
of existing technology
(B) being the first to market a competing technology
(C) adapting rapidly to a technological standard
previously set by a competing firm
Producers of the Beta format for videocassette
recorders (VCR's), for example, were first to develop
the VCR commercially in 1975, but producers of the
rival VHS (Video Home System) format proved to be
more successful at forming strategic alliances with
other producers and distributors to manufacture and
market their VCR format. Seeking to maintain
exclusive control over VCR distribution, Beta
producers were reluctant to form such alliances and
eventually lost ground to VHS in the competition for
the global VCR market.

(10)
(D) establishing technological leadership in order to
shape product definitions in advance of
competing firms

(E) emphasizing the development of methods for the
mass production and distribution of a new
technology

(15)
3. According to the passage, consumers began to develop
a preference for VCR’s in the VHS format because
they believed which of the following?
Despite Beta's substantial technological head
start and the fact that VHS was neither technically
better nor cheaper than Beta, developers of VHS
quickly turned a slight early lead in sales into a
dominant position. Strategic alignments with
producers of prerecorded tapes reinforced the VHS
advantage. The perception among consumers that
prerecorded tapes were more available in VHS
format further expanded VHS's share of the market.
By the end of the 1980's, Beta was no longer in
production.
(A) VCR’s in the VHS format were technically better
than competing-format VCR’s.

(20)
(B) VCR’s in the VHS format were less expensive
than competing-format VCR’s.
(C) VHS was the first standard format for VCR’s.

(25)
(D) VHS prerecorded videotapes were more available
than Beta-format tapes.

(E) VCR’s in the Beta format would soon cease to be
produced.
1. The passage is primarily concerned with which of the
following?


(A) Evaluating two competing technologies
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
(B) Tracing the impact of a new technology by
narrating a sequence of events


(C) Reinterpreting an event from contemporary
business history

(D) Illustrating a business strategy by means of a case
history


(E) Proposing an innovative approach to business
planning












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6. Which of the following best describes the relation of
the first paragraph to the passage as a whole?
4. The author implies that one way that VHS producers
won control over the VCR market was by

(A) carefully restricting access to VCR technology
(A) It makes a general observation to be exemplified.
(B) giving up a slight early lead in VCR sales in order
to improve long-term prospects
(B) It outlines a process to be analyzed.
(C) It poses a question to be answered.
(D) It advances an argument to be disputed.
(C) retaining a strict monopoly on the production of
prerecorded videotapes
(E) It introduces conflicting arguments to be
reconciled.
(D) sharing control of the marketing of VHS-format
VCR's


(E) sacrificing technological superiority over Beta-
format VCR's in order to remain competitive in
price
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.




5. The alignment of producers of VHS-format VCR's
with producers of prerecorded videotapes is most
similar to which of the following?



(A)The alignment of an automobile manufacturer
with another automobile manufacturer to adopt a
standard design for automobile engines



(B)The alignment of an automobile manufacturer with
an automotive glass company whereby the
manufacturer agrees to purchase automobile
windshields only from that one glass company





(C)The alignment of an automobile manufacturer with
a petroleum company to ensure the widespread
availability of the fuel required by a new type of
engine developed by the manufacturer





(D)The alignment of an automobile manufacturer
with its dealers to adopt a plan to improve
automobile design



(E)The alignment of an automobile dealer with an
automobile rental chain to adopt a strategy for an
advertising campaign to promote a new type of
automobile












































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7
8. Which of the following can be inferred about the
experiment described in the first paragraph?
Australian researchers have discovered

electroreceptors (sensory organs designed to respond
to electrical fields) clustered at the tip of the spiny
anteater's snout. The researchers made this discovery
by exposing small areas of the snout to extremely
weak electrical fields and recording the transmission
of resulting nervous activity to the brain. While it is
true that tactile receptors, another kind of sensory
organ on the anteater's snout, can also respond to
electrical stimuli, such receptors do so only in
response to electrical field strengths about 1,000
times greater than those known to excite
electroreceptors.
(A) Researchers had difficulty verifying the existence
of electroreceptors in the anteater because
electroreceptors respond to such a narrow range
of electrical field strengths.
Line
(5)
(B) Researchers found that the level of nervous
activity in the anteater's brain increased
dramatically as the strength of the electrical
stimulus was increased.

(10)
(C) Researchers found that some areas of the
anteater's snout were not sensitive to a weak
electrical stimulus.
Having discovered the electroreceptors,
researchers are now investigating how anteaters
utilize such a sophisticated sensory system. In one

behavioral experiment, researchers successfully
trained an anteater to distinguish between two
troughs of water, one with a weak electrical field and
the other with none. Such evidence is consistent with
researchers' hypothesis that anteaters use
electroreceptors to detect electrical signals given off
by prey; however, researchers as yet have been
unable to detect electrical signals emanating from
termite mounds, where the favorite food of anteaters
live. Still, researchers have observed anteaters
breaking into a nest of ants at an oblique angle and
quickly locating nesting chambers. This ability to
quickly locate unseen prey suggests, according to the
researchers, that the anteaters were using their
electroreceptors to locate the nesting chambers.
(D) Researchers found that the anteater's tactile
receptors were more easily excited by a strong
electrical stimulus than were the electroreceptors.

(15)
(E) Researchers tested small areas of the anteater's
snout in order to ensure that only electroreceptors
were responding to the stimulus.

(20)
9. The author of the passage most probably discusses
the function of tactile receptors (lines 7-11) in
order to
(A) eliminate an alternative explanation of anteaters’
response to electrical stimuli


(25)
(B) highlight a type of sensory organ that has a
function identical to that of electroreceptors
(C) point out a serious complication in the research on
electroreceptors in anteaters
7. According to the passage, which of the following is a
characteristic that distinguishes electroreceptors from
tactile receptors?
(D) suggest that tactile receptors assist
electroreceptors in the detection of electrical
signals
(A) The manner in which electroreceptors respond to
electrical stimuli
(E) introduce a factor that was not addressed in the
research on electroreceptors in anteaters
(B)The tendency of electroreceptors to be found in
clusters

(C)The unusual locations in which electroreceptors
are found in most species


(D) The amount of electrical stimulation required to
excite electroreceptors


(E) The amount of nervous activity transmitted to the
brain by electroreceptors when they are excited







GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.











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12. Which of the following, if true, would most
strengthen the hypothesis mentioned in lines 17-19?
10. Which of the following can be inferred about
anteaters from the behavioral experiment mentioned
in the second paragraph?
(A) Researchers are able to train anteaters to break
into an underground chamber that is emitting a
strong electrical signal.
(A) They are unable to distinguish between stimuli
detected by their electroreceptors and stimuli

detected by their tactile receptors.
(B) Researchers are able to detect a weak electrical
signal emanating from the nesting chamber of an
ant colony.
(B) They are unable to distinguish between the
electrical signals emanating from termite mounds
and those emanating from ant nests.
(C) Anteaters are observed taking increasingly longer
amounts of time to locate the nesting chambers of
ants.
(C) They can be trained to recognize consistently the
presence of a particular stimulus.
(D) Anteaters are observed using various angles to
break into nests of ants.
(D) They react more readily to strong than to weak
stimuli.
(E) Anteaters are observed using the same angle used
with nests of ants to break into the nests of other
types of prey.
(E) They are more efficient at detecting stimuli in a
controlled environment than in a natural
environment.

11. The passage suggests that the researchers mentioned
in the second paragraph who observed anteaters
break into a nest of ants would most likely agree
with which of the following statements?

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
(A) The event they observed provides conclusive

evidence that anteaters use their electroreceptors
to locate unseen prey.



(B) The event they observed was atypical and may not
reflect the usual hunting practices of anteaters.

(C) It is likely that the anteaters located the ants'
nesting chambers without the assistance of
electroreceptors.



(D) Anteaters possess a very simple sensory system
for use in locating prey.

(E) The speed with which the anteaters located their
prey is greater than what might be expected on
the basis of chance alone.
































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13. According to the passage, by 1935 the skepticism of
Black workers toward unions was
When A. Philip Randolph assumed the
leadership of the Brotherhood of Sleeping Car
Porters, he began a ten-year battle to win recognition
from the Pullman Company, the largest private

employer of Black people in the United States and
the company that controlled the railroad industry's
sleeping car and parlor service. In 1935 the
Brotherhood became the first Black union recognized
by a major corporation. Randolph's efforts in the
battle helped transform the attitude of Black workers
toward unions and toward themselves as an
identifiable group; eventually, Randolph helped to
weaken organized labor's antagonism toward Black
workers.
(A) unchanged except among Black employees of
railroad-related industries
Line
(5)
(B) reinforced by the actions of the Pullman
Company’s union
(C) mitigated by the efforts of Randolph
(D) weakened by the opening up of many unions to
Black workers

(10)
(E) largely alleviated because of the policies of the
American Federation of Labor
14. In using the word “understandable” (line 14), the
author most clearly conveys
In the Pullman contest Randolph faced
formidable obstacles. The first was Black workers'
understandable skepticism toward unions, which had
historically barred Black workers from membership.
An additional obstacle was the union that Pullman

itself had formed, which weakened support among
Black workers for an independent entity.

(15)
(A) sympathy with attempts by the Brotherhood
between 1925 and 1935 to establish an
independent union
(B) concern that the obstacles faced by Randolph
between 1925 and 1935 were indeed formidable

(20)
The Brotherhood possessed a number of
advantages, however, including Randolph's own
tactical abilities. In 1928 he took the bold step of
threatening a strike against Pullman. Such a threat, on
a national scale, under Black leadership, helped
replace the stereotype of the Black worker as servant
with the image of the Black worker as wage earner.
In addition, the porters' very isolation aided the
Brotherhood. Porters were scattered throughout the
country, sleeping in dormitories in Black
communities; their segregated life protected the
union's internal communications from interception.
That the porters were a homogeneous group working
for a single employer with a single labor policy, thus
sharing the same grievances from city to city, also
strengthened the Brotherhood and encouraged racial
identity and solidarity as well. But it was only in the
early 1930's that federal legislation prohibiting a
company from maintaining its own unions with

company money eventually allowed the Brotherhood
to become recognized as the porters' representative.
(C) ambivalence about the significance of unions to
most Black workers in the 1920’s
(D) appreciation of the attitude of many Black
workers in the 1920’s toward unions

(25)
(E) regret at the historical attitude of unions toward
Black workers
15. The passage suggests which of the following about
the response of porters to the Pullman Company’s
own union?

(30)
(A) Few porters ever joined this union.
(B) Some porters supported this union before 1935.
(C) Porters, more than other Pullman employees,
enthusiastically supported this union.

(35)
(D) The porters’ response was most positive after
1935.
(E) The porters’ response was unaffected by the
general skepticism of Black workers concerning
unions.
Not content with this triumph, Randolph brought
the Brotherhood into the American Federation of
Labor, where it became the equal of the Federation's
105 other unions. He reasoned that as a member

union, the Brotherhood would be in a better position
to exert pressure on member unions that practiced
race restrictions. Such restrictions were eventually
found unconstitutional in 1944.

(40)




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18. The passage supplies information concerning which
of the following matters related to Randolph?
16. The passage suggests that if the grievances of porters
in one part of the United States had been different

from those of porters in another part of the country,
which of the following would have been the case?
(A) The steps he took to initiate the founding of the
Brotherhood
(A) It would have been more difficult for the Pullman
Company to have had a single labor policy.
(B) His motivation for bringing the Brotherhood into
the American Federation of Labor
(B) It would have been more difficult for the
Brotherhood to control its channels of
communication.
(C) The influence he had on the passage of legislation
overturning race restrictions in 1944
(D) The influence he had on the passage of legislation
to bar companies from financing their own unions
(C) It would have been more difficult for the
Brotherhood to build its membership.
(E) The success he and the Brotherhood had in
influencing the policies of the other unions in the
American Federation of Labor
(D) It would have been easier for the Pullman
Company's union to attract membership.
(E) It would have been easier for the Brotherhood to
threaten strikes.


17. The passage suggests that in the 1920's a company in
the United States was able to

(A) use its own funds to set up a union


(B) require its employees to join the company's own
union


(C) develop a single labor policy for all its employees
with little employee dissent


(D) pressure its employees to contribute money to
maintain the company's own union

(E) use its resources to prevent the passage of federal
legislation that would have facilitated the
formation of independent unions












S T O P
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

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11
SECTION 2
Time —25 minutes
20 Questions
Directions
: Each of the data sufficiency problems below consists of a question and two statements, labeled (1) and (2), in which
certain data are given. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the question. Using the
data given in the statements plus
your knowledge of mathematics and everyday facts (such as the number of days in July or the
meaning of counterclockwise), you are to fill in oval
A if statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked;
B if statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked;
C if BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is
sufficient;
D if EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked;
E if statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem
are needed.
Numbers
: All numbers used are real numbers.
Figures: A figure in a data sufficiency problem will conform to the information given in
the question, but will not necessarily conform to the additional information given
in statements (1) and (2).
You may assume that lines shown as straight are straight and that angle measures are greater than zero.
You may assume that the positions of points, angles, regions, etc., exist in the order shown.
All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
Note
: In questions that ask for the value of a quantity, the data given in the statements are
sufficient only when it is possible to determine exactly one numerical value for

the quantity.
Example
:
In ∆PQR, what is the value of x?

P


x◦

Q y◦ z◦ R

(1) PQ = PR
(2) y = 40


Explanation
: According to statement (1), PQ = PR; therefore, ∆PQR is isosceles and y = z. Since x + y + z = 180, it follows that x + 2y
= 180. Since Statement (1) does not give a value for y, you cannot answer the question using statement (1) alone. According to
Statement (2), y = 40; therefore, x + z = 140. Since statement (2) does not give a value for z, you cannot answer the question using
statement (2) alone. Using both statements together, since x + 2y = 180 and the value of y is given, you can find the value of x.
Therefore, the answer is C.



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12
A Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.

B Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.
C BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
D EACH Statement ALONE is sufficient.
E Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

1. Is x greater than 75 percent of y ?
7. If a certain grove consists of 36 pecan trees, what
was the yield per tree last year?
(1) x = 40
(1) The yield per tree for the 18 trees in the northern
half of the grove was 60 kilograms last year.
(2) y = 50

(2) The yield per tree for the 18 trees in the eastern
half of the grove was 55 kilograms last year.
2. The integer x is how much greater than 3 ?

(1)
10

000,100=
x
8. What was the percent increase in the value of a
certain antique from January 1, 1981, to December
31, 1981?
(2)
00001.0
10
1
=

x


(1) The value of the antique on January 1, 1981, was
$3,000.
3. A citrus fruit grower receives $15 for each crate of
oranges shipped and $18 for each crate of grapefruit
shipped. How many crates of oranges did the grower
ship last week?
(2) The value of the antique on December 31, 1981,
was double the value of the antique on January 1,
1981.
(1) Last week the number of crates of oranges that
the grower shipped was 20 more than twice the
number of crates of grapefruit shipped.

9. In the xy –plane, is point (2, – 3) on line ℓ ?
(1) Point (– 2, 3) is on line ℓ.
(2) Last week the grower received a total of $38,700
from the crates of oranges and grapefruit shipped.
(2) ℓ is not
perpendicular to the x – axis.


CA
x
yy
x

10. If r is represented by the decimal 0.t5, what is the

digit t ?


(1) r <
3
1

4. In the figure above, what is the length of AC ?
(2) r <
10
1

(1) x + y = 13
(2) xy = 36


11. Is
8<<
n
7
?
5. The charge for a telephone call between City R and
City S is $0.42 for each of the first 3 minutes and
$0.18 for each additional minute. A certain call
between these two cities lasted for x minutes, where
x is an integer. How many minutes long was the
call?
(1) n > 50
(2) n < 60



(1) The charge for the first 3 minutes of the call was
$0.36 less than the charge for the remainder of
the call.


(2) The total charge for the call was $2.88.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.


6. Is the integer P odd?

(1) The sum of P, P + 4, and P + 11 is even.

(2) The sum of P – 3, P, and P + 11 is odd.

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13







A Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
B Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.
C BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
D EACH Statement ALONE is sufficient.

E Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.


12. If a total of 84 students are enrolled in two sections of
a calculus course, how many of the 84 students are
female?
Q R



P S


(1)
3
2
of the students in Section 1 are female.


(2)
2
1
of the students in Section 2 are male.



13. What is the value of the greater of two numbers if
one of the numbers is twice the other number?
17. The figure above shows the shape of a flower bed. If
arc QR is a semicircle and PQRS is a rectangle

with QR > RS. What is the perimeter of the flower
bed?
(1) One number is 5.

(2) The sum of the two numbers is 15.
(1) The perimeter of rectangle PQRS is 28 feet.

(2) Each diagonal of rectangle PQRS is 10 feet
long.
14. If r > 0 and s > 0, is
r
s
s
r
<
?

18. If 4x = 5y = 10z, what is the value of x + y + z ?

(1)
4
1
3
=
s
r

(1) x - y = 6
(2) s = r + 4
(2) y + z = 36



15. Company R’s annual profit has increased by a
constant amount each calendar year since 1985. What
was Company R’s annual profit in 1991?
19. Committee X and Committee Y , which have no
common members, will combine to form Committee
Z . Does Committee X have more members than
Committee Y ?
(1) In 1985 Company R’s annual profit was
$212,000; in 1989 Company R’s annual profit
was $242,000.
(1) The average (arithmetic mean) age of the
members of Committee X is 25.7 years and the
average age of the members of Committee Y is
29.3 years.
(2) Company R’s annual profit has increased by
$7,500 each year since 1985.
(2) The average (arithmetic mean) age of the
members of Committee Z will be 26.6 years.

16 If x is an integer, is
x
2754 +
an integer?

20. What is the value of y ?
(1) 6

x


81

(1)

0127
2
=+−
yy
(2) x is a multiple of 3.

(2) y > 0




S T O P
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.






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SECTION 4
Time—25 minutes

22 Questions
Directions:
In each of the following sentences, some part of the sentence or the entire sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence
you will find five ways of phrasing the underlined part. The first of these repeats the original; the other four are different. If you think
the original is the best of these answer choices, choose answer A; otherwise, choose one of the others. Select the best version and fill
in the corresponding oval on your answer sheet.
This is a test of correctness and effectiveness of expression. In choosing answers, follow the requirements of standard written English;
that is, pay attention to grammar, choice of words, and sentence construction. Choose the answer that produces the most effective
sentence; this answer should be clear and exact, without awkwardness, ambiguity, redundancy, or grammatical error.
3. Because the financial review covered only the last
few fiscal years, and therefore the investigators were
unable to determine the extent of possible earlier
overpayments.
1. Machines replacing human labor, there was wide
anticipation that the workweek would continue to
become shorter.
(A) Machines replacing human labor, there was wide
anticipation that
(A) and therefore the investigators were unable to
determine the extent of possible
(B) When machines replaced human labor, there was
wide anticipation (B) so therefore the investigators were not capable of
determining the possible extent of
(C) As machines replaced human labor, it was widely
anticipated that (C) therefore the investigators were unable to
determine the possible extent of
(D) Insofar as machines replaced human labor, it was
widely anticipated
(D) the investigators were not capable of determining
the possible extent of

(E) Human labor being replaced by machines, there
was wide anticipation that
(E) the investigators were unable to determine the
extent of possible

4. At ground level, ozone is a harmful pollutant, but in
the stratosphere
it shields the Earth from the most
biologically harmful radiation emitted by the Sun,
radiation in the ultraviolet band of the spectrum.
2. More ancient Egyptian temples were constructed in
the reign of Ramses II as in any other
.
(A) as in any other
(A) in the stratosphere
(B) as any other
(B) in the stratosphere, in which
(C) as in others
(C) it is in the stratosphere in which
(D) than others
(D) in the stratosphere where
(E) than in any other
(E) it is in the stratosphere and










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