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Tải Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 huyện Tam Đảo, Vĩnh Phúc năm học 2015 - 2016 - Đề khảo sát đội tuyển học sinh giỏi môn tiếng Anh lớp 9 có đáp án

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<b>UBND HUYỆN TAM ĐẢO</b>
<b>PHỊNG GD&ĐT</b>


<b></b>
<b>---ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC</b>


ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT ĐỘI TUYỂN HỌC SINH GIỎI
NĂM HỌC 2015-2016


MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 9


<i>Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)</i>
<i>(Đề bài gồm 05 trang)</i>


<b>PART I: LISTENING</b>


<b>SECTION</b> <b>1</b> <b>Questions</b> <b>1-10</b>


<i><b>Questions 1 – 3 Choose the correct letters A, B, C or D:</b></i>
<i><b>1. Which city does the lady call the most?</b></i>


A. Brisbane B. Melbourne C. Sydney D. Perth
<b>2. The cost of a national call per minute is ____________.</b>


A. 10 cents B. 3 cents C. 6 cents D. 15 cents
<b>3. The telephone connection fee to the USA is __________.</b>


A. 50 cents B. 6 cents C. 13 cents D. 15 cents


<i><b>Questions</b></i> <i><b>4</b></i> <i><b>-</b></i> <i><b>6</b></i> <i><b>Complete</b></i> <i><b>the</b></i> <i><b>form</b></i> <i><b>below.</b></i>



<b>Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.</b>
Cheap Calls Unlimited:


New Customer Form


<b>Name</b> Mandy (4) _____________
<b>Address</b> 10 Hazlewood St, Belmont, 4173
<b>Telephone</b> (5) ________________


<b>Date of Birth</b> 13/7/72


<b>Email</b> (6) _________@______________


<i><b>Questions</b></i> <i><b>7</b></i> <i><b>and</b></i> <i><b>8</b></i> <i><b>Choose</b></i> <i><b> TWO </b></i> <i><b>letters</b></i> <i><b>A-E</b></i>


<b>What TWO reasons does the operator give for providing the date of birth?</b>
A. for security


B. to make a payment


C. to request details about the account
D. to change the account password
E. to make a patment


<i><b>Question 9 and 10</b></i> <i><b> Choose the correct letters A, B or C:</b></i>
<i>9. The customer's new telephone service will start ___________.</i>


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10. The customer will receive the bill _____________.


A. every three months B. every two months C. every month


<b>SECTION 2</b>


<i><b>Questions 1 – 5. Complete the notes below.</b></i>


<i><b>Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.</b></i>
Assessment Overview


Semester consists of (1) ________________ assessments: Oral report: 20%
Essay: 20%


(2) ___________: 60%
Oral report


Individual presentations


PowerPoint to be used for delivery


Go to (3)___________ for more information


Essay


Total words: (4)_____________
Topics available: (5) ______________
Will be come from course readings booklet
<b>PART II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR</b>


<b>I. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones.</b>


1. Our environment is seriously polluted, so it is high time for us to keep our environment
________.



A. clean B. cleanly C. cleanliness D. cleanse


2. Thanks a lot. Without your help, I __________ my work.
A. can hardly finish B. could hardly finish


C. cannot hardly finish D. could not hardly finish
3. Linda: “Thanks for the nice gift you brought to us!”
Jennifer: “_________”


A. All right. Do you know how much it costs? B. Not at all. Don’t mention it
C. Actually speaking, I myself don’t like it. D. Welcome! It’s nice of you.


4. Green turtles can migrate more than 1,400 miles to ________ their eggs.


A. lie B. lain C. laid D. lay


5. Burning oil and coal releases gases which are harmful ________ humans.


A. with B. for C. to D. on


6. They ___________ at work.


A. allow not to be worn jeans B. are not allowed being wear jeans
C. are not allowed to wear jeans D. do not allow to wear jeans


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A. where B. which C. that D. in that
8. So far there ___________ nine national parks established in Vietnam.


A. are B will be C. had been D. have been



9. Salt and ice can be used to ___________ food.


A. contaminate B. pollute C. include D. preserve


10. There is no _____________ for us to call and tell him what he should have done.
A. necessity B. necessary C. necessarily D. necessitous


<b> II. Each line in the following passage contains 01 mistake. IDENTIFY and CORRECT them.</b>
<b>(0) has been done as an example. Write your answers in the numbered blanks below</b>


<b>Lines</b>
<b>0</b>
<b>1</b>
<b>2</b>
<b>3</b>
<b>4</b>
<b>5</b>
<b>6</b>
<b>7</b>
<b>8</b>
<b>9</b>
<b>10</b>


<b>Collecting stamps</b>


The collecting of postage stamps is an hobby that interests people of all ages and all
walks of life. The more valuable stamp in the world is the one-cent British Guiana
magenta of 1856. Only one copy is known to exist; it is valued at about $50,000. There
are another stamps worth several thousands dollars while many others are valued at


hundreds of dollars. Yet most stamps are very expensive. There are hundreds of stamps
worth a few dollars and many more hundreds that you may buy with a few cents. So you
see that stamp collecting is not merely a rich man’s hobby. Each stamp collection finds
his own stamps fascinating, no matter how much or how many money he spends on
them. The reason is that there is always a story behind postage stamps. The countries in
the world use them as a mean of telling the world about their industries, their culture,
and their great men. They also use stamps to celebrate importance events in his history.
So while a stamp collector is enjoying hobby, he is also storing up knowledge about all
kinds of things from every corner of the globe.


Answers: Line Mistake Correction
0 an a


<b>III. Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION or PARTICLE. Write your answers in</b>
<b>the numbered blanks provided below the passage.</b>


1. If parents don’t get _____ very well, their children will be unhappy.
2. The firemen were able to put _________ the fire quickly.


3. I wish I hadn’t said it. If only I could turn the clock ___________.


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5. I couldn’t make _________ the peak of the mountain in the foggy weather.
<b>IV. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word. </b>


It’s a marvelous idea for children to do some cooking at an early age. Generally (1)
_________________ (SPEAK), most children can’t wait to help in the kitchen and love getting
involved in the (2) _________________ (PREPARE) of their meals. They should be (3)
_______________ (COURAGE) to do so, and care should be taken to (4) _____________
(SURE) they enjoy the experience. It is important to show them how to do things (5)
________________ (CORRECT) but they shouldn’t be criticized too much. Although the finished


result may not be quite to your (6) _________________ (LIKE), the young cook will undoubtedly
find it quite the (7) ________________ (TASTE) food he or she has ever eaten.


Kitchens can, of course, be (8) _________________ (ENDANGER) places and so the absolute
(9) _________________ (IMPORTANT) of keeping an eye on children at all times cannot be
emphasized too (10) __________________ (HEAVY). Sharp knives, for example, should be
avoided until children are old enough to handle them safely.


<b>PART III. READING</b>


I. Fill in each blank space with an appropriate word.


Around 1990, people ___________ (1) many countries lived in New Orleans. Musicians in
New Orleans started to play a new kind of music. It was _________ (2) jazz. It is kind of a mixture
of many different kinds of music, for example, African, blues, European, church music, and work
songs. Most early jazz __________ (3) are African American. They played in small bands and they
didn’t write _________ (4) their music. They learned to work together to produce a loose and
relaxed beat that was __________ (5) powerful that listeners can’t help but dance, or at least move
their feet along ___________ (6) it. And soon white musicians were playing jazz, too.


Around 1920, jazz music began to spread. Jazz musicians ___________ (7) from city to
city. People listened jazz records. They heard jazz __________ (8) the radio. In the 1930s and
1940s, jazz was popular in the U.S and Canada. The music was called swing and it was played in
big bands. It was said that there are still a few bands made up of very old musicians ____________
(9) the old-style jazz in a club in New Orleans. They play jazz ____________ (10) four or a half
hours each evening so many tourists go there and listen.


<b>II. Read the following text carefully and choose the answer which best fits each space:</b>


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non-verbal communication can ____________ (3) more accurately what a person is feeling. Body


language always speaks the truth, ________ (4) words can often be misleading


For successful communication both at work and at home, an understanding of body
language is important. At work, non-verbal communication is ________ (5) to power. People in
charge tend to lean _______ (6) in their chairs, fold their hands behind their heads and ______ (7)
their feet up on the desk. They usually dominate conversations, both talking and interrupting more
than others. Those who _______ (8) orders, on the other hand, are much less relaxed and tend to sit
on the edge of their chairs with their arms tightly folded.


Body language plays an equally important role at home. Children are particularly quick to
pick ________ (9) on non-verbal signals and can distinguish ______ (10) what is said and what is
really meant.


1. A. in B. for C. to D. by


2. A. full B. whole C. partial D. total


3. A. explain B. announce C. publish D. reveal


4. A. except B. so C. whereas D. therefore


5. A. associated B. related C. combined D. reserved


6. A. away B. behind C. back D. against


7. A. lie B. lay C. deposit D. put


8. A. do B. give C. lead D. follow


9. A. out B. over C. at D. up



10. A. between B. among C. from D. that


<b>III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. Write your answers in the</b>
<b>numbered blanks provided below the passage. </b>


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songs remain as famous as they were when they first came out. Throughout the world many people
can sing part of a Beatles song if you ask them.


1. The passage is mainly about ______________.


A. How the Beatles became more successful than other groups
B. Why the Beatles split up after 7 years


C. Many people’s ability to sing a Beatles song
D. The Beatles’ fame and success.


2. The four boys of the Beatles _____________.


A. came from the same family B. were at the same age


C. came from a town in the north of England D. received good training in music
3. The word “sensational” is closet in meaning to ________________.


A. notorious B. bad C. shocking D. popular
4. The first song of the Beatles were ____________.


A. written by themselves B. broadcast on the radio
C. paid a lot of money D. written by black Americans
5. What is NOT true about the Beatles?



A. They became famous when they wrote their own songs.
B. They had a long stable career.


C. The members had no training in music.
D. They were afraid of being hurt by fans.


6. The Beatles stopped their live performance because ____________.


A. they spent more time writing their won songs B. they had earned enough money


C. they did not want to work together D. They were afraid of being hurt by fans
7. The year 1970 was the time when _____________.


A. they started their career B. they changed pop music


C. they split up D. they stopped doing live performances
8. What the fans of the Beatles often did was _________________.


A. ask them to write more songs B. take their clothes as souvenirs
C. sing together with them D. ask them why they should separate
9. Some songs of the Beatles now _____________.


A. are still famous as they used to be B. became too old to sing
C. are sung by crazy fans D. are the most famous
10. The tone of the passage is that of _________.


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<b>PART IV. WRITING </b>


<b>I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence</b>


<b>printed before it.</b>


1. You can’t visit the United States if you don’t have a visa.
Unless _________________________________.


2. Please don’t make noise here.


I’d_______________________________________.


3. He wore dark glasses so that no one would recognize him
He avoided _________________________________.
4. It is not my habit to go to bed so late.


I am not __________________________________
5. They had hardly gone out when it rained heavily.
Hardly _____________________________.


<b>II. Within 150 to 180 words, write a paragraph about your ideas of a happy life.</b>


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<b>UBND HUYỆN TAM ĐẢO</b>
<b>PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO</b>


<b></b>


<b>---HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM</b>


<b>ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN </b>
NĂM HỌC 2015 - 2016


MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 9


<b>Total: 120 points</b>


<b>PART I: LISTENING (30pts)</b>
<b>SECTION 1 (20pts)</b>


1.C 2.B 3. D 4. Silverstone 5. 55223481


6. 7,8: A, C 9. B 10.C
<b>SECTION 2 (10 pts)</b>


1. 4/ four 2. exams/ 2 exams 3. (the) library 4. 1,500 words 5. (by)next lecture
<b>PART II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (35pts)</b>


<b>I. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones. (10pts)</b>


1. A 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. C


6. C 7. A 8. D 9. D 10. A


<b>II. Each line in the following passage contains 01 mistake. IDENTIFY and CORRECT them.</b>
<b>(0) has been done as an example. Write your answers in the numbered blanks below (10pts)</b>


Line Mistake Correction


1. more Most


2. another Other


3. thousands Thousand



4. very Not


5. with For


6. collection Collector


7. many Little


8. mean Means


9. importance Important


10. his Their


<b>III. Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION or PARTICLE. Write your answers in</b>
<b>the numbered blanks provided below the passage. (5pts)</b>


1. on 2. out 3. back 4. on 5. out


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1. speaking 2. preparation 3. encouraged 4. ensure 5. correctly
6. likeness 7. tasteful 8. dangerous 9. importance 10. heavily
<b>PART III. READING (30pts)</b>


I. Fill in each blank space with an appropriate word. (10pts)


1. from 2. called 3. musicians 4. down 5. so


6. with 7. moved 8. on playing 10. for


<b>II. Read the following text carefully and choose the answer which best fits each space (10pts) </b>



1.A 2. B 3. D 4. C 5.B


6. C 7. D 8. D 9. C 10.A


<b>III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. Write your answers in the</b>
<b>numbered blanks provided below the passage. (10pts)</b>


1. D 2. C 3. C 4. D 5.B


6. D 7. C 8. B 9. A 10.A


<b>PART IV. WRITING (25pts)</b>


<b>I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence</b>
<b>printed before it. (5pts)</b>


1. Unless you have a visa, you can’t visit the United States
2. I’d rather you didn’t make noise here.


3. He avoided being recognized by wearing dark glasses.
4. I am not used to going to bed so late.


5. Hardly had they gone out when it rained heavily.


<b>II. Within 150 to 180 words, write a paragraph about your ideas of a happy life. (20pts)</b>
<b>Marking scheme</b>


The impression mark given is based on the following scheme:



<b>1. Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate</b>


<b>2. Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of</b>
English language gifted upper-secondary school students


<b>3. Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of</b>
English language gifted upper-secondary school students.


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<b>---AUDIO TRASCRIPT</b>



<b>SECTION 1 </b>
<i><b>Questions 1 - 10</b></i>


Adam Hello Cheap Calls Unlimited, this is Adam O’Shaughnessy. How can I help you?
Mandy I heard something on the TV the other day about cheap local and national calls. Do


you have a new offer available at the moment?


Adam That's right! You would have heard about our special no-limit offer.
Mandy How does it work? How can I save?


Adam Well, do you make many calls outside your local area?


Mandy Yes, as a matter of fact, I often call my mother-in-law in Sydney and I sometimes call
Perth and Melbourne, we've got family there


Adam OK. Where are you calling from?
Mandy Brisbane


Adam Right! This would be perfect for you. How it works is you tell us which city you call


the most and we set up our special offer of 3 cents per minute no matter what time of
the day you call. But it gets better! We also offer you 10-cent local calls. No other
telephone carrier can offer you such a cheap plan!


Mandy Wow! That is cheaper than what I currently pay. But, what about international calls. I
often call America. What are your rates to The States?


Adam Our rates to the USA are also competitive. You can call America for 6 cents per
minute – this also includes a connection fee of 15 cents.


Mandy That's competitive all right! So…how do I sign up?


Adam Well, we can do it right here over the phone if you like…or I can send you out an
application form…or I can email you the details with the form attached. Which would
you prefer?


Mandy How long will it take over the phone?
Adam Just a matter of 4 or 5 minutes.
Mandy OK, let's do it now.


Adam Right then, first off, I need your name and address


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Adam Good, now what about your telephone number, date of birth and do you have an email
address?


Mandy Yes. The telephone is 55 22 3481 my date of birth is July 13, 1972 and my email
address is 's M-A-N-D-Y at T-E-L-E dot com…why do you need
my date of birth?


Adam Right…OK. Yes, we request your date of birth for security reasons. We will ask you


for this each time you call us to request information about your account… not for
making a payment…but, you know…if you wish to change any of your details…or
change your plan…you know…those kinds of things


Mandy Ok, I understand


Adam OK… Right…well, we're finished. Do you have any other questions at all?
Mandy Yes, when does this new service actually start?


Adam Yes, I'm going to send the information to our sales department. They will process it
today and your new service will be ready tomorrow. By next month you will really
start to experience the savings!


Mandy Fantastic. OK that's all I wanted to know…Oh, when will I receive the bill?


Adam That'll be one month from the day you signed up. It will be sent on the same day
every month thereafter…unless you request a change. We can send them every two or
every three months if you would prefer?




<b>SECTION 2 </b>
<i><b>Questions 1 - 5</b></i>


Dr.
Thomas


…Ok, I’d like to take a moment now to talk about the assessment requirements
for this semester. Firstly as you can clearly see, on your handout, there are 4
assessments this semester – an oral report, an essay and two exams. They are


weighted 20% each for the oral report and the essay and the remaining 60% as
you can see is divided equally between the two exams. Yes, John.


Student 1
(Man)


Yes, Dr. Thomas, regarding the oral report, can we present this with a partner or
must they be handled individually?


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or 3. This year, we’ve decided to try them singly and see how they go. We’re
certainly not locked into any one way…all we do ask is that you use PowerPoint
for your presentations. The university has all the equipment you will need to
deliver the presentation, further details can be found at the Library… Yes, young
lady at the back…


Student 2
(woman)


I noticed that there is no word limit given on the essay. Can you give us some
more details about that?


Dr Thomas Actually, the limit is listed…it just happens to be on the next page…a technical
problem with the printing! Now you’ll be pleased to hear that we’ve reduced the
word count on the essay from last year. Before it was 2000 now it’s fifteen
hundred…so that gives you some more time for your oral report, right!


Student 2 Can you give us any indication of the topics that will be available…
Dr T Ahh, not at the moment.


Student 2 None at all? I’d like to make an early start on it if I can..



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