Đề thi HSG Tiếng Anh lớp 12 Quảng Ninh 2012-2013 bảng A - Học Toàn Tập

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Sở GD&ĐT Quảng Ninh kú thi chän häc sinh giái CẤPtØnh 
lớp 12 THPT năm học 2012 - 2013
§Ị thi CHÍNH THỨC

(ðề thi này có 08 trang)
Chữ ký giám thị Môn: Tiếng Anh (Bảng A)

Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao ñề.

SBD:

1: Ngày thi: 23/10/ 2012

Họ, tên thí sinh: Số phách

Ngày sinh: chấm lần 1:

2: Nơi sinh:

Học sinh trường:
Ban coi thi:

Số phách

chấm phúc khảo: ðiểm bài thi chấm lần 1:

Bằng số: ……….……….………
Bằng chữ:

……….……….…….

.

Họ tên, chữ ký của hai người
chấm lần 1:

………..…………
2:

……….……..……

Số phách chấm
lần 1:

Số phách
chấm phúc khảo:

ðiểm bài thi chấm phúc khảo:
Bằng số:

……….………...…...
Bằng chữ:

……….………...

Họ tên, chữ ký của hai người
chấm phúc khảo:

1: ………..………

2: ……….………..………..………

Ghi chú: Thí sinh trả lời ngay vào bài thi này. Nếu viết sai phải gạch bỏ rồi viết lại. 
I. LISTENING (4.0 points)

Activity 1: Complete the table below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR NUMBER for 
each answer. (1.2 points)

Name (1) _______________________
Date of birth (2) _______________________
Mobile number (3) _______________________
Home number (4) _______________________
Postcode (5) _______________________
Nationality (6) _______________________
City of birth (7) _______________________
ID card number (8) _______________________
E-mail (9) _______________________
Major (10) ______________________

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Task 1: People are talking about themselves and other family members. Which family member is the 
speaker most similar to? Listen and check () the correct answer.

Father Mother Sister Brother

1 Wen-ping

2 Michael

3 Justin

4 Susan

5 Robert

6 Beth

Task 2: Listen again. How is each family member different from the speaker? Write the letter.

1 Wen-ping’s brother ______ A. likes sports.

2 Michael’s brother ______ B. likes reading and music.
3 Justin’s sister ______ C. is taller than the father.
4 Susan’s father ______ D. prefers to play cards.
5 Robert’s sister ______ E. hates flying.

6 Beth’s father ______ F. isn’t interested in music.

Activity 3: Listen to the passage and answer Questions 1-8 by marking T for true or F for False. 
(1.6 points)

1. They are not going to move the students to the facilities in group._______
2. All agricultural Science students will stay where they are._______

3. History students will move to the new campus._______

4. Some history teachers will move immediately to the new campus._______
5. Engineering staff have already made their move._______

6. The philosophy department will move into the old Engineering building._______

7. Part of the faculty of Laws is in its new premises._______

8. The former Law premises may become an art gallery._______
II/PHONOLOGY, GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (4.0 points)

Activity 1: Circle the letter A, B, C or D next to the word that has the underlined part pronounced 
differently from the others in each question. (Do as example: 0- C) (0.5 point)

0. A. dental
1. A. weather
2. A. appear
3. A. flood
4. A. reason
5. A. option

B. send
B. length
B. clear
B. cook
B. usual
B. production

C. pretty
C. thin
C. tear
C. look
C. design
C. question

D. lend

D. thousand
D. bear
D. understood
D. music
D. tuition

Activity 2: Circle the letter A, B, C or D next to the best answer to compete each sentence below. 
(1.0 point)

1. Lucy was late for school this morning because the alarm clock didn’t _______ as usual.
A. ring off B. get off C. go off D. take off
2. - “Do you like that advanced training course you’re taking, James?”

- “ _______________”

A. No, not everyone B. By and large, yes
C. No, thanks D. Not me. I’m still waiting
3. “ If only we_______ about this service before!”

A. had known B. knew C. could have known D. could know
4. The children appear _______ about the trip.

A. exciting B. being excited C. to excite D. to be excited
5. They asked me a lot of questions, _______ I couldn’t answer.

A. most of which B. of which most C. most of that D. of that most
6. _______, the young woman was very happy after the birth of her child.

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7. Peter; “I thought your game was much better last night.”
Dave: “You’ve got to be kidding! _______”

A. I myself like it very much. B. I’m sure you enjoy it.
C. I thought it was terrible D. I am supposed it was not bad
8. Heavy snowfall made _______ planes to land or take off.

A. it impossible B. impossible for C. it impossible for D. impossible
9. - “Do you mind if I use your phone?”

- “_______”

A. Go ahead. B. Yes, certainly

C. Sorry, I have no idea. D. You can say that again.
10. She took a pullover_______ it turned chilly in the evening.

A. unless B. as long as C. in case D. whether

Activity 3: Read the text and fill in each gap with a suitable form of the word given in CAPITAL. The 
first has been done as an example. (1.0 point)

MOUNTAINEERING

Mountaineering is an almost unique sport, as the (0) climber is in
(1) ________________ with nature itself rather than with other humans.
For this reason it is an extremely (2) ________________ activity.
Nature does not follow any rules or (3) ________________ , and
can often play very (4) ________________ .

(5) ________________ mountaineers are quite aware of the risks
involved in their sport. Although they are (6) ________________ spirits

at heart, they have a full (7) ________________ of the vital

(8) ________________ measures necessary to keep them alive, and
never (9) ________________ put themselves in needless danger. On
the other hand, they say that the sense of (10) ________________ at
the end of the a climb is directly proportional to the risks involved.

CLIMB
COMPETE
DANGER
REGULATE
FAIR

PROFESSION
ADVENTURE
UNDERSTAND
SAFE

KNOW
ACHIEVE

Activity 4: Look carefully at each line. Some lines are correct but some have a word which should not 
be there. Tick (3) each correct line. If a line has a word which should not be there, write the word in 
the space. There are 2 examples (0) and (0 . (1.5 points)

Holiday Problems

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III. READING: (6.0 points)

Activity 1: You are going to read a text about television and reading. Some words are missing from the

text. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the text below. There is an example at the 
beginning (0). (1.5 points)

TELEVISION AND READING

Many people (0)___believe ____ that watching television has resulted in lower reading standards in
school.(1)__________, the link between television and printed books is not as simple as that. In many
(2)__________, television actually encourages people to read: for example, when a book is turned into a
TV series, (3)__________sales often go up.

One study of this link examined six-year-old children who (4)__________viewing a special series of
fifteen-minute programs at school. The series was designed to encourage love of books, as (5)__________
as to develop the basic mechanical skills of reading. Each program is an animated film of a children’s
book. The story is read aloud (6)__________ certain key phrases from the book appear on the screen,
beneath the picture. Whenever a word is read, it is also highlighted on the TV screen.

One finding was (7)__________ watching these programs was important to the children. If anything
prevented them (8)__________ seeing a program, they were very disappointed. What’s more, they
wanted to read the books (9)__________ the different parts of the series were based on.

The programs also gave the children (10)__________ confidence when looking at these books. As a
result of (11)__________ familiarity with the stories, they would sit in pairs and read the stories aloud to
(12)__________ other. On (13)__________ occasion, the children showed great sympathy when
discussing a character in a book because they themselves (14)__________ been moved when watching
the character (15)__________television.

Activity 2: Read the following passage and circle the letter A, B, C or D next to the right word in each 
number to complete the passage. (1.5 points)

BASKET BALL

(0)___In__ the spring of 1891, a young Canadian named James Naismith (1)__________ the staff of the
International YMCA Training School in Springfield, Massachusetts, where he was instructed to devise an
(2)__________ game that did not (3) __________ bodily contact, would not (4) __________ in damage
to the gym and in which every player had a (5)__________ to get in on the action. The game he invented
was basketball- or basket ball as it was (6)__________ until about 1912. Naismith hung peach baskets at
(7)__________ end of the gym and used a soccer ball to play with. The first game, in December 1891,
was played (8) __________ two teams of nine men each and was not exactly a classic. The final
(9)__________ was 1-0 . (10)__________ an off- season recreation, basketball took (11)__________ in
a big way, largely because it was cheap and easy to (12)__________ up. Oddly, although peach baskets
were soon (13)__________ by nets, until 1912 it didn’t (14)__________ to anyone to cut a hole in the
bottom of them. Until then it was necessary (15) __________ someone to climb a ladder and retrieve the
ball after each score.

0. A. At
1. A. enrolled
2. A. inside
3. A. contain
4. A. cause
5. A. chance
6. A. named
7. A. opposite
8. A. against
9. A. goal
10.A. As
11.A. up
12.A. get
13.A. replaced
14.A. think
15.A. that

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Activity 3: Read the passage and choose the best answer for the questions following. (2.0 points) 
The first six planets have been known to mankind for all of our recorded history. (A) But the final three
planets, Uranus, Neptune, and Pluto, are not visible in the night sky without the help of a telescope. (B)
Their discovery had to wait until the invention of telescopes. Uranus, the seventh planet, was the first to
be discovered in 1781 by William Herschel. (C) This proved to be an important breakthrough, 
because by studying unexpected changes in the planet’s orbit, scientists could infer that it was being
affected by the gravity of another, unknown planet. That unknown planet proved to be Neptune. It was
found in 1846 with the help of calculation based on the abnormalities in Uranus’ orbit, which told 
scientists where in the sky to look for Neptune. The discovery of these two planets proved to be relatively
easy because both Uranus and Neptune are gas giants, huge planets many times the size of the Earth. 
This made them relatively easy to find, even with the telescopes of the 18th and 19th centuries. (D)
Finding the ninth planet, Pluto, proved to be a much harder task because it is not even as large as our
moon, and it is over a thousand times more distant. Again, the first clues to the planet’s existence came
from the orbits of other planets. After studying Neptune, it did not seem that it could explain all the
changes in the orbit of Uranus. Scientists guessed there was another planet out there but they could not
find it. They labeled the missing planet “Planet X.” The first serious attempt to find Planet X came in
1915, when astronomer Percival Lowell made it his mission to find the planet. Lowell spent over a year
studying the night sky. He discovered many other objects, including over 700 new stars. But he did not
find the missing planet and died a disappointed man.

Success came in 1930, when Clyde Tombaugh used a new method to search for the planet. He took
thousands of pictures of the night sky. Then he searched for any unknown objects that were moving
against the background of the stars, which remain in the same place in the night sky. Using this method he
found a small point of light, which turned out to be Pluto.

1. The word “This” in the passage refers to _________.

A. The invention of the telescope B. The discovery of Uranus
C. The visibility of the final three planets. D. The discovery of gravity.

2. According to paragraph 1, why was the discovery of Uranus important? 
A. It made scientists want to look for other planets.

B. It indirectly led to the discovery of Neptune and Pluto.

C. It helped scientists understand how orbits are affected by gravity.
D. It led to improvements in the quality of telescopes.

3. The word breakthrough in the passage is closest in meaning to_________. 
A. advance B. accident C. experiment D. task
4. The word abnormalities in the passage is closest in meaning to

A. typical characteristics B. unusual qualities

C. known facts D. important information

5. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in 
the passage? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways of leave out essential

information.

A. The discovery of Neptune and Uranus was only possible because they are such huge planets.
B. The fact that Uranus and Neptune are such enormous planets made finding them a relatively simple
task.

C. Huge gas giants like Uranus and Neptune are much easier to find than planets as small as the Earth.
D. It is easier to prove the existence of gas giants like Neptune and Uranus because they are so much
larger than the Earth.

6. According to the passage, what can be inferred about the telescopes?

A. The first telescopes were invented by William Herschel.

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7. Why does the author discuss the Earth’s moon in paragraph 2? 
A. To better explain the orbit of Pluto

B. To give an example of an object that is easily visible

C. To suggest there are many similarities between the moon and Pluto
D. To better illustrate why Pluto was so hard to find.

8. According to the passage, all of the following are true of Pluto EXCEPT_________. 
A. it was discovered accidentally

B. it was the last planet to be discovered
C. it was discovered by tracking its motion

D. it was discovered using new methods of searching for planets

9. Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence could be added to the
passage.

While early civilizations may not have understood that these objects were planets, they were clearly 
visible in the sky.

Where would the sentence best fit?

A B C D

10. According to the passage, all of the following are true of Uranus EXCEPT

A. Irregular orbit B. Easily seen with telescope

C. First discovered in 1781 D. Most distant planet

Activity 4: You are going to read a magazine article about a mountain in Africa. Five sentences have
been removed from the article. Choose from the sentences A-F the one which fits each gap. There is 
one extra sentence which you do not need to use. (1.0 point)

A. Those who do so will be rewarded by what they see.

B. As a result of this, trekkers will go through several different climates in the course
of only five or six days.

C. Even so, surprisingly few people make it all the way there.
D. This is the most difficult path to follow.

E. If you’d like to join them, it’s essential to select the route that is most appropriate for you.
F. At such times, that kind of beauty appears almost supernatural.

On a clear day Mount Kilimanjaro is visible from Nairobi. However, when the sun is low and
the clouds light, the enormous, snow-capped peak appears to be floating in space. 1 
Kilimanjaro is 5895m above sea level and is on the equator. 2 They’ll start in
Tropical temperatures, go through milder weather to high alpine desert and then permanently
snow-capped summits.

Despite its tremendous altitude, it is possible to get to the top without any technical climbing ability. With
its accessible slopes, abundance of porters and relatively mild climate, the trek to

the summit is considered a moderately easy climb in mountaineering circles. 3

The ascent is recognised as one of the great walks of the world by the climbers who complete
it. 4 They will take home memories of colourful scenery, stunning natural

beauty, warm and friendly locals and a unique sense of isolation. This last impression is reinforced when
they realized that until more than 100 years ago, nobody had ever climbed this vast volcano.

Ever since Hans Meyer’s first ascent in 1889, more and more people have tacked the mountain.
5 Be aware of the scenic variety, remoteness and popularity of each option, but

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IV/ WRITING: (6.0 points)

Activity 1: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one. Use between 
two and five words, including the word given. Do not change the word given. (2.0 points)

1. Her parents don’t like her coming home late. (approve)

Her parents don’t _____________________________________ home late.
2. People say that Prague is a wonderful city. (supposed)

Prague _________________________________________________ a wonderful city.
3. “I’m terribly sorry I’m late,” said Flora. (apologized)

Flora ____________________________________________________ late.
4. Your brother is more intelligent than mine. (as)

My brother ___________________________________________ yours.
5. I’ve never seen such a beautiful sunset before. (I)

That’s the ______________________________________ ever seen.
6. Dimitri paid someone to repair his CD player. (had)

Dimitri __________________________________________ repaired.
7. When I lent him the money, I had no idea he was rich. (known)

If I ____________________________________, I wouldn’t have lent him the money.
8. He wanted to relax, so he took up yoga. (order)

He took up yoga _____________________________________ relax.
9. He will be allowed to leave prison soon. (let)

They _______________________________________ prison soon.
10. The authorities forced my brother to join the army. (made)
My brother ____________________________________ the army.

Activity 2: Finish each of the following sentences using the cues. You can make all necessary changes 
and additions. (1.0 points)

1. fire / start / kitchen / because / I / forget / turn off / electric cooker //.

__________________________________________________________________________
2. Last Sunday/ while / Mary / clean out / attic / come across / grandmother / wedding dress //.

__________________________________________________________________________
3. Although / parents / busy / work / try / spend / much / time / for / children / possible//.
__________________________________________________________________________
4. police / accuse / steal / money / but / he / deny / take //.

__________________________________________________________________________
5. brother / be / good / accompany / people / sing / guitar //.

__________________________________________________________________________
Activity 3: Write a passage of about 200 words about the following topic:

“How important is university education to you?” If important, give reasons why and say what you need 
to do to win a place at university. If not, give the reasons why? (3.0 points)

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